Search Results

Search found 20869 results on 835 pages for 'things i hate'.

Page 779/835 | < Previous Page | 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786  | Next Page >

  • How do I delete a [sub]hash based off of the keys/values of another hash?

    - by Zack
    Lets assume I have two hashes. One of them contains a set of data that only needs to keep things that show up in the other hash. e.g. my %hash1 = ( test1 => { inner1 => { more => "alpha", evenmore => "beta" } }, test2 => { inner2 => { more => "charlie", somethingelse => "delta" } }, test3 => { inner9999 => { ohlookmore => "golf", somethingelse => "foxtrot" } } ); my %hash2 = ( major=> { test2 => "inner2", test3 => "inner3" } ); What I would like to do, is to delete the whole subhash in hash1 if it does not exist as a key/value in hash2{major}, preferably without modules. The information contained in "innerX" does not matter, it merely must be left alone (unless the subhash is to be deleted then it can go away). In the example above after this operation is preformed hash1 would look like: my %hash1 = ( test2 => { inner2 => { more => "charlie", somethingelse => "delta" } }, ); It deletes hash1{test1} and hash1{test3} because they don't match anything in hash2. Here's what I've currently tried, but it doesn't work. Nor is it probably the safest thing to do since I'm looping over the hash while trying to delete from it. However I'm deleting at the each which should be okay? This was my attempt at doing this, however perl complains about: Can't use string ("inner1") as a HASH ref while "strict refs" in use at while(my ($test, $inner) = each %hash1) { if(exists $hash2{major}{$test}{$inner}) { print "$test($inner) is in exists.\n"; } else { print "Looks like $test($inner) does not exist, REMOVING.\n"; #not to sure if $inner is needed to remove the whole entry delete ($hash1{$test}{$inner}); } }

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 - pydoc from cmd

    - by Random_Person
    Okay, I'm having one of those moments that makes me question my ability to use a computer. This is not the sort of question I imagined asking as my first SO post, but here goes. Started on Zed's new "Learn Python the Hard Way" since I've been looking to get back into programming after a 10 year hiatus and python was always what I wanted. This book has really spoken to me. That being said, I'm having a serious issue with pydoc from the command. I've got all the directories in c:/python26 in my system path and I can execute pydoc from the command line just fine regardless of pwd - but it accepts no arguments. Doesn't matter what I type, I just get the standard pydoc output telling me the acceptable arguments. Any ideas? For what it's worth, I installed ActivePython as per Zed's suggestion. C:\Users\Chevee>pydoc file pydoc - the Python documentation tool pydoc.py <name> ... Show text documentation on something. <name> may be the name of a Python keyword, topic, function, module, or package, or a dotted reference to a class or function within a module or module in a package. If <name> contains a '\', it is used as the path to a Python source file to document. If name is 'keywords', 'topics', or 'modules', a listing of these things is displayed. pydoc.py -k <keyword> Search for a keyword in the synopsis lines of all available modules. pydoc.py -p <port> Start an HTTP server on the given port on the local machine. pydoc.py -g Pop up a graphical interface for finding and serving documentation. pydoc.py -w <name> ... Write out the HTML documentation for a module to a file in the current directory. If <name> contains a '\', it is treated as a filename; if it names a directory, documentation is written for all the contents. C:\Users\Chevee> EDIT: New information, pydoc works just fine in PowerShell. As a linux user, I have no idea why I'm trying to use cmd anyways--but I'd still love to figure out what's up with pydoc and cmd. EDIT 2: More new information. In cmd... c:\>python c:/python26/lib/pydoc.py file ...works just fine. Everything works just fine with just pydoc in PowerShell without me worrying about pwd, or extensions or paths.

    Read the article

  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

    Read the article

  • Generating custom-form documents from base-form plus XML?

    - by KlaymenDK
    Hi all, this is my first stack overflow, and it's a complex one. Sorry. My task is to generate custom documents from a basic template plus some XML without having a custom form design element for each case. Here's the whole picture: We are building a Lotus Notes (client, not web) application for world-wide application access control; the scope is something like 400.000 users being able to request access to any of 1000+ applications. Each application needs its own request form -- different number of approvers, various info required, that sort of thing. We simply can't have a thousand forms in a database (one per application), and anyway their maintenance really needs to be pushed from the developers to the application owners. So instead of custom forms, we'd like to create a generic "template" form that stores a block of basic fields, but then allows application owners to define another block of fields dynamically -- "I want a mandatory plain-text field named 'Name' here, and then a date field named 'Due' here that must be later than today's date, and then ...". I hope this makes sense (if not, think of it as a generic questionnaire application). I pretty much have the structure in place for designing the dynamic fields (form builder GUI - XML-encoded data - pre-rendered DXL for injecting into a form), including mark-up for field types, value options, and rudimentary field validation instructions. My problem is generating a document with this dynamic content injected at the proper location (without needing a custom form design element for each case). Doing the dynamic content via HTML is out. The Notes client web rendering is simply way too poor, and it would be quite a challenge to implement things like field validation instructions, date selectors, and name look-ups. DXL, on the other hand, would allow us to use native Notes fields and code. As a tech demo, I've managed to implement a custom form generator that injects the pre-rendered DXL for the dynamic content into a base form; but as I said, we don't want a ton of custom form design elements. I've tried to implement a way to create a document with the "store form in document" flag set, but once I've created the document from the base form, I can't get DXL access to the stored form design, and so I can't inject my dynamic content. I know this is not something Notes was ever intended to do. Has anyone ever tried something like it (and gotten away with it)? Thanks for reading this far. With a boatload of thanks in advance, Jan Gundtofte-Bruun

    Read the article

  • How do I debug a difficult-to-reproduce crash with no useful call stack?

    - by David M
    I am encountering an odd crash in our software and I'm having a lot of trouble debugging it, and so I am seeking SO's advice on how to tackle it. The crash is an access violation reading a NULL pointer: First chance exception at $00CF0041. Exception class $C0000005 with message 'access violation at 0x00cf0041: read of address 0x00000000'. It only happens 'sometimes' - I haven't managed to figure out any rhyme or reason, yet, for when - and only in the main thread. When it occurs, the call stack contains one incorrect entry: For the main thread, which this is, it should show a large stack full of other items. At this point, all other threads are inactive (mostly sitting in WaitForSingleObject or a similar function.) I have only seen this crash occur in the main thread. It always has the same call stack of one entry, in the same method at the same address. This method may or may not be related - we do use the VCL in our application. My bet, though, is that something (possibly quite a while ago) is corrupting the stack, and the address where it's crashing is effectively random. Note it has been the same address across several builds, though - it's probably not truly random. Here is what I've tried: Trying to reproduce it reliably at a certain point. I have found nothing that reproduces it every time, and a couple of things that occasionally do, or do not, for no apparent reason. These are not 'narrow' enough actions to narrow it down to a particular section of code. It may be timing related, but at the point the IDE breaks in, other threads are usually doing nothing. I can't rule out a threading problem, but think it's unlikely. Building with extra debugging statements (extra debug info, extra asserts, etc.) After doing so, the crash never occurs. Building with Codeguard enabled. After doing so, the crash never occurs and Codeguard shows no errors. My questions: 1. How do I find what code caused the crash? How do I do the equivalent of walking back up the stack? 2. What general advice do you have for how to trace the cause of this crash? I am using Embarcadero RAD Studio 2010 (the project mostly contains C++ Builder code and small amounts of Delphi.)

    Read the article

  • How to keep a local value from being set when a binding fails (so inherited values will propagate)

    - by redoced
    Consider the following scenario: I want to bind the TextElement.FontWeight property to an xml attribute. The xml looks somewhat like this and has arbitrary depth. <text font-weight="bold"> bold text here <inlinetext>more bold text</inlinetext> even more bold text </text> I use hierarchical templating to display the text, no problem there, but having a Setter in the template style like: <Setter Property="TextElement.FontWeight" Value="{Binding XPath=@font-weight}"/> sets the fontweight correctly on the first level, but overwrites the second level with null (as the binding can't find the xpath) which reverts to Fontweight normal. I tried all sorts of things here but nothing quite seems to work. e.g. i used a converter to return UnsetValue, which didn't work. I'm currently trying with: <Setter Property="custom:AttributeInserter.Wrapper" Value="{custom:AttributeInserter Property=TextElement.FontWeight, Binding={Binding XPath=@font-weight}}"/> Codebehind: public static class AttributeInserter { public static AttributeInserterExtension GetWrapper(DependencyObject obj) { return (AttributeInserterExtension)obj.GetValue(WrapperProperty); } public static void SetWrapper(DependencyObject obj, AttributeInserterExtension value) { obj.SetValue(WrapperProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Wrapper. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty WrapperProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached("Wrapper", typeof(AttributeInserterExtension), typeof(AttributeInserter), new UIPropertyMetadata(pcc)); static void pcc(DependencyObject o,DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { var n=e.NewValue as AttributeInserterExtension; var c = o as FrameworkElement; if (n == null || c==null || n.Property==null || n.Binding==null) return; var bex = c.SetBinding(n.Property, n.Binding); bex.UpdateTarget(); if (bex.Status == BindingStatus.UpdateTargetError) c.ClearValue(n.Property); } } public class AttributeInserterExtension : MarkupExtension { public override object ProvideValue(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { return this; } public DependencyProperty Property { get; set; } public Binding Binding { get; set; } } which kinda works, but can't track changes of the property Any ideas? Any links? thx for the help

    Read the article

  • "Access violation reading location" while accessing a global vector..

    - by djzmo
    Hello there, -- First of all, I don't know whether the vector can be called as a "global vector" if I declared it under a namespace, but not in a class or function. -- I'm now writing a simple Irrlicht (http://irrlicht.sourceforge.net) wrapper for my game to make things simpler and easier, but recently I got an "Access violation reading location" error when trying to push_back a vector declared in the global scope. Here is my code so far: irrwrap.cpp: namespace irrw { //......... IrrlichtDevice *device; IVideoDriver *driver; irr::core::array<irr::video::ITexture*> TextureCollector; vector<int> TextureConnector; //......... } //.............. void irrInit(int iGraphicsDriver, int iWindowWidth, int iWindowHeight, int iScreenDepth, bool bFullScreen) { E_DRIVER_TYPE drvT; if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_SOFTWARE) drvT = EDT_SOFTWARE; else if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_D3D8) drvT = EDT_DIRECT3D8; else if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_D3D9) drvT = EDT_DIRECT3D9; else if(iGraphicsDriver == GD_OPENGL) drvT = EDT_OPENGL; //.............. irrw::device = createDevice(drvT, dimension2d<u32>(iWindowWidth, iWindowHeight), iScreenDepth, bFullScreen); irrw::driver = irrw::device->getVideoDriver(); //.................. } void irrLoadImage(irr::core::stringc szFileName, int iID, int iTextureFlag) { //........ irrw::TextureCollector.push_back(irrw::driver->getTexture(szFileName)); // the call stack pointed to this line irrw::TextureConnector.push_back(iID); } main.cpp: //......... INT WINAPI WinMain(HINSTANCE hInst, HINSTANCE, LPSTR strCmdLine, INT) { //......... irrInit(GD_OPENGL, 800, 600, 16, false); irrLoadImage("picture.jpg", 100, 1); //......... } and the error: Unhandled exception at 0x692804d6 in Game.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000558. Now I really got no idea on how to fix the problem. Any kind of help would be appreciated :) Here are some prototypes: virtual ITexture* getTexture(const io::path& filename) = 0; typedef core::string<fschar_t> path; // under 'io' namespace typedef char fschar_t; typedef string<c8> stringc; typedef char c8; Just FYI, I am using MSVC++ 2008 EE. (CODE UPDATED)

    Read the article

  • Best practices regarding equals: to overload or not to overload?

    - by polygenelubricants
    Consider the following snippet: import java.util.*; public class EqualsOverload { public static void main(String[] args) { class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } public boolean equals(Thing other) { return this.x == other.x; } } List<Thing> myThings = Arrays.asList(new Thing(42)); System.out.println(myThings.contains(new Thing(42))); // prints "false" } } Note that contains returns false!!! We seems to have lost our things!! The bug, of course, is the fact that we've accidentally overloaded, instead of overridden, Object.equals(Object). If we had written class Thing as follows instead, then contains returns true as expected. class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } @Override public boolean equals(Object o) { return (o instanceof Thing) && (this.x == ((Thing) o).x); } } Effective Java 2nd Edition, Item 36: Consistently use the Override annotation, uses essentially the same argument to recommend that @Override should be used consistently. This advice is good, of course, for if we had tried to declare @Override equals(Thing other) in the first snippet, our friendly little compiler would immediately point out our silly little mistake, since it's an overload, not an override. What the book doesn't specifically cover, however, is whether overloading equals is a good idea to begin with. Essentially, there are 3 situations: Overload only, no override -- ALMOST CERTAINLY WRONG! This is essentially the first snippet above Override only (no overload) -- one way to fix This is essentially the second snippet above Overload and override combo -- another way to fix The 3rd situation is illustrated by the following snippet: class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } public boolean equals(Thing other) { return this.x == other.x; } @Override public boolean equals(Object o) { return (o instanceof Thing) && (this.equals((Thing) o)); } } Here, even though we now have 2 equals method, there is still one equality logic, and it's located in the overload. The @Override simply delegates to the overload. So the questions are: What are the pros and cons of "override only" vs "overload & override combo"? Is there a justification for overloading equals, or is this almost certainly a bad practice?

    Read the article

  • JSON or YAML encoding in GWT/Java on both client and server

    - by KennethJ
    I'm looking for a super simple JSON or YAML library (not particularly bothered which one) written in Java, and can be used in both GWT on the client, and in its original Java form on the server. What I'm trying to do is this: I have my models, which are shared between the client and the server, and these are the primary source of data interchange. I want to design the web service in between to be as simple as possible, and decided to take the RESTful approach. My problem is that I know our application will grow substantially in the future, and writing all the getters, setters, serialization, factories, etc. by hand fills me with absolute dread. So in order to avoid it, I decided to implement annotations to keep track of attributes on the models. The reason I can't just serialize everything directly, using GWT's own one, or one which works through reflection, is because we need a certain amount of logic going on in the serialization process. I.e. whether references to other models get serialized during the serialization of the original model, or whether an ID is just passed, and general simple things like that. I've then written an annotation processor to preprocess my shared models and generate an implementing class with all the getters, setters, serialization, lazy-loading, etc. To make a long story short, I need some type of simple YAML or JSON library, which allows me to encode and decode manually, so I can generate this code through my annotation processor. I have had a look around the interwebs, but every single one I ran into supported some reflection which, while all fine and dandy, make it pretty much useless for GWT. And in the case of GWT's own JSON library, it uses JSNI for speed purposes, making it useless server side. One solution I did think about involved writing writing two sets of serialization methods on the models, one for the client and one for the server, but I'd rather not do that. Also, I'm pretty new to GWT, and even though I have done a lot of Java, it was back in the 1.2 days, so it's a bit rusty. So if you think I'm going about this problem completely the wrong way, I'm open to suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

    - by Ross
    I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight MVVM MEF ViewInjection

    - by silverfighter
    Hi all, since my title is buzzword compliant I hope I will get lots of answers to my question or any pointers to the right direction. OK what I usually do is have a ViewModel which contains a list of ViewModels itself. public class MasterViewModel { public ObservableCollection<DetailViewModel> DetailViewModels { get; set; } public DetailViewModel Detail { get; set; } } <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding DetailViewModels}"> <ItemsControl> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <views:DetailsView /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> With this in mind I will now come to my questions. I read a lot of good things about MEF and also saw the dashboard sample of Glenn Block but this was not helping me enough. What I want to do is sidbar (like the windows sidebar). Sidebar = StackPanel ListItems = Gadget ButI want it MVVM style OK I have something like a contract IGadget I implemented an custom Export. [ExportGadget(GadgetType = GadgetTypes.News)] I have my NewsGadgetView.xaml (which implements IGadget) and imports the NewsGadgetViewModel and also makes itself available as ExportGadget. so far so good. With this I can create a set of gadgets. Then I have my SidbarView.xaml which imports a sidebarViewModel. and now I get lost... I thought of something like a GadgetFactory which uses PartCreator to create my Gadgets. but this would sit in my SidebarView.xaml But I want to have control over my Gadgets to add and remove them from my sidebar. So I thought about something like an ObserveableCollection... Which I bind to The GadgetHost is basicaly Grid which will dynamicaly load the Gadget.... So how would I create my sidebar containing different gadgets without knowing which Gadgets are available and have a ViewModel for the sidebar as well as for each gadget?... Thanks for any help....

    Read the article

  • Implementing a logging library in .NET with a database as the storage medium

    - by Dave
    I'm just starting to work on a logging library that everyone can use to keep track of any sort of system information while the user is running our application. The simplest example so far is to track Info, Warnings, and Errors. I want all plugins to be able to use this feature, but since each developer might have a different idea of what's important to report, I want to keep this as generic as possible. In the C++ world, I would normally use something like a stl::pair<string,string> to act as a key value pair structure, and have a stl::list of these to act as a "row" in the log. The log cache would then be a list<list<pair<string,string>>> (ugh!). This way, the developers can use a const string key like INFO, WARNING, ERROR to have a consistent naming for a column in the database (for SELECTing specific types of information). I'd like the database to be able to deal with any number of distinct column names. For example, John might have an INFO row with a column called USER, and Bill might have an INFO row with a column called FILENAME. I want the log viewer to be able to display all information, and if one report doesn't have a value for INFO / FILENAME, those fields should just appear blank. So one option is to use List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>, and the another is to have the log library consumer somehow "register" its schema, and then have the database do an ALTER TABLE to handle this situation. Yet another idea is to have a table that's just for key value pairs, with a foreign key that maps the key value pairs back to the original log entry. I obviously don't want logging to bog down the system, so I only lock the log cache to make a copy of the data (and remove the already-copied data), then a background thread will dump the information to the database. My specific questions regarding this are: Do you see any performance issues? In other words, have you ever tried something like this and found that certain things just don't work well in practice? Is there a more .NETish way to implement the key value pairs, other than List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>>? Even if there is a way to do #2 better, is the ALTER TABLE idea I proposed above a Bad Thing? Would you recommend multiple databases over a single one? I don't yet have an idea of how frequently the log would get written to, but we ideally would like to have lots of low level information. Perhaps there should be a DB with a fixed schema only for the low level stuff, and then another DB that's more flexible for reporting information back to users.

    Read the article

  • Large number of UPDATE queries slowing down page

    - by Bryan Lewis
    I am reading and validating large fixed-width text files (range from 10-50K lines) that are submitted via our ASP.net website (coded in VB.Net). I do an initial scan of the file to check for basic issues (line length, etc). Then I import each row into a MS SQL table. Each DB rows basically consists of a record_ID (Primary, auto-incrementing) and about 50 varchar fields. After the insert is done, I run a validation function on the file that checks each field in each row based on a bunch of criteria (trimmed length, isnumeric, range checks, etc). If it finds an error in any field, it inserts a record into the Errors table, which has an error_ID, the record_ID and an error message. In addition, if the field fails in a particular way, I have to do a "reset" on that field. A reset might consist of blanking the entire field, or simply replacing the value with another value (e.g. replacing the string with a new one that has all illegals chars taken out). I have a 5,000 line test file. The upload, initial check, and import takes about 5-6 seconds. The detailed error check and insert into the Errors table takes about 5-8 seconds (this file has about 1200 errors in it). However, the "resets" part takes about 40-45 seconds for 750 fields that need to be reset. When I comment out the resets function (returning immediately without actually calling the UPDATE stored proc), the process is very fast. With the resets turned on, the pages take 50 seconds to return. My UPDATE stored proc is using some recommended code from http://sommarskog.se/dynamic_sql.html, whereby it uses CASE instead of dynamic SQL: UPDATE dbo.Records SET dbo.Records.file_ID = CASE @field_name WHEN 'file_ID' THEN @field_value ELSE file_ID END, . . (all 50 varchar field CASE statements here) . WHERE dbo.Records.record_ID = @record_ID Is there any way I can help my performance here. Can I somehow group all of these UPDATE calls into a single transaction? Should I be reworking the UPDATE query somehow? Or is it just sheer quantity of 750+ UPDATEs and things are just slow (it's a quad proc server with 8GB ram). Any suggestions appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What is a proper way to store site-level global variables in a SharePoint site?

    - by ccomet
    One thing that has driven me nuts about SharePoint2007 is the apparent inability to have defineable settings that apply specifically to a site or site collection itself, and not the content. I mean, you have some pre-defined settings like the Site Logo, the Site Name, and various other things, but there doesn't appear to be anywhere to add new kinds of settings. The application I am working on needs to be able to create multiple kinds of "project site collections" that all follow a basic template, but have certain additional settings that apply specifically to that site collection and that one alone. In addition to the standard site name we also need to define the Project Number, the Project Name, and the Client Name. And given the requests of some of our clients, we also reach a point where we have to have configurable settings that alter how some of the workflows work, like whether files are marked with Letters or Numbers. Our current solution, which I'm hesitant about, has been to store an XML file on the SharePoint server. This file contains one node for each site collection, identified by the URL of the root site. Inside the node are all of the elements that need to be defined for that site collection. When we need them, we have to access the XML file (which will always require SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to access files right on the server) every time to load it and retrieve the data. There are a lot of automated processes which will have to do this, and I'm hesitant about the stability of this method when we reach hundreds of sites with thousands of files running tens of thousands of workflows, all wanting to access this file. Maybe they're unfounded worries, but I'd rather worry than risk everything breaking in a couple years. I was looking into the SPWeb object and found the AllProperties hashtable. It looks like just the kind of thing which might work, but I don't know how safe it is to be modifying this. I read through both MSDN and the WSS SDK but found nothing that clarified on adding completely new properties into AllProperties. Is it safe to use AllProperties for this kind of thing? Or is there yet another feature that I am missing, which could handle the concept of global variables at the site collection or site scope?

    Read the article

  • How is "clean" testing done on the Macintosh without virtualization?

    - by Schnapple
    One of the things I've run across on Windows is when a web browser plugin or program you're developing makes an assumption that something is installed that, by default, isn't always present on Windows. A perfect example would be .NET - a whole lot of people running Windows XP have never installed any versions of .NET and so the installer needs to detect and remedy this if necessary. The way I've been testing this in Windows is to have a virtual machine with a snapshot of a clean, patched, but otherwise untouched install of XP or Vista or 7 or whatever. When I'm done testing I just discard any changes since the snapshot. Works great. I'm now developing something for the Macintosh, a platform which is very new to me, and I'm seeing that virtualization does not appear to be an option. It's explicitly forbidden in the EULA of Mac OS X, it's only allowed from Mac OS X Server, which seeing as how I'm targeting an end product is of no use to me, and the one program I see which can virtualize it - VirtualBox - only supports the server and actively nukes any discussion of running the consumer/client version of Mac OS X. And the only instructions I find anywhere on the topic seem to involve the use of "hacking" programs which is very much incompatible with the full-time gig I'm trying to do this for. So it looks like virtualization is out, but at various points I'm going to want or need to simulate what it's like to install and run this software on a "clean" Macintosh. How do people usually do this? Just buy multiple Macintoshes and use Time Machine? Am I thinking about this all wrong and everything Just Works? To be clear I'm not trying to run Mac OS X on a Windows machine. I have a Macintosh, I'm fine with virtualizing Mac OS X on Apple hardware, I'm just not seeing a route to making the non-Server version do this. I'm aware that Mac OS X Server can be virtualized but that's not what I'm going for. I'm aware that there are unsanctioned/unsupported methods of making Mac OS X run in virtualization programs like VirtualBox but for legal reasons I am not interested in those. My question is not "how can I do this?" but rather "so this thing I do on Windows seems to not be possible, generally, on the Macintosh, so what do people do to achieve what I'm going for?"

    Read the article

  • How to match multiple substrings in jQuery combobox autocomplete

    - by John R
    I found more than a couple examples of this with a plain jquery autocomplete but not in a way that will work with the autocomplete included in the combobox code from the demo because the structure of the code is structured so differently. I want to match every item that has all of the search tokens anywhere in any word. I don't need to match the start of any word, any part of it is fine. I don't care if the search strings are highlighted in the autocomplete list if that makes things too complicated. Desired search/result combos: (please excuse the spacing) "fi th" "fi rst second th ird" "rs on" "fi rs t sec on d third" "ec rd" "first s ec ond thi rd" but not limited to any max/min length or number of tokens. EDIT I figured part of it out using the code structure from the other autocorrect I had working. source: function( requestObj, responseFunc ) { var matchArry = $("select > option").map(function(){return this.innerHTML;}).get(); var srchTerms = $.trim(requestObj.term).split(/\s+/); // For each search term, remove non-matches $.each (srchTerms, function (J, term) { var regX = new RegExp (term, "i"); matchArry = $.map (matchArry, function (item) { if( regX.test(item) ){ return{ label: item, value: item, option: HTMLOptionElement } ? item :null; } } ); }); // Return the match results responseFunc (matchArry); }, and select: function( event, ui ) { ui.item.option.selected = true; self._trigger( "selected", event, { item: ui.item.option }); $("destination").val(ui.item.value); // I added this line }, but I can't get both multiple words AND being able to click to select working at the same time. If I remove the } ? item :null; on the return in the map function I can click to select an item. If I leave it I can type multiple words, but I can't click any of the items... Is that the problem or the option: this? I've tried replacing it with HTMLOptionElement and null and I'm stuck. I am able to set the value of another field with ui.item.value within the select label but that doesn't put the value in the search box or close the dropdown menu. Fiddle of current code: http://jsfiddle.net/eY3hM/

    Read the article

  • Flipping OpenGL texture

    - by Mk12
    When I load textures from images normally, they are upside down because of OpenGL's coordinate system. What would be the best way to flip them? glScalef(1.0f, -1.0f, 1.0f); vertically flipping the image files manually (in Photoshop) flipping them programatically after loading them (I don't know how) This is the method I'm using to load png textures, in my Utilities.m file (Objective-C): + (GLuint)loadPngTexture:(NSString *)name { CFURLRef textureURL = CFBundleCopyResourceURL( CFBundleGetMainBundle(), (CFStringRef)name, CFSTR("png"), CFSTR("Textures")); NSAssert(textureURL, @"Texture name invalid"); CGImageSourceRef imageSource = CGImageSourceCreateWithURL(textureURL, NULL); NSAssert(imageSource, @"Invalid Image Path."); NSAssert((CGImageSourceGetCount(imageSource) > 0), @"No Image in Image Source."); CFRelease(textureURL); CGImageRef image = CGImageSourceCreateImageAtIndex(imageSource, 0, NULL); NSAssert(image, @"Image not created."); CFRelease(imageSource); NSUInteger width = CGImageGetWidth(image); NSUInteger height = CGImageGetHeight(image); void *data = malloc(width * height * 4); CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); NSAssert(colorSpace, @"Colorspace not created."); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate( data, width, height, 8, width * 4, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedFirst | kCGBitmapByteOrder32Host); NSAssert(context, @"Context not created."); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0, 0, width, height), image); CGImageRelease(image); CGContextRelease(context); GLuint textureId; glGenTextures(1, &textureId); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textureId); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_GENERATE_MIPMAP_SGIS, GL_TRUE); glTexImage2D( GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_BGRA, GL_UNSIGNED_INT_8_8_8_8_REV, data); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE_SGIS); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE_SGIS); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri( GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); free(data); return textureId; } Also, another thing I was wondering about: If I made a simple 2d game, with pixels mapped to units, would it be alright to set it up so that the origin is in the top-left corner, or would I run in to problems with other things (e.g. text rendering)? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to create related types at runtime?

    - by SniperSmiley
    How do I determine the type of a class that is related to another class at runtime? I have figured out a solution, the only problem is that I ended up having to use a define that has to be used in all of the derived classes. Is there a simpler way to do this that doesn't need the define or a copy paste? Things to note: both the class and the related class will always have their respective base class, the different classes can share a related class, and as in the example I would like the control class to own the view. #include <iostream> #include <string> class model; class view { public: view( model *m ) {} virtual std::string display() { return "view"; } }; #define RELATED_CLASS(RELATED)\ typedef RELATED relatedType;\ virtual relatedType*createRelated(){\ return new relatedType(this);} class model { public: RELATED_CLASS(view) model() {} }; class otherView : public view { public: otherView( model *m ) : view(m) {} std::string display() { return "otherView"; } }; class otherModel : public model { public: RELATED_CLASS(otherView) otherModel() {} }; class control { public: control( model *m ) : m_(m), v_( m->createRelated() ) {} ~control() { delete v_; } std::string display() { return v_->display(); } model *m_; view *v_; }; int main( void ) { model m; otherModel om; model *pm = &om; control c1( &m ); control c2( &om ); control c3( pm ); std::cout << c1.display() << std::endl; std::cout << c2.display() << std::endl; std::cout << c3.display() << std::endl; }

    Read the article

  • General ORM design question

    - by Calvin
    Suppose you have 2 classes, Person and Rabbit. A person can do a number of things to a rabbit, s/he can either feed it, buy it and become its owner, or give it away. A rabbit can have none or at most 1 owner at a time. And if it is not fed for a while, it may die. Class Person { Void Feed(Rabbit r); Void Buy(Rabbit r); Void Giveaway(Person p, Rabbit r); Rabbit[] rabbits; } Class Rabbit { Bool IsAlive(); Person pwner; } There are a couple of observations from the domain model: Person and Rabbit can have references to each other Any actions on 1 object can also change the state of the other object Even if no explicit actions are invoked, there can still be a change of state in the objects (e.g. Rabbit can be starved to death, and that causes it to be removed from the Person.rabbits array) As DDD is concerned, I think the correct approach is to synchronize all calls that may change the states in the domain model. For instance, if a Person buys a Rabbit, s/he would need to acquire a lock in Person to make a change to the rabbits array AND also another lock in Rabbit to change its owner before releasing the first one. This would prevent a race condition where 2 Persons claim to be the owner of the little Rabbit. The other approach is to let the database to handle all these synchronizations. Who makes the first call wins, but then the DB needs to have some kind of business logics to figure out if it is a valid transaction (e.g. if a Rabbit already has an owner, it cannot change its owner unless the Person gives it away). There are both pros/cons in either approach, and I’d expect the “best” solution would be somewhere in-between. How would you do it in real life? What’s your take and experience? Also, is it a valid concern that there can be another race condition the domain model has committed its change but before it is fully committed in the database? And for the 3rd observation (i.e. state change due to time factor). How will you do it?

    Read the article

  • user defined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programmers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D EDIT : more info : typedef ParticleId unsigned int; Particle has no user defined copyctor, but has a member of type : Particle { .... Resource<Texture> tex_res; ... } Resource is a smart-pointer class, and has all ctor's defined (also asignment operator) and it seems that Resource is copied bitwise. EDIT : henrik solved it... data(data) is stupid of course ! it should of course be rhs.data !!! sorry for huge amount of code, with a very little bug in it !!! (Guess you shouldn't code at 1 in the morning :D )

    Read the article

  • XmlHttpRequest bug?

    - by valdo
    Hello all. I'm writing a program that among other things needs to download a file given its URL. I'm too lazy to implement the Http/Https protocols manually, so that I needed some library/object/function that'll do the job. Critical requirement: The download must be asynchronous. That is, the thread that issued the download must be able to do something else "while" downloading the file, plus the download must be able to be aborted anytime without any barbaric side effects (such as internal call to TerminateThread). Nice-to-have requirements: Should be able to download the file "into memory". Means - read the contents of the file as they arrive, not necessarily save it into some "file system" file. It'd be nice to have some convenient Win32 progress notification mechanism (waitable event, semahpore, completion port, etc.), rather than just periodically polling the download status. I've chosen the XmlHttpRequest COM object to do the work. It seemed to work fine enough, plus it supported asynchronous mode. However I noticed that after some period it just stops working. That is, after several successful file downloads it stops downloading anything. I periodically poll it to get its status, it reports "in-progress", but nothing actually happens, and there's no network activity. Moreover, when the same process creates another instance of XmlHttpRequest object to perform new downloads - the effect is the same. The object reports "in progress", whereas it doesn't even try to connect to the server (according to network sniffers and system TCP state). The only way to make this object work back is to restart the process. This makes me suspect that there's a sort of a bug (sorry, I meant undocumented feature) in the object. Also it's not a bug at the level of an individual object, since the problem persists when the object is destroyed and another one is created. It's probably some global state of the DLL that implements this object. Does anyone know something about this? Is this a known bug? I'm pretty sure there's no chance that I have another bug in my code, because of which it seems to me to be the bug is in the XmlHttpRequest. I've done enoughtests and spent time with the debugger to conclude without reasonable doubt that it's just the object stops working. BTW, while the object should work, I do all the waiting via MsgWaitXXXX API calls. So that if this object needs the message loop to work properly (for instance, it may create a hidden notification window and bind it to a socket via WSAAsyncSelect) - I give it the opportunity.

    Read the article

  • Recursion problem; completely lost

    - by timeNomad
    So I've been trying to solve this assignment whole day, just can't get it. The following function accepts 2 strings, the 2nd (not 1st) possibly containing *'s (asterisks). An * is a replacement for a string (empty, 1 char or more), it can appear appear (only in s2) once, twice, more or not at all, it cannot be adjacent to another * (ab**c), no need to check that. public static boolean samePattern(String s1, String s2) It returns true if strings are of the same pattern. It must be recursive, not use any loops, static & global variables. Can use local variables & method overloading. Can use only these methods: charAt(i), substring(i), substring(i, j), length(). Examples: 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "The*xamIs*y" --- true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "Th*mIsEasy*" --- true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "*" --- true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "TheExamIsEasy" --- true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "The*IsHard" --- FALSE I tried comparing the the chars one by one using charAt until an asterisk is encountered, then check if the asterisk is an empty one by comparing is successive char (i+1) with the char of s1 at position i, if true -- continue recursion with i+1 as counter for s2 & i as counter for s1; if false -- continue recursion with i+1 as counters for both. Continue this until another asterisk is found or end of string. I dunno, my brain loses track of things, can't concentrate, any pointers / hints? Am I in the right direction? Also, it's been told that a backtracking technique is to be used to solve this. My code so far (doesn't do the job, even theoretically): public static boolean samePattern(String s1, String s2) { if (s1.equals(s2) || s2 == "*") { return true; } return samePattern(s1, s2, 1); } public static boolean samePattern(String s1, String s2, int i) { if (s1.equals(s2)) return true; if (i == s2.length() - 1) // No *'s found -- not same pattern. return false; if (s1.substring(0, i).equals(s2.substring(0, i))) samePattern(s1, s2, i+1); else if (s2.charAt(i-1) == '*') samePattern(s1.substring(0, i-1), s2.substring(0, i), 1); // new smaller strings. else samePattern(s1.substring(1), s2, i); }

    Read the article

  • Why does Scala apply thunks automatically, sometimes?

    - by Anonymouse
    At just after 2:40 in ShadowofCatron's Scala Tutorial 3 video, it's pointed out that the parentheses following the name of a thunk are optional. "Buh?" said my functional programming brain, since the value of a function and the value it evaluates to when applied are completely different things. So I wrote the following to try this out. My thought process is described in the comments. object Main { var counter: Int = 10 def f(): Int = { counter = counter + 1; counter } def runThunk(t: () => Int): Int = { t() } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { val a = f() // I expect this to mean "apply f to no args" println(a) // and apparently it does val b = f // I expect this to mean "the value f", a function value println(b) // but it's the value it evaluates to when applied to no args println(b) // and the evaluation happens immediately, not in the call runThunk(b) // This is an error: it's not println doing something funny runThunk(f) // Not an error: seems to be val doing something funny } }   To be clear about the problem, this Scheme program (and the console dump which follows) shows what I expected the Scala program to do. (define counter (list 10)) (define f (lambda () (set-car! counter (+ (car counter) 1)) (car counter))) (define runThunk (lambda (t) (t))) (define main (lambda args (let ((a (f)) (b f)) (display a) (newline) (display b) (newline) (display b) (newline) (runThunk b) (runThunk f)))) > (main) 11 #<procedure:f> #<procedure:f> 13   After coming to this site to ask about this, I came across this answer which told me how to fix the above Scala program: val b = f _ // Hey Scala, I mean f, not f() But the underscore 'hint' is only needed sometimes. When I call runThunk(f), no hint is required. But when I 'alias' f to b with a val then apply it, it doesn't work: the evaluation happens in the val; and even lazy val works this way, so it's not the point of evaluation causing this behaviour.   That all leaves me with the question: Why does Scala sometimes automatically apply thunks when evaluating them? Is it, as I suspect, type inference? And if so, shouldn't a type system stay out of the language's semantics? Is this a good idea? Do Scala programmers apply thunks rather than refer to their values so much more often that making the parens optional is better overall? Examples written using Scala 2.8.0RC3, DrScheme 4.0.1 in R5RS.

    Read the article

  • Dealing with personal failure

    - by codeelegance
    A while ago I was given the task of updating and extending the functionality of a software project. I was given a year to make the needed changes working solo. A month into development I came to the conclusion that it would take longer to change the existing product than to rewrite it from the ground up. I'd never attempted a complete rewrite so I talked with my boss about it and he was thrilled with the idea. I'm a fan of agile development but had never had the opportunity to take advantage of all of the prescribed practices so when I set to work I tried to incorporate as many as I could. I didn't have direct access to the customer and my coworkers (non-programmers) knew the business domain but were already so busy they didn't really have time to participate in design meetings so I resigned to working in the dark and occasionally calling one of them over to my desk to get feedback on my progress. I used TDD and refactored mercilessly and even tried taking a domain driven design approach. Things went well for a while. As the deadline came closer and the complexity of the project grew my productivity start slipping. I found myself cutting corners and ignoring the practices I had established as the pressure increased to meet the deadline. I also started working late nights and weekends to keep up with the load. In the end it made little difference how hard I worked. The project missed its deadline and what was completed wasn't enough to give to the customer. I had failed. Not only had I not finished on time but the previous version had sat untouched for almost a year so it wouldn't be of any help. Luckily we had another product that offered some of the same functionality. My boss decided to cancel the project entirely and moved all our orphaned customers to the other product. I spent weeks (along with everyone else at the company) manning the phones providing technical support for those customers. After it was all over, my boss was gracious enough not to fire me for nearly ruining the company. I was moved to the other product and have been trying to redeem myself ever since. Where did I go wrong? Has anyone else had to deal with this kind of defeat? How did you recover?

    Read the article

  • How do I do high quality scaling of a image?

    - by pbhogan
    I'm writing some code to scale a 32 bit RGBA image in C/C++. I have written a few attempts that have been somewhat successful, but they're slow and most importantly the quality of the sized image is not acceptable. I compared the same image scaled by OpenGL (i.e. my video card) and my routine and it's miles apart in quality. I've Google Code Searched, scoured source trees of anything I thought would shed some light (SDL, Allegro, wxWidgets, CxImage, GD, ImageMagick, etc.) but usually their code is either convoluted and scattered all over the place or riddled with assembler and little or no comments. I've also read multiple articles on Wikipedia and elsewhere, and I'm just not finding a clear explanation of what I need. I understand the basic concepts of interpolation and sampling, but I'm struggling to get the algorithm right. I do NOT want to rely on an external library for one routine and have to convert to their image format and back. Besides, I'd like to know how to do it myself anyway. :) I have seen a similar question asked on stack overflow before, but it wasn't really answered in this way, but I'm hoping there's someone out there who can help nudge me in the right direction. Maybe point me to some articles or pseudo code... anything to help me learn and do. Here's what I'm looking for: 1. No assembler (I'm writing very portable code for multiple processor types). 2. No dependencies on external libraries. 3. I am primarily concerned with scaling DOWN, but will also need to write a scale up routine later. 4. Quality of the result and clarity of the algorithm is most important (I can optimize it later). My routine essentially takes the following form: DrawScaled( uint32 *src, uint32 *dst, src_x, src_y, src_w, src_h, dst_x, dst_y, dst_w, dst_h ); Thanks! UPDATE: To clarify, I need something more advanced than a box resample for downscaling which blurs the image too much. I suspect what I want is some kind of bicubic (or other) filter that is somewhat the reverse to a bicubic upscaling algorithm (i.e. each destination pixel is computed from all contributing source pixels combined with a weighting algorithm that keeps things sharp. EXAMPLE: Here's an example of what I'm getting from the wxWidgets BoxResample algorithm vs. what I want on a 256x256 bitmap scaled to 55x55. And finally: the original 256x256 image

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 775 776 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786  | Next Page >