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• Excel Table lookup with indexes in multiple columns

  - by Matthew Scouten

  I have a Table in Excel the looks about like this: Test1 100 test2 200 Test3 110 test4 210 Test5 120 test6 220 I want a function that, given test 1 as input, will return 100 AND given test 2 will return 200 LOOKUP, (V/H)LOOKUP, and INDEX all insist on a single contiguous array for the index column.

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• ms excel find and replace @ symbol results in broken formula

  - by Loopo

  I'm trying to search and replace in excel, the column is formatted as 'Text'. Find: [@ replace with: @ Whenever this finds a match at the start of a cell i.e the cell contents start with [@ and tries to replace that with @ the result is an error 'This function is not valid' I guess that since the @ operator is for references, this is causing the cell to be interpreted differently (not as text anymore) How do I make this replacement work? Copy/paste into another program is not a good option because some of the cells contain line-breaks.

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• Is there a way to sort digits within a cell?

  - by Iszi

  I'd like to know if there's an Excel Function, or a formula, that can be used to sort digits within a cell. For example, if the value of A1 is 6193254807 and B1 has our formula with parameters set to sort ascending then B1 should equal 0123456789 (leading zero included). Of course, if the parameters were set so that it would sort descending then B1 should equal 9876543210. Is there a way to do this, without wandering into VBScript, or macros, or something similarly exotic?

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• excel 2007 enter new date

  - by Lalajee

  I’m try to create a excel template which will have three fields I like to update automatically when it’s open. Fields which this template will have Current Date: 02/07/2012 Sheet Number: 25 Between Date: 02/07/2012 to 02/08/2012 When I open this template after 03/08/2012 this sheet will have new data Current Date: 03/08/2012 Sheet Number: 26 Between Date: 03/08/2012 to 02/09/2012 For current date Private Sub Workbook_Open() ThisWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1").Range("A1").Value = Date End Sub Can this be done using excel function or do I need to use VB and also how do I update template automatically with new values to say next time use these dates.

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• Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

  - by Ashish Gupta

  I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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• Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

  - by Ashish Gupta

  I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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• CakePHP Multiple Nested Joins

  - by Paul

  I have an App in which several of the models are linked by hasMany/belongsTo associations. So for instance, A hasMany B, B hasMany C, C hasMany D, and D hasMany E. Also, E belongs to D, D belongs to C, C belongs to B, and B belongs to A. Using the Containable behavior has been great for controlling the amount of information comes back with each query, but I seem to be having a problem when trying to get data from table A while using a condition that involves table D. For instance, here is an example of my 'A' model: class A extends AppModel { var $name = 'A'; var $hasMany = array( 'B' => array('dependent' => true) ); function findDependentOnE($condition) { return $this->find('all', array( 'contain' => array( 'B' => array( 'C' => array( 'D' => array( 'E' => array( 'conditions' => array( 'E.myfield' => $some_value ) ) ) ) ) ) )); } } This still gives me back all the records in 'A', and if it's related 'E' records don't satisfy the condition, then I just get this: Array( [0] => array( [A] => array( [field1] => // stuff [field2] => // more stuff // ...etc ), [B] => array( [field1] => // stuff [field2] => // more stuff // ...etc ), [C] => array( [field1] => // stuff [field2] => // more stuff // ...etc ), [D] => array( [field1] => // stuff [field2] => // more stuff // ...etc ), [E] => array( // empty if 'E.myfield' != $some_value' ) ), [1] => array( // ...etc ) ) When If 'E.myfield' != $some_value, I don't want the record returned at all. I hope this expresses my problem clearly enough... Basically, I want the following query, but in a database-agnostic/CakePHP-y kind of way: SELECT * FROM A INNER JOIN (B INNER JOIN (C INNER JOIN (D INNER JOIN E ON D.id=E.d_id) ON C.id=D.c_id) ON B.id=C.b_id) ON A.id=B.a_id WHERE E.myfield = $some_value

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• Callback function in jquery doesn't seem to work......

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  I use the following jquery pagination plugin and i got the error a.parentNode is undefined when i executed it... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); $(".pager").pagination(17, { callback: pagechange, current_page: '0', items_per_page: '5', num_display_entries : '5', next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: '1' }); }); function pagechange() { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#ResultsDiv").css('display', 'none'); getRecordspage($(this).text(), 5); } function getRecordspage(curPage, pagSize) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + curPage + ",'pagesize':" + pagSize + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs).show('slow'); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); } }); } </script> and in my page, <div id="ResultsDiv" style="display:none;"> </div> <div id="pager" class="pager"> </div> Any suggestion....

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• Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

  - by Peter Delahunty

  Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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• how do i know how many clients are calling my WCF service function

  - by ZhengZhiren

  i am writing a program to test WCF service performance in high concurrency circumstance. On client side, i start many threads to call a WCF service function which returns a long list of data object. On server side, in that function called by my client, i need to know the number of clients calling the function. For doing that, i set a counter variable. In the beginning of the function, i add the counter by 1, but how can i decrease it after the funtion has returned the result? int clientCount=0; public DataObject[] GetData() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); //can't run to here... } i have seen a way in c++. Create a new class named counter. In the constructor of the counter class, increase the variable. And decrease it in the destructor. In the function, make a counter object so that its constructor will be called. And after the function returns, its destructor will be called. Like this: class counter { public: counter(){++clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} ~counter(){--clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} }; ... myfunction() { counter c; //do something return something; } In c# i think i can do so with the following codes, but not for sure. public class Service1 : IService1 { static int clientCount = 0; private class ClientCounter : IDisposable { public ClientCounter() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); } public void Dispose() { Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); } } public DataObject[] GetData() { using (ClientCounter counter = new ClientCounter()) { List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); } } } i write a counter class implement the IDisposable interface. And put my function codes into a using block. But it seems that it doesn't work so good. No matter how many threads i start, the clientCount variable is up to 3. Any advise would be appreciated.

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• jquery function call with parameters

  - by Kaushik Gopal

  Hi a newb question: I have a table with a bunch of buttons like so: <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(222445,704);" /> </td> </tr> <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td align="center" class="hr-table-bottom-blue-border" valign="middle"> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(237760,776);" /> </td> </tr> I have my jquery like so: <script type="text/javascript"> // JQUERY stuff $(document).ready(function(){ function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } }); This doesn't seem to work.I thought this means, the function is ready only after the dom is ready. After the dom is ready and i click the button, why is not recognizing the function declaration within the .ready() function? However if i use the function directly: <script type="text/javascript"> function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } This works. I want to get my fundamentals straight here... If i do the declaration without the .ready() , does that mean i'm using plain vanilla jscript? If i were to do this with the document.ready - the usual jquery declaration way, what would i have to change to make it work? I understand there are much better ways to do this like binding with buttons etc, but I want to know why this particular way doesn't seem to be working. Thanks. Cheers. K

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• Maps with a nested vector

  - by wawiti

  For some reason the compiler won't let me retrieve the vector of integers from the map that I've created, I want to be able to overwrite this vector with a new vector. The error the compiler gives me is ridiculous. Thanks for your help!! The compiler didn't like this part of my code: line_num = miss_words[word_1]; Error: [Wawiti@localhost Lab2]$ g++ -g -Wall *.cpp -o lab2 main.cpp: In function ‘int main(int, char**)’: main.cpp:156:49: error: no match for ‘operator=’ in ‘miss_words.std::map<_Key, _Tp, _Compare, _Alloc>::operator[]<std::basic_string<char>, std::vector<int>, std::less<std::basic_string<char> >, std::allocator<std::pair<const std::basic_string<char>, std::vector<int> > > >((*(const key_type*)(& word_1))) = line_num.std::vector<_Tp, _Alloc>::push_back<int, std::allocator<int> >((*(const value_type*)(& line)))’ main.cpp:156:49: note: candidate is: In file included from /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-redhat->linux/4.7.2/../../../../include/c++/4.7.2vector:70:0, from header.h:19, from main.cpp:15: /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-redhat-linux/4.7.2/../../../../include/c++/4.7.2/bits/vector.tcc:161:5: note: std::vector<_Tp, _Alloc>& std::vector<_Tp, _Alloc>::operator=(const std::vector<_Tp, _Alloc>&) [with _Tp = int; _Alloc = std::allocator<int>] /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-redhat-linux/4.7.2/../../../../include/c++/4.7.2/bits/vector.tcc:161:5: note: no known conversion for argument 1 from ‘void’ to ‘const std::vector<int>&’ CODE: map<string, vector<int> > miss_words; // Creates a map for misspelled words string word_1; // String for word; string sentence; // To store each line; vector<int> line_num; // To store line numbers ifstream file; // Opens file to be spell checked file.open(argv[2]); int line = 1; while(getline(file, sentence)) // Reads in file sentence by sentence { sentence=remove_punct(sentence); // Removes punctuation from sentence stringstream pars_sentence; // Creates stringstream pars_sentence << sentence; // Places sentence in a stringstream while(pars_sentence >> word_1) // Picks apart sentence word by word { if(dictionary.find(word_1)==dictionary.end()) { line_num = miss_words[word_1]; //Compiler doesn't like this miss_words[word_1] = line_num.push_back(line); } } line++; // Increments line marker }

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• How to copy the memeory allocated in device function back to main memory

  - by xhe8

  I have a CUDA program containing a host function and a device function Execute(). In the host function, I allocate a global memory output which will then be passed to the device function and used to store the address of the global memory allocated within the device function. I want to access the in-kernel allocated memory in the host function. The following is the code: #include <stdio.h> typedef struct { int * p; int num; } Structure_A; \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output); int main(){ Structure_A *output; cudaMalloc((void***)&output,sizeof(Structure_A)*1); dim3 dimBlockExecute(1,1); dim3 dimGridExecute(1,1); Execute<<<dimGridExecute,dimBlockExecute>>>(output); Structure_A * output_cpu; int * p_cpu; cudaError_t err; output_cpu= (Structure_A*)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(output_cpu,output,sizeof(Structure_A),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error a: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } p_cpu=(int *)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error b: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } printf("output=(%d,%d)\n",output_cpu[0].num,p_cpu[0]); return 0; } \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output){ int thid=threadIdx.x; output[thid].p= (int*)malloc(thid+1); output[thid].num=(thid+1); output[thid].p[0]=5; } I can compile the program. But when I run it, I got a error showing that there is a invalid argument in the following memory copy function. "err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost);" CUDA version is 4.2. CUDA card: Tesla C2075 OS: x86_64 GNU/Linux

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• how to serialize function depending on what instance of object calls it, if same instance call in a thread then do serialize else not

  - by LondonDreams

  I have a function which fetches and updates some record from db and I am trying to make sure each if the function is called by same instance of object(same Or different thread) then function should behave synchronized else its a call from different object instance function need not to be synchronized. I have tried it use a lock per client. That is, instead of synchronizing the method directly using explicit locking through lock objects using Map. function is like :- getAndUpdateMyHitCount(myObjId){ //go to db and get unique record by myObjId //fetch value , increment , save update } And this function may get call is same thread by different Or same object instance But as fetching and matching from Map is slow , Is there other optimized way to do this ? Found similar at this Question but dont feel that is optimized

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• Parse Nested XML tags with the same name

  - by footose

  Let's take a simple XML document: <x> <e> <e> <e>Whatever 1</e> </e> </e> <e> <e> <e>Whatever 2</e> </e> </e> <e> <e> <e>Whatever 3</e> </e> </e> </x> Using the standard org.w3c.dom, I can get the nodes in X by doing.. NodeList fullnodelist = doc.getElementsByTagName("x"); But if I want to return the next set of "e" I try to use something like .. Element element = (Element) fullnodelist.item(0); NodeList nodes = pelement.getElementsByTagName("e"); Expecting it to return "3" nodes (because there are 3 sets of "e"), but instead, it returns "9" - becuase it gets all entries with "e" apperently. This would be fine in the above case, because I could probably iterate through and find what I'm looking for. The problem I'm having is that when the XML file looks like the following: <x> <e> <pattern>whatever</pattern> <blanks> <e>Something Else</e> </blanks> </e> <e> <pattern>whatever</pattern> <blanks> <e>Something Else</e> </blanks> </e> </x> When I request the "e" value, it returns 4, instead of (what i expect) 2. Am I just not understanding how the DOM parsing works? Typically in the past I have used my own XML documents so I would never name the items like this, but unfortunately this is not my XML file and I have no choice to work like this. What I thought I would do is write a loop that "drills down" nodes so that I could group each node together... public static NodeList getNodeList(Element pelement, String find) { String[] nodesfind = Utilities.Split(find, "/"); NodeList nodeList = null; for (int i = 0 ; i <= nodesfind.length - 1; i++ ) { nodeList = pelement.getElementsByTagName( nodesfind[i] ); pelement = (Element)nodeList.item(i); } // value of the nod we are looking for return nodeList; } .. So that if you passed "s/e" into the function, it would return the 2 nodes that I'm looking for (or elements, maybe I'm using the terminology incorrect?). instead it returns all of the "e" nodes within that node. I'm using J2SE for this, so options are rather limited. I can't use any third party XML Parsers. Anyway, if anyone is still with me and has a suggestion, it would be appreciated.

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• Problem with the output of Jquery function .offset in IE

  - by vandalk

  Hello! I'm new to jquery and javascript, and to web site developing overall, and I'm having a problem with the .offset function. I have the following code working fine on chrome and FF but not working on IE: $(document).keydown(function(k){ var keycode=k.which; var posk=$('html').offset(); var centeryk=screen.availHeight*0.4; var centerxk=screen.availWidth*0.4; $("span").text(k.which+","+posk.top+","+posk.left); if (keycode==37){ k.preventDefault(); $("html,body").stop().animate({scrollLeft:-1*posk.left-centerxk}) }; if (keycode==38){ k.preventDefault(); $("html,body").stop().animate({scrollTop:-1*posk.top-centeryk}) }; if (keycode==39){ k.preventDefault(); $("html,body").stop().animate({scrollLeft:-1*posk.left+centerxk}) }; if (keycode==40){ k.preventDefault(); $("html,body").stop().animate({scrollTop:-1*posk.top+centeryk}) }; }); hat I want it to do is to scroll the window a set percentage using the arrow keys, so my thought was to find the current coordinates of the top left corner of the document and add a percentage relative to the user screen to it and animate the scroll so that the content don't jump and the user looses focus from where he was. The $("span").text are just so I know what's happening and will be turned into comments when the code is complete. So here is what happens, on Chrome and Firefox the output of the $("span").text for the position variables is correct, starting at 0,0 and always showing how much of the content was scrolled in coordinates, but on IE it starts on -2,-2 and never gets out of it, even if I manually scroll the window until the end of it and try using the right arrow key it will still return the initial value of -2,-2 and scroll back to the beggining. I tried substituting the offset for document.body.scrollLetf and scrollTop but the result is the same, only this time the coordinates are 0,0. Am I doing something wrong? Or is this some IE bug? Is there a way around it or some other function I can use and achieve the same results? On another note, I did other two navigating options for the user in this section of the site, one is to click and drag anywhere on the screen to move it: $("html").mousedown(function(e) { var initx=e.pageX var inity=e.pageY $(document).mousemove(function(n) { var x_inc= initx-n.pageX; var y_inc= inity-n.pageY; window.scrollBy(x_inc*0.7,y_inc*0.7); initx=n.pageX; inity=n.pageY //$("span").text(initx+ "," +inity+ "," +x_inc+ "," +y_inc+ "," +e.pageX+ "," +e.pageY+ "," +n.pageX+ "," +n.pageY); // cancel out any text selections document.body.focus(); // prevent text selection in IE document.onselectstart = function () { return false; }; // prevent IE from trying to drag an image document.ondragstart = function() { return false; }; // prevent text selection (except IE) return false; }); }); $("html").mouseup(function() { $(document).unbind('mousemove'); }); The only part of this code I didn't write was the preventing text selection lines, these ones I found in a tutorial about clicking and draging objects, anyway, this code works fine on Chrome, FireFox and IE, though on Firefox and IE it's more often to happen some moviment glitches while you drag, sometimes it seems the "scrolling" is a litlle jagged, it's only a visual thing and not that much significant but if there's a way to prevent it I would like to know.

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• accepts_nested_attributes_for ignore blank values

  - by Mike

  i have class Profile has_many :favorite_books, :dependent => :destroy has_many :favorite_quotes, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :favorite_books, :allow_destroy => true accepts_nested_attributes_for :favorite_quotes, :allow_destroy => true end I have a dynamic form where you press '+' to add new textareas for creating new favorites. What i want to do is ignore the blank ones, I find this harder to sort through in the update controller than a non nested attribute. What i have temporarily is a hack in the after_save callback deleting the empty records. Whats the most rails way to ignore these blank objects? I dont want validation and errors, just a silent deletion/ignore.

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• Help with SQL query (list strings and count in same query)

  - by Mestika

  Hi everybody, I’m working on a small kind of log system to a webpage, and I’m having some difficulties with a query I want to do multiple things. I have tried to do some nested / subqueries but can’t seem to get it right. I’ve two tables: User = {userid: int, username} Registered = {userid: int, favoriteid: int} What I need is a query to list all the userid’s and the usernames of each user. In addition, I also need to count the total number of favoriteid’s the user is registered with. A user who is not registered for any favorite must also be listed, but with the favorite count shown as zero. I hope that I have explained my request probably but otherwise please write back so I can elaborate. By the way, the query I’ve tried with look like this: SELECT user.userid, user.username FROM user,registered WHERE user.userid = registered.userid(SELECT COUNT(favoriteid) FROM registered) However, it doesn’t do the trick, unfortunately Kind regards Mestika

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• .NET Data Providers - How do I determine what they can do?

  - by rbellamy

  I have code which could be executed using a Provider that doesn't support transactions, or doesn't support nested transactions. How would I programmatically determine such support? E.g. The code below throws a System.InvalidOperationException on the final commit when using the MySQL .NET Connector, but works fine for MSSQL. I'd like to be able to alter the code to accommodate various providers, without having to hardcode tests based on the type of provider (E.g. I don't want to have to do if(typeof(connection) == "some provider name")) using (IDbConnection connection = Use.Connection(ConnectionStringName)) using (IDbTransaction transaction = connection.BeginTransaction()) { using (currentCommand = connection.CreateCommand()) { using (IDbCommand cmd = connection.CreateCommand()) { currentCommand = cmd; currentCommand.Transaction = transaction; currentCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } if (PipelineExecuter.HasErrors) { transaction.Rollback(); } else { transaction.Commit(); } } transaction.Commit(); }

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• problem with jquery sortable of ul with childrens - how to allow li to be sorted only on the same le

  - by Y.G.J

  $(document).ready(function() { $("#test-list").sortable({ items: "> li", handle : '.handle', axis: 'y', opacity: 0.6, update : function () { var order = $('#test-list').sortable('serialize'); $("#info").load("process-sortable.asp?"+order+"&id=catid&order=orderid&table=tblCats"); } }); $("#test-sub").sortable({ containment: "ul", items: "li", handle : '.handle2', axis: 'y', opacity: 0.6, update : function () { var order = $('ul').sortable('serialize'); $("#info").load("process-sortable.asp?"+order+"&id=catid&order=orderid&table=tblCats"); } }); }); <ul id="test-list"> <li id="listItem_10">first<img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle" /></li> <li id="listItem_8">second<img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle" /> <ul id="test-sub"> <li id="listItem_4><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> <li id="listItem_3"><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> <ul id="test-sub"> <li id="listItem_9"><img align="middle" src="Themes/arrow.png" class="handle2" /></li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> the problems i have: sorting the main ul is working but not all the time - i will try to fix that my own but if there is a problem with the code here and not the one in proccess-sortable - tell me. moving li in the main ul is ok but the sub or the sub of the sub is having problem - i can drag something from one sub to it's sub or the other way too - i don't want that to happend. i want to be able to drag li and by selecting that one that only this ul group will send to proccess-sortable to be updated - how can i catch the specific ul of li i am draging?

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• Is it possible to exit a for before time in C++, if an ending condition is reached?

  - by tunnuz

  Hello, I want to know if it is possible to end a for loop in C++ when an ending condition (different from the reacheing right number of iterations) is verified. For instance: for (int i = 0; i < maxi; ++i) for (int j = 0; j < maxj; ++j) // But if i == 4 < maxi AND j == 3 < maxj, // then jump out of the two nested loops. I know that this is possible in Perl with the next LABEL or last LABEL calls and labeled blocks, is it possible to do it in C++ or I should use a while loop? Thank you.

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• What's the right way to handle "One, Both, or None" logic?

  - by Stephen

  I have a logic situation that is best described as two "Teams" trying to win a task. The outcome of this task could be a single winner, a tie (draw), or no winner (stalemate). Currently, I'm using a nested if/else statement like so: // using PHP, but the concept seems language agnostic. if ($team_a->win()) { if ($team_b->win()) { // this is a draw } else { // team_a is the winner } } else { if ($team_b->win()) { // team_b is the winner } else { // This is a stalemate, no winner. } } This seems rather spaghetti-like and repetitive. Is there a more logical, DRY pattern I could use?

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• make a tree based on the key of each element in list.

  - by cocobear

  >>> s [{'000000': [['apple', 'pear']]}, {'100000': ['good', 'bad']}, {'200000': ['yeah', 'ogg']}, {'300000': [['foo', 'foo']]}, {'310000': [['#'], ['#']]}, {'320000': ['$', ['1']]}, {'321000': [['abc', 'abc']]}, {'322000': [['#'], ['#']]}, {'400000': [['yeah', 'baby']]}] >>> for i in s: ... print i ... {'000000': [['apple', 'pear']]} {'100000': ['good', 'bad']} {'200000': ['yeah', 'ogg']} {'300000': [['foo', 'foo']]} {'310000': [['#'], ['#']]} {'320000': ['$', ['1']]} {'321000': [['abc', 'abc']]} {'322000': [['#'], ['#']]} {'400000': [['yeah', 'baby']]} i want to make a tree based on the key of each element in list. result in logic will be: {'000000': [['apple', 'pear']]} {'100000': ['good', 'bad']} {'200000': ['yeah', 'ogg']} {'300000': [['foo', 'foo']]} {'310000': [['#'], ['#']]} {'320000': ['$', ['1']]} {'321000': [['abc', 'abc']]} {'322000': [['#'], ['#']]} {'400000': [['yeah', 'baby']]} perhaps a nested list can implement this or I need a tree type?

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• Nesting arrays into NSDictionary object (Objective-C)

  - by antalbud

  I would like to define tasks using NSDictionary, which I'd like to save in a plist file (I didn't have much luck with Core Data so far), but got stuck at two points: -- When using initWithObjectsAndKeys: I can change the data type to number or boolean, using NSDate's numberWithInt: and numberWithBool: methods, respectively. I can't seem to find the method to change the type to date though. I couldn't find anything like that in the documentation. -- The second problem I ran into was with the nested arrays. How can I add them to the dictionary? I have uploaded a picture to here of what I am trying to achieve. Thank you in advance!

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• [Python] Best strategy for dealing with incomplete lines of data from a file.

  - by adoran

  I use the following block of code to read lines out of a file 'f' into a nested list: for data in f: clean_data = data.rstrip() data = clean_data.split('\t') t += [data[0]] strmat += [data[1:]] Sometimes, however, the data is incomplete and a row may look like this: ['955.159', '62.8168', '', '', '', '', '', '', '', '', '', '', '', '', '', '29', '30', '0', '0'] It puts a spanner in the works because I would like Python to implicitly cast my list as floats but the empty fields '' cause it to be cast as an array of strings (dtype: s12). I could start a second 'if' statement and convert all empty fields into NULL (since 0 is wrong in this instance) but I was unsure whether this was best. Is this the best strategy of dealing with incomplete data? Should I edit the stream or do it post-hoc?

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