Search Results

Search found 24177 results on 968 pages for 'true'.

Page 761/968 | < Previous Page | 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768  | Next Page >

  • Assign click event to addon icon on navigation bar

    - by Charsee
    We have created a chrome extension for our app. Where we call a METHOD from a "js file" on CLICK event of the "extension icon" placed on the navigation bar. For this we use message passing between the app.js (file containing the METHOD to be called on icon click) and background.html (using a js file included in this html). The script used to pass message is:(from background.html) chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function (tab) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tab.id, "showPopup"); }); and to listen the message :(in app.js) chrome.extension.onMessage.addListener(function(request) { if (request === "showPopup") { showPopup(); } }); The click event works as expected. But now we want to do same thing in mozilla extension. and we can't pass message to app.js on the click of the icon,so that it can execute the containing methods. We have also added the app.js using pageMod, something like this exports.main = function(options, callbacks) { pageMod.PageMod({ include: ["*"], contentScriptWhen: 'start', contentScriptFile: [data.url('jquery-1.7.1.min.js'),data.url('app.js')] }); createAndAddNavBarButton(); }; function createAndAddNavBarButton() { var navBar = document.getElementById('nav-bar');//assume document has been defined if (!navBar){return;}; var nbBtn = document.createElement('navbaricon'); nbBtn.setAttribute('id', 'navButton'); nbBtn.setAttribute('image', data.url('icon_16.png')); nbBtn.onclick = function(){ showPopup(); return true; } navBar.appendChild(btn); } But the click event does nothing and showPopup() is undefined. When a new page loads event associated with it in the app.js executes without any error but the click event doesn't work. Is there a method from where we can assign click event directly to this icon, as we have done in the case of chrome extension.

    Read the article

  • XSLT - Catching parameters

    - by Brian Roisentul
    The situation is I have two xslt files: one is called from my ASP.NET code, and there, the second xslt file is imported. What I'd like to accomplish is to pass a parameter to the first one so the second xslt(the one that is imported at the first xslt) can read it. My c# code looks like this: var oArgs = new XsltArgumentList(); oArgs.AddParam("fbLikeFeatureName", "", "Facebook_Like_Button"); ltlContentBody.Text = xmlUtil.TransformXML(oXmlDoc, Server.MapPath(eSpaceId + "/styles/ExploringXSLT/ExploreContentObjects.xslt"), true); And I'm catching the param at the first xslt this way: <xsl:param name="fbLikeFeatureName" /> And then, passing it to the second xslt like this(previously, I import that file): <xsl:call-template name="Articles"> <xsl:with-param name="fbLikeFeatureName"></xsl:with-param> </xsl:call-template> Finally, I'm catching the param on the second xslt file as following: <xsl:value-of select="$fbLikeButtonName"/> What Am I doing wrong? I'm kind of new at xslt.

    Read the article

  • Disable Eclipse warning about generated html?

    - by Chadwick
    When developing Flex projects, Eclipse gives warnings about the default index.html file generated by Flex Builder. The file is in the 'target' folder (or "generated artifacts" folder. Yes, I'm also using Maven). Can I eliminate or disable this warning? The code which generates the warning is below, though I would definitely prefer not changing the html - as I say this is the template suggested by Adobe. Eclipse warns of "Undefined attribute name (xxx)" for scroll on the body tag, and most of the embed attributes. There is no DOCTYPE declaration in the html file. <html lang="en"> ... <body scroll="no"> ... <embed src="myswf.swf" quality="high" bgcolor="#869ca7" width="100%" height="100%" name="myswf-flex" align="middle" play="true" loop="false" quality="high" allowScriptAccess="sameDomain" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer"> </embed> ...

    Read the article

  • C Nested Structure Pointer Problem

    - by Halo
    I have a shared structure, and inside it a request structure: struct shared_data { pthread_mutex_t th_mutex_queue; struct request_queue { int min; int max; char d_name[DIR_SIZE]; pid_t pid; int t_index; } request_queue[BUFSIZE]; int count; int data_buffer_allocation[BUFSIZE]; int data_buffers[BUFSIZE][100]; }; Then I prepare a request; struct shared_data *sdata_ptr; ... ... sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].pid = pid; strcpy(sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].d_name, dir_path_name); sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].min = min; sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].max = max; And the compiler warns me that I'm doing an incompatible implicit declaration in the strcpy function. I guess that's a problem with the pointers, but isn't what I wrote above supposed to be true?

    Read the article

  • Trying to draw a dynamic rectangle in SVG

    - by Shaun
    To be more specific, here are the steps I need: onmousedown - set x and y of rect as mouse coordinates onmousemove - using the current x and y mouse coordinates calculate height and width of the rect, set these and append onmouseup - remove the rectangle, and call a function based off some calculations from the rect. Here is what I have but isn't quite working (right now I have it drawing a line to make it simpler): onmousedown: startbox(evt) function startbox(evt) { if(evt.button === 0) { x1 = evt.clientX + div.scrollLeft-5; y1 = evt.clientY + div.scrollTop-30; obj.setAttributeNS(null, "x1", x1); obj.setAttributeNS(null, "y1", y1); Root.setAttributeNS(null, "onmousemove", "updatebox(evt)"); } } onmousemove: updatebox(evt) function updatebox(evt) { if(evt.button === 0) { x2 = evt.clientX + div.scrollLeft-5; y2 = evt.clientY + div.scrollTop-30; Root.appendChild(.obj); w = Math.abs(x2-x1); h = Math.abs(y2-y1); var strokecolor; if(w>20 && h>20) { strokecolor = "green"; validbox = true; } else { strokecolor = "red"; validbox = false; } var Attr={ x2:x2, y2:y2, stroke:strokecolor } assignAttr(obj, Attr); //just loops thru adding multiple attributes } } onmouseup: endbox() function endbox(evt) { if(evt.button===0) { Root.setAttributeNS(null, "onmousemove", ""); Root.removeChild(obj); if(validbox) { //do stuff validbox = !validbox; } } } Some of my problems with this are: Its slow in Chrome making drawing the line/rect feel sluggish. It won't work two times in a row. This is the real problem that I can't fix. Any and all feedback is welcome.

    Read the article

  • Loading velocity template inside a jar file

    - by Rafael
    I have a project where I want to load a velocity template to complete it with parameters. The whole application is packaged as a jar file. What I initially thought of doing was this: VelocityEngine ve = new VelocityEngine(); URL url = this.getClass().getResource("/templates/"); File file = new File(url.getFile()); ve = new VelocityEngine(); ve.setProperty(RuntimeConstants.RESOURCE_LOADER, "file"); ve.setProperty(RuntimeConstants.FILE_RESOURCE_LOADER_PATH, file.getAbsolutePath()); ve.setProperty(RuntimeConstants.FILE_RESOURCE_LOADER_CACHE, "true"); ve.init(); VelocityContext context = new VelocityContext(); if (properties != null) { stringfyNulls(properties); for (Map.Entry<String, Object> property : properties.entrySet()) { context.put(property.getKey(), property.getValue()); } } final String templatePath = templateName + ".vm"; Template template = ve.getTemplate(templatePath, "UTF-8"); String outFileName = File.createTempFile("p2d_report", ".html").getAbsolutePath(); BufferedWriter writer = new BufferedWriter(new FileWriter(new File(outFileName))); template.merge(context, writer); writer.flush(); writer.close(); And this works fine when I run it in eclipse. However, once I package the program and try to run it using the command line I get an error because the file could not be found. I imagine the problem is in this line: ve.setProperty(RuntimeConstants.FILE_RESOURCE_LOADER_PATH, file.getAbsolutePath()); Because in a jar the absolute file does not exist, since it's inside a zip, but I couldn't yet find a better way to do it. Anyone has any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to display a Dialog on window created using XCreateWindow in QT 4.5.2

    - by Ummar
    I am doing work on project. In which I have developed a full size screen displaying images using XCreateWindow. Now I want to display a dialog on this screen. I have created a QDialog it does'nt show on the full size screen but it is displayed on screen when it is not full size. Any Help. My code for creating screen and dialogbox is as follows XSetWindowAttributes attribs; XClassHint *classhints; XSizeHints *sizehints; int wndwidth, wndheight; long input_mask, ic_input_mask; XEvent xevent; wndwidth = fullscreen ? WidthOfScreen(screen) : width; wndheight = fullscreen ? HeightOfScreen(screen) : height; attribs.background_pixel = BlackPixelOfScreen(screen); attribs.backing_store = ownbackstore ? NotUseful : Always; attribs.override_redirect = fullscreen; wnd = XCreateWindow(display, RootWindowOfScreen(screen), 0, 0, wndwidth, wndheight, 0, CopyFromParent, InputOutput, CopyFromParent, CWBackPixel | CWBackingStore | CWOverrideRedirect, &attribs); XRaiseWindow(display, wnd); //QDialog I want to show on wnd(XCreateWindow) ToolbarDialog *objToolbarDialog= new ToolbarDialog(); objToolbarDialog->setVisible(true); objToolbarDialog->showNormal();

    Read the article

  • How do you send in the LayoutRoot into a RelayCommand via a EventToCommand?

    - by user298145
    Grid example with the trigger: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" DataContext="{Binding ProjectGrid, Source={StaticResource Locator}}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Loaded"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand Command="{Binding LoadedCommand, Mode=OneWay}" PassEventArgsToCommand="True"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> In my ViewModel I set the LoadedCommand like this: public RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> LoadedCommand {get;private set;} And in the ViewModel initializer I have this: public ProjectGridViewModel() { LoadedCommand = new RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs>(e => { this.DoLoaded(e); } ); } Then, in my DoLoaded I'm trying to do this: Grid _projectGrid = null; public void DoLoaded(RoutedEventArgs e) { _projectGrid = e.OriginalSource as Grid; } You can see I'm trying to get rid of my Loaded="" in my Grid in my view, and do a RelayCommand instead. The issue is the OriginalSource brings back nothing. My loaded event is running nice this way, but I need to get the Grid in via the RoutedEventArgs it seems. I tried passing in the Grid in the EventCommand with CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot}", but this just crashes VS2010 when hitting F5 and running the project. Any ideas? Or a better way to do this? I had the Loaded event run in the views C# then call the ViewModel in the Views code-behind, but I'd like to do a nicer binding. Talking to the ViewMode in the Views code-behind feels like a hack.

    Read the article

  • How to mix Grammar (Rules) & Dictation (Free speech) with SpeechRecognizer in C#

    - by Lee Englestone
    I really like Microsofts latest speech recognition (and SpeechSynthesis) offerings. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms554855.aspx http://estellasays.blogspot.com/2009/04/speech-recognition-in-cnet.html However I feel like I'm somewhat limited when using grammars. Don't get me wrong grammars are great for telling the speech recognition exactly what words / phrases to look out for, however what if I want it to recognise something i've not given it a heads up about? Or I want to parse a phrase which is half pre-determined command name and half random words? For example.. Scenario A - I say "Google [Oil Spill]" and I want it to open Google with search results for the term in brackets which could be anything. Scenario B - I say "Locate [Manchester]" and I want it to search for Manchester in Google Maps or anything else non pre-determined I want it to know that 'Google' and 'Locate' are commands and what comes after it are parameters (and could be anything). Question : Does anyone know how to mix the use of pre-determined grammars (words the speech recognition should recognise) and words not in its pre-determined grammar? Code fragments.. using System.Speech.Recognition; ... ... SpeechRecognizer rec = new SpeechRecognizer(); rec.SpeechRecognized += rec_SpeechRecognized; var c = new Choices(); c.Add("search"); var gb = new GrammarBuilder(c); var g = new Grammar(gb); rec.LoadGrammar(g); rec.Enabled = true; ... ... void rec_SpeechRecognized(object sender, SpeechRecognizedEventArgs e) { if (e.Result.Text == "search") { string query = "How can I get a word not defined in Grammar recognised and passed into here!"; launchGoogle(query); } } ... ... private void launchGoogle(string term) { Process.Start("IEXPLORE", "google.com?q=" + term); }

    Read the article

  • Wordpress loop > unique loop renders slightly wrong results...

    - by Travis Neilson
    A few things to understand before my question will make sense: I use a hidden category called 'Unique' to specify if the post will use the single.php or a special one used for the unique ones. I want the index to act as a single: showing only one post, displaying next/prev post links, and comments also. I need the index.php to say if the post is in category 15 (unique) than <the_unique_content>, else; <the_default_content> My loop does all this, but the problem is that if the current post is unique, it also displays 1 additional post below the unique post. Here is the loop <?php $wp_query->is_single = true; ?> <?php $post_count = 0; ?> <?php if (have_posts()) : while (have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <?php if ($post_count == 0) : ?> <?php if (in_category('15')) { ?> <?php the_content(); ?> <?php } else { ?> <?php the_content(); ?> <?php $post_count++; ?> Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • submitting the form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

    Read the article

  • Dynamically setting the queryset of a ModelMultipleChoiceField to a custom recordset

    - by Daniel Quinn
    I've seen all the howtos about how you can set a ModelMultipleChoiceField to use a custom queryset and I've tried them and they work. However, they all use the same paradigm: the queryset is just a filtered list of the same objects. In my case, I'm trying to get the admin to draw a multiselect form that instead of using usernames as the text portion of the , I'd like to use the name field from my account class. Here's a breakdown of what I've got: # models.py class Account(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=128,help_text="A display name that people understand") user = models.ForeignKey(User, unique=True) # Tied to the User class in settings.py class Organisation(models.Model): administrators = models.ManyToManyField(User) # admin.py from django.forms import ModelMultipleChoiceField from django.contrib.auth.models import User class OrganisationAdminForm(forms.ModelForm): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): from ethico.accounts.models import Account self.base_fields["administrators"] = ModelMultipleChoiceField( queryset=User.objects.all(), required=False ) super(OrganisationAdminForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) class Meta: model = Organisation This works, however, I want queryset above to draw a selectbox with the Account.name property and the User.id property. This didn't work: queryset=Account.objects.all().order_by("name").values_list("user","name") It failed with this error: 'tuple' object has no attribute 'pk' I figured that this would be easy, but it's turned into hours of dead-ends. Anyone care to shed some light?

    Read the article

  • How to access webbrowser object on this code? C++

    - by extintor
    I found this example http://www.mvps.org/user32/webhost.cab that host an Internet Explorer WebBrowser object, and it uses this code to access the object void webhostwnd::CreateEmbeddedWebControl(void) { OleCreate(CLSID_WebBrowser,IID_IOleObject,OLERENDER_DRAW,0,&site,&storage,(void**)&mpWebObject); mpWebObject->SetHostNames(L"Web Host",L"Web View"); // I have no idea why this is necessary. remark it out and everything works perfectly. OleSetContainedObject(mpWebObject,TRUE); RECT rect; GetClientRect(hwnd,&rect); mpWebObject->DoVerb(OLEIVERB_SHOW,NULL,&site,-1,hwnd,&rect); IWebBrowser2* iBrowser; mpWebObject->QueryInterface(IID_IWebBrowser2,(void**)&iBrowser); VARIANT vURL; vURL.vt = VT_BSTR; vURL.bstrVal = SysAllocString(L"http://google.com"); VARIANT ve1, ve2, ve3, ve4; ve1.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve2.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve3.vt = VT_EMPTY; ve4.vt = VT_EMPTY; iBrowser->put_Left(0); iBrowser->put_Top(0); iBrowser->put_Width(rect.right); iBrowser->put_Height(rect.bottom); iBrowser->Navigate2(&vURL, &ve1, &ve2, &ve3, &ve4); VariantClear(&vURL); iBrowser->Release(); } I don't have much experience with cpp, I want to know how to access that same ie object (to use Navigate2 for example) from a button or something like that. How could I achieve this?

    Read the article

  • C# 4.0 'dynamic' doesn't set ref/out arguments

    - by Buu Nguyen
    I'm experimenting with DynamicObject. One of the things I try to do is setting the values of ref/out arguments, as shown in the code below. However, I am not able to have the values of i and j in Main() set properly (even though they are set correctly in TryInvokeMember()). Does anyone know how to call a DynamicObject object with ref/out arguments and be able to retrieve the values set inside the method? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { dynamic proxy = new Proxy(new Target()); int i = 10; int j = 20; proxy.Wrap(ref i, ref j); Console.WriteLine(i + ":" + j); // Print "10:20" while expect "20:10" } } class Proxy : DynamicObject { private readonly Target target; public Proxy(Target target) { this.target = target; } public override bool TryInvokeMember(InvokeMemberBinder binder, object[] args, out object result) { int i = (int) args[0]; int j = (int) args[1]; target.Swap(ref i, ref j); args[0] = i; args[1] = j; result = null; return true; } } class Target { public void Swap(ref int i, ref int j) { int tmp = i; i = j; j = tmp; } }

    Read the article

  • What is the Proper approach for Constructing a PhysicalAddress object from Byte Array

    - by Paul Farry
    I'm trying to understand what the correct approach for a constructor that accepts a Byte Array with regard to how it stores it's data (specifically with PhysicalAddress) I have an array of 6 bytes (theAddress) that is constructed once. I have a source array of 18bytes (theAddresses) that is loaded from a TCP Connection. I then copy the 6bytes from theAddress+offset into theAddress and construct the PhysicalAddress from it. Problem is that the PhysicalAddress just stores the Reference to the array that was passed in. Therefore if you subsequently check the addresses they only ever point to the last address that was copied in. When I took a look inside the PhysicalAddress with reflector it's easy to see what's going on. public PhysicalAddress(byte[] address) { this.changed = true; this.address = address; } Now I know this can be solved by creating theAddress array on each pass, but I wanted to find out what really is the best practice for this. Should the constructor of an object that accepts a byte array create it's own private Variable for holding the data and copy it from the original Should it just hold the reference to what was passed in. Should I just created theAddress on each pass in the loop

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET: How to get same validators control to be both client-side and server-side

    - by harrije
    Hello, For the ASP.NET validator controls, I want to use both client-side validation for the user experience and server-side validation to guard against hackers. ASP.NET documentation leads me to believe that if EnableClientScript="True" then there will be no server-side validation if client-side validation is possible for the user agent. To get server-side validation, the documentation says use EnableClientScript="False", which bypasses client-side validation altogether. Am I misunderstanding how the validator controls work? I ask because it seems obvious that many developers would want both client and server side validation together, and I find it hard to believe both together is not possible with one of the standard validation controls. If I am understanding the ASP.NET documentation correctly, then I can find only two options: Use two validator controls exactly the same except for their ID and EnableClientScript properties. Obviously ugly for maintaining two controls almost the same. Write some code behind to check if postback then invoke the Validate method on the validator group. Why write code behind if there a way to be automatic from the control? Is there a way to do so using a single validator control with no code behind? Thanks in advance for your input.

    Read the article

  • Using C++ DLL in C# project

    - by Frank
    Hello, I got a C++ dll which has to be integrated in a C# project. I think I found the correct way to do it, but calling the dll gives me this error: System.BadImageFormatException: An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007000B) This is the function in the dll: extern long FAR PASCAL convert (LPSTR filename); And this is the code I'm using in C# namespace Test{ public partial class Form1 : Form { [DllImport("convert.dll", SetLastError = true)] static extern Int32 convert([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] string filename); private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // generate textfile string filename = "testfile.txt"; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(filename); sw.WriteLine("line1"); sw.WriteLine("line2"); sw.Close(); // add checksum Int32 ret = 0; try { ret = convert(filename); Console.WriteLine("Result of DLL: {0}", ret.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { lbl.Text = ex.ToString(); } } }} Any ideas on how to proceed with this? Thanks a lot, Frank

    Read the article

  • JFrame is not acting as expected!

    - by DasWood
    This is my first time using a JFrame. I can't get the window to display the text areas I've nested inside the JFrame. I am trying to get the text field with my name in it to display above the tabulated results, which I have omitted the formatting for until I can get the JFrame to work. public void printResults(String[] names, int[] temp, int[][] scores, float[] averages, char[] letters){ JTextArea outarea= new JTextArea(5,20); JTextArea name = new JTextArea(5,20); Font font = new Font("Tahoma", Font.BOLD, 48); name.setFont(font); name.setText("Made By Durka Durka"); JFrame window = new JFrame(); window.getContentPane().add(name); window.getContentPane().add(outarea); window.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); window.pack(); window.getContentPane().setVisible(true) String out = "twat"; outarea.setText(out); //JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,window); }

    Read the article

  • Closing InfoWindow with Google Maps API V3

    - by Oscar Godson
    I've seen the other posts, but they dont have the markers being looped through dynamically like mine. How do I create an event that will close the infowindow when another marker is clicked on using the following code? $(function(){ var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(45.522015,-122.683811); var settings = { zoom: 10, center: latlng, disableDefaultUI:false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.SATELLITE }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), settings); $.getJSON('api',function(json){ for (var property in json) { if (json.hasOwnProperty(property)) { var json_data = json[property]; var the_marker = new google.maps.Marker({ title:json_data.item.headline, map:map, clickable:true, position:new google.maps.LatLng( parseFloat(json_data.item.geoarray[0].latitude), parseFloat(json_data.item.geoarray[0].longitude) ) }); function buildHandler(map, marker, content) { return function() { var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: '<div class="marker"><h1>'+content.headline+'</h1><p>'+content.full_content+'</p></div>' }); infowindow.open(map, marker); }; } new google.maps.event.addListener(the_marker, 'click',buildHandler(map, the_marker, {'headline':json_data.item.headline,'full_content':json_data.item.full_content})); } } }); });

    Read the article

  • Downloading javascript Without Blocking

    - by doug
    The context: My question relates to improving web-page loading performance, and in particular the effect that javascript has on page-loading (resources/elements below the script are blocked from downloading/rendering). This problem is usually avoided/mitigated by placing the scripts at the bottom (eg, just before the tag). The code i am looking at is for web analytics. Placing it at the bottom reduces its accuracy; and because this script has no effect on the page's content, ie, it's not re-writing any part of the page--i want to move it inside the head. Just how to do that without ruining page-loading performance is the crux. From my research, i've found six techniques (w/ support among all or most of the major browsers) for downloading scripts so that they don't block down-page content from loading/rendering: (i) XHR + eval(); (ii) XHR + 'inject'; (iii) download the HTML-wrapped script as in iFrame; (iv) setting the script tag's 'async' flag to 'TRUE' (HTML 5 only); (v) setting the script tag's 'defer' attribute; and (vi) 'Script DOM Element'. It's the last of these i don't understand. The javascript to implement the pattern (vi) is: (function() { var q1 = document.createElement('script'); q1.src = 'http://www.my_site.com/q1.js' document.documentElement.firstChild.appendChild(q1) })(); Seems simple enough: inside this anonymous function, a script element is created, its 'src' element is set to it's location, then the script element is added to the DOM. But while each line is clear, it's still not clear to me how exactly this pattern allows script loading without blocking down-page elements/resources from rendering/loading?

    Read the article

  • [MySQL/PHP] Avoid using RAND()

    - by Andrew Ellis
    So... I have never had a need to do a random SELECT on a MySQL DB until this project I'm working on. After researching it seems the general populous says that using RAND() is a bad idea. I found an article that explains how to do another type of random select. Basically, if I want to select 5 random elements, I should do the following (I'm using the Kohana framework here)? If not, what is a better solution? Thanks, Andrew <?php final class Offers extends Model { /** * Loads a random set of offers. * * @param integer $limit * @return array */ public function random_offers($limit = 5) { // Find the highest offer_id $sql = ' SELECT MAX(offer_id) AS max_offer_id FROM offers '; $max_offer_id = DB::query(Database::SELECT, $sql) ->execute($this->_db) ->get('max_offer_id'); // Check to make sure we're not trying to load more offers // than there really is... if ($max_offer_id < $limit) { $limit = $max_offer_id; } $used = array(); $ids = ''; for ($i = 0; $i < $limit; ) { $rand = mt_rand(1, $max_offer_id); if (!isset($used[$rand])) { // Flag the ID as used $used[$rand] = TRUE; // Set the ID if ($i > 0) $ids .= ','; $ids .= $rand; ++$i; } } $sql = ' SELECT offer_id, offer_name FROM offers WHERE offer_id IN(:ids) '; $offers = DB::query(Database::SELECT, $sql) ->param(':ids', $ids) ->as_object(); ->execute($this->_db); return $offers; } }

    Read the article

  • How can you connect to a password protected MS Access Database from a Spring JdbcTemplate?

    - by Tim Visher
    I need to connect to a password protected MS Access 2003 DB using the JDBC-ODBC bridge. I can't find out how to specify the password in the connect string, or even if that is the correct method of connecting. It would probably be relevant to mention that this is a Spring App which is accessing the database through a JdbcTemplate configured as a datasource bean in our application context file. Some relevant snippets: from application-context.xml <bean id="jdbcTemplate" class="org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate"> <property name="dataSource" ref="legacyDataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="jobsheetLocation" class="java.lang.String"> <constructor-arg value="${jobsheet.location}"/> </bean> <bean id="legacyDataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.legacy.driverClassName}" /> <property name="url" value="${jdbc.legacy.url}"/> <property name="password" value="-------------" /> </bean> from our build properties jdbc.legacy.driverClassName=sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver jdbc.legacy.url=jdbc:odbc:Driver\={Microsoft Access Driver (*.mdb)};Dbq\=@LegacyDbPath@;DriverID\=22;READONLY\=true Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Helpful advice on developing a professional MS Word add-on

    - by Dan Tao
    A few months back I put together a simple proof-of-concept piece of software for a small firm with an idea for a document editing tool. The company wanted this tool to be integrated into Microsoft Word, understandably, to maximize its accessibility to the average user. I essentially wrote the underlying library with all of the core functionality as a C# project, and then used VSTO to get it running inside of Word. It felt like a bit of a duct tape solution, really; but then, I have (practically) zero experience developing tools for integration with MS Office, and it was only a proof of concept anyway. Well, the firm was quite pleased with my work overall, and they're looking to move from "proof of concept" to the real deal. Fortunately, as I said, the core functionality is all there and will only need to be somewhat tweaked and enhanced. My main concern is figuring out how to put together an application that will integrate with MS Word in a clean and polished way, and which can be deployed easily in accordance with a regular user's expectations (i.e., simply running an install program and voila, it's there in Word). I seem to remember reading somewhere that nobody uses VSTO for real professional projects. Is this true? False? What are the alternatives? And what are the tips and gotchas that I should be aware of before getting started on this issue of MS Word integration?

    Read the article

  • Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

    - by user292662
    Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • Mail "Can't continue" for a AppleScript function

    - by Paul J. Lucas
    I'm trying to write an AppleScript for use with Mail (on Snow Leopard) to save image attachments of messages to a folder. The main part of the AppleScript is: property ImageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} property PicturesFolder : path to pictures folder as text property SaveFolderName : "Fetched" property SaveFolder : PicturesFolder & SaveFolderName tell application "Mail" set theMessages to the selection repeat with theMessage in theMessages repeat with theAttachment in every mail attachment of theMessage set attachmentFileName to theAttachment's name if isImageFileName(attachmentFileName) then set attachmentPathName to SaveFolder & attachmmentFileName save theAttachment in getNonexistantFile(attachmentPathName) end if end repeat end repeat end tell on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName When run, I get the error: error "Mail got an error: Can’t continue isImageFileName." number -1708 where error -1708 is: Event wasnt handled by an Apple event handler. However, if I copy/paste the isImageFileName() into another script like: property imageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName if isImageFileName("foo.jpg") then return true else return false end if it works fine. Why does Mail complain about this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 757 758 759 760 761 762 763 764 765 766 767 768  | Next Page >