Search Results

Search found 23890 results on 956 pages for 'issue'.

Page 781/956 | < Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >

  • iPhone: objc_class_name_TTTabStrip symbol not found build error

    - by user187532
    Hello friends, I am trying to implement 'scrollview' effect in 'Tabbar' which has 'TabItems'. I found that the good example is from 'facebook' open source 'TTCatlog' project 'Tabs' section. So i included all the source from it to my project and trying to build it. I have followed the following links to go ahead on this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/822792/how-to-create-a-horizontal-scrolling-view-on-iphone source: http://github.com/facebook/three20/tree/master/samples/ My calling code is like below: _tabBar1 = [[TTTabStrip alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(10, 68, 300, 28)]; _tabBar1.tabItems = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 1"] autorelease], [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 2"] autorelease], [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 3"] autorelease], [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 4"] autorelease], [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 5"] autorelease], [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 6"] autorelease], [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 7"] autorelease], [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 8"] autorelease], [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 9"] autorelease], [[[TTTabItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Item 10"] autorelease], nil]; [self.navigationController.view addSubview:_tabBar1]; My project folder as like below: ..../iphone/MyProgram/MyProgram.xcodeproj ..../iphone/Three20/src/Three20.... In my project settings for header search path, I have ../Three20/src But when i try to build it, it throws the following error: "objc_class_name_TTTabStrip symbol not found" "objc_class_name_TTTabItem symbol not found" I see there, all these files (.h and .m) are availbale there. Could someone please help what's wrong there and how do i get rid of this issue and continue working with it?

    Read the article

  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

    Read the article

  • How to float a <div> echoed in the footer over a <div> located elsewhere (PHP/jQuery/HTML/CSS)

    - by PlasmaFlux
    Hello All! I'm embarking on a major project, but am stuck on a tiny issue at the very start. I'll try to be as concise as possible. I have a PHP script that will be echoing into the footer of the page (the last stuff before a bunch of s containing visible buttons and s containing hidden dialog boxes. The plan is to have the buttons float in the upper-right corner of corresponding s in the main content area of the page. i.e. - button-1 echoed into the footer will float in the corner of content-box-1, and will be tied to the hidden 'dialog-1'. I'll be using jQuery and jQuery UI Dialog throughout the page(s). I'm not sure if that's particularly relevant to this question, but thought it worth mentioning just in case. So my question, put simply, is how do I echo a Button 1 into the footer with PHP, but have it float in the upper-right corner (with maybe 5px margin) of Content 1 is full of content? A picture says a thousand words: As shown above, I want the little blue gear button things in the corner of content pieces, locked and loaded with hidden s containing dialog boxes. Again, the catch is that all buttons and hidden divs will be the very last items echoed into the page footer. I've found plenty of info on how to float divs on top of divs, but all the examples I saw showed the s in close proximity to each other in the page source; not with a hundred lines of source code between the two s I'm not sure if the solution is pure CSS, pure jQuery/jQueryUI or a combination of the two. Any advice will be much appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Convert C# Silverlight App To AZURE CLOUD Platform?!?!

    - by Goober
    The Scenario I've been following Brad Abrams Silverlight tutorial on his blog.... I have tried following Brads "How to deploy your app to the Cloud" tutorial however i'm struggling with it, even though it is in the same context as the first tutorial.... The Question Is the application structure essentially the same as the original "non-cloud based version"!? If not, which parts are different? (I get that there is a Cloud Service project added to the solution) - but what else?! Connection String Issue In my "Non-Cloud based application", I make use of the ADO.Net Entity Framework to communicate with my database. The connection string in my web.config file looks like: <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=CHASEDIGITALWS3;Initial Catalog=InmarsatZenith;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /></connectionStrings> However However the connection string that I get from SQL AZURE looks like: Server=tcp:k12ioy1rsi.ctp.database.windows.net;Database=master;User ID=simongilbert;Password=myPassword;Trusted_Connection=False; So how do I go about merging the two when I move the "non-cloud based application" to THE CLOUD?! Any help regarding converting a silverlight application to a cloud service and deploying it would be greatly appreciated

    Read the article

  • maven-release-plugin: Perform fails with 'working directory "...workspace\target\checkout\workspace"

    - by Ed
    Hi, I have maven project that fails when release:perform is called, though release;prepare works as expected. I have found the bug report (below) which certainly seems to resemble the issue I have but not entirely sure I understand the problem: MRELEASE516 The last few lines of output I get: [INFO] Executing: cmd.exe /X /C "p4 -d E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout -p 10.20.0.38:1666 client -d myProjectWorkspace-MavenSCM-E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout" [INFO] Executing goals 'deploy'... [WARNING] Base directory is a file. Using base directory as POM location. [WARNING] Maven will be executed in interactive mode, but no input stream has been configured for this MavenInvoker instance. [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Error executing Maven. Working directory "E:\hudson\jobs\myHudsonJob\workspace\target\checkout\workspace" does not exist! From reading the bug report the possible cause of the error is related to my modules' structure, I've tried to outline it below: /workspace | |+ pom.xml (root pom whose parent is the build pom, | calling release:perform on this pom) | [Modules: moduleA and moduleB] | |- moduleA |+ pom.xml (parent is also build pom) |+ build/pom.xml (the build pom - no custom parent) |- moduleB |+ pom.xml (parent is build pom) It seems that the root pom should be in some common directory inside 'workspace' from the error but tried that and doesn't work, nor make sense as to why I need it. What does the warning Base directory is a file want me to do instead?! It then figures that the base directory is workspace which then means the working directory is not found...any ideas? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • What is causing my HTTP server to fail with "exit status -1073741819"?

    - by Keeblebrox
    As an exercise I created a small HTTP server that generates random game mechanics, similar to this one. I wrote it on a Windows 7 (32-bit) system and it works flawlessly. However, when I run it on my home machine, Windows 7 (64-bit), it always fails with the same message: exit status -1073741819. I haven't managed to find anything on the web which references that status code, so I don't know how important it is. Here's code for the server, with redundancy abridged: package main import ( "fmt" "math/rand" "time" "net/http" "html/template" ) // Info about a game mechanic type MechanicInfo struct { Name, Desc string } // Print a mechanic as a string func (m MechanicInfo) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("%s: %s", m.Name, m.Desc) } // A possible game mechanic var ( UnkillableObjects = &MechanicInfo{"Avoiding Unkillable Objects", "There are objects that the player cannot touch. These are different from normal enemies because they cannot be destroyed or moved."} //... Race = &MechanicInfo{"Race", "The player must reach a place before the opponent does. Like \"Timed\" except the enemy as a \"timer\" can be slowed down by the player's actions, or there may be multiple enemies being raced against."} ) // Slice containing all game mechanics var GameMechanics []*MechanicInfo // Pseudorandom number generator var prng *rand.Rand // Get a random mechanic func RandMechanic() *MechanicInfo { i := prng.Intn(len(GameMechanics)) return GameMechanics[i] } // Initialize the package func init() { prng = rand.New(rand.NewSource(time.Now().Unix())) GameMechanics = make([]*MechanicInfo, 34) GameMechanics[0] = UnkillableObjects //... GameMechanics[33] = Race } // serving var index = template.Must(template.ParseFiles( "templates/_base.html", "templates/index.html", )) func randMechHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, req *http.Request) { mechanics := [3]*MechanicInfo{RandMechanic(), RandMechanic(), RandMechanic()} if err := index.Execute(w, mechanics); err != nil { http.Error(w, err.Error(), http.StatusInternalServerError) } } func main() { http.HandleFunc("/", randMechHandler) if err := http.ListenAndServe(":80", nil); err != nil { panic(err) } } In addition, the unabridged code, the _base.html template, and the index.html template. What could be causing this issue? Is there a process for debugging a cryptic exit status like this?

    Read the article

  • broken SQL 2008 SP1 Web Edition (can not login with SSMS)

    - by gerryLowry
    Scenario: My installation of SQL Server 2008 Web Edition SP1 was working properly. Since I've recently joined Microsoft's Website Spark*, I removed SQL2008 and installed SQL 2008 again using my Website Spark edition and license from the MSDN download site. Next, I updated SQL 2008 to SP1 (this is required because I'm running Windows 2008 Server R2 Web edition). When I launch SSMS (SQL Server Management Studio), "User name" is "myhost\Administrator" and is greyed out so it can not be changed. When I installed my Website Spark version, I did not include "myhost\Administrator" when I was configuring SQL 2008 service accounts. Instead I created an administrator account "myhost\mySQLaccount". ERROR MESSAGE: Connect to Server (X) Cannot connect to (local) Additional information: Login failed for user 'myhost'Admistrator' (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18456) I tried to use the SQL Server Configuration Manager to correct this problem but could not find any useful way to fix this issue. How to I fix this problem? Connect to Server ... Server type: Database Engine Server name: (local) Authentication: Windows Authentication Please advise. Thank you. Gerry * http://www.microsoft.com/web/websitespark/default.aspx

    Read the article

  • Misalignement in the output Bitmap created from a byte array

    - by Daniel
    I am trying to understand why I have troubles creating a Bitmap from a byte array. I post this after a careful scrutiny of the existing posts about Bitmap creation from byte arrays, like the followings: Creating a bitmap from a byte[], Working with Image and Bitmap in c#?, C#: Bitmap Creation using bytes array My code is aimed to execute a filter on a digital image 8bppIndexed writing the pixel value on a byte [] buffer to be converted again (after some processing to manage gray levels) in a 8BppIndexed Bitmap My input image is a trivial image created by means of specific perl code: https://www.box.com/shared/zqt46c4pcvmxhc92i7ct Of course, after executing the filter the output image has lost the first and last rows and the first and last columns, due to the way the filter manage borders, so from the original 256 x 256 image i get a 254 x 254 image. Just to stay focused on the issue I have commented the code responsible for executing the filter so that the operation really performed is an obvious: ComputedPixel = InputImage.GetPixel(myColumn, myRow).R; I know, i should use lock and unlock but I prefer one headache one by one. Anyway this code should be a sort of identity transform, and at last i use: private unsafe void FillOutputImage() { OutputImage = new Bitmap (OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows , PixelFormat .Format8bppIndexed); ColorPalette ncp = OutputImage.Palette; for (int i = 0; i < 256; i++) ncp.Entries[i] = Color .FromArgb(255, i, i, i); OutputImage.Palette = ncp; Rectangle area = new Rectangle(0, 0, OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows); var data = OutputImage.LockBits(area, ImageLockMode.WriteOnly, OutputImage.PixelFormat); Marshal .Copy (byteBuffer, 0, data.Scan0, byteBuffer.Length); OutputImage.UnlockBits(data); } The output image I get is the following: https://www.box.com/shared/p6tubyi6dsf7cyregg9e It is quite clear that I am losing a pixel per row, but i cannot understand why: I have carefully controlled all the parameters: OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows and the byte [] byteBuffer length and content even writing known values as way to test. The code is nearly identical to other code posted in stackOverflow and elsewhere. Someone maybe could help to identify where the problem is? Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • Moving to .net 4 results in System.Transactions Critical: 0

    - by john
    Hi I have fully working project in .net 3.5SP1, with EF 1 ORM. I tried to upgrade to .net 4. No issue while upgrading... Then i ran the project and got a NullExecptionError, with no stack trace... and no way to debug. Looking at the output windows i can read this: System.Transactions Critical: 0 : <TraceRecord xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2004/10/E2ETraceEvent/TraceRecord" Severity="Critical"><TraceIdentifier>http://msdn.microsoft.com/TraceCodes/System/ActivityTracing/2004/07/Reliability/Exception/Unhandled</TraceIdentifier><Description>Unhandled exception</Description><AppDomain>OTCSouscriptions.vshost.exe</AppDomain><Exception><ExceptionType>System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089</ExceptionType><Message>Object reference not set to an instance of an object.</Message><StackTrace> at System.Windows.StyleHelper.GetInstanceValue(UncommonField`1 dataField, DependencyObject container, FrameworkElement feChild, FrameworkContentElement fceChild, Int32 childIndex, DependencyProperty dp, Int32 i, EffectiveValueEntry&amp;amp; entry) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.ReceivePropertySet(Object targetObject, XamlMember member, Object value, DependencyObject templatedParent) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.&amp;lt;&amp;gt;c__DisplayClass6.&amp;lt;LoadOptimizedTemplateContent&amp;gt;b__4(Object sender, XamlSetValueEventArgs setArgs) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.OnSetValue(Object eventSender, XamlMember member, Object value) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_ApplyPropertyValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx, XamlMember prop, Object value, Boolean onParent) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_DoAssignmentToParentProperty(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_AssignProvidedValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.WriteEndObject() at System.Xaml.XamlWriter.WriteNode(XamlReader reader) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.LoadTemplateXaml(XamlReader templateReader, XamlObjectWriter currentWriter) Any help appreciated... Thanks John

    Read the article

  • .NET Hashtable - "Same" key, different hashes

    - by Simon Lindgren
    Is it possible for two .net strings to have different hashes? I have a Hashtable with amongst others the key "path". When I loop through the elements in the table to print it, i can see that the key exists. When trying to looking it up however, there is no matching element. Debugging suggests that the string I'm looking for has a different hash than the one I'm supplying as the key. This code is in a Castle Monorail project, using brail as a view engine. The key I'm looking for is inserted by a brail line like this: UrlHelper.Link(node.CurrentPage.LinkText, {@params: {@path: "/Page1"}}) Then, in this method (in a custom IRoutingRule): public string CreateUrl(System.Collections.IDictionary parameters) { PrintDictionaryToLog(parameters); string url; if (parameters.Contains("path")) { url = (string)parameters["path"]; } else { return null; } } The key is printed to the log, but the function returns null. I didn't know this could even be a problem with .net strings, but I guess this is some kind of encoding issue? Oh, and this is running mono.

    Read the article

  • WordPerfect programmers refusing to use anything but assembler

    - by Totophil
    There is a version (popularised by Joel Spolsky) attributing the demise of WordPerfect to a refusal of its programmers to use anything but assembler that led to delay of the first WPwin release and as result eventually to losing the all important battle with Microsoft. There are a few references to programming work being done using assembler in the autobiographical book "Almost Perfect" by W. E. Pete Peterson who used to have a major influence at running the corporation. But these references go back to early 80's when WordPerfect was trying to gain a significant market share by defeating WordStar and not early nineties when the battle with MS took place. I am looking for a second independent source to confirm the assumption. Maybe someone who worked for WordPerfect Corporation at a time, who was close to the company, or had a chance to see the source could clarify the issue. Your help is much appreciated, thanks! Please note that this question is not about any other theories or reasons behind WordPerfect demise. I really just need to clarify whether they used assembler as a primary language for WPwin and (as a bonus really) whether there were discussions held within the corporation about assembler being the right choice. Concisely: Did WPCorp use assembler as a primary language for WPwin? Were discussions held at a time amongst WP Corp staff about assembler being the right choice (was it management or programmers decision)?

    Read the article

  • Perceptron Classification and Model Training

    - by jake pinedo
    I'm having an issue with understanding how the Perceptron algorithm works and implementing it. cLabel = 0 #class label: corresponds directly with featureVectors and tweets for m in range(miters): for point in featureVectors: margin = answers[cLabel] * self.dot_product(point, w) if margin <= 0: modifier = float(lrate) * float(answers[cLabel]) modifiedPoint = point for x in modifiedPoint: if x != 0: x *= modifier newWeight = [modifiedPoint[i] + w[i] for i in range(len(w))] w = newWeight self._learnedWeight = w This is what I've implemented so far, where I have a list of class labels in answers and a learning rate (lrate) and a list of feature vectors. I run it for the numbers of iterations in miter and then get the final weight at the end. However, I'm not sure what to do with this weight. I've trained the perceptron and now I have to classify a set of tweets, but I don't know how to do that. EDIT: Specifically, what I do in my classify method is I go through and create a feature vector for the data I'm given, which isn't a problem at all, and then I take the self._learnedWeight that I get from the earlier training code and compute the dot-product of the vector and the weight. My weight and feature vectors include a bias in the 0th term of the list so I'm including that. I then check to see if the dotproduct is less than or equal to 0: if so, then I classify it as -1. Otherwise, it's 1. However, this doesn't seem to be working correctly.

    Read the article

  • How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

    - by Russ Hayward
    I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

    Read the article

  • Linq 2 SQL Store inherited classes - not mapped to tables in the database

    - by user348672
    Hi. I'm trying to introduce the Linq2SQL technique into the project and have encountered the following issue: I've created ORM classes based on the Northwind database. In some other application I create several classes derived from the Linq2SQL classes. I'm able to add such a class to EntitySet but the application fails to submit changes. Is there any way around this? Sample code(MyClass is derived from the Order): DataClasses1DataContext northwind = new DataClasses1DataContext(); Product chai = northwind.Products.Single(p => p.ProductName == "Chai"); Product tofu = northwind.Products.Single(p => p.ProductName == "Tofu"); Order myOrder = new Order(); myOrder.OrderDate = DateTime.Now; myOrder.RequiredDate = DateTime.Now.AddDays(1); myOrder.Freight = 34; Order_Detail myItem1 = new Order_Detail(); myItem1.Product = chai; myItem1.Quantity = 12345; Order_Detail myItem2 = new Order_Detail(); myItem2.Product = tofu; myItem2.Quantity = 3; myOrder.Order_Details.Add(myItem1); myOrder.Order_Details.Add(myItem2); Customer myCustomer = northwind.Customers.Single(c => c.CompanyName == "B's Beverages"); MyClass newOrder = new MyClass(); newOrder.OrderDate = DateTime.Now; newOrder.RequiredDate = DateTime.Now.AddDays(31); newOrder.Freight = 35; Order_Detail myItem3 = new Order_Detail(); myItem3.Product = tofu; myItem3.Quantity = 3; newOrder.Order_Details.Add(myItem3); myCustomer.Orders.Add(myOrder); myCustomer.Orders.Add(newOrder); As I said I'm able to add the newOrder object but unable to submit into the database.

    Read the article

  • Does somebody know something about Flash-CS5' "multiple copies" bug?

    - by Slav
    I'm, generally, complaining, not asking, but if somebody will be able (Adobe isn't) to help - it will be perfect. I use Flash-CS5 IDE to compose .swc files to import it, then, into FlashDevelop. Evetyrhing works fine until SOMETIMES. About each 10th "Ctrl+S" (save) click Flash-CS5 duplicates ALL images (loaded .bmp, .jpg, .png... files) and names them like "Copy ..." where "..." is incrementing number. Furhtermore, Flash-CS5 creates duplications of some layers - other layers have duplications of items which put on them. Restoring project's state to previous (not copied) state - is the hell. This bug is not reproducible but it happens each 2 hours or so - both right after project's opening and after several hours of work. It happens on different machines - I know at least 5 people which told me that they also run into this issue and do not know how to escape it. Did somebody experienced it? Does somebody know how to handle it?

    Read the article

  • Improve performance of searching JSON object with jQuery

    - by cale_b
    Please forgive me if this is answered on SO somewhere already. I've searched, and it seems as though this is a fairly specific case. Here's an example of the JSON (NOTE: this is very stripped down - this is dynamically loaded, and currently there are 126 records): var layout = { "2":[{"id":"40","attribute_id":"2","option_id":null,"design_attribute_id":"4","design_option_id":"131","width":"10","height":"10", "repeat":"0","top":"0","left":"0","bottom":"0","right":"0","use_right":"0","use_bottom":"0","apply_to_options":"0"}, {"id":"41","attribute_id":"2","option_id":"115","design_attribute_id":"4","design_option_id":"131","width":"2","height":"1", "repeat":"0","top":"0","left":"0","bottom":"4","right":"2","use_right":"0","use_bottom":"0","apply_to_options":"0"}, {"id":"44","attribute_id":"2","option_id":"118","design_attribute_id":"4","design_option_id":"131","width":"10","height":"10", "repeat":"0","top":"0","left":"0","bottom":"0","right":"0","use_right":"0","use_bottom":"0","apply_to_options":"0"}], "5":[{"id":"326","attribute_id":"5","option_id":null,"design_attribute_id":"4","design_option_id":"154","width":"5","height":"5", "repeat":"0","top":"0","left":"0","bottom":"0","right":"0","use_right":"0","use_bottom":"0","apply_to_options":"0"}] }; I need to match the right combination of values. Here's the function I currently use: function drawOption(attid, optid) { var attlayout = layout[attid]; $.each(attlayout, function(k, v) { // d_opt_id and d_opt_id are global scoped variable set elsewhere if (v.design_attribute_id == d_att_id && v.design_option_id == d_opt_id && v.attribute_id == attid && ((v.apply_to_options == 1 || (v.option_id === optid)))) { // Do stuff here } }); } The issue is that I might iterate through 10-15 layouts (unique attid's), and any given layout (attid) might have as many as 50 possibilities, which means that this loop is being run A LOT. Given the multiple criteria that have to be matched, would an AJAX call work better? (This JSON is dynamically created via PHP, so I could craft a PHP function that could possibly do this more efficently), or am I completely missing something about how to find items in a JSON object? As always, any suggestions for improving the code are welcome! EDIT: I apologize for not making this clear, but the purpose of this question is to find a way to improve the performance. The page has a lot of javascript, and this is a location where I know that performance is lower than it could be.

    Read the article

  • Javascript doesnt update

    - by Trikam
    Hi all, I have a function that passes a parameter which is a function call and then i use setTimeout to call this passed function call. now i tried two methods with setTimout to raise the event and i used function.call(). When this passed parameter function call was raised none of the javascript was being updated, below is the javascript which im using to raise the event and the javascript which is supposed to be updated: The function being passed is [context] - function() { ErrorMessageFileSelect('diverrortextchoosechannal','The file chosen is to big, you must choose a file less than 1MB'); } function FileSizeOnLoad(contentLength,context) { if (context != null) { // context.call(); setTimeout(context,0); // or context.call(); } else { $('#inputHiddenFileSizeField').val(contentLength); DisplayChoseFileInformation(contentLength); } } //this is where the update should happen function ErrorMessageFileSelect(className, errorMessage) { $('div.' + className).text(errorMessage); alert($('div.' + className).text()); } Is there somthing im missing, can someone help me with this issue please. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Configure Windows firewall to prevent an application from listening on a specific port [closed]

    - by U-D13
    The issue: there are many applications struggling to listen on port 80 (Skype, Teamviewer et al.), and to many of them that even is not essential (in the sense that you can have a httpd running and blocking the http port, and the other application won't even squeak about being unable to open the port). What makes things worse, some of the apps are... Well, I suppose, that it's okay that the mentally impaired are being integrated in the society by giving them a job to do, but... Programming requires some intellectual effort, in my humble opinion... What I mean is that there is no way to configure the app not to use specific ports (that's what you get for using proprietary software) - you can either add it to windows firewall exceptions (and succumb to undesired port opening behavior) or not (and risk losing most - if not all - of the functionality). Technically, it is not impossible for the firewall to deny an application opening an incoming port even if the application is in the exception list. And if this functionality is built into the Windows firewall somewhere, there should be a way to activate it. So, what I want to know is: whether there exists such an option, and if it does how to activate it.

    Read the article

  • Has anyone used Ant4Eclipse with Project Lombok?

    - by gmcnaughton
    Has anyone successfully used Ant4Eclipse (http://www.ant4eclipse.org/) in combination with Project Lombok (http://projectlombok.org/)? Lombok provides annotations for removing boilerplate code; however, it doesn't appear to play nicely with Ant4Eclipse (headless compilation of Eclipse projects). For instance, the following Lombok sample compiles fine in Eclipse and javac: import lombok.Getter; public class LombokTest { private @Getter String foo; public LombokTest() { String s = this.getFoo(); } } But compiling with Ant4Eclipse's <buildJdtProject> yields the following: [javac] Compiling 1 source file [javac] ---------- [javac] 1. WARNING in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 4) [javac] private @Getter String foo; [javac] ^^^ [javac] The field LombokTest.foo is never read locally [javac] ---------- [javac] 2. ERROR in C:\dev\Java\workspace\LombokTest\src\LombokTest.java (at line 8) [javac] String s = this.getFoo(); [javac] ^^^^^^ [javac] The method getFoo() is undefined for the type LombokTest [javac] ---------- Has anyone successfully used these libraries together? Thanks! Edit: sample project demonstrating the issue

    Read the article

  • Doctrine 1.2: How do i prevent a contraint from being assigned to both sides of a One-to-many relati

    - by prodigitalson
    Is there a way to prevent Doctrine from assigning a contraint on both sides of a one-to-one relationship? Ive tried moving the definition from one side to the other and using owning side but it still places a constraint on both tables. when I only want the parent table to have a constraint - ie. its possible for the parent to not have an associated child. For example iwant the following sql schema essentially: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); However im getting something like this: CREATE TABLE `parent_table` ( `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `child_table_child_id_FK_parent_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `child_table` (`child_id`) ); CREATE TABLE `child_table` ( `id` integer UNSIGNED NOT NULL auto_increment, `child_id` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY (`child_id`), CONSTRAINT `parent_table_child_id_FK_child_table_child_id` FOREIGN KEY (`child_id`) REFERENCES `parent_table` (`child_id`) ); I could just remove the constraint manually or modify my accessors to return/set a single entity in the collection (using a one-to-many) but it seems like there should built in way to handle this. Also im using Symfony 1.4.4 (pear installtion ATM) - in case its an sfDoctrinePlugin issue and not necessarily Doctrine itself.

    Read the article

  • Movies recommendation engine conceptual database design

    - by Supyxy
    I am working at an movie recommendations engine and i'm facing a DB design issue. My actual database looks like this: MOVIES [ID,TITLE] KEYWORDS_TABLE [ID,KEY_ID] - where ID is Foreign Key for MOVIES.id and KEY_ID is a key for a text keywords table This is not the entire DB, but i showed here what's important for my problem. I have about 50,000 movies and about 1,3 milion keywords correlations, and basically my algorithm consists in extracting all the who have the same keywords with a given movie, then ordering them by the number of keywords correlations. For example i looked for a movie similar to 'Cast away' and it returned 'Six days and six nights' because it had the most keywords correlations (4 keywords): Island Airplane crash Stranded Pilot The algorithm is based on more factors, but this one is the most important and the most difficult for the approach. Basically what i do now is getting all the movies that have at least one keyword similar to the given movie and then ordering them by other factors which are not important for a moment. There wouldn't be any problem if there weren't so many records, a query lasts in many cases up to 10-20 seconds and some of them return even over 5000 movies. Someone already helped me on here (thanks Mark Byers) with optimizing the query but that's not enough because it takes too longer SELECT DISTINCT M.title FROM keywords_table K1 JOIN keywords_table K2 ON K2.key_id = K1.key_id JOIN movies M ON K2.id = M.id WHERE K1.id = 4 So i thought it would be better if i pre-made those lists with movies recommendations for each movie, but i'm not sure how to design the tables.. whatever is it a good idea or how would you take this approach?

    Read the article

  • Scope of This JavaScript Variable

    - by dkris
    I have a question and an issue wrt the code below: My question is what is the scope of the variable loaded here. The reason why i ask this is the onload="if(loaded==1)inittextarea() code is working fine on Firefox and not IE8. Why is this happening? Is there something specific i need to do here? Or is it not a valid practice? <html> <head> <title>Some Page</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="../css/default.css" type="text/css"> <script type="text/javascript"> var loaded = 0; /*Point of interest*/ function jsLoaded() { loaded =1; } </script> <script type="text/javascript"> function inittextarea() { alert("test") tinyMCE.init({ elements : "content", theme : "advanced", readonly : true, mode : "exact", theme : "advanced", readonly : true, setup : function(ed) { ed.onInit.add(function() { tinyMCE.activeEditor.execCommand("mceToggleVisualAid"); }); } }); } </script> <script src="../js/tiny_mce/tiny_mce.js" onload="jsLoaded()" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body onload="if(loaded==1)inittextarea()"><!--Works on Firefox only--> *Usual stuff* </body></html> Any pointers please?

    Read the article

  • HttpServletResponse encoding problem @ WebSphere 6.1

    - by user295509
    My application is working fine with JBOSS 4.2.2 application server. However when I deploy same application at WebSphere 6.1. I get HttpServletResponse encoding problem. I am getting response on web browser as shown below:- ??][s?8?~N??0?uRY?d;?H?e??e??d6?%??A"yH????????M??x?? ??&A??h??ntCT???????UM??BW???H?T?4???????t??G?f =l?&5[?j?B{???6???V???6???7???????(???5?4????.?!????j??i?V????? X?Q??^<??????????sK????h?{y1?] [??T??- ?Dm?_?7????P??<*??VvQ?:6?KCc? 6?]????V_?zPC?c???Ÿ???zsW????_y?*???2? ??)?r?~?L%^?M???kzduY??BW4? ?.?????V????{??O????/?l?ii8?S?Q?cJ?56GAogp?w???7'??9vf???E?,??? 9?q?x???z?H????????;????4?? ?5?????iWF??l????o^??Fy?|?d???????zMa,????y??e \<?J???M?:miz????z?Z5???????^/???e?:?j7??'??~?@?V?V???nN?&??Q%}(??????*u???#???S?BO??Lð????+??x?8?/?E??????6_k?1)?@q. ?S%??5?=?$?CSBt?c ????+hX??2?>t?s?+?M????????nv$??13m??? I would like to mentioned that this encoding problem is not arise when I have less data (or HTML element). Means even at WebSphere, It is working fine when there are up to approximately 300 HTML element are render. When HTML elements over than certain number then web page is shown with encoded form. Moreover at Jboss 4.2.2 application is working fine up to long -long html element. I set content type as: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> This issue is reproducible at FF 3.6 and IE 7 and 8 browser. Can anyone help me out? Am I missing some setting?

    Read the article

  • Memory leak dyld dlopen

    - by imthi
    I am getting leak and I cannot detect from where this is happening. The stack trace does not give full info after dyld open. For few leaks I am not getting any stack trace info. All I get is only object memory address. Is anyone else facing the same issue. I am using XCode 3.2 on show leopard. 18 0x103038 17 0x1033c7 16 0x1034a1 15 0x90145f48 14 dyld dlopen 13 dyld dyld::link(ImageLoader*, bool, ImageLoader::RPathChain const&) 12 dyld ImageLoader::link(ImageLoader::LinkContext const&, bool, bool, ImageLoader::RPathChain const&) 11 dyld ImageLoader::recursiveLoadLibraries(ImageLoader::LinkContext const&, bool, ImageLoader::RPathChain const&) 10 dyld dyld::libraryLocator(char const*, bool, char const*, ImageLoader::RPathChain const*) 9 dyld dyld::load(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&) 8 dyld dyld::loadPhase0(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 7 dyld dyld::loadPhase1(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 6 dyld dyld::loadPhase3(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 5 dyld dyld::loadPhase4(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 4 dyld dyld::loadPhase5(char const*, dyld::LoadContext const&, std::vector<char const*, std::allocator<char const*> >*) 3 dyld dyld::mkstringf(char const*, ...) 2 dyld strdup 1 dyld mallocenter

    Read the article

  • How to speed up the reading of innerHTML in IE8?

    - by Dennis Cheung
    I am using JQuery with the DataTable plugin, and now I have a big performnce issue on the following line. aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 I have a ajax call, and result string in HTML format. I convert them into HTML nodes, and that part is ok. var $result = $('<div/>').html(result).find("*:first"); // simlar to $result=$(result) but much more faster in Fx Then I activate enable the result from a plain table to a sortable datatable. The speed is acceptable in Fx (around 4sec for 900 rows), but unacceptable in IE8 (more then 100 seconds). I check it deep using the buildin profiler, and found the above single line take all 99.9% of the time, how can I speed it up? anything I missed? nTrs = oSettings.nTable.getElementsByTagName('tbody')[0].childNodes; for ( i=0, iLen=nTrs.length ; i<iLen ; i++ ) { if ( nTrs[i].nodeName == "TR" ) { iThisIndex = oSettings.aoData.length; oSettings.aoData.push( { "nTr": nTrs[i], "_iId": oSettings.iNextId++, "_aData": [], "_anHidden": [], "_sRowStripe": '' } ); oSettings.aiDisplayMaster.push( iThisIndex ); aLocalData = oSettings.aoData[iThisIndex]._aData; nTds = nTrs[i].childNodes; jInner = 0; for ( j=0, jLen=nTds.length ; j<jLen ; j++ ) { if ( nTds[j].nodeName == "TD" ) { aLocalData[jInner] = nTds[j].innerHTML; // jquery.dataTables.js:2220 jInner++; } } } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >