Search Results

Search found 35302 results on 1413 pages for 'string literals'.

Page 772/1413 | < Previous Page | 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779  | Next Page >

  • Symfony file upload - "Array" stored in database instead of the actual filename

    - by Guillaume Flandre
    I'm using Symfony 1.4.4 and Doctrine and I need to upload an image on the server. I've done that hundreds of times without any problem but this time something weird happens : instead of the filename being stored in the database, I find the string "Array". Here's what I'm doing: In my Form: $this->useFields(array('filename')); $this->embedI18n(sfConfig::get('app_cultures')); $this->widgetSchema['filename'] = new sfWidgetFormInputFileEditable(array( 'file_src' => '/uploads/flash/'.$this->getObject()->getFilename(), 'is_image' => true, 'edit_mode' => !$this->isNew(), 'template' => '<div id="">%file%</div><div id=""><h3 class="">change picture</h3>%input%</div>', )); $this->setValidator['filename'] = new sfValidatorFile(array( 'mime_types' => 'web_images', 'path' => sfConfig::get('sf_upload_dir').'/flash', )); In my action: public function executeIndex( sfWebRequest $request ) { $this->flashContents = $this->page->getFlashContents(); $flash = new FlashContent(); $this->flashForm = new FlashContentForm($flash); $this->processFlashContentForm($request, $this->flashForm); } protected function processFlashContentForm($request, $form) { if ( $form->isSubmitted( $request ) ) { $form->bind( $request->getParameter( $form->getName() ), $request->getFiles( $form->getName() ) ); if ( $form->isValid() ) { $form->save(); $this->getUser()->setFlash( 'notice', $form->isNew() ? 'Added.' : 'Updated.' ); $this->redirect( '@home' ); } } } Before binding my parameters, everything's fine, $request->getFiles($form->getName()) returns my files. But afterwards, $form->getValue('filename') returns the string "Array". Did it happen to any of you guys or do you see anything wrong with my code? Edit: I added the fact that I'm embedding another form, which may be the problem (see Form code above).

    Read the article

  • Can't operator == be applied to generic types in C#?

    - by Hosam Aly
    According to the documentation of the == operator in MSDN, For predefined value types, the equality operator (==) returns true if the values of its operands are equal, false otherwise. For reference types other than string, == returns true if its two operands refer to the same object. For the string type, == compares the values of the strings. User-defined value types can overload the == operator (see operator). So can user-defined reference types, although by default == behaves as described above for both predefined and user-defined reference types. So why does this code snippet fail to compile? void Compare<T>(T x, T y) { return x == y; } I get the error Operator '==' cannot be applied to operands of type 'T' and 'T'. I wonder why, since as far as I understand the == operator is predefined for all types? Edit: Thanks everybody. I didn't notice at first that the statement was about reference types only. I also thought that bit-by-bit comparison is provided for all value types, which I now know is not correct. But, in case I'm using a reference type, would the the == operator use the predefined reference comparison, or would it use the overloaded version of the operator if a type defined one? Edit 2: Through trial and error, we learned that the == operator will use the predefined reference comparison when using an unrestricted generic type. Actually, the compiler will use the best method it can find for the restricted type argument, but will look no further. For example, the code below will always print true, even when Test.test<B>(new B(), new B()) is called: class A { public static bool operator==(A x, A y) { return true; } } class B : A { public static bool operator==(B x, B y) { return false; } } class Test { void test<T>(T a, T b) where T : A { Console.WriteLine(a == b); } }

    Read the article

  • How to create a rails habtm that deletes/destroys without error?

    - by Bradley
    I created a simple example as a sanity check and still can not seem to destroy an item on either side of a has_and_belongs_to_many relationship in rails. Whenever I try to delete an object from either table, I get the dreaded NameError / "uninitialized constant" error message. To demonstrate, I created a sample rails app with a Boy class and Dog class. I used the basic scaffold for each and created a linking table called boys_dogs. I then added a simple before_save routine to create a new 'dog' any time a boy was created and establish a relationship, just to get things setup easily. dog.rb class Dog < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :Boys end boy.rb class Boy < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :Dogs def before_save self.Dogs.build( :name => "Rover" ) end end schema.rb ActiveRecord::Schema.define(:version => 20100118034401) do create_table "boys", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "boys_dogs", :id => false, :force => true do |t| t.integer "boy_id" t.integer "dog_id" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "dogs", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end end I've seen lots of posts here and elsewhere about similar problems, but the solutions are normally using belongs_to and the plural/singular class names being confused. I don't think that is the case here, but I tried switching the habtm statement to use the singular name just to see if it helped (with no luck). I seem to be missing something simple here. The actual error message is: NameError in BoysController#destroy uninitialized constant Boy::Dogs The trace looks like: /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:105:in const_missing' (eval):3:indestroy_without_callbacks' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/callbacks.rb:337:in destroy_without_transactions' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:229:insend' ... Thanks.

    Read the article

  • WTK emulator bluetooth connection problem

    - by Gokhan B.
    Hi! I'm developing a J2ME program with eclipse / WTK 2.5.2 and having problem with connecting two emulators using bluetooth. There is one server and one .client running on two different emulators. The problem is client program cannot discover any bluetooth device. Here is the server and client codes: public Server() { try { LocalDevice local = LocalDevice.getLocalDevice(); local.setDiscoverable(DiscoveryAgent.GIAC); server = (StreamConnectionNotifier) Connector.open("btspp://localhost:" + UUID_STRING + ";name=" + SERVICE_NAME); Util.Log("EchoServer() Server connector open!"); } catch (Exception e) {} } after calling Connector.open, I get following warning in console, which i believe is related: Warning: Unregistered device: unspecified and client code that searches for devices: public SearchForDevices(String uuid, String nm) { UUIDStr = uuid; srchServiceName = nm; try { LocalDevice local = LocalDevice.getLocalDevice(); agent = local.getDiscoveryAgent(); deviceList = new Vector(); agent.startInquiry(DiscoveryAgent.GIAC, this); // non-blocking } catch (Exception e) {} } system never calls deviceDiscovered, but calls inquiryCompleted() with INQUIRY_COMPLETED paramter, so I suppose client program runs fine. Bluetooth is enabled at emulator settings.. any ideas ?

    Read the article

  • excel:mysql: rs.Update crashes

    - by every_answer_gets_a_point
    i am connecting to mysql from excel and updating a table. as soon as i get to .update (rs.update) excel crashes. am i doing something wrong? Option Explicit Dim oConn As ADODB.Connection Private Sub ConnectDB() Set oConn = New ADODB.Connection oConn.Open "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};" & _ "SERVER=localhost;" & _ "DATABASE=employees;" & _ "USER=root;" & _ "PASSWORD=pas;" & _ "Option=3" End Sub Function esc(txt As String) esc = Trim(Replace(txt, "'", "\'")) End Function Private Sub InsertData() Dim dpath, atime, rtime, lcalib, aname, rname, bstate, instrument As String Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ConnectDB With wsBooks rs.Open "batchinfo", oConn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic, adCmdTable Worksheets.Item("Report 1").Select dpath = Trim(Range("B2").Text) atime = Trim(Range("B3").Text) rtime = Trim(Range("B4").Text) lcalib = Trim(Range("B5").Text) aname = Trim(Range("B6").Text) rname = Trim(Range("B7").Text) bstate = Trim(Range("B8").Text) ' instrument = GetInstrFromXML(wbBook.FullName) With rs .AddNew ' create a new record ' add values to each field in the record .Fields("datapath") = dpath .Fields("analysistime") = atime .Fields("reporttime") = rtime .Fields("lastcalib") = lcalib .Fields("analystname") = aname .Fields("reportname") = rname .Fields("batchstate") = bstate ' .Fields("instrument") = "NA" .Update ' stores the new record End With ' get the last id Set rs = oConn.Execute("SELECT @@identity", , adCmdText) 'MsgBox capture_id rs.Close Set rs = Nothing End With End Sub

    Read the article

  • Correct escaping of delimited identifers in SQL Server without using QUOTENAME

    - by Ross Bradbury
    Is there anything else that the code must do to sanitize identifiers (table, view, column) other than to wrap them in double quotation marks and "double up" and double quotation marks present in the identifier name? References would be appreciated. I have inherited a code base that has a custom object-relational mapping (ORM) system. SQL cannot be written in the application but the ORM must still eventually generate the SQL to send to the SQL Server. All identifiers are quoted with double quotation marks. string QuoteName(string identifier) { return "\" + identifier.Replace("\"", "\"\"") + "\""; } If I were building this dynamic SQL in SQL, I would use the built-in SQL Server QUOTENAME function: declare @identifier nvarchar(128); set @identifier = N'Client"; DROP TABLE [dbo].Client; --'; declare @delimitedIdentifier nvarchar(258); set @delimitedIdentifier = QUOTENAME(@identifier, '"'); print @delimitedIdentifier; -- "Client""; DROP TABLE [dbo].Client; --" I have not found any definitive documentation about how to escape quoted identifiers in SQL Server. I have found Delimited Identifiers (Database Engine) and I also saw this stackoverflow question about sanitizing. If it were to have to call the QUOTENAME function just to quote the identifiers that is a lot of traffic to SQL Server that should not be needed. The ORM seems to be pretty well thought out with regards to SQL Injection. It is in C# and predates the nHibernate port and Entity Framework etc. All user input is sent using ADO.NET SqlParameter objects, it is just the identifier names that I am concerned about in this question. This needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and 2008.

    Read the article

  • LDAP Query with sub result

    - by StefanE
    I have been banging my head for quite a while with this and can't get it to work. I have a LDAP Query I do have working in AD Users and Computers but dont know how to do it programatically in C#. Here are my LDAP Query that works fine in the AD Tool: (memberOf=CN=AccRght,OU=Groups,OU=P,OU=Server,DC=mydomain,DC=com)(objectCategory=user)(objectClass=user)(l=City) I have used this code to get the user accounts to get members of CN=AccRght but I'm not succeeding on limiting users belonging to a specific city. public StringCollection GetGroupMembers(string strDomain, string strGroup) { StringCollection groupMemebers = new StringCollection(); try { DirectoryEntry ent = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://DC=" + strDomain + ",DC=com"); DirectorySearcher srch = new DirectorySearcher("(CN=" + strGroup + ")"); SearchResultCollection coll = srch.FindAll(); foreach (SearchResult rs in coll) { ResultPropertyCollection resultPropColl = rs.Properties; foreach( Object memberColl in resultPropColl["member"]) { DirectoryEntry gpMemberEntry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + memberColl); System.DirectoryServices.PropertyCollection userProps = gpMemberEntry.Properties; object obVal = userProps["sAMAccountName"].Value; if (null != obVal) { groupMemebers.Add(obVal.ToString()); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write(ex.Message); } return groupMemebers; } Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are a lot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Preferably no byte translations required. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician. Just need a decent basic algorithm, we're not launching nukes... NB: Please no philosophy on encryption nor who is Diffie-Hellman. I just need a basic solution.

    Read the article

  • Sybase: how can I remove non-printable characters from CHAR or VARCHAR fields with SQL?

    - by Kenny Drobnack
    I'm working with a Sybase database that seems to have non-printable characters in some of the string fields and this is throwing off some of our processing code. At first glance, it seemed to only be newlines and carriage returns, but we also have an ASCII code 27 in there - an ESC character, some accented characters, and some other oddities in there. I have no direct access to change the database, so changing the bad data isn't an option, yet. For now I have to make do with just filtering it out. We're trying to export the table data from one database and load it into a database used by another application in a nightly batch process. Ideally, I'd like to have a function that I can pass a list of characters and just have Sybase return the data with those characters removed. I'd like to keep it something we could do in plain SQL if possible. Something like this to remove characters that are ASCII 0 - 31. select str_replace(FIELD1, (0-31), NULL) as FIELD1, str_replace(FIELD2, (0-31), NULL) as FIELD2 from TABLE So far, str_replace is the nearest I can find, but it only allows replacing one string with another. No support for character ranges and won't let me do the above. We're running on Sybase ASE 12.5 on Unix servers.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to update an unattached entity on Entity Framework?

    - by Carlos Loth
    Hi, In my project I have some data classes to retrieve data from the database using the Entity Framework. We called these classes *EntityName*Manager. All of them have a method to retrieve entities from database and they behave most like this: static public EntityA SelectByName(String name) { using (var context = new ApplicationContext()) { var query = from a in context.EntityASet where a.Name == name select a; try { var entityA = query.First(); context.Detach(entityA); return entityA; } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { throw new DataLayerException( String.Format("The entityA whose name is '{0}' was not found.", name), ex); } } } You can see that I detach the entity before return it to the method caller. So, my question is "what is the best way to create an update method on my *EntityA*Manager class?" I'd like to pass the modified entity as a parameter of the method. But I haven't figured out a way of doing it without going to the database and reload the entity and update its values inside a new context. Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Carlos Loth.

    Read the article

  • XML parsing design using xmlpp and C++

    - by shagv
    I would like to use an xml format similar to the following: <CONFIG> <PROFILE NAME="foobar"> <PARAM ID="0" NAME="Foo" CLASS="BaseParam"/> <PARAM ID="2" NAME="Bar" CLASS="StrIntParam"> <VALUE TYPE="STRING">some String</VALUE> <VALUE TYPE="INT">1234</VALUE> </PARAM> </PROFILE> </CONFIG> CONFIG contains a list of PROFILEs which contain a list of PARAMs which themselves can be any structure (to be defined in the future). The idea was to define classes that parsed each PARAM type and to keep track of which class to use in the PARAM's CLASS attribute. In code I have a config class that manages the list of profiles and a profile class that manages the list of params. I would like the profile class to handle additional param types (that inherit BaseParam) without modification to the profile class (or at the very least with minimal modification). First of all, is this design viable? If so, what are some ways I could use different param classes and have their creation at run-time be automatic (the profile class sees the CLASS attribute and knows which type to create)?

    Read the article

  • Selecting a multi-dimensional array in LINQ

    - by mckhendry
    I have a task where I need to translate a DataTable to a two-dimensional array. That's easy enough to do by just looping over the rows and columns (see example below). private static string[,] ToArray(DataTable table) { var array = new string[table.Rows.Count,table.Columns.Count]; for (int i = 0; i < table.Rows.Count; ++i) for (int j = 0; j < table.Columns.Count; ++j) array[i, j] = table.Rows[i][j].ToString(); return array; } What I'd really like to do is use a select statement in LINQ to generate that 2D array. Unfortunately it looks like there is no way in LINQ to select a multidimensional array. Yes, I'm aware that I can use LINQ to select a jagged array, but that's not what I want. Is my assumption correct, or is there a way to use LINQ to select a multi-dimensional array?

    Read the article

  • Problem with MessageContract, Generic return types and clientside naming

    - by Soeteman
    I'm building a web service which uses MessageContracts, because I want to add custom fields to my SOAP header. In a previous topic, I learned that a composite response has to be wrapped. For this purpose, I devised a generic ResponseWrapper class. [MessageContract(WrapperNamespace = "http://mynamespace.com", WrapperName="WrapperOf{0}")] public class ResponseWrapper<T> { [MessageBodyMember(Namespace = "http://mynamespace.com")] public T Response { get; set; } } I made a ServiceResult base class, defined as follows: [MessageContract(WrapperNamespace = "http://mynamespace.com")] public class ServiceResult { [MessageBodyMember] public bool Status { get; set; } [MessageBodyMember] public string Message { get; set; } [MessageBodyMember] public string Description { get; set; } } To be able to include the request context in the response, I use a derived class of ServiceResult, which uses generics: [MessageContract(WrapperNamespace = "http://mynamespace.com", WrapperName = "ServiceResultOf{0}")] public class ServiceResult<TRequest> : ServiceResult { [MessageBodyMember] public TRequest Request { get; set; } } This is used in the following way [OperationContract()] ResponseWrapper<ServiceResult<HCCertificateRequest>> OrderHealthCertificate(RequestContext<HCCertificateRequest> context); I expected my client code to be generated as ServiceResultOfHCCertificateRequest OrderHealthCertificate(RequestContextOfHCCertificateRequest context); Instead, I get the following: ServiceResultOfHCCertificateRequestzSOTD_SSj OrderHealthCertificate(CompType1 c1, CompType2 c2, HCCertificateRequest context); CompType1 and CompType2 are properties of the RequestContext class. The problem is that a hash is added to the end of ServiceResultOfHCCertificateRequestzSOTD_SSj. How do I need define my generic return types in order for the client type to be generated as expected (without the hash)?

    Read the article

  • What could I add to this code to allow the cell height to dynamically change as I edit the JTextArea

    - by Dr. Plaguey
    The derived classes I am using public class TextAreaRenderer extends JTextArea implements TableCellRenderer { public TextAreaRenderer() { setLineWrap(true); setWrapStyleWord(true); } public Component getTableCellRendererComponent(JTable jTable, Object obj, boolean isSelected, boolean hasFocus, int row, int column) { setText((String)obj); int height_wanted = (int)getPreferredSize().getHeight() + 10; if (height_wanted != rootJTable.getRowHeight(row)) rootJTable.setRowHeight(row, height_wanted); return this; } } class TextEditor extends AbstractCellEditor implements TableCellEditor { protected JTextArea ta; String txt; public TextEditor() { ta = new JTextArea(); } //Implement the one CellEditor method that AbstractCellEditor doesn't. public Object getCellEditorValue() { return ta.getText(); } // Implement the one method defined by TableCellEditor. public Component getTableCellEditorComponent(javax.swing.JTable table, Object value,boolean isSelected, int row, int column) { txt = value.toString(); ta.setText(txt); ta.setLineWrap(true); return new JScrollPane(ta); } public boolean isCellEditable(EventObject anEvent) { return true; } } Set column renderer and editor rootJTable.getColumnModel().getColumn(1).setCellRenderer(new TextAreaRenderer()); rootJTable.getColumnModel().getColumn(1).setCellEditor(new TextEditor());

    Read the article

  • WebView inside Tab hiding the tabWidgets

    - by brockoli
    I'm having trouble with a WebView always filling the full screen and thus covering my tabs. Here is my code for the tabhost.. public class tabNZBMobile extends TabActivity { public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); Resources res = getResources(); // Resource object to get Drawables TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); // The activity TabHost TabHost.TabSpec spec; // Reusable TabSpec for each tab Intent intent; // Reusable Intent for each tab // Create an Intent to launch an Activity for the tab (to be reused) intent = new Intent().setClass(this, NewzbinMobile.class); // Initialize a TabSpec for each tab and add it to the TabHost spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("search").setIndicator("Search", res.getDrawable(R.drawable.ic_tab_search)) .setContent(intent); tabHost.addTab(spec); // Do the same for the other tabs intent = new Intent().setClass(this, sabnzbWeb.class); spec = tabHost.newTabSpec("sabnzbweb").setIndicator("SabNZBd", res.getDrawable(R.drawable.ic_tab_sabnzbweb)) .setContent(intent); tabHost.addTab(spec); tabHost.setCurrentTabByTag("search"); }} My first tab (NewzbinMobile.class) displays correctly, it's just a relativelayout. But my second tab is an activity showing a webview and it is showing, but using the whole screen, covering my tabs. Here is the code for my second tab. public class sabnzbWeb extends Activity { WebView mWebView; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); String sabNZBurl = new String("http://test.server.org:8080/m"); mWebView = new WebView(this); mWebView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); setContentView(mWebView); mWebView.loadUrl(sabNZBurl); }}

    Read the article

  • Custom Validation Attribute with Custom Model Binder in MVC 2

    - by griegs
    I apologise for the amount of code I have included. I've tried to keep it to a minimum. I'm trying to have a Custom Validator Attribute on my model as well as a Custom Model binder. The Attribute and the Binder work great seperately but if I have both, then the Validation Attribute no longer works. Here is my code snipped for readability. If I leave out the code in global.asax the custom validation fires but not if I have the custom binder enabled. Validation Attribute; public class IsPhoneNumberAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { //do some checking on 'value' here return true; } } Useage of the attribute in my model; [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please provide a contact number")] [IsPhoneNumberAttribute(ErrorMessage = "Not a valid phone number")] public string Phone { get; set; } Custom Model Binder; public class CustomContactUsBinder : DefaultModelBinder { protected override void OnModelUpdated(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { ContactFormViewModel contactFormViewModel = bindingContext.Model as ContactFormViewModel; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(contactFormViewModel.Phone)) if (contactFormViewModel.Phone.Length > 10) bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Phone", "Phone is too long."); } } Global asax; System.Web.Mvc.ModelBinders.Binders[typeof(ContactFormViewModel)] = new CustomContactUsBinder();

    Read the article

  • Problem with RegEx.Replace and trying to change a filename

    - by fraXis
    Hello, I am having a strange problem and I can't seem to figure it out. My filename is something like this: DER 1513016-3.020F.NCF. I want to be able to change it to: DER 1513016-3.020H.NCF Sometimes the filename can be this as well: DER 1513016-3.020F_NEW.NCF which would change to: DER 1513016-3.020H_NEW.NCF This is my code to do this: OpenFileDialog fDialog = new OpenFileDialog(); fDialog.Title = "Open"; fDialog.Filter = "NCF files (*.ncf)|*.ncf|All files (*.*)|*.*"; fDialog.InitialDirectory = @"C:\Program Files\"; if (fDialog.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { string newfilename; string fileext = Path.GetExtension(fDialog.FileName); newfilename = Regex.Replace(fDialog.FileName, "F.NCF", "H.NCF"); newfilename = Regex.Replace(fDialog.FileName, "F_NEW.NCF", "H_NEW.NCF"); } This is where things get wierd. The way the code works now, it will NOT change the filename to DER 1513016-3.020H.NCF If I comment out this line of code: //newfilename = Regex.Replace(fDialog.FileName, "F_NEW.NCF", "H_NEW.NCF"); it will work fine and the file will now become: DER 1513016-3.020H.NCF However, if I uncomment that line of code, the filename will not change to DER 1513016-3.020H.NCF. It will stay as DER 1513016-3.020F.NCF. Why is that line of code causing the routine to not change the filename? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • JavaScript and JQuery - Encoding HTML

    - by user70192
    Hello, I have a web page that has a textarea defined on it like so: <textarea id="myTextArea" rows="6" cols="75"></textarea> There is a chance that a user may enter single and double quotes in this field. For instance, I have been testing with the following string: Just testin' using single and double "quotes". I'm hoping the end of this task is comin'. Additionally, the user may enter HTML code, which I would prefer to prevent. Regardless, I am passing the contents of this textarea onto web service. I must encode the contents of the textarea in JavaScript before I can send it on. Currently, I'm trying the following: var contents $('<div/>').text($("#myTextArea).val()).html(); alert(contents); I was expecting contents to display Just testin&#39; using single and double &#34;quotes&#34;. I&#39;m hoping the end of this task is comin&#39;. Instead, the original string is printed out. Beyond just double-and-single quotes, there are a variety of entities to consider. Because of this, I was assuming there would be a way to encode HTML before passing it on. Can someone please tell me how to do this? Thank you,

    Read the article

  • python raw_input odd behavior with accents containing strings

    - by Ryan
    I'm writing a program that asks the user for input that contains accents. The user input string is tested to see if it matches a string declared in the program. As you can see below, my code is not working: code # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- testList = ['má'] myInput = raw_input('enter something here: ') print myInput, repr(myInput) print testList[0], repr(testList[0]) print myInput in testList output in eclipse with pydev enter something here: má mv° 'm\xe2\x88\x9a\xc2\xb0' má 'm\xc3\xa1' False output in IDLE enter something here: má má u'm\xe1' má 'm\xc3\xa1' Warning (from warnings module): File "/Users/ryanculkin/Desktop/delete.py", line 8 print myInput in testList UnicodeWarning: Unicode equal comparison failed to convert both arguments to Unicode - interpreting them as being unequal False How can I get my code to print True when comparing the two strings? Additionally, I note that the result of running this code on the same input is different depending on whether I use eclipse or IDLE. Why is this? My eventual goal is to put my program on the web; is there anything that I need to be aware of, since the result seems to be so volatile?

    Read the article

  • Why am I getting 'Heap Corruption'?

    - by fneep
    Please don't crucify me for this one. I decided it might be good to use a char* because the string I intended to build was of a known size. I am also aware that if timeinfo-tm_hour returns something other than 2 digits, things are going to go badly wrong. That said, when this function returns VIsual Studio goes ape at me about HEAP CORRUPTION. What's going wrong? (Also, should I just use a stringbuilder?) void cLogger::_writelogmessage(std::string Message) { time_t rawtime; struct tm* timeinfo = 0; time(&rawtime); timeinfo = localtime(&rawtime); char* MessageBuffer = new char[Message.length()+11]; char* msgptr = MessageBuffer; _itoa(timeinfo->tm_hour, msgptr, 10); msgptr+=2; strcpy(msgptr, "::"); msgptr+=2; _itoa(timeinfo->tm_min, msgptr, 10); msgptr+=2; strcpy(msgptr, "::"); msgptr+=2; _itoa(timeinfo->tm_sec, msgptr, 10); msgptr+=2; strcpy(msgptr, " "); msgptr+=1; strcpy(msgptr, Message.c_str()); _file << MessageBuffer; delete[] MessageBuffer; }

    Read the article

  • Entity framework entity class mapping with plain .net class

    - by Elan
    I have following in entity framework Table - Country Fields List item Country_ID Dialing_Code ISO_Alpha2 ISO_Alpha3 ISO_Full I would like to map only selected fields from this entity model to my domain class. My domain model class is public class DomainCountry { public int Country_ID { get; set; } public string Dialing_Code { get; set; } public string ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 { get; set; } } The following will work however insert or update is not possible. In order to get insert or update we need to use ObjectSet< but it will not support in my case. IQueryable<DomainCountry> countries = context.Countries.Select( c => new DomainCountry { Country_ID = c.Country_Id, Dialing_Code = c.Dialing_Code, ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 = c.ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 }); It will be really fantastic could someone provide a nice solution for this. Ideally it will be kind of proxy class which will support all the futures however highly customizable i.e. only the columns we want to expose to the outer world

    Read the article

  • wix The directory is in the user profile but is not listed in the RemoveFile table

    - by Venkat S. Rao
    I have the following configuration to delete and copy a file from WIX. <Directory Id='TARGETDIR' Name='SourceDir'> ... <Directory Id="AppDataFolder" Name="AppDataFolder"> <Directory Id="GleasonAppData" Name="Gleason" > <Directory Id="GleasonStudioAppData" Name="GleasonStudio"> <Directory Id="DatabaseAppData" Name ="Database"> <Directory Id="UserSandboxesAppData" Name="UserSandboxes" /> </Directory> </Directory> </Directory> </Directory> </Directory> <DirectoryRef Id="UserSandboxesAppData"> <Component Id="comp_deleteBackup" Guid="1f159f49-3029-4f46-b194-e42aabd40844"> <RemoveFile Id="RemoveBackup" Directory="UserSandboxesAppData" Name="DevelopmentBackUp.FDB" On="install" /> <RegistryKey Root="HKCU" Key="Software\Gleason\Database\RemoveBackup"> <RegistryValue Value="Removed" Type="string" KeyPath="yes" /> </RegistryKey> </Component> <Component Id="comp_createBackup" Guid="557badef-6d77-4c4e-aa5f-8d88cb5ef735"> <CopyFile Id="DBBackup" DestinationDirectory="UserSandboxesAppData" DestinationName="DevelopmentBackUp.FDB" SourceDirectory="UserSandboxesAppData" SourceName="Development.FDB" /> <RegistryKey Root="HKCU" Key="Software\Gleason\Database\CopyBackup"> <RegistryValue Value="Copied" Type="string" KeyPath="yes" /> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> I get 4 errors related to ICE64--The directory 'xxx' is in the user profile but is not listed in the RemoveFile table. xxx={UserSandboxesAppData, DatabaseAppData, GleasonStudioAppData, GleasonAppData} Someone else had a very similar problem here: Directory xx is in the user profile but is not listed in the RemoveFile table. . But that solution did not help me. What do I need to change? Thank You, Venkat Rao

    Read the article

  • Extend base type and automatically update audit information on Entity

    - by Nix
    I have an entity model that has audit information on every table (50+ tables) CreateDate CreateUser UpdateDate UpdateUser Currently we are programatically updating audit information. Ex: if(changed){ entity.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; entity.UpdatedBy = Environment.UserName; context.SaveChanges(); } But I am looking for a more automated solution. During save changes, if an entity is created/updated I would like to automatically update these fields before sending them to the database for storage. Any suggestion on how i could do this? I would prefer to not do any reflection, so using a text template is not out of the question. A solution has been proposed to override SaveChanges and do it there, but in order to achieve this i would either have to use reflection (in which I don't want to do ) or derive a base class. Assuming i go down this route how would I achieve this? For example EXAMPLE_DB_TABLE CODE NAME --Audit Tables CREATE_DATE CREATE_USER UPDATE_DATE UPDATE_USER And if i create a base class public abstract class IUpdatable{ public virtual DateTime CreateDate {set;} public virtual string CreateUser { set;} public virtual DateTime UpdateDate { set;} public virtual string UpdateUser { set;} } The end goal is to be able to do something like... public overrride void SaveChanges(){ //Go through state manager and update audit infromation //FOREACH changed entity in state manager if(entity is IUpdatable){ //If state is created... update create audit. //if state is updated... update update audit } } But I am not sure how I go about generating the code that would extend the interface.

    Read the article

  • Set-Cookie error appearing in logs when deployed to google appengine

    - by Jesse
    I have been working towards converting one of our applications to be threadsafe. When testing on the local dev app server everything is working as expected. However, upon deployment of the application it seems that Cookies are not being written correctly? Within the logs there is an error with no stack trace: 2012-11-27 16:14:16.879 Set-Cookie: idd_SRP=Uyd7InRpbnlJZCI6ICJXNFdYQ1ZITSJ9JwpwMAou.Q6vNs9vGR-rmg0FkAa_P1PGBD94; expires=Wed, 28-Nov-2012 23:59:59 GMT; Path=/ Here is the block of code in question: # area of the code the emits the cookie cookie = Cookie.SimpleCookie() if not domain: domain = self.__domain self.__updateCookie(cookie, expires=expires, domain=domain) self.__updateSessionCookie(cookie, domain=domain) print cookie.output() Cookie helper methods: def __updateCookie(self, cookie, expires=None, domain=None): """ Takes a Cookie.SessionCookie instance an updates it with all of the private persistent cookie data, expiry and domain. @param cookie: a Cookie.SimpleCookie instance @param expires: a datetime.datetime instance to use for expiry @param domain: a string to use for the cookie domain """ cookieValue = AccountCookieManager.CookieHelper.toString(self.cookie) cookieName = str(AccountCookieManager.COOKIE_KEY % self.partner.pid) cookie[cookieName] = cookieValue cookie[cookieName]['path'] = '/' cookie[cookieName]['domain'] = domain if not expires: # set the expiry date to 1 day from now expires = datetime.date.today() + datetime.timedelta(days = 1) expiryDate = expires.strftime("%a, %d-%b-%Y 23:59:59 GMT") cookie[cookieName]['expires'] = expiryDate def __updateSessionCookie(self, cookie, domain=None): """ Takes a Cookie.SessionCookie instance an updates it with all of the private session cookie data and domain. @param cookie: a Cookie.SimpleCookie instance @param expires: a datetime.datetime instance to use for expiry @param domain: a string to use for the cookie domain """ cookieValue = AccountCookieManager.CookieHelper.toString(self.sessionCookie) cookieName = str(AccountCookieManager.SESSION_COOKIE_KEY % self.partner.pid) cookie[cookieName] = cookieValue cookie[cookieName]['path'] = '/' cookie[cookieName]['domain'] = domain Again, the libraries in use are: Python 2.7 Django 1.2 Any suggestion on what I can try?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate: Dirty Checking and Only Update of Dirty Attributes?

    - by jens
    Hello Experts, in "good old JDBC days" I wrote a lot of SQL Queries that did very targeted updates of only the "attributes/members" that were actually changed: For Example having an object with the following members: public String name; public String address; public Date date; If only date was changed in some Business Method I would only issue an SQL UPDATE for the date member. ==It seems however (thats my "impression" of hibernate) that when working with a standard Hibernate mapping (mapping the full class), even updates of only one single member lead to a full update of the object in SQL Statements generated by Hibernate. My Questions are: 1.) Is this observation correct, that hibernate DOES NOT intelligently check (in a fully mapped class), what member(s) where changed and then only issue updates for the specific changed members, but rather always will update (in the generated SQL Update Statement) all mapped members (of a class), even if they were not changed (in case the object is dirty due to one member being dirty...) 2.) What can I do to make Hibernate only update those members, that have been changed? I am searching for a solution to have hibernate only update the member that actually changed. (I know hibernate does some big work on doing dirty-checking, but as far as I know this dirtychecking is only relevant to identify if the object as whole is dirty, not what single member is dirty.) Thank you very much! Jens

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777 778 779  | Next Page >