Search Results

Search found 23890 results on 956 pages for 'issue'.

Page 759/956 | < Previous Page | 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766  | Next Page >

• View Controller's viewDidLoad method finishing before applicationDidFinishLaunching

  - by mwt

  I'm creating a fairly complex iPhone app using Core Data. Up until now, things have been working fine. As the app has been getting more complex, however, a new problem has come up: the first view controller is finishing its viewDidLoad method before the AppDelegate gets even halfway through its applicationDidFinishLaunching method. The view controller is not the root, which is a tab bar controller. The VC in question is the one for the default selected tab on the tab bar. It's getting instantiated by IB. Nothing like this has occurred before in my experience, and it's throwing off the important initialization I'm doing in the AppDelegate (getting objects from Core Data and preparing them for use) . Furthermore, it's intermittent -- sometimes the delegate does finish first. Has anyone else noticed a difficulty like this? Any sample code that deals with such an issue? I suppose that the answer is to make the VC load the data that the AppDelegate is getting ready only when the AppDelegate sends a message that it's ready. I'm a bit concerned that this is adding something that will just end up biting me in the butt later on.

  Read the article

• jquery autocomplete & masterpage

  - by Caroline

  Hi everyone, first time posting here, so hello to all :-) I'm pretty new to the jQuery thing, but I got the autocomplete function running quite well on a simple aspx page. Now I wanted to use the same function on an aspx-page with a masterpage, and it doesnt work anymore. this test function works fine: $(document).ready(function () { $("[id$=AlertButton]").click(function () { alert("Welcome jQuery !"); }); }); but this simply does nothing: $(document).ready(function () { $("[id$=Suchen]").autocomplete("AutocompleteData.ashx"); }); the javascript and css files are loaded in the master page, just above the contentplaceholder. the code within the contentplaceholder looks like this: <atlas:ScriptManager id="SM1" runat="server" EnablePartialRendering="true" > <Services> <atlas:servicereference path="~/xxxxx.asmx" /> </Services> </atlas:ScriptManager> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("[id$=Suchen]").autocomplete("AutocompleteData.ashx"); }); </script> <br /> <asp:Button ID="AlertButton" runat="server" Text="Button" /> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="Suchen" Width="250" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> if I execute the .ashx page on its own, it fires back the expected data... I've been browsing tons of pages, but couldn't resolve the issue. I'd be glad for any input!!! Thanks alot & all the best, Caroline

  Read the article

• Created nested model setting a property on nested model before save

  - by CWitty

  I have two models a Company and a User the Company has_many :users and the User belongs_to :company. I have a form such as: <%= form_for @company, data: {toggle: :validator}, novalidate: "novalidate", html: {role: :form} do |f| %> company fields Then in there I have <%= f.fields_for :users, @company.users.build do |user_form| %> A bunch of user fields It posts the data with the nested attributes of users_attributes: {"0" => {name: "Chad"}} But it doesn't create the user only the company object. Company Model class Company < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users, dependent: :destroy has_many :contacts, dependent: :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :users accepts_nested_attributes_for :contacts attr_accessor :card_token, :users_attributes before_create :create_company_customer_token before_create :create_admin_user before_destroy :set_deleted_flag validates_presence_of :name, :phone_number private def create_admin_user self.users.first.admin = true end def set_deleted_flag self.deleted = true save users.each do |u| u.destroy end false end def create_company_customer_token begin customer = Stripe::Customer.create(description: "Company: #{self.name}", card: self.card_token, plan: self.plan) self.stripe_customer_id = customer['id'] rescue Stripe::StripeError => e self.errors.add(:stripe_customer_id, "Looks like we are having an issue at the moment, please try again shortly") @logger ||= Rails.logger @logger.error(e) end end end User Model class User < ActiveRecord::Base include Clearance::User has_many :messages belongs_to :company before_destroy :set_deleted_flag after_create :send_welcome_email validates_presence_of :first_name, :last_name validates_uniqueness_of :email, scope: :company_id, conditions: -> { where.not(deleted: true) } def name "#{first_name} #{last_name}" end private def set_deleted_flag self.deleted = true save end def send_welcome_email UserMailer.welcome_email(self).deliver end end

  Read the article

• Authlogic, logout and credential capture

  - by Paddy

  Ok this is something weird. I got authlogic-oid installed in my rails app today. Everything works perfectly fine but for one small nuisance. This is what i did: I first register with my google openid. Successful login, redirection and my email, along with my correct openid is stored in my database. I am happy that everything worked fine! Now when i logout, my rails app as usual destroys the session and redirects me back to my root url where i can login again. Now if i try to login it still remembers my last login id. Not a big issue as i can always "Sign in as a different user" but i am wondering if there is anyway to not only logout from my app but also logout from google. I noticed the same with stack overflow's openid authentication system. Why am i so bothered about this, you may ask. But is it not a bad idea if your web apps end user, who happens to be in a cyber cafe, thinks he has logged out from your app and hence from his google account only to realize later that his google account had got hacked by some unworthy loser who just happened to notice that the one before had not logged out from google and say.. changed his password!! Should i be paranoid?

  Read the article

• jquery slide toggle divs without creating multiple classes, functions, etc... ui accordion

  - by SPE

  Greetings, based on the jquery ui accordion I'm using, I have added a slide toggle to my accordion list items. so what happens is I click on an li and a div slides down underneath to reveal more content. The issue I'm having is that I find myself having to create multiple id's to reference the slidetoggle. example of the div id css: #panel, #panel2, #panel3, #panel4, etc.... the Is there a way I can use the slide toggle without having to adding another number so it will slide? I have 50 list items I'm using: Here's a sample of the js (as you can see where I'm going with this): $(".btn-slide").click(function(){ $("#panel").slideToggle("slow"); $(this).toggleClass("active"); return false; }); $(".btn-slide2").click(function(){ $("#panel2").slideToggle("slow"); $(this).toggleClass("active"); return false; }); sample html: <li><div class="slide"><a href="#" class="btn-slide">One</a></div><div id="panel"></div></li> <li><div class="slide"><a href="#" class="btn-slide2">Two</a></div><div id="panel2"></div></li>

  Read the article

• Loading GMaps via ajax

  - by Marco

  Hi to all, I'm loading a page containing a GMaps using the ajax() method of jQuery. The HTML page i'm loading is: <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;sensor=false&amp;key=MY_API_KEY" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); geocoder.getLatLng("San Francisco, California",function(point) { if (point) { map.setCenter(point, 7); } }); map.setUIToDefault(); } }); </script> <div id="map_canvas"></div> After retrieving this page, I'm setting its contents to a div using the html() method. The map is not showed, while other pages containing scripts, loaded in the same way, are correctly shown. Is this a specific issue about GMaps, that doesn't allow to be loaded via an ajax request? Thanks

  Read the article

• UITextView - text shifts out of view when editing

  - by Jeff

  I have a tableHeaderView with a UITextView in it. The view loads from a nib. The UITextView does not have any scrolling turned on. The reason I am using it is simply that it wraps text over two lines. I gave it just enough room to fit two lines of text. The data that I prepopulate works just fine, and is aligned in the center vertically whether it is two or one line. The problem is that when I edit the cell via the UI, the text shifts up to the point that the top half of it is cut off. When exiting editing, it stays this way. Not sure I have any relevant code to show, but hopefully the explanation makes sense. I can't seem to find anyone else having this issue and I cannot imagine what it could be. I've played around with turning scrolling on and off, toying with the size of the field, and everything else I could play with to no avail. Thanks Jeff

  Read the article

• UITableViewCell Custom accessory - get the row of accessory

  - by Emil

  Hi. I have a pretty big issue. I am trying to create a favorite-button on every UITableViewCell in a UITableView. That works very good, and I currently have an action and selector performed when pressed. accessory = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [accessory setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"star.png"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; accessory.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 15, 15); accessory.userInteractionEnabled = YES; [accessory addTarget:self action:@selector(didTapStar) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; cell.accessoryView = accessory; And selector: - (void) didTapStar { UITableViewCell *newCell = [tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:???]; accessory = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [accessory setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"stared.png"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; accessory.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 26, 26); accessory.userInteractionEnabled = YES; [accessory addTarget:self action:@selector(didTapStar) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchDown]; newCell.accessoryView = accessory; } Now, here's the problem: I want to know what row the accessory that was pressed belongs to. How can I do this? Thank you :)

  Read the article

• How to express inter project dependencies in Eclipse PDE

  - by Roland Tepp

  I am looking for the best practice of handling inter project dependencies between mixed project types where some of the projects are eclipse plug-in/OSGI bundle projects (an RCP application) and others are just plain old java projects (web services modules). Few of the eclipse plug-ins have dependencies on Java projects. My problem is that at least as far as I've looked, there is no way of cleanly expressing such a dependency in Eclipse PDE environment. I can have plug-in projects depend on other plug-in projects (via Import-Package or Require-Bundle manifest headers), but not of the plain java projects. I seem to be able to have project declare a dependency on a jar from another project in a workspace, but these jar files do not get picked up by neither export nor launch configuration (although, java code editing sees the libraries just fine). The "Java projects" are used for building services to be deployed on an J2EE container (JBoss 4.2.2 for the moment) and produce in some cases multiple jar's - one for deploying to the JBoss ear and another for use by client code (an RCP application). The way we've "solved" this problem for now is that we have 2 more external tools launcher configurations - one for building all the jar's and another for copying these jar's to the plug-in projects. This works (sort of), but the "whole build" and "copy jars" targets incur quite a large build step, bypassing the whole eclipse incremental build feature and by copying the jars instead of just referencing the projects I am decoupling the dependency information and requesting quite a massive workspace refresh that eats up the development time like it was candy. What I would like to have is a much more "natural" workspace setup that would manage dependencies between projects and request incremental rebuilds only as they are needed, be able to use client code from service libraries in an RCP application plug-ins and be able to launch the RCP application with all the necessary classes where they are needed. So can I have my cake and eat it too ;) NOTE To be clear, this is not so much about dependency management and module management at the moment as it is about Eclipse PDE configuration. I am well aware of products like [Maven], [Ivy] and [Buckminster] and they solve a quite different problem (once I've solved the workspace configuration issue, these products can actually come in handy for materializing the workspace and building the product)

  Read the article

• Multiple sendto() using UDP socket

  - by ereOn

  Hi, I have a network software which uses UDP to communicate with other instances of the same program. For different reasons, I must use UDP here. I recently had problems sending huge ammounts of data over UDP and had to implement a fragmentation system to split my messages into small data chunks. So far, it worked well but I now encounter an issue when I have to send a lot of data chunks. I have the following algorithm: Split message into small data chunks (around 1500 bytes) Iterate over the data chunks list and for each, send it using sendto() However, when I send a lot of data chunks, the receiver only gets the first 6 messages. Sometimes it misses the sixth and receives the seventh. It depends. Anyway, sendto() always indicates success. This always happen when I test my software over a loopback interface (127.0.0.1) but never over my LAN network. If I add something like std::cout << "test" << std::endl; between the sendto() then every frame is received. I am aware that UDP allows packet loss and that my frames might be loss for a lot of reasons and I suppose it has to do with the rate I am sending the data chunks at. What would be the right approach here ? Implementing some acknowledgement mechanism (just like TCP) seems overkill. Adding some arbitrary waiting time between the sendto() is ugly and will probably decrease performance. Increasing (if possible) the receiver UDP internal buffer ? I don't even know if this is possible. Something else ? I really need your advices here. Thank very much.

  Read the article

• REST API Best practice: How to accept as input a list of parameter values

  - by whatupwilly

  Hi All, We are launching a new REST API and I wanted some community input on best practices around how we should have input parameters formatted: Right now, our API is very JSON-centric (only returns JSON). The debate of whether we want/need to return XML is a separate issue. As our API output is JSON centric, we have been going down a path where our inputs are a bit JSON centric and I've been thinking that may be convenient for some but weird in general. For example, to get a few product details where multiple products can be pulled at once we currently have: http://our.api.com/Product?id=["101404","7267261"] Should we simplify this as: http://our.api.com/Product?id=101404,7267261 Or is having JSON input handy? More of a pain? We may want to accept both styles but does that flexibility actually cause more confusion and head aches (maintainability, documentation, etc.)? A more complex case is when we want to offer more complex inputs. For example, if we want to allow multiple filters on search: http://our.api.com/Search?term=pumas&filters={"productType":["Clothing","Bags"],"color":["Black","Red"]} We don't necessarily want to put the filter types (e.g. productType and color) as request names like this: http://our.api.com/Search?term=pumas&productType=["Clothing","Bags"]&color=["Black","Red"] Because we wanted to group all filter input together. In the end, does this really matter? It may be likely that there are so many JSON utils out there that the input type just doesn't matter that much. I know our javascript clients making AJAX calls to the API may appreciate the JSON inputs to make their life easier. Thanks, Will

  Read the article

• Windows 7 64 Bit - ODBC32 - Legacy App Problem

  - by Arturo Caballero

  Good day StackOverFlowlers, I´m a little stuck (really stuck) with an issue with a legacy application on my organization. I have a Windows 7 Enterprise 64 Bit machine, Access 2000 Installed and the Legacy App (Is built with something like VB but older) The App uses System ODBC in order to connect to a SQL 2000 DataBase on a Remote Server. I created the ODCB using C:\Windows\SysWOW64\odbcad32.exe app in order to create a System DSN. I did not use the Windows 7 because it is not visible to the Legacy App. I tested the ODBC connection with Access and worked ok, I can access the remote database. Then I run the legacy App as Administrator and the App can see the ODBC, but I´m getting errors on credential validation and I´m getting this error: DIAG [08001] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]SQL Server does not exist or access denied. (17) DIAG [01000] [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][Multi-Protocol]ConnectionOpen (Connect()). (53) DIAG [IM006] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Driver's SQLSetConnectAttr failed (0) I use Trusted Connection on the ODBC in order to validate the user by Domain Controller. I think that the credentials are not being sent by the Legacy App to the ODBC, or something like that. I don´t have the source code of the Legacy App in order to debug the connection. Also, I turned off the Firewall. Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• How to debug jQuery ajax POST to .NET webservice

  - by Nick

  Hey all. I have a web service that I have published locally. I wrote an HTML page to test the web service. The webservice is expecting a string that will be XML. When I debug the web service from within VS everything works great. I can use FireBug and see that my web service is indeed being hit by they AJAX call. After deploying the web service locally to IIS it does not appear to be working. I need to know the best way to trouble shoot this problem. My AJAX js looks like this: function postSummaryXml(data) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://localhost/collection/services/datacollector.asmx/SaveSummaryDisplayData', data: { xml: data }, error: function(result) { alert(result); }, success: function(result) { alert(result); } }); The web method looks like so: [WebMethod] public string SaveSummaryDisplayData(string xml) { XmlDocument xmlDocument = new XmlDocument(); xmlDocument.LoadXml(xml); XmlParser parser = new XmlParser(xmlDocument); IModel repository = new Repository(); if(repository.AddRecord("TestData",parser.TestValues)) { return "true"; } return "false"; } } I added the return string to the web method in an attempt to ensure that the web-service is really hit from the ajax. The problem is this: In FF the 'Success' function is always called yet the result is always 'NULL'. And the web method does not appear to have worked (no data saved). In IE the 'Error' function is called and the response is server error: 500. I think (believe it or not) IE is giving me a more accurate indication that something is wrong but I cannnot determine what the issue is. Can someone please suggest how I should expose the specific server error message? Thanks for the help!

  Read the article

• Excel 2007 file writer in C# results in a corrupt file

  - by Martin

  Hi, I am using a BinaryReader to read an Excel 2007 file from an Exchange mailbox using a OWA, the file is then written to disk using a BinaryWriter. My problem is that the two files don't match when the writer finishes. Worse still Excel 2007 won't open the writen file. Previously Excel 2003 has had no problem with the solution below. And Excel 2007 doesn't have an issue if the file is an Excel 2003 format file, only if the file format is Excel 2007 (*.xlsx). BinaryReader: using(System.IO.Stream stream = resource.GetInputStream(attachedFiles[k].Address)) { using(System.IO.BinaryReader br = new System.IO.BinaryReader(stream)) { attachment.Data = new byte[attachedFiles[k].Size]; int bufPosn=0, len=0; while ((len = br.Read( attachment.Data, bufPosn, attachment.Data.Length-bufPosn )) > 0) { bufPosn += len; } br.Close(); } } BinaryWriter: FileStream fs = new FileStream(fileName, FileMode.Create); BinaryWriter binWriter = new BinaryWriter(fs); binWriter.Write( content, 0, content.Length ); binWriter.Close(); fs.Close(); Suggestions gratfully received.

  Read the article

• HTTP requests and Apache modules: Creative attack vectors

  - by pinkgothic

  Slightly unorthodox question here: I'm currently trying to break an Apache with a handful of custom modules. What spawned the testing is that Apache internally forwards requests that it considers too large (e.g. 1 MB trash) to modules hooked in appropriately, forcing them to deal with the garbage data - and lack of handling in the custom modules caused Apache in its entirety to go up in flames. Ouch, ouch, ouch. That particular issue was fortunately fixed, but the question's arisen whether or not there may be other similar vulnerabilities. Right now I have a tool at my disposal that lets me send a raw HTTP request to the server (or rather, raw data through an established TCP connection that could be interpreted as an HTTP request if it followed the form of one, e.g. "GET ...") and I'm trying to come up with other ideas. (TCP-level attacks like Slowloris and Nkiller2 are not my focus at the moment.) Does anyone have a few nice ideas how to confuse the server and/or its modules to the point of self-immolation? Broken UTF-8? (Though I doubt Apache cares about encoding - I imagine it just juggles raw bytes.) Stuff that is only barely too long, followed by a 0-byte, followed by junk? et cetera I don't consider myself a very good tester (I'm doing this by necessity and lack of manpower; I unfortunately don't even have a more than basic grasp of Apache internals that would help me along), which is why I'm hoping for an insightful response or two or three. Maybe some of you have done some similar testing for your own projects? (If stackoverflow is not the right place for this question, I apologise. Not sure where else to put it.)

  Read the article

• Static Data Structures on Embedded Devices (Android in particular)

  - by Mark

  I've started working on some Android applications and have a question regarding how people normally deal with situations where you have a static data set and have an application where that data is needed in memory as one of the standard java collections or as an array. In my current specific issue i have a spreadsheet with some pre-calculated data. It consists of ~100 rows and 3 columns. 1 Column is a string, 1 column is a float, 1 column is an integer. I need access to this data as an array in java. It seems like i could: 1) Encode in XML - This would be cpu intensive to decode in my experience. 2) build into SQLite database - seems like a lot of overhead for static access to data i only need array style access to in ram. 3) Build into binary blob and read in. (never done this in java, i miss void *) 4) Build a python script to take the CSV version of my data and spit out a java function that adds the values to my desired structure with hard coded values. 5) Store a string array via androids resource mechanism and compute the other 2 columns on application load. In my case the computation would require a lot of calls to Math.log, Math.pow and Math.floor which i'd rather not have to do for load time and battery usage reasons. I mostly work in low power embedded applications in C and as such #4 is what i'm used to doing in these situations. It just seems like it should be far easier to gain access to static data structures in java/android. Perhaps I'm just being too battery usage conscious and in my single case i imagine the answer is that it doesn't matter much, but if every application took that stance it could begin to matter. What approaches do people usually take in this situation? Anything I missed?

  Read the article

• Spring 3, Jersey (JSR-311) and Maven dependencies

  - by smeg4brains

  Hola guys! im currently struggling to integrate a REST Service based on Jersey and Spring. I'm using Spring 3.0.2-RELEASE and jersey-spring 1.2. But jersey-spring adds a dependency to Spring 2.5.6 to my project which of cause conflicts with the 3.0.2-RELEASE to give me thefollwing error: 11:58:25,409 ERROR org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader:215 - Context initialization failed org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Unexpected exception parsing XML document from class path resource [cloverjazz-web-context.xml]; nested exception is java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.BeanDefinitionParserDelegate.getLocalName(Lorg/w3c/dom/Node;)Ljava/lang/String; at org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionReader.doLoadBeanDefinitions(XmlBeanDefinitionReader.java:420) at org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(XmlBeanDefinitionReader.java:342) at org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(XmlBeanDefinitionReader.java:310) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.java:143) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.java:178) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.java:149) at org.springframework.web.context.support.XmlWebApplicationContext.loadBeanDefinitions(XmlWebApplicationContext.java:124) at org.springframework.web.context.support.XmlWebApplicationContext.loadBeanDefinitions(XmlWebApplicationContext.java:92) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.refreshBeanFactory(AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.java:123) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.obtainFreshBeanFactory(AbstractApplicationContext.java:422) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:352) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:255) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.initWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:199) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener.contextInitialized(ContextLoaderListener.java:45) Is there a way to get around this issue? Does anyone know? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Clean and accesible Other option (Check box and text box)

  - by Svish

  When I have a set of either check boxes or radio buttons I often need to have an Other choice. This check box or radio button is very often accompanied by a text box where the user is supposed to fill out what this Other is. How do you usually handle this set up? What kind of markup do you use? What do you require in your validation? Do you use java script for anything? For example: How do you make the form accessible? Do you use and how do you use the label tag, for example. Do you connect the check box and text box in any way with some javascript? For example, do you activate the text box when the check box is checked? Do you check or uncheck the check box automatically if the text box is filled out or cleared? Do you let validation fail with error messages if the check box is checked but the text box is not filled out, or if the text box is filled out but the check box is not checked? Or do you just consider it not filled out and not checked? Very unsure how to best deal with this issue, so any advice and examples are most welcome c",)

  Read the article

• Server reporting incorrect mime type for css files

  - by Becky

  We have a VPS server that we host our websites on. I have written a CMS using CodeIgniter. On one of the interfaces, I am attempting to upload a css file to the system. This worked correctly when we had it hosted on shared hosting. Since we've moved it to the VPS, I am getting an "incorrect filetype" error. It all comes down to the fact that the server is reporting a mime type of text/x-c for the css file rather than text/css. I logged in via shell and ran the following command on an existing valid css file (to make sure it wasn't an issue with either CodeIgniter or with php). file --brief --mime 'filename.css' 2>&1 The server gave me the following in response to my command: text/x-c; charset=us-ascii My question ... is there some sort of server setting that I need to tweak to get the server to correctly identify the css file as text/css? Do I just have to add a mime type for the css files to the server? I found the mime types file (etc/mime.types), and it just hase video types and a couple other that I have no idea what they are. There is nothing in there for css or images or html files. Unless I'm looking in the wrong spot. I'm not a server person, so I'm hoping someone can help me out. Some server specs: Apache/2.2.22 (Unix) php 5.3.13 Server API = CGI/FastCGI the fileinfo php extension appears to be disabled

  Read the article

• clientaccesspolicy.xml not being requested via HTTPS

  - by Philip

  I have a silverlight app that has been using http to communicate w/self-hosted WCF services during development. I am now securing the services via https. I am getting an error I had back at the beginning of the project: "An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://localhost:8303/service'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details." My clientaccesspolicy.xml file is setup to allow access from http://* and https://*. The only difference is using http vs https. The issue is I can usually see (via Fiddler) the clientaccesspolicy.xml file being requested, but now I cannot. I'm assuming it is failing because of this. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• ASPX FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage function is not working anymore

  - by Mike Webb

  Here is my issue. I have an ASPX web site and I have code in there to redirect from the login page with the call to "FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(username, false);" This sends the user from the root website folder to 'website/Admin/'. I have a 'default.aspx' page in 'website/Admin/' and the call to redirect works on a previous version of the website we have running currently, but the one that I am updating on a separate test server is not working. It gives me the error "Directory Listing Denied. This Virtual Directory does not allow contents to be listed." I have this in the config file: <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> under the "authentication" option and... <location path="Admin"> <system.web> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> for the location of Admin. Also, there is no difference in the code between the web.config, Login.aspx, or the default.aspx files on the current server and the one on the test server, so I am confused as to why the redirect will not work on both. It even works in the Visual Studio server environment, for which the code is also identical. Any suggestions and help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• Two DIV layers: resize top DIV based on dynamic height of bottom DIV

  - by user1650713

  I have two DIV layers, one above the other. In the top DIV, there is an image, and in the bottom DIV, there is a block of text. The amount of text in the bottom DIV will change, thus increasing and decreasing the required height. I need to dynamically decrease the height of the image in the top DIV based on how much height is required for the bottom. I have exactly 600px vertical space available. For example: If the bottom DIV requires 200px height, I need for the image to change height to 400px. If the bottom DIV requires 300px height, I need for the image to change height to 300px. I know that I can make the image height 100% of the top DIV, thus allowing it to expand or contract as needed. The issue is that I need for the bottom DIV to be able to expand freely and for the top DIV to react accordingly. In other words, I cannot have either be a fixed height. <div id="topdiv"> <img src="example.png" alt="This image needs a height based on the bottom div" /> </div> <div id="bottomdiv"> This text needs to be able to expand or contract freely </div> Can anyone help?

  Read the article

• IIS8 Asp.net State service remote connection failure

  - by maxisam

  Recently we upgrade our web server to windows server 2012 with IIS8. We have this issue when users try to connect the asp.net state service to this web server remotely. It always popup Unable to make the session state request to the session state server. Please ensure that the ASP.NET State service is started and that the client and server ports are the same. If the server is on a remote machine, please ensure that it accepts remote requests by checking the value of HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\aspnet_state\Parameters\AllowRemoteConnection. If the server is on the local machine, and if the before mentioned registry value does not exist or is set to 0, then the state server connection string must use either 'localhost' or '127.0.0.1' as the server name. In IIS7 / 7.5 we use the same way and it works fine. As long as the state service is running and firewall is set properly, we don't have any problem. However, in IIS8 it doesn't work. (We even turn off firewall to test it) Thanks for helping.

  Read the article

• popViewController does not autorotate back to allowed orientation

  - by JoeGaggler

  I have two UIViewControllers, "A" and "B", where "A" overrides the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation to return YES for UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait, and "B" returns YES for all orientations. In my example "A" is the root navigation view controller, and I then use pushViewController for "B". After that I rotate the device into landscape, which successfully autorotates "B", then I pop "B" (back button or via popViewController) to return to "A". When targetting iPhone OS 3.1.3, "A" returns to the portrait orientation as expected. When targetting iPhone OS 3.2, I have two side-effects: "A" is displayed in landscape. The navigation bar does not update even though "A" is now displayed. The navigation bar still shows the items for "B". Only after trying to go back/pop one more time will the navigation bar animate to show the items for "A". If I instead attempt to push "B" again and go back, I have to pop twice before the navigation bar animates to show the items for "A". During these "intermediate pops" the view for "A" remains displayed. While researching this issue, I have seen other answers suggesting performing the rotation manually ([UIDevice setOrientation] or via a tranformation), however this does not help understand what the problem is, especially why it behaves differently between the two OS's. So my question is: must all of my UIViewControllers on the UINavigationController stack support exactly the same orientations going forward? And if not, then is there something that I need to do to make it behave as it did for OS 3.1.3?

  Read the article

• Workaround for GNU Make 3.80 eval bug

  - by bengineerd

  I'm trying to create a generic build template for my Makefiles, kind of like they discuss in the eval documentation. I've run into a known bug with GNU Make 3.80. When $(eval) evaluates a line that is over 193 characters, Make crashes with a "Virtual Memory Exhausted" error. The code I have that causes the issue looks like this. SRC_DIR = ./src/ PROG_NAME = test define PROGRAM_template $(1)_SRC_DIR = $$(SRC_DIR)$(1)/ $(1)_SRC_FILES = $$(wildcard $$($(1)_SRC_DIR)*.c) $(1)_OBJ_FILES = $$($(1)_SRC_FILES):.c=.o) $$($(1)_OBJ_FILES) : $$($(1)_SRC_FILES) # This is the problem line endef $(eval $(call PROGRAM_template,$(PROG_NAME))) When I run this Makefile, I get gmake: *** virtual memory exhausted. Stop. The expected output is that all .c files in ./src/test/ get compiled into .o files (via an implicit rule). The problem is that $$($(1)_SRC_FILES) and $$($(1)_OBJ_FILES) are together over 193 characters long (if there are enough source files). I have tried running the make file on a directory where there is only 2 .c files, and it works fine. It's only when there are many .c files in the SRC directory that I get the error. I know that GNU Make 3.81 fixes this bug. Unfortunately I do not have the authority or ability to install the newer version on the system I'm working on. I'm stuck with 3.80. So, is there some workaround? Maybe split $$($(1)_SRC_FILES) up and declare each dependency individually within the eval?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 755 756 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766  | Next Page >