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  • How to Sync CI (Hudson) Activity into an existing automated Build Process (phing, svn)?

    - by maraspin
    OUR CURRENT BUILD PROCESS We're a small team of developers (2 to 4 people depending on project) who currently use Phing to deploy code to a staging environment, before going live. We keep our code in a SVN repo, where the trunk holds current active development and, at certain times, we do make branches that we test and then (if successful), tag and export to the staging env. If everything goes well there too, we finally deploy'em in production servers. Actions are highly automated, but always triggered by human intervention. THE DOUBT We'd now like to introduce Continuous Integration (with Hudson) in the process; unfortunately we have a few doubts about activity syncing, since we're afraid that CI could somewhat interfere with our build process and cause certain problems. Considering that an automated CI cycle has a certain frequency of automatically executed actions, we see 2 possible cases for "integration", each with its own problems: Case A: each CI cycle produces a new branch with its own name; we do use such a name to manually (through phing as it happens now) export the code from the SVN to the staging env. The problem I see here is that (unless specific countermeasures are taken - IE deletion) the number of branches we have can easily grow out of control (let's suppose we commit often, so that we have a fresh new build/branch every N minutes). Case B: each CI cycle creates a new branch named 'current', which is then tagged with a unique name only when we manually decide to export it to staging; the current branch, at any case is then deleted, as soon as the next CI cycle starts up. The problem we see here is that a new cycle could kick in while someone is tagging/exporting the 'current' branch to staging thus creating an inconsistent build (but maybe here I'm just too pessimist, since I confess I don't know whether SVN offers some built-in protection against this). With all this being said, I was wondering if anyone with similar experiences could be so kind to give us some hints on the subject, since none of the approaches depicted above looks completely satisfing to us. Is there something important we just completely left off in the overall picture? Thanks for your attention & (in advance) for your help!

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  • Idiomatic use of auto_ptr to transfer ownership to a container

    - by heycam
    I'm refreshing my C++ knowledge after not having used it in anger for a number of years. In writing some code to implement some data structure for practice, I wanted to make sure that my code was exception safe. So I've tried to use std::auto_ptrs in what I think is an appropriate way. Simplifying somewhat, this is what I have: class Tree { public: ~Tree() { /* delete all Node*s in the tree */ } void insert(const string& to_insert); ... private: struct Node { ... vector<Node*> m_children; }; Node* m_root; }; template<T> void push_back(vector<T*>& v, auto_ptr<T> x) { v.push_back(x.get()); x.release(); } void Tree::insert(const string& to_insert) { Node* n = ...; // find where to insert the new node ... push_back(n->m_children, auto_ptr<Node>(new Node(to_insert)); ... } So I'm wrapping the function that would put the pointer into the container, vector::push_back, and relying on the by-value auto_ptr argument to ensure that the Node* is deleted if the vector resize fails. Is this an idiomatic use of auto_ptr to save a bit of boilerplate in my Tree::insert? Any improvements you can suggest? Otherwise I'd have to have something like: Node* n = ...; // find where to insert the new node auto_ptr<Node> new_node(new Node(to_insert)); n->m_children.push_back(new_node.get()); new_node.release(); which kind of clutters up what would have been a single line of code if I wasn't worrying about exception safety and a memory leak. (Actually I was wondering if I could post my whole code sample (about 300 lines) and ask people to critique it for idiomatic C++ usage in general, but I'm not sure whether that kind of question is appropriate on stackoverflow.)

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  • Sorting a list of colors in one dimension?

    - by Ptah- Opener of the Mouth
    I would like to sort a one-dimensional list of colors so that colors that a typical human would perceive as "like" each other are near each other. Obviously this is a difficult or perhaps impossible problem to get "perfectly", since colors are typically described with three dimensions, but that doesn't mean that there aren't some sorting methods that look obviously more natural than others. For example, sorting by RGB doesn't work very well, as it will sort in the following order, for example: (1) R=254 G=0 B=0 (2) R=254 G=255 B=0 (3) R=255 G=0 B=0 (4) R=255 G=255 B=0 That is, it will alternate those colors red, yellow, red, yellow, with the two "reds" being essentially imperceivably different than each other, and the two yellows also being imperceivably different from each other. But sorting by HLS works much better, generally speaking, and I think HSL even better than that; with either, the reds will be next to each other, and the yellows will be next to each other. But HLS/HSL has some problems, too; things that people would perceive as "black" could be split far apart from each other, as could things that people would perceive as "white". Again, I understand that I pretty much have to accept that there will be some splits like this; I'm just wondering if anyone has found a better way than HLS/HSL. And I'm aware that "better" is somewhat arbitrary; I mean "more natural to a typical human". For example, a vague thought I've had, but have not yet tried, is perhaps "L is the most important thing if it is very high or very low", but otherwise it is the least important. Has anyone tried this? Has it worked well? What specifically did you decide "very low" and "very high" meant? And so on. Or has anyone found anything else that would improve upon HSL? I should also note that I am aware that I can define a space-filling curve through the cube of colors, and order them one-dimensionally as they would be encountered while travelling along that curve. That would eliminate perceived discontinuities. However, it's not really what I want; I want decent overall large-scale groupings more than I want perfect small-scale groupings. Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • How to keep a local value from being set when a binding fails (so inherited values will propagate)

    - by redoced
    Consider the following scenario: I want to bind the TextElement.FontWeight property to an xml attribute. The xml looks somewhat like this and has arbitrary depth. <text font-weight="bold"> bold text here <inlinetext>more bold text</inlinetext> even more bold text </text> I use hierarchical templating to display the text, no problem there, but having a Setter in the template style like: <Setter Property="TextElement.FontWeight" Value="{Binding XPath=@font-weight}"/> sets the fontweight correctly on the first level, but overwrites the second level with null (as the binding can't find the xpath) which reverts to Fontweight normal. I tried all sorts of things here but nothing quite seems to work. e.g. i used a converter to return UnsetValue, which didn't work. I'm currently trying with: <Setter Property="custom:AttributeInserter.Wrapper" Value="{custom:AttributeInserter Property=TextElement.FontWeight, Binding={Binding XPath=@font-weight}}"/> Codebehind: public static class AttributeInserter { public static AttributeInserterExtension GetWrapper(DependencyObject obj) { return (AttributeInserterExtension)obj.GetValue(WrapperProperty); } public static void SetWrapper(DependencyObject obj, AttributeInserterExtension value) { obj.SetValue(WrapperProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Wrapper. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty WrapperProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached("Wrapper", typeof(AttributeInserterExtension), typeof(AttributeInserter), new UIPropertyMetadata(pcc)); static void pcc(DependencyObject o,DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { var n=e.NewValue as AttributeInserterExtension; var c = o as FrameworkElement; if (n == null || c==null || n.Property==null || n.Binding==null) return; var bex = c.SetBinding(n.Property, n.Binding); bex.UpdateTarget(); if (bex.Status == BindingStatus.UpdateTargetError) c.ClearValue(n.Property); } } public class AttributeInserterExtension : MarkupExtension { public override object ProvideValue(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { return this; } public DependencyProperty Property { get; set; } public Binding Binding { get; set; } } which kinda works, but can't track changes of the property Any ideas? Any links? thx for the help

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  • Performing full screen grab in windows

    - by Steven Lu
    I am working an idea that involves getting a full capture of the screen including windows and apps, analyzing it, and then drawing items back onto the screen, as an overlay. I want to learn image processing techniques and I could get lots of data to work with if I can directly access the Windows screen. I could use this to build automation tools the likes of which have never been seen before. More on that later. I have full screen capture working for the most part. HWND hwind = GetDesktopWindow(); HDC hdc = GetDC(hwind); int resx = GetSystemMetrics(SM_CXSCREEN); int resy = GetSystemMetrics(SM_CYSCREEN); int BitsPerPixel = GetDeviceCaps(hdc,BITSPIXEL); HDC hdc2 = CreateCompatibleDC(hdc); BITMAPINFO info; info.bmiHeader.biSize = sizeof(BITMAPINFOHEADER); info.bmiHeader.biWidth = resx; info.bmiHeader.biHeight = resy; info.bmiHeader.biPlanes = 1; info.bmiHeader.biBitCount = BitsPerPixel; info.bmiHeader.biCompression = BI_RGB; void *data; hbitmap = CreateDIBSection(hdc2,&info,DIB_RGB_COLORS,(void**)&data,0,0); SelectObject(hdc2,hbitmap); Once this is done, I can call this repeatedly: BitBlt(hdc2,0,0,resx,resy,hdc,0,0,SRCCOPY); The cleanup code (I have no idea if this is correct): DeleteObject(hbitmap); ReleaseDC(hwind,hdc); if (hdc2) { DeleteDC(hdc2); } Every time BitBlt is called it grabs the screen and saves it in memory I can access thru data. Performance is somewhat satisfactory. BitBlt executes in 50 milliseconds (sometimes as low as 33ms) at 1920x1200x32. What surprises me is that when I switch display mode to 16 bit, 1920x1200x16, either through my graphics settings beforehand, or by using ChangeDisplaySettings, I get a massively improved screen grab time between 1ms and 2ms, which cannot be explained by the factor of two reduction in bit-depth. Using CreateDIBSection (as above) offers a significant speed up when in 16-bit mode, compared to if I set up with CreateCompatibleBitmap (6-7ms/f). Does anybody know why dropping to 16bit causes such a speed increase? Is there any hope for me to grab 32bit at such speeds? if not for the color depth, but for not forcing a change of screen buffer modes and the awful flickering.

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  • What would you suggest as a high school first language?

    - by ldigas
    Edit by OA: After reading some answers I'll just update the question a little. At first I put it a little bluntly, but some of those gave me some good arguments which have to be taken into consideration while making a stand on this one. (these are mostly picked up from comments and answers below). A few things to take into account: to many pupils this is a first programming language - at this stage most of them have trouble grasping a difference between data types, variable passing, ... and whatnot, less alone pointers and similar 'low level stuff' :) they will all have to pass this to get into next grade (well, big majority of them anyway) not all of them have computers at home, not all of them are willing to learn this, less alone interested in - so the concepts have to be taught on a finite time scale in school hours (as well as practice on computers) free literature is a bonus - the teacher will make some scripts and handaways, but still ... I wouldn't like to bear the parents with the burden of buying expensive literature (also, english is not a native language here ... and although they are all learning it, their ability to read it fluently is somewhat questionable) somebody gave an argument - "a language which does not get in the way of ideas" - good one accessibility on different platforms in not expecially important at this point - although most of the suggested ones are available on win as well as linux - not many macs in this part of europe (their prices are sky high for anything but specialised usage) I will check what are the licencing issues on ms express editions about using it massively in high schools for purposes like this - if someone has any info about this, please, do not be shy with it :) A friend of mine, informatics teacher - in EU it comes as something as junior cs teacher, in a local high school asked me what I thought about what should be the first language pupils should be taught? It is a technical school (a little more oriented towards mathematics than the gymnasium, but not computer oriented totally). So I'm asking you - what do you think should be the first language pupils are exposed to in highschool? They have been teaching Pascal so far, but she's not sure that's a good course. She thought about switching to C (which I resented; considering not all pupils have interests in programming, to start with, and should be taught something higher level since they are just gripping the idea of a loop and such ... for a start), I suggested python or ruby (preferably py since it handles all paradigms). What is your opinion on this one? I looked, but didn't find a similar question on SO, so if there is one, please just point me towards it. Edit: The assumption is that none of the pupils have been exposed to any programming in junior school. See also: What is the best way to teach young kids some basic programming concepts? Best ways to teach a beginner to program How and when do you teach a kid to code What is the easiest language to start with? High School Programming

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  • What to name 2 methods with same signatures

    - by coffeeaddict
    Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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  • File Output using Gforth

    - by sheepez
    As a first project I have been writing a short program to render the Mandelbrot fractal. I have got to the point of trying to output my results to a file ( e.g. .bmp or .ppm ) and got stuck. I have not really found any examples of exactly what I am trying to do, but I have found two examples of code to copy from one file to another. The examples in the Gforth documentation ( Section 3.27 ) did not work for me ( winXP ) in fact they seemed to open and create files but not write to files properly. This is the Gforth documentation example that copies the contents of one file to another: 0 Value fd-in 0 Value fd-out : open-input ( addr u -- ) r/o open-file throw to fd-in ; : open-output ( addr u -- ) w/o create-file throw to fd-out ; s" foo.in" open-input s" foo.out" open-output : copy-file ( -- ) begin line-buffer max-line fd-in read-line throw while line-buffer swap fd-out write-line throw repeat ; I found this example ( http://rosettacode.org/wiki/File_IO#Forth ) which does work. The main problem is that I can't isolate the part that writes to a file and have it still work. The main confusion is that r doesn't seem to consume TOS as I might expect. : copy-file2 ( a1 n1 a2 n2 -- ) r/o open-file throw >r w/o create-file throw r> begin pad maxstring 2 pick read-file throw ?dup while pad swap 3 pick write-file throw repeat close-file throw close-file throw ; \ Invoke it like this: s" output.txt" s" input.txt" copy-file I would be very grateful if someone could explain exactly how the open, create read and write -file words actually work, as my investigation keeps resulting in somewhat bizarre stacks. Any clues as to why the Gforth examples do not work might help too. In summary, I want to output from Gforth to a file and so far have been thwarted. Can anyone offer any help? Thank you Vijay, I think that I understand the example that you gave. However when I try to use something like this ( which I think is similar ): 0 value test-file : write-test s" testfile.out" w/o create-file throw to test-file s" test text" test-file write-line ; I get ok but nothing is put into the file, have I made a mistake? It seems that the problem was due to not flushing the relevant buffers or explicitly closing the file. Adding something like test-file flush-file throw or test-file close-file throw between write-line and ; makes it work. Thanks again Vijay for helping.

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  • Combined sign in and registration page?

    - by Ryan
    This is somewhat against rails convention but I am trying to have one controller that manages both user session authentication and user registration. I am having troubles figuring out how to go about this. So far I am merging the User Controller and the Sessions Controller and having the 'new' method deliver both a new usersession and a new user instance. With the new routes in rails 3 though, I am having trouble figuring out how to generate forms for these items. Below is the code: user_controller.rb class UserController < ApplicationController def new @user_session = UserSession.new @user = User.new end def create_user @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:notice] = "Account Successfully Registered" redirect_back_or_default signup_path else render :action => new end end def create_session @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" redirect_back_or_default login_path else render :action => new end end end views/user/new.html.erb <div id="login_section"> <% form_for @user_session do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.submit "Login", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> <div id="registration_section"> <% form_for @user do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.label :password_confirmation, "Password Confirmation" %> <%= f.text_field :password_confirmation %> <%= f.submit "Register", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> I imagine I will need to use :url = something for those forms, but I am unsure how to specify. Within routes.rb I have yet to specify either Usersor UserSessions as resources (not convinced that this is the best way to do it... but I could be). I would like, however, the registration and login on the same page and have implemented this by doing the following: routes.rb match 'signup' => 'user#new' match 'login' => 'user#new' What's the best way to go about solving this?

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  • IOC/Autofac problem

    - by Krazzy
    I am currently using Autofac, but am open to commentary regarding other IOC containers as well. I would prefer a solution using Autofac if possible. I am also somewhat new to IOC so I may be grossly misunderstanding what I should be using an IOC container for. Basically, the situation is as follows: I have a topmost IOC container for my app. I have a tree of child containers/scopes where I would like the same "service" (IWhatever) to resolve differently depending on which level in the tree it is resolved. Furthermore if a service is not registered at some level in the tree I would like the tree to be transversed upward until a suitable implementation is found. Furthermore, when constructing a given component, it is quite possible that I will need access to the parent container/scope. In many cases the component that I'm registering will have a dependency on the same or a different service in a parent scope. Is there any way to express this dependency with Autofac? Something like: builder.Register(c=> { var parentComponent = ?.Resolve<ISomeService>(); var childComponent = new ConcreteService(parentComponent, args...); return childComponent; }).As<ISomeService>(); I can't get anything similar to the above pseudocode to work for serveral reasons: A) It seems that all levels in the scope tree share a common set of registrations. I can't seem to find a way to make a given registration confined a certain "scope". B) I can't seem to find a way to get a hold of the parent scope of a given scope. I CAN resolve ILifetimeScope in the container and then case it to a concrete LifetimeScope instance which provides its parent scope, but I'm guessing it is probably note meant to be used this way. Is this safe? C) I'm not sure how to tell Autofac which container owns the resolved object. For many components I would like component to be "owned" by the scope in which it is constructed. Could tagged contexts help me here? Would I have to tag every level of the tree with a unique tag? This would be difficult because the tree depth is determined at runtime. Sorry for the extremely lengthy question. In summary: 1) Is there any way to do what I want to do using Autofac? 2) Is there another container more suited to this kind of dependency structure? 3) Is IOC the wrong tool for this altogether?

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  • Objective-C Basic class related question, retaining the value of a specific object using a class fil

    - by von steiner
    Members, scholars, code gurus. My background is far from any computer programming thus my question may seems basic and somewhat trivial to you. Nevertheless it seems that I can't put my head around it. I have googled and searched for the answer, just to get myself confused even more. With that, I would kindly ask for a simple explanation suitable for a non technical person such as myself and for other alike arriving to this thread. I have left a comment with the text "Here is the issue" below, referring to my question. // character.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface character : NSObject { NSString *name; int hitPoints; int armorClass; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString *name; @property int hitPoints,armorClass; -(void)giveCharacterInfo; @end // character.m #import "character.h" @implementation character @synthesize name,hitPoints,armorClass; -(void)giveCharacterInfo{ NSLog(@"name:%@ HP:%i AC:%i",name,hitPoints,armorClass); } @end // ClassAtLastViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ClassAtLastViewController : UIViewController { } -(void)callAgain; @end // ClassAtLastViewController.m #import "ClassAtLastViewController.h" #import "character.h" @implementation ClassAtLastViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { //[super viewDidLoad]; character *player = [[character alloc]init]; player.name = @"Minsc"; player.hitPoints = 140; player.armorClass = 10; [player giveCharacterInfo]; [player release]; // Up until here, All peachy! [self performSelector:@selector(callAgain) withObject:nil afterDelay:2.0]; } -(void)callAgain{ // Here is the issue, I assume that since I init the player again I loss everything // Q1. I loss all the data I set above, where is it than? // Q2. What is the proper way to implement this character *player = [[character alloc]init]; [player giveCharacterInfo]; } Many thanks in advance, Kindly remember that my background is more related to Salmons breeding than to computer code, try and lower your answer to my level if it's all the same to you.

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  • Stepping into Ruby Meta-Programming: Generating proxy methods for multiple internal methods

    - by mstksg
    Hi all; I've multiply heard Ruby touted for its super spectacular meta-programming capabilities, and I was wondering if anyone could help me get started with this problem. I have a class that works as an "archive" of sorts, with internal methods that process and output data based on an input. However, the items in the archive in the class itself are represented and processed with integers, for performance purposes. The actual items outside of the archive are known by their string representation, which is simply number_representation.to_s(36). Because of this, I have hooked up each internal method with a "proxy method" that converts the input into the integer form that the archive recognizes, runs the internal method, and converts the output (either a single other item, or a collection of them) back into strings. The naming convention is this: internal methods are represented by _method_name; their corresponding proxy method is represented by method_name, with no leading underscore. For example: class Archive ## PROXY METHODS ## ## input: string representation of id's ## output: string representation of id's def do_something_with id result = _do_something_with id.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 result = _do_something_with_pair id_1.to_i(36), id_2.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_these ids result = _do_something_with_these ids.map { |n| n.to_i(36) } return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def get_many_from id result = _get_many_from id return nil if result == nil # no sparse arrays returned return result.map { |n| n.to_s(36) } end ## INTERNAL METHODS ## ## input: integer representation of id's ## output: integer representation of id's def _do_something_with id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returning an id represented as an integer end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 # does something with two integer-represented id's, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _do_something_with_these ids # does something with multiple integer ids, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _get_many_from id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returns a collection of id's represented as integers end end There are a couple of reasons why I can't just convert them if id.class == String at the beginning of the internal methods: These internal methods are somewhat computationally-intensive recursive functions, and I don't want the overhead of checking multiple times at every step There is no way, without adding an extra parameter, to tell whether or not to re-convert at the end I want to think of this as an exercise in understanding ruby meta-programming Does anyone have any ideas? edit The solution I'd like would preferably be able to take an array of method names @@PROXY_METHODS = [:do_something_with, :do_something_with_pair, :do_something_with_these, :get_many_from] iterate through them, and in each iteration, put out the proxy method. I'm not sure what would be done with the arguments, but is there a way to test for arguments of a method? If not, then simple duck typing/analogous concept would do as well.

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  • CSS Z-Index with Gradient Background

    - by Jona
    I'm making a small webpage where the I would like the top banner with some text to remain on top, as such: HTML: <div id = "topBanner"> <h1>Some Text</h1> </div> CSS: #topBanner{ position:fixed; background-color: #CCCCCC; width: 100%; height:200px; top:0; left:0; z-index:900; background: -moz-linear-gradient(top, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%, rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%, rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%, rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* FF3.6+ */ background: -webkit-gradient(linear, left top, left bottom, color-stop(0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.65)), color-stop(32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44)), color-stop(82%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12)), color-stop(100%,rgba(204,204,204,0))); /* Chrome,Safari4+ */ background: -webkit-linear-gradient(top, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%,rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* Chrome10+,Safari5.1+ */ background: -o-linear-gradient(top, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%,rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* Opera 11.10+ */ background: -ms-linear-gradient(top, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%,rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* IE10+ */ background: linear-gradient(to bottom, rgba(204,204,204,0.65) 0%,rgba(204,204,204,0.44) 32%,rgba(204,204,204,0.12) 82%,rgba(204,204,204,0) 100%); /* W3C */ filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.gradient( startColorstr='#a6cccccc', endColorstr='#00cccccc',GradientType=0 ); /* IE6-9 */ } /*WebPage Header*/ h1{ font-size:3em; color:blue; text-shadow:#CCCCCC 2px 2px 2px, #000 0 -1px 2px; position: absolute; width: 570px; left:50%; right:50%; line-height:20px; margin-left: -285px; z-index:999; } The z-index works fine, except that because I'm using a gradient any time I scroll down the elements behind the banner are still visible, albeit somewhat transparent. Is there any way to make them total invisible? i.e., what I'm trying to do is make it as though the banner is a solid color, even though it's a gradient. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

    - by Naif
    I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

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  • What is a good generic sibling control Javascript communication strategy?

    - by James
    I'm building a webpage that is composed of several controls, and trying to come up with an effective somewhat generic client side sibling control communication model. One of the controls is the menu control. Whenever an item is clicked in here I wanted to expose a custom client side event that other controls can subscribe to, so that I can achieve a loosely coupled sibling control communication model. To that end I've created a simple Javascript event collection class (code below) that acts as like a hub for control event registration and event subscription. This code certainly gets the job done, but my question is is there a better more elegant way to do this in terms of best practices or tools, or is this just a fools errand? /// Event collection object - acts as the hub for control communication. function ClientEventCollection() { this.ClientEvents = {}; this.RegisterEvent = _RegisterEvent; this.AttachToEvent = _AttachToEvent; this.FireEvent = _FireEvent; function _RegisterEvent(eventKey) { if (!this.ClientEvents[eventKey]) this.ClientEvents[eventKey] = []; } function _AttachToEvent(eventKey, handlerFunc) { if (this.ClientEvents[eventKey]) this.ClientEvents[eventKey][this.ClientEvents[eventKey].length] = handlerFunc; } function _FireEvent(eventKey, triggerId, contextData ) { if (this.ClientEvents[eventKey]) { for (var i = 0; i < this.ClientEvents[eventKey].length; i++) { var fn = this.ClientEvents[eventKey][i]; if (fn) fn(triggerId, contextData); } } } } // load new collection instance. var myClientEvents = new bsdClientEventCollection(); // register events specific to the control that owns it, this will be emitted by each respective control. myClientEvents.RegisterEvent("menu-item-clicked"); Here is the part where this code above is consumed by source and subscriber controls. // menu control $(document).ready(function() { $(".menu > a").click( function(event) { //event.preventDefault(); myClientEvents.FireEvent("menu-item-clicked", $(this).attr("id"), null); }); }); <div style="float: left;" class="menu"> <a id="1" href="#">Menu Item1</a><br /> <a id="2" href="#">Menu Item2</a><br /> <a id="3" href="#">Menu Item3</a><br /> <a id="4" href="#">Menu Item4</a><br /> </div> // event subscriber control $(document).ready(function() { myClientEvents.AttachToEvent("menu-item-clicked", menuItemChanged); myClientEvents.AttachToEvent("menu-item-clicked", menuItemChanged2); myClientEvents.AttachToEvent("menu-item-clicked", menuItemChanged3); }); function menuItemChanged(id, contextData) { alert('menuItemChanged ' + id); } function menuItemChanged2(id, contextData) { alert('menuItemChanged2 ' + id); } function menuItemChanged3(id, contextData) { alert('menuItemChanged3 ' + id); }

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  • What is an overloaded operator in c++?

    - by Jeff
    I realize this is a basic question but I have searched online, been to cplusplus.com, read through my book, and I can't seem to grasp the concept of overloaded operators. A specific example from cplusplus.com is: // vectors: overloading operators example #include <iostream> using namespace std; class CVector { public: int x,y; CVector () {}; CVector (int,int); CVector operator + (CVector); }; CVector::CVector (int a, int b) { x = a; y = b; } CVector CVector::operator+ (CVector param) { CVector temp; temp.x = x + param.x; temp.y = y + param.y; return (temp); } int main () { CVector a (3,1); CVector b (1,2); CVector c; c = a + b; cout << c.x << "," << c.y; return 0; } from http://www.cplusplus.com/doc/tutorial/classes2/ but reading through it I'm still not understanding them at all. I just need a basic example of the point of the overloaded operator (which I assume is the "CVector CVector::operator+ (CVector param)"). There's also this example from wikipedia: Time operator+(const Time& lhs, const Time& rhs) { Time temp = lhs; temp.seconds += rhs.seconds; if (temp.seconds >= 60) { temp.seconds -= 60; temp.minutes++; } temp.minutes += rhs.minutes; if (temp.minutes >= 60) { temp.minutes -= 60; temp.hours++; } temp.hours += rhs.hours; return temp; } from "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Operator_overloading" The current assignment I'm working on I need to overload a ++ and a -- operator. Thanks in advance for the information and sorry about the somewhat vague question, unfortunately I'm just not sure on it at all.

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  • asp:Button is not calling server-side function

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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  • Why does std::map operator[] create an object if the key doesn't exist?

    - by n1ck
    Hi, I'm pretty sure I already saw this question somewhere (comp.lang.c++? Google doesn't seem to find it there either) but a quick search here doesn't seem to find it so here it is: Why does the std::map operator[] create an object if the key doesn't exist? I don't know but for me this seems counter-intuitive if you compare to most other operator[] (like std::vector) where if you use it you must be sure that the index exists. I'm wondering what's the rationale for implementing this behavior in std::map. Like I said wouldn't it be more intuitive to act more like an index in a vector and crash (well undefined behavior I guess) when accessed with an invalid key? Refining my question after seeing the answers: Ok so far I got a lot of answers saying basically it's cheap so why not or things similar. I totally agree with that but why not use a dedicated function for that (I think one of the comment said that in java there is no operator[] and the function is called put)? My point is why doesn't map operator[] work like a vector? If I use operator[] on an out of range index on a vector I wouldn't like it to insert an element even if it was cheap because that probably mean an error in my code. My point is why isn't it the same thing with map. I mean, for me, using operator[] on a map would mean: i know this key already exist (for whatever reason, i just inserted it, I have redundancy somewhere, whatever). I think it would be more intuitive that way. That said what are the advantage of doing the current behavior with operator[] (and only for that, I agree that a function with the current behavior should be there, just not operator[])? Maybe it give clearer code that way? I don't know. Another answer was that it already existed that way so why not keep it but then, probably when they (the ones before stl) choose to implement it that way they found it provided an advantage or something? So my question is basically: why choose to implement it that way, meaning a somewhat lack of consistency with other operator[]. What benefit do it give? Thanks

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  • Why are static classes considered “classes” and “reference types”?

    - by Timwi
    I’ve been pondering about the C# and CIL type system today and I’ve started to wonder why static classes are considered classes. There are many ways in which they are not really classes: A “normal” class can contain non-static members, a static class can’t. In this respect, a class is more similar to a struct than it is to a static class, and yet structs have a separate name. You can have a reference to an instance of a “normal” class, but not a static class (despite it being considered a “reference type”). In this respect, a class is more similar to an interface than it is to a static class, and yet interfaces have a separate name. The name of a static class can never be used in any place where a type name would normally fit: you can’t declare a variable of this type, you can’t use it as a base type, and you can’t use it as a generic type parameter. In this respect, static classes are somewhat more like namespaces. A “normal” class can implement interfaces. Once again, that makes classes more similar to structs than to static classes. A “normal” class can inherit from another class. It is also bizarre that static classes are considered to derive from System.Object. Although this allows them to “inherit” the static methods Equals and ReferenceEquals, the purpose of that inheritance is questionable as you would call those methods on object anyway. C# even allows you to specify that useless inheritance explicitly on static classes, but not on interfaces or structs, where the implicit derivation from object and System.ValueType, respectively, actually has a purpose. Regarding the subset-of-features argument: Static classes have a subset of the features of classes, but they also have a subset of the features of structs. All of the things that make a class distinct from the other kinds of type, do not seem to apply to static classes. Regarding the typeof argument: Making a static class into a new and different kind of type does not preclude it from being used in typeof. Given the sheer oddity of static classes, and the scarcity of similarities between them and “normal” classes, shouldn’t they have been made into a separate kind of type instead of a special kind of class?

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  • Jquery-UI tabs : Double loading of the default tab with

    - by Stephane
    I use jqueryui-tabs to display a tabbed UI. here is how my markup looks in a MasterPage: <div id="channel-tabs" class="ui-tabs"> <ul class="ui-tabs-nav"> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Blogs", "Index", "Blog", new { query = Model.Query, lang = Model.SelectedLanguage, fromTo = Model.FromTo, filters = Model.FilterId }, new{ title="Blog Results" }) %></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Forums", "Index", "Forums", new { query = Model.Query, lang = Model.SelectedLanguage, fromTo = Model.FromTo, filters = Model.FilterId }, null) %></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Twitter", "Index", "Twitter", new { query = Model.Query, lang = Model.SelectedLanguage, fromTo = Model.FromTo, filters = Model.FilterId }, null) %></li> </ul> <div id="Blog_Results"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ResultPlaceHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> If the content is loaded via ajax, I return a partial view with the content of the tab. If the content is loaded directly, I load a page that include the content in the ContentPlaceHolder. somewhat like this : <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="BlogPlaceHolder" runat="server"> <%=Html.Partial("Partial",Model) %> </asp:Content> //same goes for the other tabs. With this in place, if I access the url "/Forums" It loads the forum content in the Blog tab first, trigger the ajax load of the Blog tab and replace the content with the blog content. I tried putting a different placeholder for each tab, but that didn't fix everything either, since when loading "/Forums" it will sure load the forum tab, but the Blog tab will show up first. Furthermore, when using separate placeholders, If I load the "/Blogs" url, It will first load the content statically in the Blog contentplaceholder and then trigger an ajax call to load it a second time and replace it. If I just link the tab to the hashtag, then when loading the forum tabs, I won't get the blog content... How would you achieve the expected behaviour? I feel like I might have a deeper probelm in the organization of my views. Is putting the tabs in the masterpage the way to go? Maybe I should just hijax the links manually and not rely on jquery-ui tabs to do the work for me. I cannot load all tabs by default and display them using the hash tags, I need an ajax loading because it is a search process that can be long. So to sum up : /Forum should load the forum tab, and let the other tabs be loaded with an ajax call when clicking on it. /Twitter should load the twitter tab and let the other tabs.... the same goes for /Blogs and any tabs I would add later.

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  • Python and displaying HTML

    - by Tyler Seymour
    I've gotten pretty comfortable with Python and now I'm looking to make a rudimentary web application. I was somewhat scared of Django and the other Python frameworks so I went caveman on it and decided to generate the HTML myself using another Python script. Maybe this is how you do it anyways - but I'm just figuring this stuff out. I'm really looking for a tip-off on, well, what to do next. My Python script PRINTS the HTML (is this even correct? I need it to be on a webpage!), but now what? Thanks for your continued support during my learning process. One day I will post answers! -Tyler Here's my code: from SearchPhone import SearchPhone phones = ["Iphone 3", "Iphone 4", "Iphone 5","Galaxy s3", "Galaxy s2", "LG Lucid", "LG Esteem", "HTC One S", "Droid 4", "Droid RAZR MAXX", "HTC EVO", "Galaxy Nexus", "LG Optimus 2", "LG Ignite", "Galaxy Note", "HTC Amaze", "HTC Rezound", "HTC Vivid", "HTC Rhyme", "Motorola Photon", "Motorola Milestone", "myTouch slide", "HTC Status", "Droid 3", "HTC Evo 3d", "HTC Wildfire", "LG Optimus 3d", "HTC ThunderBolt", "Incredible 2", "Kyocera Echo", "Galaxy S 4g", "HTC Inspire", "LG Optimus 2x", "Samsung Gem", "HTC Evo Shift", "Nexus S", "LG Axis", "Droid 2", "G2", "Droid x", "Droid Incredible" ] print """<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>table of phones</title> </head> <body> </body> </html> """ #table print '<table width="100%" border="1">' for x in phones: y = SearchPhone(x) print "\t<tr>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[0]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[1]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[2]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[3]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[4]) + "</td>" print "\t</tr>" print "</table>

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  • User has many computers, computers have many attributes in different tables, best way to JOIN?

    - by krismeld
    I have a table for users: USERS: ID | NAME | ---------------- 1 | JOHN | 2 | STEVE | a table for computers: COMPUTERS: ID | USER_ID | ------------------ 13 | 1 | 14 | 1 | a table for processors: PROCESSORS: ID | NAME | --------------------------- 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | and a table for harddrives: HARDDRIVES: ID | NAME | ---------------------------| 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 36 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 90 | Each computer can have many attributes from the different attributes tables (processors, harddrives etc), so I have intersection tables like this, to link the attributes to the computers: COMPUTER_PROCESSORS: C_ID | P_ID | --------------| 13 | 27 | 13 | 28 | 14 | 27 | COMPUTER_HARDDRIVES: C_ID | H_ID | --------------| 13 | 35 | So user JOHN, with id 1 owns computer 13 and 14. Computer 13 has processor 27 and 28, and computer 13 has harddrive 35. Computer 14 has processor 27 and no harddrive. Given a user's id, I would like to retrieve a list of that user's computers with each computers attributes. I have figured out a query that gives me a somewhat of a result: SELECT computers.id, processors.id AS p_id, processors.name AS p_name, harddrives.id AS h_id, harddrives.name AS h_name, FROM computers JOIN computer_processors ON (computer_processors.c_id = computers.id) JOIN processors ON (processors.id = computer_processors.p_id) JOIN computer_harddrives ON (computer_harddrives.c_id = computers.id) JOIN harddrives ON (harddrives.id = computer_harddrives.h_id) WHERE computers.user_id = 1 Result: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | But this has several problems... Computer 14 doesnt show up, because it has no harddrive. Can I somehow make an OUTER JOIN to make sure that all computers show up, even if there a some attributes they don't have? Computer 13 shows up twice, with the same harddrive listet for both. When more attributes are added to a computer (like 3 blocks of ram), the number of rows returned for that computer gets pretty big, and it makes it had to sort the result out in application code. Can I somehow make a query, that groups the two returned rows together? Or a query that returns NULL in the h_name column in the second row, so that all values returned are unique? EDIT: What I would like to return is something like this: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | NULL | 14 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | NULL | NULL | Or whatever result that make it easy to turn it into an array like this [13] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1 [1] => PROCESSOR TYPE 2 [H_NAME] => [0] => HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 [14] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1

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  • sed - trying to replace first occurrence after a match

    - by wakkaluba
    I am facing a situation that drives me nuts. I am setting up an update server which uses a json file. Don't ask why or how, it sucks and is my only possibility to achieve it. I have been trying and researching for HOURS (many) because I went ballistic and wanted to crack this on my own. But I have to realize I got stuck and need help. So sorry for this chunk but I think it is somewhat important to see... The file is a one liner and repeating the following sequence with changing values (of course). "plugin_name_foo_bar": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [{"name": "bla", "optional": true, "version": "1.00"}], "developers": [{"developerId": "bla", "email": "[email protected]", "name": "Bla bla2nd"}], "excerpt": "some text {excerpt} !bla.png|thumbnail,border=1! ", "gav": "bla", "labels": ["report", "scm-related"], "name": "plugin_name_foo_bar", "previousTimestamp": "bla", "previousVersion": "1.0", "releaseTimestamp": "bla", "requiredCore": "1", "scm": "github.com", "sha1": "ynnBM2jWo25ZLDdP3ybBOnV/Pio=", "title": "bla", "url": "http://bla.org", "version": "1.0", "wiki": "https://bla.org"}, "Exclusion": {"buildDate": "bla", "dependencies": [], and the next plugin block is glued straight afterwards. What I now want to do is to search for "plugin_foo_bar": {" as this is the unique identifier for a new plugin description block. I want to replace the first sha1 value occuring afterwards. That's where I keep failing. I always grab the first,last or any occurrence in the entire file and not the block :( "title" is the unique identifier after the sha1 value. So I tried to make the .* less greedy but it ain't working out. last attempt was heading towards: sed -i 's/("name": "plugin_name_foo_bar.*sha1": ")([a-zA-Z0-9!@#\$%^&*()\[\]]*)(", "title"\)/\1blablabla\2/1' default.json to find the sha1 value of that plugin but still no joy. I hope someone knows - preferably a simpler approach - before I now continue with trial and error until I have to puke and freakout. I am working with SED on Windows, so Unix approach might help me to figure out how to achieve this in batch but please make it as one-liner if possible. Scripts are a real pain to convert. And I just need SED and no other solution with other tools like AWK. That is absolutely out of discussion. Any help is appreciated :) Cheers Jan

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  • Incompatible library creating new project with Aptana

    - by Phil Rice
    I am a ruby and rails newbie, so my abilities to debug this are somewhat limited. I have just added the eclipse plugin which failed, then downloaded the latest aptana studio which also failed. The failure was the same in both cases. The nature of the failure is that when I create a new rails project, I get an error message about an incompatible library version "C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60/lib/http11.so". The project is actually created, along with directories and files. Google searches around this error message have only returned a couple of hits, which were not very helpful I am wondering if this is about 64 bit libraries. My software stack is: Windows 7 home premium 64bit Aptana RadRails, build: 2.0.5.1278709071 Ruby1.9.3 gem 1.8.24 The console shows: "4320" C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems/custom_require.rb:36:in `require': iconv will be deprecated in the future, use String#encode instead. C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems/custom_require.rb:36:in `require': incompatible library version - C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60/lib/http11.so (LoadError) from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems/custom_require.rb:36:in `require' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `block in require' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `new_constants_in' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/mongrel-1.1.5-x86-mswin32-60/lib/mongrel.rb:12:in `<top (required)>' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems/custom_require.rb:60:in `require' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems/custom_require.rb:60:in `rescue in require' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems/custom_require.rb:35:in `require' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `block in require' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `new_constants_in' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rack-1.0.0/lib/rack/handler/mongrel.rb:1:in `<top (required)>' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rack-1.0.0/lib/rack/handler.rb:17:in `const_get' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rack-1.0.0/lib/rack/handler.rb:17:in `block in get' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rack-1.0.0/lib/rack/handler.rb:17:in `each' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rack-1.0.0/lib/rack/handler.rb:17:in `get' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rails-2.3.4/lib/commands/server.rb:45:in `<top (required)>' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems/custom_require.rb:36:in `require' from C:/Ruby193/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.9.1/rubygems/custom_require.rb:36:in `require' from script/server:3:in `<top (required)>' from -e:2:in `load' from -e:2:in `<main>'

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  • PHP MySQL Zend-ACL - Find all inherited items (Children / Parents)

    - by Scoobler
    I have one MySQL DB table like the following, the resources table: id | name | type 1 | guest | user 2 | member | user 3 | moderator | user 4 | owner | user 5 | admin | user 6 | index | controller Onto the next table, the rules table: id | user_id | rule | resource_id | extras 1 | 2 | 3 | 1 | null 2 | 3 | 3 | 2 | null 3 | 4 | 3 | 3 | null 4 | 5 | 3 | 4 | null 5 | 6 | 1 | 1 | index,login,register 6 | 6 | 2 | 2 | login,register 7 | 6 | 1 | 2 | logout OK, sorry for the length, but I am trying to give a full picture of what I am trying to do. So the way it works, a role (aka user) can be granted (rule: 1) access to a controller, a role can inherit (rule: 3) access from another role or a role and be denied (rule: 2) access to a controller. (A user is a resource and a controller is a resource) Access to actions are granted / denied using the extras column. This all works, its not a problem with setting up the ACL within zend. What I am now trying to do is show the relationships; to do that I need to find the lowest level a role is granted access to a controller stopping if it has explicitly been removed. I plan on listing the roles. When I click a role, I want it to show all the controllers that role has access to. Then clicking on a controller shows the actions the role is allowed to do. So in the example above, a guest is allowed to view the index action of the index controller along with the login action. A member inherits the same access, but is then denied access to the login action and register action. A moderator inherits the rules of a member. So if I were to select the role moderator. I want to see the controller index listed. If I click on the controller, it should show the allowed actions as being action: index. (which was originally granted to the guest, but hasn't since been dissallowed) Is there any examples to doing this. I am obviously working with the Zend MVC (PHP) and MySQL. Even just a persudo code example would be a helpful starting point - this is one of the last parts of the jigsaw I am putting together. P.S. Obviously I have the ACL object - is it going to be easier to interigate that or is it better to do it my self via PHP/MySQL? The aim will be, show what a role can access which will then allow me to add or edit a role, controller and action in a GUI style (that is somewhat the easy bit) - currently I am updating the DB manually as I have been building the site.

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