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• Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

  - by user577229

  I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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• What are the best workarounds for known problems with Hibernate's schema validation of floating poin

  - by Jason Novak

  I have several Java classes with double fields that I am persisting via Hibernate. For example, I have @Entity public class Node ... private double value; When Hibernate's org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle10gDialect creates the DDL for the Node table, it maps the value field to a "double precision" type. create table MDB.Node (... value double precision not null, ... It would appear that in Oracle, "double precision" is an alias for "float". So, when I try to verify the database schema using the org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.validateSchema() method, Oracle appears to describe the value column as a "float". This causes Hibernate to throw the following Exception org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in DBO.ACL_RULE for column value. Found: float, expected: double precision A very similar problem is listed in Hibernate's JIRA database as HHH-1961 (http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-1961). I'd like to avoid doing anything that will break MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server support so extending the Oracle10gDialect appears to be the most promising of the workarounds mentioned in HHH-1961. But extending a Dialect is something I've never done before and I'm afraid there may be some nasty gotchas. What is the best workaround for this problem that won't break our compatibility with MySql, Postgres, and Sql Server? Thanks for taking the time to look at this!

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• C++ : Avoid lot of boolean variable for multiple verification conditions in trading app

  - by Naveen

  Hi i am a junior dev in trading app... we have a order refresh verification unit. It has to verify order confirmation from exchange. We send a bunch of different request in bulk ( NEW, MODIFY, CANCEL ) to exchange... Verification has to happen for max N times with each T intervals for all orders. if verification successful for all the order before N retry then fine.. otherwise we need to indicate as verification unsuccessfull. i hv done a basic coding done in very urgent like below for( N times ) { for_each ( sent_request_order ) // SENT { 1) get all the refreshed order from DB or shared mem i.e REFRESHED 2) find current sent order in REFRESHED if( not_found ) not refreshed from exchange, continue to next order if( found ) case NEW : //check for new status, mark verification done case MODIFY : //check for modified status.. //if not mark pending, go to next order, //revisit the same after T time case CANCEL : //check for cancelled status.. //if not mark pending, go to next order, //revisit the same after T time } if( all_verified ) exit from verification. wait ( T sec ) } order_verification_pending, order_verification_done, order_visited, order_not_visited, all_verified, all_not_verified ... lot of boolean flags used for indication.. is there any better approach for doing this.... splitting responsibilities across the classes......???? i know this is not a general question.... but still flags are making me tidious to handle...

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• How to replace custom IDs in the order of their appearance with a shell script?

  - by Péter Török

  I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some identifiers are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

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• The Immerman-Szelepcsenyi Theorem

  - by Daniel Lorch

  In the Immerman-Szelepcsenyi Theorem, two algorithms are specified that use non-determinisim. There is a rather lengthy algorithm using "inductive counting", which determines the number of reachable configurations for a given non-deterministic turing machine. The algorithm looks like this: Let m_{i+1}=0 For all configurations C Let b=0, r=0 For all configurations D Guess a path from I to D in at most i steps If found Let r=r+1 If D=C or D goes to C in 1 step Let b=1 If r<m_i halt and reject Let m_{i+1}=m_{i+1}+b I is the starting configuration. m_i is the number of configurations reachable from the starting configuration in i steps. This algorithm only calculates the "next step", i.e. m_i+1 from m_i. This seems pretty reasonable, but since we have nondeterminisim, why don't we just write: Let m_i = 0 For all configurations C Guess a path from I to C in at most i steps If found m_i = m_i + 1 What is wrong with this algorithm? I am using nondeterminism to guess a path from I to C, and I verify reachability I am iterating through the list of ALL configurations, so I am sure to not miss any configuration I respect space bounds I can generate a certificate (the list of reachable configs) I believe I have a misunderstanding of the "power" of non-determinisim, but I can't figure out where to look next. I am stuck on this for quite a while and I would really appreciate any help.

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• InvalidOperationException when executing SqlCommand with transaction

  - by Serhat Özgel

  I have this code, running parallel in two separate threads. It works fine for a few times, but at some random point it throws InvalidOperationException: The transaction is either not associated with the current connection or has been completed. At the point of exception, I am looking inside the transaction with visual studio and verify its connection is set normally. Also command.Transaction._internalTransaction. _transactionState is set to Active and IsZombied property is set to false. This is a test application and I am using Thread.Sleep for creating longer transactions and causing overlaps. Why may the exception being thrown and what can I do about it? IDbCommand command = new SqlCommand("Select * From INFO"); IDbConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); command.Connection = connection; IDbTransaction transaction = null; try { connection.Open(); transaction = connection.BeginTransaction(); command.Transaction = transaction; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); // Sometimes throws exception Thread.Sleep(forawhile); // For overlapping transactions running in parallel transaction.Commit(); } catch (ApplicationException exception) { if (transaction != null) { transaction.Rollback(); } } finally { connection.Close(); }

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• Java to C# code converter

  - by acadia

  Hello, Are there any converters available that converts Java code to C#? I need to convert the below code into C# String token = new String(""); URL url1 =new URL( "http", domain, Integer.valueOf(portnum), "/Workplace/setCredentials?op=getUserToken&userId="+username+"&password="+password +"&verify=true"); URLConnection conn1=url1.openConnection(); ((HttpURLConnection)conn1).setRequestMethod("POST"); InputStream contentFileUrlStream = conn1.getInputStream(); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(contentFileUrlStream)); token=br.readLine(); String encodedAPIToken = URLEncoder.encode(token); String doubleEncodedAPIToken ="ut=" + encodedAPIToken;//.substring(0, encodedAPIToken.length()-1); //String doubleEncodedAPIToken ="ut=" + URLEncoder.encode(encodedAPIToken); //String userToken = "ut=" + URLEncoder.encode(token, "UTF-8"); //URLEncoder.encode(token); String vsId = "vsId=" + URLEncoder.encode(docId.substring(5, docId.length()), "UTF-8"); url="http://" + domain + ":" + portnum + "/Workplace/getContent?objectStoreName=RMROS&objectType=document&" + vsId + "&" +doubleEncodedAPIToken; String vsId = "vsId=" + URLEncoder.encode(docId.substring(5, docId.length()), "UTF-8"); url="http://" + domain + ":" + portnum + "/Workplace/getContent?objectStoreName=RMROS&objectType=document&" + vsId + "&" +doubleEncodedAPIToken; Thanks in advance

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• Server side form validation and POST data

  - by tomcritchlow

  Hi, I have a user input form here: http://www.7bks.com/create (Google login required) When you first create a list you are asked to create a public username. Unfortuantely currently there is no constraint to make this unique. I'm working on the code to enforce unique usernames at the moment and would like to know the best way to do it. Tech details: appengine, python, webapp framework What I'm planning is something like this: first the /create form posts the data to /inputlist/ (this is the same as currently happens) /inputlist/ queries the datastore for the given username. If it already exists then redirect back to /create display the /create page with all the info previously but with an additional error message of "this username is already taken" My question is: Is this the best way of handling server side validation? What's the best way of storing the list details while I verify and modify the username? As I see it I have 3 options to store the list details but I'm not sure which is "best": Store the list details in the session cookie (I am using GAEsessions for cookies) Define a separate POST class for /create and post the list data back from /inputlist/ to the /create page (currently /create only has a GET class) Store the list in the datastore, even though the username is non-unique. Thank you very much for your help :) I'm pretty new to python and coding in general so if I've missed something obvious my apologies. Tom PS - I'm sure I can eventually figure it out but I can't find any documentation on POSTing data using the webapp appengine framework which I'd need in order to do solution 2 above :s maybe you could point me in the right direction for that too? Thanks! PPS - It's a little out of date now but you can see roughly how the /create and /inputlist/ code works at the moment here: 7bks.com Gist

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• Blackberry app stuck trying to access a server.

  - by Tejaswi Yerukalapudi

  Hi, I've built a ASP.NET webservice and I'm trying to access it from a Blackberry. I've been testing it out with multiple devices and the simulator and it works fine, but there's just the one Blackberry 9000 (It's not the model, I've tried it out with another Blackberry 9000), and it's stuck waiting for a response from the server. Relevant section of the code that accesses this - System.out.println("IN ntwk access thread, start point"); HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(serviceURL + WSNAME); connection.setRequestMethod(HttpConnection.POST); connection.setRequestProperty("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); connection.setRequestProperty("Content-length", Integer.toString(postData1.length)); OutputStream requestOutput = connection.openOutputStream(); requestOutput.write(postData1); requestOutput.close(); final int responseCode = connection.getResponseCode(); if(responseCode!= HttpConnection.HTTP_OK) { //Process the error condition } // Request succeeded process the data. It seems to be getting stuck after connection.getResponseCode(). Is there some way I can verify what's going wrong with this particular device? Thanks, Teja

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• How to genrate a monochrome bit mask for a 32bit bitmap

  - by Mordachai

  Under Win32, it is a common technique to generate a monochrome bitmask from a bitmap for transparency use by doing the following: SetBkColor(hdcSource, clrTransparency); VERIFY(BitBlt(hdcMask, 0, 0, bm.bmWidth, bm.bmHeight, hdcSource, 0, 0, SRCCOPY)); This assumes that hdcSource is a memory DC holding the source image, and hdcMask is a memory DC holding a monochrome bitmap of the same size (so both are 32x32, but the source is 4 bit color, while the target is 1bit monochrome). However, this seems to fail for me when the source is 32 bit color + alpha. Instead of getting a monochrome bitmap in hdcMask, I get a mask that is all black. No bits get set to white (1). Whereas this works for the 4bit color source. My search-foo is failing, as I cannot seem to find any references to this particular problem. I have isolated that this is indeed the issue in my code: i.e. if I use a source bitmap that is 16 color (4bit), it works; if I use a 32 bit image, it produces the all-black mask. Is there an alternate method I should be using in the case of 32 bit color images? Is there an issue with the alpha channel that overrides the normal behavior of the above technique? Thanks for any help you may have to offer! ADDENDUM: I am still unable to find a technique that creates a valid monochrome bitmap for my GDI+ produced source bitmap. I have somewhat alleviated my particular issue by simply not generating a monochrome bitmask at all, and instead I'm using TransparentBlt(), which seems to get it right (but I don't know what they're doing internally that's any different that allows them to correctly mask the image). It might be useful to have a really good, working function: HBITMAP CreateTransparencyMask(HDC hdc, HBITMAP hSource, COLORREF crTransparency); Where it always creates a valid transparency mask, regardless of the color depth of hSource. Ideas?

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• Emacs: Often switching between Emacs and my IDE's editor, how to automatically 'synch' the files?

  - by WizardOfOdds

  I very often need to do some Emacs magic on some files and I need to go back and forth between my IDE (IntelliJ IDEA) and Emacs. When a change is made under Emacs (and after I've saved the file) and I go back to IntelliJ the change appears immediately (if I recall correctly I configured IntelliJ to "always reload file when a modification is detected on disk" or something like that). I don't even need to reload: as soon as IntelliJ IDEA gains focus, it instantly reloads the file (and I hence have immediately access to the modifications I made from Emacs). So far, so very good. However "the other way round", it doesn't work yet. Can I configure Emacs so that everytime a file is changed on disk it reloads it? Or make Emacs, everytime it "gains focus", verify if any file currently opened has been modified on disk? I know I can start modifying the buffer under Emacs and it shall instantly warn that it has been modified, but I'd rather have it do it immediately (for example if I used my IDE to do some big change, when I come back to Emacs what I see may not be at all anymore what the file contains and it's a bit weird).

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• Checking for valid email addresses

  - by Roland

  I'm running a website with more than 60 000 registered users. Every week notifications are send to these users via email, now I've noticed some of the mail addresses do not exists anymore eg. the domain address is valid but the email name en asdas@ is not valid anymore since person does not work at a company anymore etc. Now I'm looping through the database and doing some regular expression checks and checking if the MX records exist with the following two functions function verify_email($email){ if(!preg_match('/^[_A-z0-9-]+((\.|\+)[_A-z0-9-]+)*@[A-z0-9-]+(\.[A-z0-9-]+)*(\.[A-z]{2,4})$/',$email)){ return false; } else { return true; } } // Our function to verify the MX records function verify_email_dns($email){ list($name, $domain) = split('@',$email); if(!checkdnsrr($domain,'MX')){ return false; } else { return true; } } If the email address is in an invalid format or the domain does not exists I delete the users account. Are there any methods I could use to check if the email address still exists or not if the domain name is valid and the email address is in the correct format? For example [email protected] does not exist anymore but test.com is a valid domain name.

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• iPhone: Leak with UIWebView loading Office documents. Any ideas how to avoid it?

  - by Thomas Tempelmann

  While there are already quite a few posts about leaks around UIWebView, mine is a bit more special, I believe, and thus deserves its own post here. I see a reproducible large leak every time I load a Office document such as a Word or Excel file. For instance, every time I display a 180KB .doc file, I get a 100KB leak. And that happens with both the simulator and an actual device, running OS 3.1.3. The leak is not visible with the Leaks instrument but only by looking at the malloc instances via the ObjectAlloc instrument. Here's a picture from the instruments trace: I've also made a demo project, UIWebView-Leak.zip, so you can verify this yourself. To see the leak, use the ObjectAlloc instrument, switch to the view where you see individual allocation objects, and sort by size so that you see the large ones in a group, just like in my picture above. Then view a Office document a few times and find the Malloc objects that keep staying "Live" even after the actual UIWebView has been freed. Is this a known bug? Or is there any way I can avoid these leaks? I.e, have you successfully shown Office documents on an iPhone withing getting such leaks? Note: I've reported this as a bug to Apple now, too (ID 7950594) I am still waiting for someone (including Apple) to confirm this as a true leak or show why it isn't (i.e. that I do something wrong or make wrong assumptions)

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• Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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• Atomic swap in GNU C++

  - by Steve

  I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

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• How to Create a Folder in the Current Document Library if it's not already present?

  - by Rosh Malai

  All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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• Customizing the TFS 2008 build sequence to avoid compilation and deploy SSRS

  - by Andrew

  I'm trying to create a CI process for SQL Server Reporting Services. I am fairly new to TFS but quite experienced with MSBuild. In the past I've used a combination of MSBuild with Team City so the whole build process is more or less custom. Here lies the start of my problems, as the solution I am deploying only contains Report Server projects (rds), no compilation is required. I thought that I would override the the first default task that TFS runs (EndToEndIteration) to override the default TFS build sequence and inject my own. The first snag that I have come across is that the build always fails, how can I set the status of the build to success? Currently the EndToEndIteration task is very light and only has a message. Is this the best method to create a custom build process in TFS where compilation is not required? Or should I use the default sequence and override one of the hook tasks mentioned in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa337604%28VS.80%29.aspx (ie: AfterCompile) The core steps that I'd like to achieve are: Bundle the RDL and datasource files Connect to the host server to register/deploy the reports Re-apply any subscriptions that previously existed Run tests to verify the deployment succeeded and is returning results as expected I have found another article on Report services deployment: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/88710/reporting-services-deployment But it doesn't mention the best practice for customizing the standard build process. Any help would be appreciated.

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• What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

  - by durandai

  I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

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• How to replace pairs of strings in two files to identical IDs?

  - by Péter Török

  Sorry if the title is not very intelligible, I couldn't come up with anything better. Hopefully my explanation is clear enough: I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some strings are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. [Update] There are about 40 distinct pairs of such identifiers.[/Update] I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

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• 1. Get the Current Document Library 2. Create a Folder "MetaFolder" if it's not already present

  - by Rosh Malai

  All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... Thanks public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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• How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

  - by ShaneC

  I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

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• Programming style question on how to code functions

  - by shawnjan

  Hey all! So, I was just coding a bit today, and I realized that I don't have much consistency when it comes to a coding style when programming functions. One of my main concerns is whether or not its proper to code it so that you check that the input of the user is valid OUTSIDE of the function, or just throw the values passed by the user into the function and check if the values are valid in there. Let me sketch an example: I have a function that lists hosts based on an environment, and I want to be able to split the environment into chunks of hosts. So an example of the usage is this: listhosts -e testenv -s 2 1 This will get all the hosts from the "testenv", split it up into two parts, and it is displaying part one. In my code, I have a function that you pass it in a list, and it returns a list of lists based on you parameters for splitting. BUT, before I pass it a list, I first verify the parameters in my MAIN during the getops process, so in the main I check to make sure there are no negatives passed by the user, I make sure the user didnt request to split into say, 4 parts, but asking to display part 5 (which would not be valid), etc. tl;dr: Would you check the validity of a users input the flow of you're MAIN class, or would you do a check in your function itself, and either return a valid response in the case of valid input, or return NULL in the case of invalid input? Obviously both methods work, I'm just interested to hear from experts as to which approach is better :) Thanks for any comments and suggestions you guys have!

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• Getting value from pointer

  - by Eric

  Hi, I'm having problem getting the value from a pointer. I have the following code in C++: void* Nodo::readArray(VarHash& var, string varName, int posicion, float& d) { //some code before... void* res; float num = bit.getFloatFromArray(arregloTemp); //THIS FUNCTION RETURN A FLOAT AND IT'S OK cout << "NUMBER " << num << endl; d = num; res = &num; return res } int main() { float d = 0.0; void* res = n.readArray(v, "c", 0, d); //THE VALUES OF THE ARRAY ARE: {65.5, 66.5}; float* car3 = (float*)res; cout << "RESULT_READARRAY " << *car3 << endl; cout << "FLOAT REFERENCE: " << d << endl; } The result of running this code is the following: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //CORRECT NUMBER 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 66.5 //CORRECT For some reason, when I get the value of the pointer returned by the function called readArray is incorrect. I'm passing a float variable(d) as a reference in the same function just to verify that the value is ok, and as you can see, THE FLOAT REFERENCE matches the NUMBER. If I declare the variable num(read array) as a static float, the first RESULT_READARRAY will be 65.5, that is correct, however, the next value will be the same instead of 66.5. Let me show you the result of running the code using static float variable: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 //PERFECT FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //¨PERFECT NUMBER 65.5 //THIS IS INCORRECT, IT SHOULD BE 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 Do you know how can I get the correct value returned by the function called readArray()?

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• Can't create new "enterprise" project in netbeans

  - by Danny

  I'm running netbeans 6.7.1 on Ubuntu Karmic. On the services tab I added a new glassfish v3 prelude server, I installed it to my home directory using the download button. I started the server and opened localhost:4848 to verify I can get into the admin panel. Then I did file-new projct and created a new java web-web application. On the configuration step of the wizard it preselected glassfish v3 prelude and java ee 5. I accepted and did a test run. I ran the project just fine. So now I did file-new projecct and attempted to create a Java EE-ejb module. When I arrive to the server configuration stage of the wizard, it doesn't show any servers on the server dropdown list (so it's empty), it also doesn't see any version of java on the "java ee version" dropdown list. This also happens for the other "Java EE" project types. I can't seem to get my head around why I can make a new web application but not an ejb module. Can anyone provide any insight to why it might not be seeing that I have java or glassfish installed when I try to make a new java ee project but I see it when I try to make a java web project?

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• How can you make a PHP application require a key to work?

  - by jasondavis

  About 4 years ago I used a php product called amember pro, it is a membership script which has plugins for lie 30 different payment processors, it was an easy way to set up an automated membership site where users would pay a payment and get access to a certain area. The script used ioncube http://www.ioncube.com/sa_encoder.php to prevent non-paying users from using the script, it requered that you register the domain that the script would be used on, you were then given a key to enter into the file that would make the system/script work. Now I am wanting to know how to do such a task, I know ioncube encoder just makes it hard to see the code, in the script I mention, they would just have a small section at the tp of 1 of the included pages that was encrypted and without that part of the code it would break and in addition if the owner of the script did not put you domain in the list and give you a valid key it would not work, also if you tried to use the script on a different domain it would not work. I realize that somewhere in the encrypted code that is must of sent you key to there server and checked that it was valid for the domain name it is on, or possibly it did not even do that, maybe the key would just verify that it matched the domain the script was on, that more likely what it did. Here is where the real question is, How would you make a script require the portion that is encrypted? If I made a script and had a small encrypted part at the top, it would seem a user would be able to easily just remove the encrypted part and figure out what the non encrypted part is doing and fix it to work. Any ideas?

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