Search Results

Search found 20931 results on 838 pages for 'mysql insert'.

Page 772/838 | < Previous Page | 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779  | Next Page >

  • After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

    - by Brandi
    I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

    Read the article

  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

    Read the article

  • Continuing JavaScript "classes" - enums within

    - by espais
    From a previous question, I have the following: So I have implemented a resource class, now I'd like to continue extending it and add all my constants and enums (or as far as JS will allow...). This is what I currently have: var resources = { // images player : new c_resource("res/player.png"), enemies : new c_resource("res/enemies.png"), tilemap : new c_resource("res/tilemap.png") }; And this is what I would like to continue to extend it to: var resources = { // images player : new c_resource("res/player.png"), enemies : new c_resource("res/enemies.png"), tilemap : new c_resource("res/tilemap.png"), // enums directions : {up:0, right:1, down:2, left:3}, speeds : {slow: 1, medium: 3, fast: 5} }; ... function enemies() { this.dir = resources.directions.down; // initialize to down } When I attempt to access resources.directions.up, my JS script goes down in a flaming pile of burning code. Are enums allowed in this context, and if not, how can I properly insert them to be used outside of a normal function? I have also tried defining them as global to a similar effect. edits: fixed the comma...that was just an error in transcribing it. When I run it in Firefox and watch the console, I get an error that says resources is undefined. The resources 'class' is defined at the top of my script, and function enemies() directly follows...so from what I understand it should still be in scope...

    Read the article

  • create board for game with events support in WPF

    - by netmajor
    How can I create board for simple game, looks like for chess,but user could dynamically change number of column and rows? In cells I could insert symbol of pawn, like small image or just ellipse or rectangle with fill. This board should have possibility add and remove pawn from cells and move pown from one cell to another. My first idea was Grid. I do it in code behind, but it's hurt to implement events or everything in runtime create board :/ int size = 12; Grid board = new Grid(); board.ShowGridLines = true; for (int i = 0; i < size;i++ ) { board.ColumnDefinitions.Add(new ColumnDefinition()); board.RowDefinitions.Add(new RowDefinition()); } //komputer Rectangle ai = new Rectangle(); ai.Height = 20; ai.Width = 20; ai.AllowDrop = true; ai.Fill = Brushes.Orange; Grid.SetRow(ai, 0); Grid.SetColumn(ai,0); //czlowiek Rectangle hum = new Rectangle(); hum.Height = 20; hum.Width = 20; hum.AllowDrop = true; hum.Fill = Brushes.Green; Grid.SetRow(hum,size); Grid.SetColumn(hum,size); board.Children.Add(ai); board.Children.Add(hum); this.Content = board; It's a way to do this dynamically col and row change in XAML ? It's better way to implement that board create and implement events on move pawn from one cell to another ?

    Read the article

  • How to add divs inside a div using jquery

    - by Neal
    Hi, I am trying to insert a div inside another div using add() of jquery but it is not working " <div class="portlet" id="panel1"> <div class="portlet-header">1.Feeds</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> <div class="portlet" id="panel2"> <div class="portlet-header">2.News</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> " " <div class="portlet" id="panel3"> <div class="portlet-header">3.Shopping</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> " Actually panel1 and panel2 are inside a div, and panel3 is inside another div.I want to remove panel3 from its div and place it between panel1 and panel2 in their div.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to identify which form has been submitted?

    - by Rupert
    Currently, when I design my forms, I like to keep the name of the submit button equal to the id of the form. Then, in my php, I just do if(isset($_POST['submitName'])) in order to check if a form has been submitted and which form has been submitted. Firstly, are there any security problems or design flaws with this method? One problem I have encountered is when I wish to overlay my forms with javascript in order to provide faster validation to the user. For example, whilst I obviously need to retain server side validation, it is more convenient for the user if an error message is displayed inline, upon blurring an input. Additionally, it would be good to provide entire form validation, upon clicking the submit button. Therefore, when the user clicks on the form's submit button, I am stopping the default action, doing my validation, and then attempting to renable the traditional submit functionality, if the validation passes. In order to do this, I am using the form.submit() method but, unfortunately, this doesn't send the submit button variable (as it should be as form.submit() can be called without any button being clicked). This means my PHP script fails to detect that the form has been submitted. What is the correct way to work around this? It seems like the standard solution is to add a hidden field into the form, upon passing validation, which has the name of form's id. Then when form.submit() is called, this is passed along in place of the submit button. However, this solution seems very ungraceful to me and so I am wondering whether I should: a) Use an alternative method to detect which form has been submitted which doesn't rely rely on passing the submit button. If so what alternative is there? Obviously, just having an extra hidden field from the start isn't any better. b) Use an alternative Javascript solution which allows me to retain my non-Javascript design. For example, is there an alternative to form.submit() which allows me to pass in extra data? c) Suck it up and just insert a hidden field using Javascript.

    Read the article

  • jQuery > Update inline script on form submission

    - by Andrew Kirk
    I am using the ChemDoodle Web Components to display molecules on a web page. Basically, I can just insert the following script in my page and it will create an HTML5 canvas element to display the molecule. <script> var transform1 = new TransformCanvas('transform1', 200, 200, true); transform1.specs.bonds_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.bonds_width_2D = 3; transform1.specs.atoms_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.atoms_circles_2D = true; transform1.specs.backgroundColor = 'black'; transform1.specs.bonds_clearOverlaps_2D = true; transform1.loadMolecule(readPDB(molecule)); </script> In this example, "molecule" is a variable that I have defined in an external script by using the jQuery.ajax() function to load a PDB file. This is all fine and good. Now, I would like to include a form on the page that will allow a user to paste in a PDB molecule definition. Upon submitting the form, I want to update the "molecule" variable with the form data so that the ChemDoodle Web Components script will work its magic and display molecule defined by the PDB definition pasted into the form. I am using the following jQuery code to process the the form submission. $(".button").click(function() { // validate and process form here //hide previous errors $('.error').hide(); //validate pdb textarea field var pdb = $("textarea#pdb").val(); if (pdb == "") { $("label#pdb_error").show(); $("textarea#pdb").focus(); return false; } molecule = pdb; }); This code is setting the "molecule" variable upon the form submission but it is not being passed back to the inline script as I had hoped. I have tried a number of variations on this but can't seem to get it right. Any clues as to where I might be going wrong would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Advice needed: cold backup for SQL Server 2008 Express?

    - by Mikey Cee
    What are my options for achieving a cold backup server for SQL Server Express instance running a single database? I have an SQL Server 2008 Express instance in production that currently represents a single point of failure for my application. I have a second physical box sitting at the installation that is currently doing nothing. I want to somehow replicate my database in near real time (a little bit of data loss is acceptable) to the second box. The database is very small and resources are utilized very lightly. In the case that the production server dies, I would manually reconfigure my application to point to the backup server instead. Although Express doesn't support log shipping, I am thinking that I could manually script a poor man's version of it, where I use batch files to take the logs and copy them across the network and apply them to the second server at 5 minute intervals. Does anyone have any advice on whether this is technically achievable, or if there is a better way to do what I am trying to do? Note that I want to avoid having to pay for the full version of SQL Server and configure mirroring as I think it is an overkill for this application. I understand that other DB platforms may present suitable options (eg. a MySQL Cluster), but for the purposes of this discussion, let's assume we have to stick to SQL Server.

    Read the article

  • Creating a global variable on the fly. [PHP ENCRYPTION]

    - by stormdrain
    Is there a way to dynamically create constant variables on the fly? The idea is that upon logging into the system, a user would be asked to upload a small text file that would be fread, and assigned to a var that would be accessible throughout the system. If this is possible, just to be clear, would this variable then only be accessible to that user and only while the session is alive? Security being the main concern here, would it be more practical to store the var in a session variable? The plan: Data in the db will be encrypted via mcrypt, and the key will be stored on USB thumbdrives. The user will insert the thumbdrive when going to access the system. Upon logging in, the app will prompt the user to upload the key. They will navigate to the thumbdrive and key. Via fopen and fread, the key will be assigned to a global var which will then allow access to encrypted data, and will be used to encrypt new info being entered to the db. When the user logs out, or session times out, the global var will become empty. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio project remains "stuck" when stopped

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    Hi, Currently developing a connector DLL to HP's Quality Center. I'm using their (insert expelative) COM API to connect to the server. An Interop wrapper gets created automatically by VStudio. My solution has 2 projects: the DLL and a tester application - essentially a form with buttons that call functions in the DLL. Everything works well - I can create defects, update them and delete them. When I close the main form, the application stops nicely. But when I call a function that returns a list of all available projects (to fill a combo box), if I close the main form, VStudio still shows the solution as running and I have to stop it. I've managed to pinpoint a single function in my code that when I call, the solution remains "hung" and if I don't, it closes well. It's a call to a property in the TDC object get_VisibleProjects that returns a List (not the .Net one, but a type in the COM library) - I just iterate over it and return a proper list (that I later use to fill the combo box): public List<string> GetAvailableProjects() { List<string> projects = new List<string>(); foreach (string project in this.tdc.get_VisibleProjects(qcDomain)) { projects.Add(project); } return projects; } My assumption is that something gets retained in memory. If I run the EXE outside of VStudio it closes - but who knows what gets left behind in memory? My question is - how do I get rid of whatever calling this property returns? Shouldn't the GC handle this? Do I need to delve into pointers? Things I've tried: getting the list into a variable and setting it to null at the end of the function Adding a destructor to the class and nulling the tdc object Stepping through the tester function application all the way out, whne the form closes and the Main function ends - it closes, but VStudio still shows I'm running. Thanks for your assistance!

    Read the article

  • Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

    Read the article

  • If we make a number every millisecond, how much data would we have in a day?

    - by Roger Travis
    I'm a bit confused here... I'm being offered to get into a project, where would be an array of certain sensors, that would give off reading every millisecond ( yes, 1000 reading in a second ). Reading would be a 3 or 4 digit number, for example like 818 or 1529. This reading need to be stored in a database on a server and accessed remotely. I never worked with such big amounts of data, what do you think, how much in terms of MBs reading from one sensor for a day would be?... 4(digits)x1000x60x60x24 ... = 345600000 bits ... right ? about 42 MB per day... doesn't seem too bad, right? therefor a DB of, say, 1 GB, would hold 23 days of info from 1 sensor, correct? I understand that MySQL & PHP probably would not be able to handle it... what would you suggest, maybe some aps? azure? oracle? ... Thansk!

    Read the article

  • Weird character at start of json content type

    - by Nek
    Hi, I'm trying to return json content read from MySQL server. This is supposed to be easy but, there is a 'weird' character that keeps appearing at start of the content. I have two pages for returning content: kcb433.sytes.net/as/test.php?json=true&limit=6&input=d this test.php is from a script written by Timothy Groves, which converts an array to json output http://kcb433.sytes.net/k.php?k=4 this one is supposed to do the same I tried to validate it here jsonformatter.curiousconcept.com but just page 1 gets validated, page 2 says that it does not contain JSON data. If accessed directly both pages has no problems. Then what is the difference, why both don't get validated? Then I found this page jsonformat.com and tried the same thing. Page 1 was ok and page 2 wasn't but, surprisingly the data could be read. At a glance, {"a":"b"} may look good but there is a character in front. According to a hex editor online, this is the value of the string above (instead of 9 values, there are 10): -- 7B 22 61 22 3A 22 62 22 7D The code to echo json in page 2 is: header("Content-Type: application/json"); echo "{\"a\":\"b\"}";

    Read the article

  • Best approach for Java/Maven/JPA/Hibernate build with multiple database vendor support?

    - by HDave
    I have an enterprise application that uses a single database, but the application needs to support mysql, oracle, and sql*server as installation options. To try to remain portable we are using JPA annotations with Hibernate as the implementation. We also have a test-bed instance of each database running for development. The app is building nicely in Maven, and I've played around with the hibernate3-maven-plugin and can auto-generate DDL for a given database dialect. What is the best way to approach this so that individual developers can easily test against all three databases and our Hudson based CI server can build things propertly. More specifically: 1) I thought the hbm2ddl goal in the hibernate3-maven-plugin would just generate a schema file, but apparently it connects to a live database and attempts to create the schema. Is there a way to have this just create the schema file for each database dialect without connecting to a database? 2) If the hibernate3-maven-plug insists on actually creating the database schema, is there a way to have it drop the database and recreate it before creating the schema? 3) I am thinking that each developer (and the hudson build machine) should have their own separate database on each database server. Is this typical? 4) Will developers have to run Maven three times...once for each database vendor? If so, how do I merge the results on the build machine? 5) There is a hbm2doc goal within hibernate3-maven-plugin. It seems overkill to run this three times...I gotta believe it'd be nearly identical for each database.

    Read the article

  • Flex DataGridColumn with array of objects as data provider

    - by rforte
    I have a datagrid that uses an array of objects as the data provider. The objects are essentially key/value pairs: { foo:"something"} { bar:"hello"} { caca:"lorem"} The datagrid has 2 columns. The first column is the key and the second column is the value. Right now my grid looks like: My dataFormatter function makes sure that depending on the column (i.e. the dataField value) the correct key or value gets printed out. This works fine for displaying. However, as soon as I try and edit the value field it essentially adds a new value into the object with a key of '1'. For example, if I edit the {caca:"lorem"} object it will then contain the value {caca:"lorem",1:"new value"}. Is there any possible way I can set the DataGridColumn so that when I edit a value it will update the value associated with the key rather than inserting a new value? I've tried using a custom item editor but it still does the insert. It seems like I need to be able to update the 'dataField' with the actual key value but I'm not sure how to do that.

    Read the article

  • php syntax confusion accessing database result

    - by Babak
    I am trying to do the following: <?php foreach($sqlResult as $row): ?> <tr> <?php foreach($formdata['columns'] as $column): ?> <td><?php echo $row->$column['name']; ?></td> <?php endforeach; ?> </tr> <?php endforeach; ?> This does not work. $row is returned by my mysql query, it has the following : row-id, row-author, row-name and these work as they echo fine. $columns is the following array: 'columns' => array ( 1 => array ( 'name' => 'id' ), 2 => array ( 'name' => 'author' ), 3 => array ( 'name' => 'date' ), 4 => array ( 'name' => 'title' ) it also works fine as $column['name'] echoes id, author, date, title my question is how would it be possible for me to access the $row-method (is it a method?) by passing it a name from the array??

    Read the article

  • SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

    - by gbn
    Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

    Read the article

  • How to organize and manage multiple database credentials in application?

    - by Polaris878
    Okay, so I'm designing a stand-alone web service (using RestLET as my framework). My application is divided in to 3 layers: Data Layer (just above the database, provides APIs for connecting to/querying database, and a database object) Object layer (responsible for serialization from the data layer... provides objects which the client layer can use without worrying about database) Client layer (This layer is the RestLET web service... basically just creates objects from the object layer and fulfills webservice request) Now, for each object I create in the object layer, I want to use different credentials (so I can sandbox each object...). The object layer should not know the exact credentials (IE the login/pw/DB URL etc). What would be the best way to manage this? I'm thinking that I should have a super class Database object in my data layer... and each subclass will contain the required log-in information... this way my object layer can just go Database db = new SubDatabase(); and then continue using that database. On the client level, they would just be able to go ItemCollection items = new ItemCollection(); and have no idea/control over the database that gets connected. I'm asking this because I am trying to make my platform extensible, so that others can easily create services off of my platform. If anyone has any experience with these architectural problems or how to manage this sort of thing I'd appreciate any insight or advice... Feel free to ask questions if this is confusing. Thanks! My platform is Java, the REST framework I'm using is RestLET, my database is MySQL.

    Read the article

  • String or binary data would be truncated -- Heisenberg problem

    - by harpo
    When you get this error, the first thing you ask is, which column? Unfortunately, SQL Server is no help here. So you start doing trial and error. Well, right now I have a statement like: INSERT tbl (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) SELECT A, B * 2, C, D, E, q.F, G FROM tbl ,othertable q WHERE etc etc Note that Some values are modified or linked in from another table, but most values are coming from the original table, so they can't really cause truncation going back to the same field (that I know of). Eliminating fields one at a time eventually makes the error go away, if I do it cumulatively, but — and here's the kicker — it doesn't matter which fields I eliminate. It's as if SQL Server is objecting to the total length of the row, which I doubt, since there are only about 40 fields in all, and nothing large. Anyone ever seen this before? Thanks. UPDATE: I have also done "horizontal" testing, by filtering out the SELECT, with much the same result. In other words, if I say WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 100: Error WHERE id BETWEEN 1 AND 50: No error WHERE id BETWEEN 50 AND 100: No error I tried many combinations, and it cannot be limited to a single row.

    Read the article

  • Start developing a database application using Oracle + Net Beans

    - by Ranhiru
    I have thought of creating my first database application for one of my projects using Oracle and Java. I have chosen Netbeans as my development environment. I have a few questions to getting started. Please bare with me as I'm a complete beginner to Oracle + Netbeans This will be a data intensive (yet still for a college project) database application. I do not need 1000 user concurrency or any other very advanced features but basic stuff such as triggers, stored procedures etc. Will the 11g "Express" (XE) suffice for my requirements? Do i need any Java to Oracle bridge (database connectivity driver eg. ODBC etc) for Netbeans to connect to the oracle database? If yes, what are they? Does Netbeans support Oracle databases natively? Any easy to follow guide on how do i connect to the database and insert/retrieve/display data on a J2SE application? (I know that i should Google this but if there's any guide previously followed by anyone and is considered easy, it would be greatly appreciated.)

    Read the article

  • Bootstrap - Typehead on multiple inputs

    - by Clem
    I have two text intputs, both have to run an autocompletion. The site is using Bootstrap, and the « typeahead » component. I have this HTML : <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="artist" /> <input type="text" class="js_typeahead" data-role="location" /> I'm using the « data-role » attribute (that is sent to the Ajax controller as a $_POST index), in order to determine what kind of data has to be retrieved from the database. The Javascript goes this way : var myTypeahead = $('input.js_typeahead').typeahead({ source: function(query, process){ var data_role; data_role = myTypeahead.attr('data-role'); return $.post('/ajax/typeahead', { query:query,data_role:data_role },function(data){ return process(data.options); }); } }); With PHP, I check what $_POST['data-role'] contains, an run the MySQL query (in this case, a query either on a list of Artists, or a list of Locations). But the problem is the second "typeahead" returns the same values than the first one (list of Artists). I assume it's because the listener is attached to the object « myTypeahead », and this way the "data-role" attribute which is used, will always be the same. I think I could fix it by using something like : data_role = $(this).attr('data-role'); But of course this doesn't work, as it's a different scope. Maybe I'm doing it all wrong, but at least maybe you people could give me a hint. Sorry if this has already been discussed, I actually searched but without success. Thanks in advance, Clem (from France, sorry for my english)

    Read the article

  • how i can retrive files from folder on hard-disk and how to display uplaoded file data into a textar

    - by Deepak Narwal
    I have made a application form in which i am asking for username,password,email id and user's resume.Now after uploading resume i am storing it into hard disk into htdocs/uploadedfiles/..in a format something like this username_filename.In database i am storing file name,file size,file type.Some coading for this i am showing here $filesize=$_FILES['file']['size']; $filename=$_FILES['file']['name']; $filetype=$_FILES['file']['type']; $temp_name=$_FILES['file']['tmp_name']; //temporary name of uploaded file $pwd_hash = hash('sha1',$_POST['password']); $target_path = "uploadedfiles/"; $target_path = $target_path.$_POST['username']."_".basename( $_FILES['file']['name']); move_uploaded_file($_FILES['file']['tmp_name'], $target_path) ; $sql="insert into employee values ('NULL','{$_POST[username]}','{$pwd_hash}','{$filename}','{$filetype}','$filesize',NOW())"; Now i have two questions 1.NOw how i can display this file data into a textarea(something like naukri.com resume section) 2.How one can retrive that resume file from folder on hard-disk.What query should i write to fetch this file from that folder.I know how to retrive data from database but i dont know how to retrive data from a folder in hard-disk like in the case if user want to delete this file or he wnat to download this file.How i can do this

    Read the article

  • PHP Facebook Cronjob with offline access

    - by Mohamed Salem
    1:the code to greet the user, ask for his permission and store his session data so that we can use a cronjob with his session data afterwards. <?php $db_server = "localhost"; $db_username = "username"; $db_password = "password"; $db_name = "databasename"; #go to line 85, the script actually starts there mysql_connect($db_server,$db_username,$db_password); mysql_select_db($db_name); #you have to create a database to store session values. #if you do not know what columns there should be look at line 76 to see column names. #make them all varchars # Now lets load the FB GRAPH API require './facebook.php'; // Create our Application instance. global $facebook; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '121036530138', 'secret' => '9bbec378147064', 'cookie' => false,)); # Lets set up the permissions we need and set the login url in case we need it. $par['req_perms'] = "friends_about_me,friends_education_history,friends_likes, friends_interests,friends_location,friends_religion_politics, friends_work_history,publish_stream,friends_activities, friends_events, friends_hometown,friends_location ,user_interests,user_likes,user_events, user_about_me,user_status,user_work_history,read_requests, read_stream,offline_access,user_religion_politics,email,user_groups"; $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl($par); function save_session($session){ global $facebook; # OK lets go to the database and see if we have a session stored $sid=mysql_query("Select access_token from facebook_user WHERE uid =".$session['uid']); $session_id=mysql_fetch_row($sid); if (is_array($session_id)) { # We have a stored session, but is it valid? echo " We have a session, but is it valid?"; try { $attachment = array('access_token' => $session_id[0]); $ret_code=$facebook->api('/me', 'GET', $attachment); } catch (Exception $e) { # We don't have a good session so echo " our old session is not valid, let's delete saved invalid session data "; $res = mysql_query("delete from facebook_user WHERE uid =".$session['uid']); #save new good session #to see what is our session data: print_r($session); if (is_array($session)) { $sql="insert into facebook_user (session_key,uid,expires,secret,access_token,sig) VALUES ('".$session['session_key']."','".$session['uid']."','". $session['expires']."','". $session['secret'] ."','" . $session['access_token']."','". $session['sig']."');"; $res = mysql_query($sql); return $session['access_token']; } # this should never ever happen echo " Something is terribly wrong: Our old session was bad, and now we cannot get the new session"; return; } echo " Our old stored session is valid "; return $session_id[0]; } else { echo " no stored session, this means the user never subscribed to our application before. "; # let's store the session $session = $facebook->getSession(); if (is_array($session)) { # Yes we have a session! so lets store it! $sql="insert into facebook_user (session_key,uid,expires,secret,access_token,sig) VALUES ('".$session['session_key']."','".$session['uid']."','". $session['expires']."','". $session['secret'] ."','". $session['access_token']."','". $session['sig']."');"; $res = mysql_query($sql); return $session['access_token']; } } } #this is the first meaningful line of this script. $session = $facebook->getSession(); # Is the user already subscribed to our application? if ( is_null($session) ) { # no he is not #send him to permissions page header( "Location: $loginUrl" ); } else { #yes, he is already subscribed, or subscribed just now #in case he just subscribed now, save his session information $access_token=save_session($session); echo " everything is ok"; # write your code here to do something afterwards } ?> error Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at /home/content/28/9687528/html/ss/src/indexx.php:1) in /home/content/28/9687528/html/ss/src/facebook.php on line 49 Fatal error: Call to undefined method Facebook::getSession() in /home/content/28/9687528/html/ss/src/indexx.php on line 86 2:A cronjob template that reads the stored session of a user from database, uses his session data to work on his behalf, like reading status posts or publishing posts etc. <?php $db_server = "localhost"; $db_username = "username"; $db_password = "pass"; $db_name = "database"; # Lets connect to the Database and set up the table $link = mysql_connect($db_server,$db_username,$db_password); mysql_select_db($db_name); # Now lets load the FB GRAPH API require './facebook.php'; // Create our Application instance. global $facebook; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'appid', 'secret' => 'secret', 'cookie' => false, )); function get_check_session($uidCheck){ global $facebook; # This function basically checks for a stored session and if we have one it returns it # OK lets go to the database and see if we have a session stored $sid=mysql_query("Select access_token from facebook_user WHERE uid =".$uidCheck); $session_id=mysql_fetch_row($sid); if (is_array($session_id)) { # We have a session # but, is it valid? try { $attachment = array('access_token' => $session_id[0],); $ret_code=$facebook->api('/me', 'GET', $attachment); } catch (Exception $e) { # We don't have a good session so echo " User ".$uidCheck." removed the application, or there is some other access problem. "; # let's delete stored data $res = mysql_query("delete from facebook_user where WHERE uid =".$uidCheck); return; } return $session_id[0]; } else { # "no stored session"; echo " error:newsFeedcrontab.php No stored sessions. This should not have happened "; } } # get all users that have given us offline access $users = getUsers(); foreach($users as $user){ # now for each user, check if they are still subscribed to our application echo " Checking user".$user; $access_token=get_check_session($user); # If we've not got an access_token we actually need to login. # but in the crontab, we just log the error, there is no way we can find the user to give us permission here. if ( is_null($access_token) ) { echo " error: newsFeedcrontab.php There is no access token for the user ".$user." "; } else { #we are going to read the newsfeed of user. There are user's friends' posts in this newsfeed try{ $attachment = array('access_token' => $access_token); $result=$facebook->api('/me/home', 'GET', $attachment); }catch(Exception $e){ echo " error: newsfeedcrontab.php, cannot get feed of ".$user.$e; } #do something with the result here #but what does the result look like? #go to http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/api/user/ and click on the "home" link under connections #we can also read the home of user. Home is the wall of the user who has given us offline access. try{ $attachment = array('access_token' => $access_token); $result=$facebook->api('/me/feed', 'GET', $attachment); }catch(Exception $e){ echo " error: newsfeedcrontab.php, cannot get wall of ".$user.$e; } #do something with the result here # #but what does the result look like? #go to http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/api/user/ and click on the "feed" link under connections } } function getUsers(){ $sql = "SELECT distinct(uid) from facebook_user Where 1"; $result = mysql_query($sql); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ $rows [] = $row['uid']; } print_r($rows); return $rows; } mysql_close($link); ?> error Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at /home/content/28/9687528/html/ss/src/cron.php:1) in /home/content/28/9687528/html/ss/src/facebook.php on line 49 Warning: mysql_fetch_array(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /home/content/28/9687528/html/ss/src/cron.php on line 110 Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /home/content/28/9687528/html/ss/src/cron.php on line 64

    Read the article

  • Using Excel VBA to Create SQL Tables

    - by user307655
    Hi All, I am trying to use Excel VBA to automate the creation of a SQL table in an existing SQL Database. I have come across the following code on this side. Private Sub CreateDatabaseFromExcel() Dim dbConnectStr As String Dim Catalog As Object Dim cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim dbPath As String Dim tblName As String 'Set database name in the Excel Sheet dbPath = ActiveSheet.Range("B1").Value 'Database Name tblName = ActiveSheet.Range("B2").Value 'Table Name dbConnectStr = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" & dbPath & ";" 'Create new database using name entered in Excel Cell ("B1") Set Catalog = CreateObject("ADOX.Catalog") Catalog.Create dbConnectStr Set Catalog = Nothing 'Connect to database and insert a new table Set cnt = New ADODB.Connection With cnt .Open dbConnectStr .Execute "CREATE TABLE tblName ([BankName] text(50) WITH Compression, " & _ "[RTNumber] text(9) WITH Compression, " & _ "[AccountNumber] text(10) WITH Compression, " & _ "[Address] text(150) WITH Compression, " & _ "[City] text(50) WITH Compression, " & _ "[ProvinceState] text(2) WITH Compression, " & _ "[Postal] text(6) WITH Compression, " & _ "[AccountAmount] decimal(6))" End With Set cnt = Nothing End Sub However i can't successfully get it to work? What I am trying to do is actually use Excel to create a table not a database? The database already exists. I would just like to create a new table. The name of the table will be referenced from cell A1 in Sheet 1. Can somebody please help. Thanks Regards Gerard

    Read the article

  • read the currency format

    - by user485783
    perhaps for some people this is easy, but I want to learn There are 2 currency formats: first currency format is 1,123,123.12 and this format may be like $1,123,123.12 or 1,123,123.12€ and second currency format is 1.123.123,12 and this may be such $1.123.123,12 or 1.123.123,12€ so the difference is the placement of dots and commas The above format will be $this->value('one of the currency format insert here'); e.g. $this->value('$1,123,123.12'); or $this->value('1.123.123,12€'); that I want to know is the code if (first currency format) {use blah .. blah ..} elseif (second currency format) {use blah .. blah ..} else {/ / unsupported format} so how the code to identify whether the entry is input the first currency format or second currency format? thanks for the your pointers and ideas. UPDATED: I apologize for mistake in giving examples When I tried to test the code I have a little confused because it seems not working then I changed my prevoious parts, so that $value['amount'] it may be use first currency format 1,123,123.12 and this format may be like $1,123,123.12 or 1,123,123.12€ and second currency format 1.123.123,12 and this may be such $1.123.123,12 or 1.123.123,12€ then the value['amount'] will identify first with code like the following conditional class curr_format { private bla...bla..1 private bla...bla..2 var etc.. public function curr_format ($bla...,$and_bla..) { //then make conditional is here if (first currency format) {//use blah .. blah ..} elseif (second currency format) {//use blah .. blah ..} else {/ / unsupported format} //another codes.. at the end output as look like: $identify = new curr_format(); echo $identify->curr_format($value['amount'],$else_statement);

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779  | Next Page >