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• Why do I get "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid"

  - by Brian Ojeda

  Why do I get a "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid" for the first... $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); In the following code... $bId = trim($_POST['bId']); $title = trim($_POST['title']); $story = trim($_POST['story']); $q = "SELECT * "; $q .= "FROM " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` "; $q .= "WHERE `blog`.`id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); //confirm_query($r); if (mysql_num_rows($r) == 1) { $q = "UPDATE " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` SET `title` = '{$title}', `story` = '{$story}' WHERE `id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); if (mysql_affected_rows() == 1) { //Successful $data['success'] = true; $date['errors'] = false; $date['message'] = "You are the Greatest!"; } else { //Fail $data['success'] = false; $data['error'] = true; $date['message'] = "You can't do it fool!"; } } I also get an "mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource" error too. Side notes: I am using 1&1 Hosting (worst hosting ever), custom .htaccess file with one line text to enable PHP 5.2 (only why with 1&1 Hosting).

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• Assign Multiple Custom User Roles to a Custom Post Type

  - by OUHSD Webmaster

  Okay here's the situation.... I'm working on a my business website. There will be a work/portfolio area. "Work" is a custom post type. "Designer" is a custom user role. "Client" is a custom user role. In creating a new "Work" post I would like to be able to select both a "designer" and "Client" to assign to the piece of work, as I would assign an author to a regular ol' post. I tried the method from this answer but it did not work for me. ) I placed it in my functions.php file. ` add_filter('wp_dropdown_users', 'test'); function test($output) { global $post; //Doing it only for the custom post type if($post->post_type == 'work') { $users = get_users(array('role'=>'designer')); //We're forming a new select with our values, you can add an option //with value 1, and text as 'admin' if you want the admin to be listed as well, //optionally you can use a simple string replace trick to insert your options, //if you don't want to override the defaults $output .= "<select id='post_author_override' name='post_author_override' class=''>"; foreach($users as $user) { $output .= "<option value='".$user->id."'>".$user->user_login."</option>"; } $output .= "</select>"; } return $output; } ` Any help would be extremely appreciated!

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• Copy and paste between sheets in a workbook with VBA code

  - by Hannah

  Trying to write a macro in VBA for Excel to look at the value in a certain column from each row of data in a list and if that value is "yes" then it copies and pastes the entire row onto a different sheet in the same workbook. Let's name the two sheets "Data" and "Final". I want to have the sheets referenced so it does not matter which sheet I have open when it runs the code. I was going to use a Do loop to cycle through the rows on the one data sheet until it finds there are no more entries, and if statements to check the values. I am confused about how to switch from one sheet to the next. How do I specifically reference cells in different sheets? Here is the pseudocode I had in mind: Do while DataCells(x,1).Value <> " " for each DataCells(x,1).Value="NO" if DataCells(x,2).Value > DataCells(x,3).Value or _ DataCells(x,4).Value < DataCells(x,5).Value 'Copy and paste/insert row x from Data to Final sheet adding a new 'row for each qualifying row else x=x+1 end else if DataCells(x,1).Value="YES" Loop 'copy and paste entire row to a third sheet 'continue this cycle until all rows in the data sheet are examined

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• PHP Transferring Photos From One Oracle Database Table to Another

  - by Jonathan Swift

  I am attempting to transfer a set of photos (blobs) from one table to another across databases. I'm nearly there, except for binding the photo parameter. I have the following code: $conn_db1 = oci_pconnect('username', 'password', 'db1'); $conn_db2 = oci_pconnect('username', 'password', 'db2'); $parse_db1_select = oci_parse($conn_db1, "SELECT REF PID, BINARY_OBJECT PHOTOGRAPH FROM BLOBS"); $parse_db2_insert = oci_parse($conn_db2, "INSERT INTO PHOTOGRAPHS (PID, PHOTOGRAPH) VALUES (:pid, :photo)"); oci_execute($parse_db1_select); while ($row = oci_fetch_assoc($parse_db1_select)) { $pid = $row['PID']; $photo = $row['PHOTOGRAPH']; oci_bind_by_name($parse_db2_insert, ':pid', $pid, -1, OCI_B_INT); // This line causes an error oci_bind_by_name($parse_db_insert, ':photo', $photo, -1, OCI_B_BLOB); oci_execute($parse_db2_insert); } oci_close($db1); oci_close($db2); But I get the following error, on the error line commented above: Warning: oci_execute() [function.oci-execute]: ORA-03113: end-of-file on communication channel Process ID: 0 Session ID: 790 Serial number: 118 Does anyone know the right way to do this?

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• JDBC call not executing

  - by dbyrne

  I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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• SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

  - by gbn

  Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

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• Dangers when deploying Flash/Flex UI test automation hooks to production?

  - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham

  I am interested in doing automated testing against a Flex based UI. I have found out that my best options for UI automation (due to being C# controllable, good licensing conditions, etc) all seem to require that I compile test hooks into my application. Because of this, I am thinking of recommending that these hooks be compiled into our build. I have found a few places on the net that recommend not deploying bits with this instrumentation enabled, and I'd like to know why. Is it a performance drain, or a security risk? If it is a security risk, can you explain how the attack surface is increased? I am not a Flash or Flex developer, though I have some experience with threat modeling. For reference, here's the tools I'm specifically considering: QTP Selenium-Flex API I am having problems finding all the warnings/suggestions I found last night, but here's an example that I can find: http://www.riatest.com/products/getting-started.html Warning! Automation enabled applications expose all properties of all GUI components. This makes them vulnerable to malicious use. Never make automation enabled application publicly available. Always restrict access to such applications and to RIATest Loader to trusted users only. Related question (how to do conditional compilation to insert/remove those hooks): Conditionally including Flex libraries (SWCs) in mxmlc/compc ant tasks

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• If we make a number every millisecond, how much data would we have in a day?

  - by Roger Travis

  I'm a bit confused here... I'm being offered to get into a project, where would be an array of certain sensors, that would give off reading every millisecond ( yes, 1000 reading in a second ). Reading would be a 3 or 4 digit number, for example like 818 or 1529. This reading need to be stored in a database on a server and accessed remotely. I never worked with such big amounts of data, what do you think, how much in terms of MBs reading from one sensor for a day would be?... 4(digits)x1000x60x60x24 ... = 345600000 bits ... right ? about 42 MB per day... doesn't seem too bad, right? therefor a DB of, say, 1 GB, would hold 23 days of info from 1 sensor, correct? I understand that MySQL & PHP probably would not be able to handle it... what would you suggest, maybe some aps? azure? oracle? ... Thansk!

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• php syntax confusion accessing database result

  - by Babak

  I am trying to do the following: <?php foreach($sqlResult as $row): ?> <tr> <?php foreach($formdata['columns'] as $column): ?> <td><?php echo $row->$column['name']; ?></td> <?php endforeach; ?> </tr> <?php endforeach; ?> This does not work. $row is returned by my mysql query, it has the following : row-id, row-author, row-name and these work as they echo fine. $columns is the following array: 'columns' => array ( 1 => array ( 'name' => 'id' ), 2 => array ( 'name' => 'author' ), 3 => array ( 'name' => 'date' ), 4 => array ( 'name' => 'title' ) it also works fine as $column['name'] echoes id, author, date, title my question is how would it be possible for me to access the $row-method (is it a method?) by passing it a name from the array??

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• Entity framework generates values for NOT NULL columns which has default defined in db.

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  Hi I have a table Customer. One of the columns in table is DateCreated. This column is NOT NULL but default values is defined for this column in db. When I add new Customer using EF4 from my code. var customer = new Customer(); customer.CustomerName = "Hello"; customer.Email = "[email protected]"; // Watch out commented out. //customer.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; context.AddToCustomers(customer); context.SaveChanges(); Above code generates following query. exec sp_executesql N'insert [dbo].[Customers]([CustomerName], [Email], [Phone], [DateCreated], [DateUpdated]) values (@0, @1, null, @2, null) select [CustomerId] from [dbo].[Customers] where @@ROWCOUNT > 0 and [CustomerId] = scope_identity() ',N'@0 varchar(100),@1 varchar(100),@2 datetime2(7) ',@0='Hello',@1='[email protected]',@2='0001-01-01 00:00:00' And throws following error The conversion of a datetime2 data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range value. The statement has been terminated. Can you please tell me how NOT NULL columns which has default values at db level should not have values generated by EF? DB: DateCreated DATETIME NOT NULL DateCreated Properties in EF: Nullable: False Getter/Setter: public Type: DateTime DefaultValue: None Thanks.

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• Adding label and text box control to GUI

  - by Mike

  I would like to know what code to insert and where to add a simple label that can just say the word "Label" and a input text box that I can enter a number. public CalculateDimensions() { JTabbedPane Tab = new JTabbedPane(); JPanel jplInnerPanel1 = createInnerPanel("First Tab"); Tab.addTab("One", jplInnerPanel1); Tab.setSelectedIndex(0); JPanel jplInnerPanel2 = createInnerPanel("Second Tab"); Tab.addTab("Two", jplInnerPanel2); JPanel jplInnerPanel3 = createInnerPanel("Third Tab"); Tab.addTab("Three", jplInnerPanel3); JPanel jplInnerPanel4 = createInnerPanel("Fourth Tab"); Tab.addTab("Four", jplInnerPanel4); JPanel jplInnerPanel5 = createInnerPanel("Fifth Tab"); Tab.addTab("Five", jplInnerPanel5); setLayout(new GridLayout(1, 1)); add(Tab); } protected JPanel createInnerPanel(String text) { JPanel jplPanel = new JPanel(); JLabel jlbDisplay = new JLabel(text); jlbDisplay.setHorizontalAlignment(JLabel.CENTER); jplPanel.setLayout(new GridLayout(1, 1)); jplPanel.add(jlbDisplay); return jplPanel; } public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame("Calculations"); frame.addWindowListener(new WindowAdapter() { public void windowClosing(WindowEvent e) { System.exit(0); } }); frame.getContentPane().add(new CalculateDimensions(), BorderLayout.CENTER); frame.setSize(400, 400); frame.setVisible(true); } }

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• How to implement a simple queue properly?

  - by Stephen Hsu

  The current Go library doesn't provide the queue container. To implement a simple queue, I use circle array as the underlying data structure. It follows algorithms mentioned in TAOCP: Insert Y into queue X: X[R]<-Y; R<-(R+1)%M; if R=F then OVERFLOW. Delete Y from queue X: if F=R then UNDERFLOW; Y<-X[F]; F<-(F+1) % M. F: Front, R: Rear, M: Array length. Following is the code: package main import ( "fmt" ) type Queue struct { len int head, tail int q []int } func New(n int) *Queue { return &Queue{n, 0, 0, make([]int, n)} } func (p *Queue) Enqueue(x int) bool { p.q[p.tail] = x p.tail = (p.tail + 1) % p.len return p.head != p.tail } func (p *Queue) Dequeue() (int, bool) { if p.head == p.tail { return 0, false } x := p.q[p.head] p.head = (p.head + 1) % p.len return x, true } func main() { q := New(10) for i := 1; i < 13; i++ { fmt.Println(i, q.Enqueue(i)) } fmt.Println() for i := 1; i < 13; i++ { fmt.Println(q.Dequeue()) } } But the output is obviously wrong: 1 true 2 true 3 true 4 true 5 true 6 true 7 true 8 true 9 true 10 false 11 true 12 true 11 true 12 true 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false 0 false I think I need one more field to make the code work properly. What do you suggest?

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• How to organize and manage multiple database credentials in application?

  - by Polaris878

  Okay, so I'm designing a stand-alone web service (using RestLET as my framework). My application is divided in to 3 layers: Data Layer (just above the database, provides APIs for connecting to/querying database, and a database object) Object layer (responsible for serialization from the data layer... provides objects which the client layer can use without worrying about database) Client layer (This layer is the RestLET web service... basically just creates objects from the object layer and fulfills webservice request) Now, for each object I create in the object layer, I want to use different credentials (so I can sandbox each object...). The object layer should not know the exact credentials (IE the login/pw/DB URL etc). What would be the best way to manage this? I'm thinking that I should have a super class Database object in my data layer... and each subclass will contain the required log-in information... this way my object layer can just go Database db = new SubDatabase(); and then continue using that database. On the client level, they would just be able to go ItemCollection items = new ItemCollection(); and have no idea/control over the database that gets connected. I'm asking this because I am trying to make my platform extensible, so that others can easily create services off of my platform. If anyone has any experience with these architectural problems or how to manage this sort of thing I'd appreciate any insight or advice... Feel free to ask questions if this is confusing. Thanks! My platform is Java, the REST framework I'm using is RestLET, my database is MySQL.

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• How to add divs inside a div using jquery

  - by Neal

  Hi, I am trying to insert a div inside another div using add() of jquery but it is not working " <div class="portlet" id="panel1"> <div class="portlet-header">1.Feeds</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> <div class="portlet" id="panel2"> <div class="portlet-header">2.News</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> " " <div class="portlet" id="panel3"> <div class="portlet-header">3.Shopping</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> " Actually panel1 and panel2 are inside a div, and panel3 is inside another div.I want to remove panel3 from its div and place it between panel1 and panel2 in their div.

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• Refreshing Read-Only (Chained) Property in MVVM

  - by Wonko the Sane

  I'm thinking this should be easy, but I can't seem to figure this out. Take these properties from an example ViewModel (ObservableViewModel implements INotifyPropertyChanged): class NameViewModel : ObservableViewModel { Boolean mShowFullName = false; string mFirstName = "Wonko"; string mLastName = "DeSane"; private readonly DelegateCommand mToggleName; public NameViewModel() { mToggleName = new DelegateCommand(() => ShowFullName = !mShowFullName); } public ICommand ToggleNameCommand { get { return mToggleName; } } public Boolean ShowFullName { get { return mShowFullName; } set { SetPropertyValue("ShowFullName", ref mShowFullName, value); } } public string Name { get { return (mShowFullName ? this.FullName : this.Initials); } } public string FullName { get { return mFirstName + " " + mLastName; } } public string Initials { get { return mFirstName.Substring(0, 1) + "." + mLastName.Substring(0, 1) + "."; } } } The guts of such a [insert your adjective here] View using this ViewModel might look like: <TextBlock x:Name="txtName" Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Name}" /> <Button x:Name="btnToggleName" Command="{Binding ToggleNameCommand}" Content="Toggle Name" Grid.Row="1" /> The problem I am seeing is when the ToggleNameCommand is fired. The ShowFullName property is properly updated by the command, but the Name binding is never updated in the View. What am I missing? How can I force the binding to update? Do I need to implement the Name properties as DependencyProperties (and therefore derive from DependencyObject)? Seems a little heavyweight to me, and I'm hoping for a simpler solution. Thanks, wTs

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• jQuery > Update inline script on form submission

  - by Andrew Kirk

  I am using the ChemDoodle Web Components to display molecules on a web page. Basically, I can just insert the following script in my page and it will create an HTML5 canvas element to display the molecule. <script> var transform1 = new TransformCanvas('transform1', 200, 200, true); transform1.specs.bonds_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.bonds_width_2D = 3; transform1.specs.atoms_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.atoms_circles_2D = true; transform1.specs.backgroundColor = 'black'; transform1.specs.bonds_clearOverlaps_2D = true; transform1.loadMolecule(readPDB(molecule)); </script> In this example, "molecule" is a variable that I have defined in an external script by using the jQuery.ajax() function to load a PDB file. This is all fine and good. Now, I would like to include a form on the page that will allow a user to paste in a PDB molecule definition. Upon submitting the form, I want to update the "molecule" variable with the form data so that the ChemDoodle Web Components script will work its magic and display molecule defined by the PDB definition pasted into the form. I am using the following jQuery code to process the the form submission. $(".button").click(function() { // validate and process form here //hide previous errors $('.error').hide(); //validate pdb textarea field var pdb = $("textarea#pdb").val(); if (pdb == "") { $("label#pdb_error").show(); $("textarea#pdb").focus(); return false; } molecule = pdb; }); This code is setting the "molecule" variable upon the form submission but it is not being passed back to the inline script as I had hoped. I have tried a number of variations on this but can't seem to get it right. Any clues as to where I might be going wrong would be much appreciated.

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• jQuery: how to create a new div, assign some attributes, and create an id from some other elements a

  - by Ronedog

  jQuery: how to create a new div, assign some attributes, and create an id from some other elements attributes? How can I accomplish this. What I've tried below is not working and I'm unsure how to make it work. What I'm trying to do is create a div and assign it some attributes, then append this div to all the < li elements that are the on the last node of my unordered list. And lastly, but most important I want to retrieve the value of the attribute called "p_node" from the < li that is being appended to and insert it in as part of the ID of the newly created div. Here's my current jQuery code: $('<div />,{id:"'+ $("#nav li:not(:has(li))").attr("p_node").val() +'_p_cont_div", class:"property_position"}').appendTo("#nav li:not(:has(li))"); Here's the HTML before the div creation: <ul> <li p_node="98" class="page_name">Category A</li> </ul> <ul> <li p_node="99" class="page_name">Category B</li> </ul> Here's what I want it to look like after the new div creation: <ul> <li p_node="98" class="page_name">Category A</li> <div id="98_p_cont_div" class="property_position"></div> </ul> <ul> <li p_node="99" class="page_name">Category B</li> <div id="99_p_cont_div" class="property_position"></div> </ul>

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• how does one _model_ data from relational databases in clojure ?

  - by sandeep

  I have asked this question on twitter as well the #clojure IRC channel, yet got no responses. There have been several articles about Clojure-for-Ruby-programmers, Clojure-for-lisp-programmers.. but what is the missing part is Clojure for ActiveRecord programmers . There have been articles about interacting with MongoDB, Redis, etc. - but these are key value stores at the end of the day. However, coming from a Rails background, we are used to thinking about databases in terms of inheritance - has_many, polymorphic, belongs_to, etc. The few articles about Clojure/Compojure + MySQL (ffclassic) - delve right into sql. Of course, it might be that an ORM induces impedence mismatch, but the fact remains that after thinking like ActiveRecord, it is very difficult to think any other way. I believe that relational DBs, lend themselves very well to the object-oriented paradigm because of them being , essentially, Sets. Stuff like activerecord is very well suited for modelling this data. For e.g. a blog - simply put class Post < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :comments end class Comment < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post end How does one model this in Clojure - which is so strictly anti-OO ? Perhaps the question would have been better if it referred to all functional programming languages, but I am more interested from a Clojure standpoint (and Clojure examples)

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• Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

  - by Travelsized

  I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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• Show values in TDropDownList in PRADO.

  - by Muhammad Sajid

  I m new to PRADO, I have a file Home.page with code: <%@ Title="Contact List" %> <h1>Contact List</h1> <a href="<%= $this->Service->constructUrl('insert')%>">Create New Contact</a> <br/> <com:TForm> <com:TDropDownList ID="personInfo"> <com:TListItem Value="value 1" Text="item 1" /> <com:TListItem Value="value 2" Text="item 2" Selected="true" /> <com:TListItem Value="value 3" Text="item 3" /> <com:TListItem Value="value 4" Text="item 4" /> </com:TDropDownList> </com:TForm> & Home.php with code <?php class Home extends TPage { /** * Populates the datagrid with user lists. * This method is invoked by the framework when initializing the page * @param mixed event parameter */ public function onInit($param) { parent::onInit($param); // fetches all data account information $rec = ContactRecord::finder()->findAll(); } } ?> the $rec contain array of all values. Now I want to show all name in Dropdown list. I tried my best but fail. Can anyone help me? Thanks

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• String or binary data would be truncated -- Heisenberg problem

  - by harpo

  When you get this error, the first thing you ask is, which column? Unfortunately, SQL Server is no help here. So you start doing trial and error. Well, right now I have a statement like: INSERT tbl (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) SELECT A, B * 2, C, D, E, q.F, G FROM tbl ,othertable q WHERE etc etc Note that Some values are modified or linked in from another table, but most values are coming from the original table, so they can't really cause truncation going back to the same field (that I know of). Eliminating fields one at a time eventually makes the error go away, if I do it cumulatively, but — and here's the kicker — it doesn't matter which fields I eliminate. It's as if SQL Server is objecting to the total length of the row, which I doubt, since there are only about 40 fields in all, and nothing large. Anyone ever seen this before? Thanks. UPDATE: I have also done "horizontal" testing, by filtering out the SELECT, with much the same result. In other words, if I say WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 100: Error WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 50: No error WHERE id BETWEEN 50 AND 100: No error I tried many combinations, and it cannot be limited to a single row.

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• Flex DataGridColumn with array of objects as data provider

  - by rforte

  I have a datagrid that uses an array of objects as the data provider. The objects are essentially key/value pairs: { foo:"something"} { bar:"hello"} { caca:"lorem"} The datagrid has 2 columns. The first column is the key and the second column is the value. Right now my grid looks like: My dataFormatter function makes sure that depending on the column (i.e. the dataField value) the correct key or value gets printed out. This works fine for displaying. However, as soon as I try and edit the value field it essentially adds a new value into the object with a key of '1'. For example, if I edit the {caca:"lorem"} object it will then contain the value {caca:"lorem",1:"new value"}. Is there any possible way I can set the DataGridColumn so that when I edit a value it will update the value associated with the key rather than inserting a new value? I've tried using a custom item editor but it still does the insert. It seems like I need to be able to update the 'dataField' with the actual key value but I'm not sure how to do that.

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• Problems updating a textBox ASP.NET

  - by Roger Filipe

  Hello, I'm starting in asp.net and am having some problems that I do not understand. The problem is this, I am building a site for news. Every news has a title and body. I have a page where I can insert news, this page uses a textbox for each of the fields (title and body), after clicking the submit button everything goes ok and saves the values in the database. And o have another page where I can read the news, I use labels for each of the camps, these labels are defined in the Page_Load. Now I'm having problems on the page where I can edit the news. I am loading two textboxes (title and body) in the Page_Load, so far so good, but then when I change the text and I click the submit button, it ignores the changes that I made in the text and saves the text loaded in Page_Load. This code doesn't show any database connection but you can understand what i'm talking about. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { textboxTitle.Text = "This is the title of the news"; textboxBody.Text = "This is the body of the news "; } I load the page, make the changes in the text , and then click submit. protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { String title = textboxTitle.Text; String body = textboxBody.Text; Response.Write("Title: " + title + " || "); Response.Write("Body: " + body ); } Nothing happens, the text in the textboxes is always the one I loaded in the page_load, how do I update the Text in the textboxes?

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• rails not recognizing project

  - by tipu

  I can create a new project using rails and I can use stuff like rails migration ... and i (correctly) get a error because the sqlite gem is missing. but when i try using rails migration ... with a project i checked out from github, it doesn't recognize that it is a rails project i get: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /usr/bin/ruby1.8 [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile and it goes on. any ideas? edit: it's probably an important detail that earlier my rails wasn't working at all. i had to cp /usr/bin/ruby to /usr/bin/local/ruby

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• How can I prevent the "... has stopped working" window on my Server 2008 R2 dev box?

  - by serialhobbyist

  I'm using a Windows Server 2008 x64 R2 machine as a development box. Amongst many other things I've got Visual Studio 2008 SP1 installed on it. When I'm working on a project, I sometimes need to use Debug Start without Debugging (Ctrl + F5). If the program throws an exception, I get a new R2-style window appear. I'm pretty sure I didn't see this on my XP box - this is the first time I've developed directly on a server. Is there any way to avoid this - it's really beginning to bug me? E.g. my current project is accessing a WCF service - I'm using Ctrl+F5 to start a console program client. I run it and get the window. The title is the name of the project I've just started and it contains: [insert-project-name-here] has stopped working Windows can check online for a solution to the problem. --> Check online for a solution and close the program --> Close the program --> Debug the program V View problem details. Clicking on "Close the program" will actually close the window and the exception message appears in the console, which is what I want (but without the extra window-faffing). How can I avoid this annoyance?

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