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• How to declare and implement a COM interface on C# that inherits from another COM interface?

  - by Carlos Loth

  I'm trying to understand what is the correct why to implement COM interfaces from C# code. It is straightforward when the interface doesn't inherit from other base interface. Like this one: [ComImport, Guid("2047E320-F2A9-11CE-AE65-08002B2E1262"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] public interface IShellFolderViewCB { long MessageSFVCB(uint uMsg, int wParam, int lParam); } However things start to become weired when I need to implement an interface that inherits from other COM interfaces. For example, if I implement the IPersistFolder2 interface which inherits from IPersistFolder which inherits from IPersist as I usually on C# code: [ComImport, Guid("0000010c-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] public interface IPersist { void GetClassID([Out] out Guid classID); } [ComImport, Guid("000214EA-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] public interface IPersistFolder : IPersist { void Initialize([In] IntPtr pidl); } [ComImport, Guid("1AC3D9F0-175C-11d1-95BE-00609797EA4F"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] public interface IPersistFolder2 : IPersistFolder { void GetCurFolder([Out] out IntPtr ppidl); } The operating system is not able to call the methods on my object implementation. When I'm debugging I can see the constructor of my IPersistFolder2 implementation is called many times, however the interface methods I've implemented aren't called. I'm implementing the IPersistFolder2 as follows: [Guid("A4603CDB-EC86-4E40-80FE-25D5F5FA467D")] public class PersistFolder: IPersistFolder2 { void IPersistFolder2.GetClassID(ref Guid classID) { ... } void IPersistFolder2.Initialize(IntPtr pidl) { ... } void IPersistFolder2.GetCurFolder(out IntPtr ppidl) { ... } } What seems strange is when I declare the COM interface imports as follow, it works: [ComImport, Guid("0000010c-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] internal interface IPersist { void GetClassID([Out] out Guid classID); } [ComImport, Guid("000214EA-0000-0000-C000-000000000046"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] internal interface IPersistFolder : IPersist { new void GetClassID([Out] out Guid classID); void Initialize([In] IntPtr pidl); } [ComImport, Guid("1AC3D9F0-175C-11d1-95BE-00609797EA4F"), InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIUnknown)] internal interface IPersistFolder2 : IPersistFolder { new void GetClassID([Out] out Guid classID); new void Initialize([In] IntPtr pidl); void GetCurFolder([Out] out IntPtr ppidl); } I don't know why it works when I declare the COM interfaces that way (hidding the base interface methods using new). Maybe it is related to the way IUnknown works. Does anyone know what is the correct way of implementing COM interfaces in C# that inherits from other COM interfaces and why?

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• Using jQuery to Dynamically Insert Into List Alphabetically

  - by Dex

  I have two ordered lists next to each other. When I take a node out of one list I want to insert it alphabetically into the other list. The catch is that I want to take just the one element out and place it back in the other list without refreshing the entire list. The strange thing is that when I insert into the list on the right, it works fine, but when I insert back into the list on the left, the order never comes out right. I have also tried reading everything into an array and sorting it there just in case the children() method isn't returning things in the order they are displayed, but I still get the same results. Here is my jQuery: function moveNode(node, to_list, order_by){ rightful_index = 1; $(to_list) .children() .each(function(){ var ordering_field = (order_by == "A") ? "ingredient_display" : "local_counter"; var compA = $(node).attr(ordering_field).toUpperCase(); var compB = $(this).attr(ordering_field).toUpperCase(); var C = ((compA > compB) ? 1 : 0); if( C == 1 ){ rightful_index++; } }); if(rightful_index > $(to_list).children().length){ $(node).fadeOut("fast", function(){ $(to_list).append($(node)); $(node).fadeIn("fast"); }); }else{ $(node).fadeOut("fast", function(){ $(to_list + " li:nth-child(" + rightful_index + ")").before($(node)); $(node).fadeIn("fast"); }); } } Here is what my html looks like: <ol> <li ingredient_display="Enriched Pasta" ingredient_id="101635" local_counter="1"> <span class="rank">1</span> <span class="rounded-corners"> <span class="plus_sign">&nbsp;&nbsp;+&nbsp;&nbsp;</span> <div class="ingredient">Enriched Pasta</div> <span class="minus_sign">&nbsp;&nbsp;-&nbsp;&nbsp;</span> </span> </li> </ol>

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• WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

  - by Mark Struzinski

  Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

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• Form data sent to Node via Post is undefined

  - by user185812

  I know this has been asked countless times on here, however I tried all the solutions and am still having the issue. Most people say to set the content-type (which I did) and to name the inputs that I wish to Post to node. I have done both of these things, yet still get "undefined" when trying to send data from an HTML form to node. JADE Templating HTML Code (Sorry I can't seem to get the indenting to show up here, however I think I should leave the code intact when posting here instead of converting it to normal HTML so that if the error is in here, you are still able to help) Form(action="/registration", method="post", enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded") div(class="control-group-Username") label(class="control-group", for="username") Username: div.controls input#Username(id="Username", type="text", placeholder="Username Here", maxlength="23", name="username") //Other divs and stuff here button.btn#submit_button(type="submit") Submit app.js code /** * Module dependencies. */ express = require('express') , routes = require('./routes') , user = require('./routes/user') , http = require('http') , path = require('path'); app = express(); // all environments app.set('port', process.env.PORT || 3000); app.set('views', __dirname + '/views'); app.set('view engine','jade'); app.use(express.favicon()); app.use(express.logger('dev')); app.use(express.bodyParser()); app.use(express.methodOverride()); app.use(express.cookieParser('your secret here')); app.use(express.session()); app.use(app.router); app.use(require('less-middleware')({ src: __dirname + '/public' })); app.use(express.static(path.join(__dirname, 'public'))); // development only if ('development' == app.get('env')) { app.use(express.errorHandler()); } app.use(express.static(__dirname + '/public')); app.get('/', routes.index); app.get('/users', user.list); app.get('/register', routes.register); http.createServer(app).listen(app.get('port'), function(){ console.log('Express server listening on port ' + app.get('port')); }); require('./Register.js'); register.js code app.post('/registration', function(req, res) { var Email=req.body.username console.log(username); });

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• Linux: How to find all serial devices (ttyS, ttyUSB, ..) without opening them?

  - by Thomas Tempelmann

  What is the proper way to get a list of all available serial ports/devices on a Linux system? In other words, when I iterate over all devices in /dev/, how do I tell which ones are serial ports in the classic way, i.e. those usually supporting baud rates and RTS/CTS flow control? The solution would be coded in C. I ask because I am using a 3rd party library that does this clearly wrong: It appears to only iterate over /dev/ttyS*. The problem is that there are, for instance, serial ports over USB (provided by USB-RS232 adapters), and those are listed under /dev/ttyUSB*. And reading the Serial-HOWTO at Linux.org, I get the idea that there'll be other name spaces as well, as time comes. So I need to find the official way to detect serial devices. Problem is that there appears none documented, or I can't find it. I imagine one way would be to open all files from /dev/tty* and call a specific ioctl() on them that is only available on serial devices. Would that be a good solution, though? Update hrickards suggested to look at the source for "setserial". Its code does exactly what I had in mind: First, it opens a device with: fd = open (path, O_RDWR | O_NONBLOCK) Then it invokes: ioctl (fd, TIOCGSERIAL, &serinfo) If that call returns no error, then it's a serial dev, apparently. I found similar code here, which suggested to also add the O_NOCTTY option. There is one problem with this approach, though: When I tested this code on BSD Unix (i.e. OSX), it worked as well, however serial devices that are provided thru Bluetooth cause the system (driver) to try to connect to the bluetooth device, which takes a while before it'll return with a timeout error. This is caused by just opening the device. And I can imagine that similar things can happen on Linux as well - ideally, I should not need to open the device to figure out its type. I wonder if there's also a way to invoke ioctl functions without an open, or open a device in a way that it does not cause connections to be made? Any ideas?

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• Lifetime issue of IDisposable unmanaged resources in a complex object graph?

  - by stakx

  This question is about dealing with unmanaged resources (COM interop) and making sure there won't be any resource leaks. I'd appreciate feedback on whether I seem to do things the right way. Background: Let's say I've got two classes: A class LimitedComResource which is a wrapper around a COM object (received via some API). There can only be a limited number of those COM objects, therefore my class implements the IDisposable interface which will be responsible for releasing a COM object when it's no longer needed. Objects of another type ManagedObject are temporarily created to perform some work on a LimitedComResource. They are not IDisposable. To summarize the above in a diagram, my classes might look like this: +---------------+ +--------------------+ | ManagedObject | <>------> | LimitedComResource | +---------------+ +--------------------+ | o IDisposable (I'll provide example code for these two classes in just a moment.) Question: Since my temporary ManagedObject objects are not disposable, I obviously have no control over how long they'll be around. However, in the meantime I might have Disposed the LimitedComObject that a ManagedObject is referring to. How can I make sure that a ManagedObject won't access a LimitedComResource that's no longer there? +---------------+ +--------------------+ | managedObject | <>------> | (dead object) | +---------------+ +--------------------+ I've currently implemented this with a mix of weak references and a flag in LimitedResource which signals whether an object has already been disposed. Is there any better way? Example code (what I've currently got): LimitedComResource: class LimitedComResource : IDisposable { private readonly IUnknown comObject; // <-- set in constructor ... void Dispose(bool notFromFinalizer) { if (!this.isDisposed) { Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(comObject); } this.isDisposed = true; } internal bool isDisposed = false; } ManagedObject: class ManagedObject { private readonly WeakReference limitedComResource; // <-- set in constructor ... public void DoSomeWork() { if (!limitedComResource.IsAlive()) { throw new ObjectDisposedException(); // ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^ // is there a more suitable exception class? } var ur = (LimitedComResource)limitedComResource.Target; if (ur.isDisposed) { throw new ObjectDisposedException(); } ... // <-- do something sensible here! } }

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• Running same powershell script multiple asynchronous times with separate runspace

  - by teqnomad

  Hi, I have a powershell script which is called by a batch script which is called by Trap Receiver (which also passes environment variables) (running on windows 2008). The traps are flushed out at times in sets of 2-4 trap events, and the batch script will echo the trap details for each message to a logfile, but the powershell script on the next line of the batch script will only appear to process the first trap message (the powershell script writes to the same logfile). My interpetation is that the defaultrunspace is common to all iterations of the script running and this is why the others appear to be ignored. I've tried adding "-sta" when I invoke the powershell script using "powershell.exe -command", but this didn't help. I've researched and found a method using C# but I don't know this language, and busy enough learning powershell, so hoping to find a more direct solution especially as interleaving a "wrapper" between batch and powershell will involve passing the environment variables. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/threads/AsyncPowerShell.aspx I've hunted through stackoverflow, and again the only question of similar vein was using C#. Any suggestions welcome. Some script background: The powershell script is actually a modification of a great script found at gregorystrike website - cant post the link as I'm limited to one link but its the one for Lefthand arrays. Lots of mods so it can do multiple targets from one .ini file, taking in the environment variables, and options to run portions of the script interactively with winform. But you can see the gist of the original script. The batch script is pretty basic. The keys things are I'm trying to filter out trap noise using the :~ operator, and I tried -sta option to see if this would compartmentalise the powershell script. set debug=off set CMD_LINE_ARGS="%*" set LHIPAddress="%2" set VARBIND8="%8" shift shift shift shift shift shift shift set CHASSIS="%9" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Trap Received: %LHIPAddress% %CHASSIS% %VARBIND8%" >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt set ACTION="%VARBIND8:~39,18%" echo %DATE% %TIME% "Action substring is %ACTION%" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt if %ACTION%=="Remote Copy Volume" ( echo Prepostlefthand_env_v2.9 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt c:\Windows\System32\WindowsPowerShell\v1.0\PowerShell.exe -sta -executionpolicy unrestricted -command " & 'C:\Scripts\prepostlefthand_env_v2.9.ps1' Backupsettings.ini ALL" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap_out.txt ) ELSE ( echo %DATE% %TIME% Action substring is %ACTION% so exiting" 2>&1 >> C:\Logs\trap.out.txt ) exit

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• WCF (REST) multiple host headers with one endpoint

  - by Maan

  I have an issue with a WCF REST service (.NET 4) which has multiple host headers, but one end point. The host headers are for example: xxx.yyy.net xxx.yyy.com Both host headers are configured in IIS over HTTPS and redirect to the same WCF service endpoint. I have an Error Handling behavior which logs some extra information in case of an error. The problem is that the logging behavior only works for one of both URLs. When I first call the .net URL, the logging is only working for requests on the .net URL. When I first call the .com URL (after a Worker Process recycle), it’s only working on requests on the .com URL. The configuration looks like this: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"/> <services> <service name="XXX.RemoteHostService"> <endpoint address="" behaviorConfiguration="RemoteHostEndPointBehavior" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="HTTPSTransport" contract="XXX.IRemoteHostService" /> </service> </services> <extensions> <behaviorExtensions> <add name="errorHandling" type="XXX.ErrorHandling.ErrorHandlerBehavior, XXX.Services, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </behaviorExtensions> </extensions> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="HTTPSTransport"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="None"/> </security> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="RemoteHostEndPointBehavior"> <webHttp /> <errorHandling /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> …. Should I configure multiple endpoints? Or in which way could I configure the WCF Service so the logging behavior is working for both URLs? I tried several things, also solutions mentioned earlier on StackOverflow. But no luck until now...

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• PL/SQL pre-compile and Code Quality checks in an automatted build environment?

  - by Lars Corneliussen

  We build software using Hudson and Maven. We have C#, java and last, but not least PL/SQL sources (sprocs, packages, DDL, crud) For C# and Java we do unit tests and code analysis, but we don't really know the health of our PL/SQL sources before we actually publish them to the target database. Requirements There are a couple of things we wan't to test in the following priority: Are the sources valid, hence "compilable"? For packages, with respect to a certain database, would they compile? Code Quality: Do we have code flaws like duplicates, too complex methods or other violations to a defined set of rules? Also, the tool must run head-less (commandline, ant, ...) we wan't to do analysis on a partial code base (changed sources only) Tools We did a little research and found the following tools that could potencially help: Cast Application Intelligence Platform (AIP): Seems to be a server that grasps information about "anything". Couldn't find a console version that would export in readable format. Toad for Oracle: The Professional version is said to include something called Xpert validates a set of rules against a code base. Sonar + PL/SQL-Plugin: Uses Toad for Oracle to display code-health the sonar-way. This is for browsing the current state of the code base. Semantic Designs DMSToolkit: Quite general analysis of source code base. Commandline available? Semantic Designs Clones Detector: Detects clones. But also via command line? Fortify Source Code Analyzer: Seems to be focussed on security issues. But maybe it is extensible? more... So far, Toad for Oracle together with Sonar seems to be an elegant solution. But may be we are missing something here? Any ideas? Other products? Experiences? Related Questions on SO: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/531430/any-static-code-analysis-tools-for-stored-procedures http://stackoverflow.com/questions/839707/any-code-quality-tool-for-pl-sql http://stackoverflow.com/questions/956104/is-there-a-static-analysis-tool-for-python-ruby-sql-cobol-perl-and-pl-sql

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• showing errors from actions in table-based views

  - by enashnash

  I have a view where I want to perform different actions on the items in each row in a table, similar to this (in, say, ~/Views/Thing/Manage.aspx): <table> <% foreach (thing in Model) { %> <tr> <td><%: thing.x %></td> <td> <% using (Html.BeginForm("SetEnabled", "Thing")) { %> <%: Html.Hidden("x", thing.x) %> <%: Html.Hidden("enable", !thing.Enabled) %> <input type="submit" value="<%: thing.Enabled ? "Disable" : "Enable" %>" /> <% } %> </td> <!-- more tds with similar action forms here, a few per table row --> </tr> <% } %> In my ThingController, I have functions similar to the following: public ActionResult Manage() { return View(ThingService.GetThings()); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult SetEnabled(string x, bool enable) { try { ThingService.SetEnabled(x, enable); } catch (Exception ex) { ModelState.AddModelError("", ex.Message); // I know this is wrong... } return RedirectToAction("Manage"); } In the most part, this is working fine. The problem is that if ThingService.SetEnabled throws an error, I want to be able to display the error at the top of the table. I've tried a few things with Html.ValidationSummary() in the page but I can't get it to work. Note that I don't want to send the user to a separate page to do this, and I'm trying to do it without using any javascript. Am I going about displaying my table in the best way? How do I get the errors displayed in the way I want them to? I will end up with perhaps 40 small forms on the page. This approach comes largely from this article, but it doesn't handle the errors in the way I need to. Any takers?

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• Best Practice: Legitimate Cross-Site Scripting

  - by Ryan

  While cross-site scripting is generally regarded as negative, I've run into several situations where it's necessary. I was recently working within the confines of a very limiting content management system. I needed to include database code within the page, but the hosting server didn't have anything usable available. I set up a couple barebones scripts on my own server, originally thinking that I could use AJAX to import the contents of my scripts directly into the template of the CMS (thus retaining dynamic images, menu items, CSS, etc.). I was wrong. Due to the limitations of XMLHttpRequest objects, it's not possible to grab content from a different domain. So I thought "iFrame" - even though I'm not a fan of frames, I thought that I could create a frame that matched the width and height of the content, so that it would appear native. Again, I was blocked by cross-site scripting "protections." While I could indeed load a remote file into the iFrame, I couldn't execute JavaScript to modify its size on either the host page or inside the loaded page. In this particular scenario, I wasn't able to point a subdomain to my server. I also couldn't create a script on the CMS server that could proxy content from my server, so my last thought was to use a remote JavaScript. A remote JavaScript works. It breaks when the user has JavaScript disabled, which is a downside; but it works. The "problem" I was having with using a remote JavaScript was that I had to use the JS function document.write() to output any content. Any output that isn't JS causes script errors. In addition to using document.write() for every line, you also have to ensure that the content is escaped - or else you end up with more script errors. My solution was as follows: My script received a GET parameter ("page") and then looked for the file ({$page}.php), and read the contents into a variable. However, I had to use awkward buffering techniques in order to actually execute the included scripts (for things like database interaction) then strip the final content of all line break characters ("\n") followed by escaping all required characters. The end result is that my original script (which outputs JavaScript) accesses seemingly "standard" scripts on my server and converts their standard output to JavaScript for displaying within the CMS template. While this solution works, it seems like there may be a better way to accomplish the same thing. What is the best way to make cross-site scripting work specifically for the purpose of including content from a completely different domain?

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• How can I position some divs inside an unordered list so they line up with the root element of the l

  - by Ronedog

  I want to position all the divs to line up to the left on the same x coordinate so it looks nice. Notice the picture below, how based on the number of nested categories the div (and its contents) show up at slightly different x coordinates. I need to have the div's line up at exactly the same x coordinate no matter how deeply nested. Note, the bottom most category always has a div for the content, but that div has to be situated inside the last < li . I am using an unordered list to display the menu and thought the best solution would be to grab the root category (Cat 2, and mCat1) and obtain their left offset using jquery, then simply use that value to update the positioning of the div...but I couldn't seem to get it to work just right. I would appreciate any advice or help that you are willing to give. Heres the HTML <ul id="nav> <li>Cat 2 <ul> <li>sub cat2</li> </ul> </li> <li>mCat1 <ul> <li>Subcat A <ul> <li>Subcat A.1 <ul> <li>Annie</li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> Heres some jquery I tried (I have do insert the div inside this .each() loop in order to retrieve some values, but basically, this selector is grabbing the last < li in the menu tree and placing a div after it and that is the div that I want to position. the 245 value was something I was playing around with to see how I could get things to line up, and I know its out of wack, but the problem is still the same no matter what I do: $("#nav li:not(:has(li))").each(function () { var self = $(this); var position = self.offset(); var xLeft = Math.round(position.left)- 245; console.log("xLeft:", xLeft ); self.after( '<div id="' + self.attr('p_node') + '_p_cont_div" class="property_position" style="display:none; left:' + xLeft + 'px;" /> ' ); }); Heres the css: .property_position{ float:left; position: relative; top: 0px; padding-top:5px; padding-bottom:10px; }

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• Rtti accessing fields and properties in complex data structures

  - by Coco

  As already discussed in Rtti data manipulation and consistency in Delphi 2010 a consistency between the original data and rtti values can be reached by accessing members by using a pair of TRttiField and an instance pointer. This would be very easy in case of a simple class with only basic member types (like e.g. integers or strings). But what if we have structured field types? Here is an example: TIntArray = array [0..1] of Integer; TPointArray = array [0..1] of Point; TExampleClass = class private FPoint : TPoint; FAnotherClass : TAnotherClass; FIntArray : TIntArray; FPointArray : TPointArray; public property Point : TPoint read FPoint write FPoint; //.... and so on end; For an easy access of Members I want to buil a tree of member-nodes, which provides an interface for getting and setting values, getting attributes, serializing/deserializing values and so on. TMemberNode = class private FMember : TRttiMember; FParent : TMemberNode; FInstance : Pointer; public property Value : TValue read GetValue write SetValue; //uses FInstance end; So the most important thing is getting/setting the values, which is done - as stated before - by using the GetValue and SetValue functions of TRttiField. So what is the Instance for FPoint members? Let's say Parent is the Node for TExample class, where the instance is known and the member is a field, then Instance would be: FInstance := Pointer (Integer (Parent.Instance) + TRttiField (FMember).Offset); But what if I want to know the Instance for a record property? There is no offset in this case. So is there a better solution to get a pointer to the data? For the FAnotherClass member, the Instance would be: FInstance := Parent.Value.AsObject; So far the solution works, and data manipulation can be done by using rtti or the original types, without losing information. But things get harder, when working with arrays. Especially the second array of Points. How can I get the instance for the members of points in this case?

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• LINQ aggregate left join on SQL CE

  - by P Daddy

  What I need is such a simple, easy query, it blows me away how much work I've done just trying to do it in LINQ. In T-SQL, it would be: SELECT I.InvoiceID, I.CustomerID, I.Amount AS AmountInvoiced, I.Date AS InvoiceDate, ISNULL(SUM(P.Amount), 0) AS AmountPaid, I.Amount - ISNULL(SUM(P.Amount), 0) AS AmountDue FROM Invoices I LEFT JOIN Payments P ON I.InvoiceID = P.InvoiceID WHERE I.Date between @start and @end GROUP BY I.InvoiceID, I.CustomerID, I.Amount, I.Date ORDER BY AmountDue DESC The best equivalent LINQ expression I've come up with, took me much longer to do: var invoices = ( from I in Invoices where I.Date >= start && I.Date <= end join P in Payments on I.InvoiceID equals P.InvoiceID into payments select new{ I.InvoiceID, I.CustomerID, AmountInvoiced = I.Amount, InvoiceDate = I.Date, AmountPaid = ((decimal?)payments.Select(P=>P.Amount).Sum()).GetValueOrDefault(), AmountDue = I.Amount - ((decimal?)payments.Select(P=>P.Amount).Sum()).GetValueOrDefault() } ).OrderByDescending(row=>row.AmountDue); This gets an equivalent result set when run against SQL Server. Using a SQL CE database, however, changes things. The T-SQL stays almost the same. I only have to change ISNULL to COALESCE. Using the same LINQ expression, however, results in an error: There was an error parsing the query. [ Token line number = 4, Token line offset = 9,Token in error = SELECT ] So we look at the generated SQL code: SELECT [t3].[InvoiceID], [t3].[CustomerID], [t3].[Amount] AS [AmountInvoiced], [t3].[Date] AS [InvoiceDate], [t3].[value] AS [AmountPaid], [t3].[value2] AS [AmountDue] FROM ( SELECT [t0].[InvoiceID], [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[Amount], [t0].[Date], COALESCE(( SELECT SUM([t1].[Amount]) FROM [Payments] AS [t1] WHERE [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t1].[InvoiceID] ),0) AS [value], [t0].[Amount] - (COALESCE(( SELECT SUM([t2].[Amount]) FROM [Payments] AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t2].[InvoiceID] ),0)) AS [value2] FROM [Invoices] AS [t0] ) AS [t3] WHERE ([t3].[Date] >= @p0) AND ([t3].[Date] <= @p1) ORDER BY [t3].[value2] DESC Ugh! Okay, so it's ugly and inefficient when run against SQL Server, but we're not supposed to care, since it's supposed to be quicker to write, and the performance difference shouldn't be that large. But it just doesn't work against SQL CE, which apparently doesn't support subqueries within the SELECT list. In fact, I've tried several different left join queries in LINQ, and they all seem to have the same problem. Even: from I in Invoices join P in Payments on I.InvoiceID equals P.InvoiceID into payments select new{I, payments} generates: SELECT [t0].[InvoiceID], [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[Amount], [t0].[Date], [t1].[InvoiceID] AS [InvoiceID2], [t1].[Amount] AS [Amount2], [t1].[Date] AS [Date2], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [Payments] AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t2].[InvoiceID] ) AS [value] FROM [Invoices] AS [t0] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Payments] AS [t1] ON [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t1].[InvoiceID] ORDER BY [t0].[InvoiceID] which also results in the error: There was an error parsing the query. [ Token line number = 2, Token line offset = 5,Token in error = SELECT ] So how can I do a simple left join on a SQL CE database using LINQ? Am I wasting my time?

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• Using JUnit as an acceptance test framework

  - by Chris Knight

  OK, so I work for a company who has openly adopted agile practices for development in recent years. Our unit tests and code quality are improving. One area we still are working on is to find what works best for us in the automated acceptance test arena. We want to take our well formed user stories and use these to drive the code in a test driven manner. This will also give us acceptance level tests for each user story which we can then automate. To date, we've tried Fit, Fitnesse and Selenium. Each have their advantages, but we've also had real issues with them as well. With Fit and Fitnesse, we can't help but feel they overcomplicate things and we've had many technical issues using them. The business haven't fully bought in these tools and aren't particularly keen on maintaining the scripts all the time (and aren't big fans of the table style). Selenium is really good, but slow and relies on real time data and resources. One approach we are now considering is the use of the JUnit framework to provide similiar functionality. Rather than testing just a small unit of work using JUnit, why not use it to write a test (using the JUnit framework) to cover an acceptance level swath of the application? I.e. take a new story ("As a user I would like to see basic details of my policy...") and write a test in JUnit which starts executing application code at the point of entry for the policy details link but covers all code and logic down to the stubbed data access layer and back to the point of forwarding to the next page in the application, asserting on what data the user should see on that page. This seems to me to have the following advantages: Simplicity (no additional frameworks required) Zero effort to integrate with our Continuous Integration build server (since it already handles our JUnit tests) Full skillset already present in the team (its just a JUnit test after all) And the downsides being: Less customer involvement (though they are heavily involved in writing the user stories in the first place from which the acceptance tests will be written) Perhaps more difficult to understand (or make understood) the user story and acceptance criteria in a JUnit class verses a freetext specification ala Fit or Fitnesse So, my question is really, have you ever tried this method? Ever considered it? What are your thoughts? What do you like and dislike about this approach? Finally, please only mention alternative frameworks if you can say why you like or dislike them more than this approach.

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• design for a wrapper around command-line utilities

  - by hatchetman82

  im trying to come up with a design for a wrapper for use when invoking command line utilities in java. the trouble with runtime.exec() is that you need to keep reading from the process' out and err streams or it hangs when it fills its buffers. this has led me to the following design: public class CommandLineInterface { private final Thread stdOutThread; private final Thread stdErrThread; private final OutputStreamWriter stdin; private final History history; public CommandLineInterface(String command) throws IOException { this.history = new History(); this.history.addEntry(new HistoryEntry(EntryTypeEnum.INPUT, command)); Process process = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command); stdin = new OutputStreamWriter(process.getOutputStream()); stdOutThread = new Thread(new Leech(process.getInputStream(), history, EntryTypeEnum.OUTPUT)); stdOutThread.setDaemon(true); stdOutThread.start(); stdErrThread = new Thread(new Leech(process.getErrorStream(), history, EntryTypeEnum.ERROR)); stdErrThread.setDaemon(true); stdErrThread.start(); } public void write(String input) throws IOException { this.history.addEntry(new HistoryEntry(EntryTypeEnum.INPUT, input)); stdin.write(input); stdin.write("\n"); stdin.flush(); } } public class Leech implements Runnable{ private final InputStream stream; private final History history; private final EntryTypeEnum type; private volatile boolean alive = true; public Leech(InputStream stream, History history, EntryTypeEnum type) { this.stream = stream; this.history = history; this.type = type; } public void run() { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(stream)); String line; try { while(alive) { line = reader.readLine(); if (line==null) break; history.addEntry(new HistoryEntry(type, line)); } } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } my issue is with the Leech class (used to "leech" the process' out and err streams and feed them into history - which acts like a log file) - on the one hand reading whole lines is nice and easy (and what im currently doing), but it means i miss the last line (usually the prompt line). i only see the prompt line when executing the next command (because there's no line break until that point). on the other hand, if i read characters myself, how can i tell when the process is "done" ? (either complete or waiting for input) has anyone tried something like waiting 100 millis since the last output from the process and declaring it "done" ? any better ideas on how i can implement a nice wrapper around things like runtime.exec("cmd.exe") ?

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• IE image map remains clickable behind another div

  - by Ryan Giglio

  I have an Image Map of the United States. When you click on a state, the map fades out and a map of that state appears with an image map of the area codes in the state. In Firefox, Safari, and Chrome, the state map becomes clickable and the United States map becomes unclickable until you close the sate popover. However in Internet Explorer, the United States map remains clickable through the state popover, and I cannot click on any area codes. Here is my javascript: $(document).ready(function() { $("#usMap").html(); $("#usMap").load("/includes/us_map.inc"); }); $('area').live('click', function() { var state = $(this).attr("class"); var statePopover = $("<div id='statePopoverContainer'><a id='popoverCloseButton'>Close State</a><div id='statePopover'></div></div>"); $("#usMap").append(statePopover); $("#usMapImage").fadeTo('slow', 0.2); $("#statePopover").load("/includes/stateMaps/" + state + ".html"); }); $("#popoverCloseButton").live('click', function() { $("#statePopoverContainer").remove(); $("#usMapImage").fadeTo('slow', 1); }); I am loading the map on document ready because if you don't have Javascript, something else appears. And here is the CSS for all things related: div#usMap { width:676px; height:419px; text-align: center; position: relative; background-color:#333333; z-index: 1; } img#usMapImage { z-index: 1; } area { cursor: pointer; } div#statePopoverContainer { width:100%; height:100%; z-index:5; position:absolute; top:0; left:0; } a#popoverCloseButton { position:absolute; right:0; padding-right:5px; padding-top:5px; color:#FFFFFF; cursor:pointer; } You can see this happening at http://dev.crewinyourcode.com/ Login with beta/tester

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• Temporarily impersonate and enable privileges?

  - by Luke

  We maintain a DLL that does a lot of system-related things; traversing the file system, registry, etc. The callers of this DLL may or may not be using impersonation. In order to better support all possible scenarios I'm trying to modify it to be smarter. I'll use the example of deleting a file. Currently we just call DeleteFile(), and if that fails that's the end of that. I've come up with the following: BOOL TryReallyHardToDeleteFile(LPCTSTR lpFileName) { // 1. caller without privilege BOOL bSuccess = DeleteFile(lpFileName); DWORD dwError = GetLastError(); if(!bSuccess && dwError == ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED) { // failed with access denied; try with privilege DWORD dwOldRestorePrivilege = 0; BOOL bHasRestorePrivilege = SetPrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME, SE_PRIVILEGE_ENABLED, &dwOldRestorePrivilege); if(bHasRestorePrivilege) { // 2. caller with privilege bSuccess = DeleteFile(lpFileName); dwError = GetLastError(); SetPrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME, dwOldRestorePrivilege, NULL); } if(!bSuccess && dwError == ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED) { // failed with access denied; if caller is impersonating then try as process HANDLE hToken = NULL; if(OpenThreadToken(GetCurrentThread(), TOKEN_QUERY | TOKEN_IMPERSONATE, TRUE, &hToken)) { if(RevertToSelf()) { // 3. process without privilege bSuccess = DeleteFile(lpFileName); dwError = GetLastError(); if(!bSuccess && dwError == ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED) { // failed with access denied; try with privilege bHasRestorePrivilege = SetPrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME, SE_PRIVILEGE_ENABLED, &dwOldRestorePrivilege); if(bHasRestorePrivilege) { // 4. process with privilege bSuccess = DeleteFile(lpFileName); dwError = GetLastError(); SetPrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME, dwOldRestorePrivilege, NULL); } } SetThreadToken(NULL, hToken); } CloseHandle(hToken); hToken = NULL; } } } if(!bSuccess) { SetLastError(dwError); } return bSuccess; } So first it tries as the caller. If that fails with access denied, it temporarily enables privileges in the caller's token and tries again. If that fails with access denied and the caller is impersonating, it temporarily unimpersonates and tries again. If that fails with access denied, it temporarily enables privileges in the process token and tries again. I think this should handle pretty much any situation, but I was wondering if there was a better way to achieve this? There are a lot of operations that we would potentially want to use this method (i.e. pretty much any operation that accesses securable objects).

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• Partial overriding in Java (or dynamic overriding while overloading)

  - by Lie Ryan

  If I have a parent-child that defines some method .foo() like this: class Parent { public void foo(Parent arg) { System.out.println("foo in Function"); } } class Child extends Parent { public void foo(Child arg) { System.out.println("foo in ChildFunction"); } } When I called them like this: Child f = new Child(); Parent g = f; f.foo(new Parent()); f.foo(new Child()); g.foo(new Parent()); g.foo(new Child()); the output is: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Parent But, I want this output: foo in Parent foo in Child foo in Parent foo in Child I have a Child class that extends Parent class. In the Child class, I want to "partially override" the Parent's foo(), that is, if the argument arg's type is Child then Child's foo() is called instead of Parent's foo(). That works Ok when I called f.foo(...) as a Child; but if I refer to it from its Parent alias like in g.foo(...) then the Parent's foo(..) get called irrespective of the type of arg. As I understand it, what I'm expecting doesn't happen because method overloading in Java is early binding (i.e. resolved statically at compile time) while method overriding is late binding (i.e. resolved dynamically at compile time) and since I defined a function with a technically different argument type, I'm technically overloading the Parent's class definition with a distinct definition, not overriding it. But what I want to do is conceptually "partially overriding" when .foo()'s argument is a subclass of the parent's foo()'s argument. I know I can define a bucket override foo(Parent arg) in Child that checks whether arg's actual type is Parent or Child and pass it properly, but if I have twenty Child, that would be lots of duplication of type-unsafe code. In my actual code, Parent is an abstract class named "Function" that simply throws NotImplementedException(). The children includes "Polynomial", "Logarithmic", etc and .foo() includes things like Child.add(Child), Child.intersectionsWith(Child), etc. Not all combination of Child.foo(OtherChild) are solvable and in fact not even all Child.foo(Child) is solvable. So I'm best left with defining everything undefined (i.e. throwing NotImplementedException) then defines only those that can be defined. So the question is: Is there any way to override only part the parent's foo()? Or is there a better way to do what I want to do?

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• Is ResourceBundle fallback resolution broken in Resin3x?

  - by LES2

  Given the following ResourceBundle properties files: messages.properties messages_en.properties messages_es.properties messages_{some locale}.properties Note: messages.properties contains all the messages for the default locale. messages_en.properties is really empty - it's just there for correctness. messages_en.properties will fall back to messages.properties! And given the following config params in web.xml: <context-param> <param-name>javax.servlet.jsp.jstl.fmt.localizationContext</param-name> <param-value>messages</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>javax.servlet.jsp.jstl.fmt.fallbackLocale</param-name> <param-value>en</param-value> </context-param> I would expect that if the chosen locale is 'es', and a resource is not translated in 'es', then it would fall back to 'en', and finally to 'messages.properties' (since messages_en.properties is empty). This is how things work in Jetty. I've also tested this on WebSphere. Resin Is the Problem The problem is when I get to Resin (3.0.23). Fallback resolution does not work at all! In order to get an messages to display, I must do the following: Rename messages.properties to messages_en.properties (essentially, swap the contents of messages.properties and messages_en.properties) Make sure ever key in messages_en.properties is also defined in messages_{every other locale}.properties (even if the exact same). If I don't do this, I get "???some.key???" in the JSPs. Please help! This is perplexing. -- LES SOLUTION Add following to pom.xml (if you're using maven) ... <properties> <taglibs.version>1.1.2</taglibs.version> </properties> ... <!-- Resin ships with a crappy JSTL implementation that doesn't work with fallback locales for resource bundles correctly; we therefore include our own JSTL implementation in the WAR, and avoid this problem. This can be removed if the target container is not resin. --> <dependency> <groupId>taglibs</groupId> <artifactId>standard</artifactId> <version>${taglibs.version}</version> <scope>compile</scope> </dependency>

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• ArgumentNullException when accessing a FormView instance

  - by David

  Background: I have an ASP.NET page which has a numebr of user controls within it. There are 2 user controls which are of interest. I need to display either one of them or neither of them, depending on the record selected previously. In the user controls I need to set properties of some controls which are in a FormView. So in my user control code-behind I have a number of properties which look something like this: Private ReadOnly Property phSectionReports() As PlaceHolder Get Return fvConfirmationReport.FindControl("phSectionReports") End Get End Property The problem: I am having problems with this Property. Sometimes it is returning Nothing/Null and sometimes it is throwing a NullArgumentException with the message "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: container". The exception is coming from trying to reference the fvConfirmationReport variable. fvConfirmationReport is the ID of my FormView in the page itself. So I am really after things to look for and if any ideas what sort of conditions (e.g stage in page cycle, etc.) might lead to this? An example stack trace is included below. ASP.NET 3.5 SP1, VB.NET Thanks, StackTrace: at System.Web.UI.DataBinder.GetPropertyValue(Object container, String propName) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.CreateChildControls(IEnumerable dataSource, Boolean dataBinding) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.CompositeDataBoundControl.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataBoundControl.OnDataSourceViewSelectCallback(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Select(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments, DataSourceViewSelectCallback callback) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataBoundControl.PerformSelect() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) ...snip... at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBindChildren() at System.Web.UI.Control.DataBind(Boolean raiseOnDataBinding) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.FormView.CreateChildControls(IEnumerable dataSource, Boolean dataBinding) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.CompositeDataBoundControl.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.FormView.PerformDataBinding(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataBoundControl.OnDataSourceViewSelectCallback(IEnumerable data) at System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Select(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments, DataSourceViewSelectCallback callback) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataBoundControl.PerformSelect() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.FormView.DataBind() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataBoundControl.EnsureDataBound() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.FormView.EnsureDataBound() at System.Web.UI.WebControls.CompositeDataBoundControl.CreateChildControls() at System.Web.UI.Control.EnsureChildControls() at System.Web.UI.Control.FindControl(String id, Int32 pathOffset) at System.Web.UI.Control.FindControl(String id) at App_UserControls_xxx_ucConfirmationForm.get_phSectionReports() in ucConfirmationForm.ascx.vb:line 343 at App_UserControls_xxx_ucConfirmationForm.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in ucConfirmationForm.ascx.vb:line 412 at System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() ...snip... at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint)

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• Set maven to use archiva repositories WITHOUT using activeByDefault?

  - by Sam Levin

  I am very close to finally having a working setup with archiva and maven. The last thing that's really boggling me, is how to set up my internal and snapshot repositories - without using a profile which contains activeByDefault set to true. I am using a SUPER super pom - a company-wide pom which contains distributionManagement information for releases. I was thinking that I could specify the repositories in this pom, and configure the authentication settings in settings.xml? Can I use repositories tag without a profile? There should be no "profile" for my internal and snapshot repositories, as they will never change... What I'm trying to steer clear from, is using a "default" profile, which is active all the time. I hear activeByDefault is NOT a best practice and I don't intend to use it. With that said, how should I go about doing this? My internal repo is a mirror of the maven central repo, so I would like to lock down my developers to ONLY use our internal artifact server. Remember - I do NOT want a profile with activeByDefault set to true. I cannot stress this enough! Should I use Maven mirrors? Should I "add" additional repositories? If I take the repositories tag instead of the mirrors tag, will maven force builds to use ONLY my archiva settings, instead of the default maven central? Or is what I seek to accomplish able to be done using only the mirrors tag in maven? I know how to configure repo credentials when using repositories tag, but not with mirrors. How is this done? Is providing credentials for anything in mirrors tags the same as for anything in repositories tags? Am I missing something obvious? I've had it up to here with getting things up and running using maven. I know it will be worthwhile in the end, but it is surely causing me a ton of aggravation and resources seem to be sparse. Either that, or people are content using it however they please without regard to best-practices. Thank you

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• An IOCP documentation interpretation question - buffer ownership ambiguity

  - by Poni

  Since I'm not a native English speaker I might be missing something so maybe someone here knows better than me. Taken from WSASend's doumentation at MSDN: lpBuffers [in] A pointer to an array of WSABUF structures. Each WSABUF structure contains a pointer to a buffer and the length, in bytes, of the buffer. For a Winsock application, once the WSASend function is called, the system owns these buffers and the application may not access them. This array must remain valid for the duration of the send operation. Ok, can you see the bold text? That's the unclear spot! I can think of two translations for this line (might be something else, you name it): Translation 1 - "buffers" refers to the OVERLAPPED structure that I pass this function when calling it. I may reuse the object again only when getting a completion notification about it. Translation 2 - "buffers" refer to the actual buffers, those with the data I'm sending. If the WSABUF object points to one buffer, then I cannot touch this buffer until the operation is complete. Can anyone tell what's the right interpretation to that line? And..... If the answer is the second one - how would you resolve it? Because to me it implies that for each and every data/buffer I'm sending I must retain a copy of it at the sender side - thus having MANY "pending" buffers (in different sizes) on an high traffic application, which really going to hurt "scalability". Statement 1: In addition to the above paragraph (the "And...."), I thought that IOCP copies the data to-be-sent to it's own buffer and sends from there, unless you set SO_SNDBUF to zero. Statement 2: I use stack-allocated buffers (you know, something like char cBuff[1024]; at the function body - if the translation to the main question is the second option (i.e buffers must stay as they are until the send is complete), then... that really screws things up big-time! Can you think of a way to resolve it? (I know, I asked it in other words above).

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• How can we retrieve value on main.mxml from other .mxml?

  - by Roshan

  main.mxml [Bindable] private var _dp:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection([ {day:"Monday", dailyTill:7792.43}, {day:"Tuesday", dailyTill:8544.875}, {day:"Wednesday", dailyTill:6891.432}, {day:"Thursday", dailyTill:10438.1}, {day:"Friday", dailyTill:8395.222}, {day:"Saturday", dailyTill:5467.00}, {day:"Sunday", dailyTill:10001.5} ]); public var hx:String ; public function init():void { //parameters is passed to it from flashVars //values are either amount or order hx = Application.application.parameters.tab; } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:LineChart id="myLC" dataProvider="{_dp}" showDataTips="true" dataTipRenderer="com.Amount" > <mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:CategoryAxis categoryField="day" /> </mx:horizontalAxis> <mx:series> <mx:LineSeries xField="day" yField="dailyTill"> </mx:LineSeries> </mx:series> </mx:LineChart> com/Amount.mxml [Bindable] private var _dayText:String; [Bindable] private var _dollarText:String; override public function set data(value:Object):void{ //Alert.show(Application.application.parameters.tab); //we know to expect a HitData object from a chart, so let's cast it as such //so that there aren't any nasty runtime surprises var hd:HitData = value as HitData; //Any HitData object carries a reference to the ChartItem that created it. //This is where we need to know exactly what kind of Chartitem we're dealing with. //Why? Because a pie chart isn't going to have an xValue and a yValue, but things //like bar charts, column charts and, in our case, line charts will. var item:LineSeriesItem = hd.chartItem as LineSeriesItem; //the xValue and yValue are returned as Objects. Let's cast them as strings, so //that we can display them in the Label fields. _dayText = String(item.xValue); var hx : String = String(item.yValue) _dollarText = hx.replace("$"," "); }//end set data ]]> </mx:Script> QUES : Amount.mxml is used as dataTipRenderer for line chart. Now, I need to obtain the value assigned to variable "hx" in main.mxml from "com/Amount.mxml".Any help would be greatly appreciated?

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• .htaccess mod_rewrite issue

  - by Orhan Toy

  Almost in any project I work on, some issues with .htaccess occur. I usually just find the easiest solution and leave it because I don't have any knowledge or understanding for Apache, servers etc. But this time I thought I would ask you guys. This is the files and folders in my (simplified) setup: /modrewrite-test .htaccess /config /inc /lib /public_html .htaccess /cms /navigation index.php edit.php /pages index.php edit.php login.php page.php The "config", "inc" and "lib" folders are meant to be "hidden" from the root of the website. I try to accomplish this by making a .htaccess-file in the root that redirects the user to "public_html". The .htacess-file contains this: RewriteEngine On RewriteRule (.*) public_html/$1 This works perfect. If I type "http://localhost/modrewrite-test/login.php" in my browser, I end up in public_html/login.php which is my intention. So this works fine. The .htaccess-file in "public_html" contains this: RewriteEngine On # Root RewriteRule ^$ page.php [L] # Login RewriteRule ^(admin)|(login)\/?$ login.php [L] # Page (if not a file/directory) RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ page.php?url=$1 [L] The first rewrite just redirects me to public_html/page.php if I try to reach "http://localhost/modrewrite-test/". The next rewrite is just for the convenience of users trying to log in - so if they try to reach "http://localhost/modrewrite-test/admin" or "http://localhost/modrewrite-test/login" they will end up at the login.php-file. The third and last rewrite handles the rest of the requests. If I try to reach "http://localhost/modrewrite-test/bla/bla/bla" it will just redirect me to public_html/page.php (with the 'url' GET-variable set) instead of finding a folder called "la", containing a folder named "bla" and etc. All of these things work perfect but a minor issues occurs when I for instance try to reach "http://localhost/modrewrite-test/cms/navigation" without a slash at the end of the URL. When I try to reach that page the browser is somehow redirected to "http://localhost/modrewrite-test/public_html/cms/navigation/". The correct page is shown but why does it get redirected and add the "public_html" part in the URL? The desired behavior is that the URL stays intact and that the page public_html/cms/navigation/index.php is shown. The files and folders in the (simplified) can be found at http://highbars.com/modrewrite-test.zip

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