Search Results

Search found 23890 results on 956 pages for 'issue'.

Page 782/956 | < Previous Page | 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789  | Next Page >

  • Combo box in a scrollable panel causing problems

    - by Dennis
    I have a panel with AutoScroll set to true. In it, I am programmatically adding ComboBox controls. If I add enough controls to exceed the viewable size of the panel a scroll bar appears (so far so good). However, if I open one of the combo boxes near the bottom of the viewable area the combo list isn't properly displayed and the scrollable area seems to be expanded. This results in all of the controls being "pulled" to the new bottom of the panel with some new blank space at the top. If I continue to tap on the drop down at the bottom of the panel the scrollable area will continue to expand indefinitely. I'm anchoring the controls to the left, right and top so I don't think anchoring is involved. Is there something obvious that could be causing this? Update: It looks like the problem lies with anchoring the controls to the right. If I don't anchor to the right then I don't get the strange behavior. However, without right anchoring the control gets cut off by the scroll bar. Here's a simplified test case I built that shows the issue: public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); Panel panel = new Panel(); panel.Size = new Size(80, 200); panel.AutoScroll = true; for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { ComboBox cb = new ComboBox(); cb.Anchor = AnchorStyles.Left | AnchorStyles.Right | AnchorStyles.Top; cb.Items.Add("Option 1"); cb.Items.Add("Option 2"); cb.Items.Add("Option 3"); cb.Items.Add("Option 4"); cb.Location = new Point(0, i * 24); panel.Controls.Add(cb); } Controls.Add(panel); } If you scroll the bottom of the panel and tap on the combo boxes near the bottom you'll notice the strange behavior.

    Read the article

  • Page_PreRender fires twice on first load in session

    - by awe
    I have an issue when I access the application, I notice that Page_PreRender is fired twice. This only happens the first time in a new session. It does not happen if I refresh the page, or on postbacks. I use .NET framework 3.5 and the built in ajax functionality. I think the problem is not related to img tag with empty src attribute as I have seen other posts has mentioned, because I see this in both FireFox and IE. The posts I saw about this stated that this was not a problem in IE. I have also searched and found no img tags with empty src in the generated page source, so it should not be this. I have also made a simple test page where I have included some of the functionality, and this does not happen. Here I have also tried to reproduce the empty src bug by including <img src="" /> on the page, but this does not trigger this problem. Have anyone any suggestions on what happens? Note: It is the entire page cycle that is firing twice, not just render.

    Read the article

  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

    Read the article

  • Full Text Search in SQL Server 2008 shows wrong display_item for Thai language

    - by ensecoz
    I am working with SQL Server 2008. My task is to investigate the issue where FTS cannot find the right result for Thai. First, I have the table which enables the FTS on the column 'ItemName' which is nvarchar. The Catalog is created with the Thai Language. Note that the Thai language is one of the languages that doesn't separate the word by spaces, so '????' '???' '????' are written like this in a sentence: '???????????' In the table, there are many rows that include the word (????); for example row#1 (ItemName: '???????????') On the webpage, I try to search for '????' but SQL Server cannot find it. So I try to investigate it by trying the following query in SQL Server: select * from sys.dm_fts_parser(N'"???????????"', 1054, 0, 0) ...to see how the words are broken. The first one is the text to be broken. The second parameter is to specify that we're using Thai (WorkBreaker, so on). Here is the result: row#1 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#2 (display_item: '????', source_item: '???????????') row#3 (display_item: '??', source_item: '???????????') Notice that the first and second row display the wrong display_item '?' in the '????' isn't even Thai characters. '?' in '????' is not a Thai character either. So the question is where did those alien characters come from? I guess this why I cannot search for '????' because the word breaker is broken and keeping the wrong character in the indexes. Please help!

    Read the article

  • iPod touch debugging: Error on install/run only if app exists on device already?

    - by Ben
    Hi all, I am using an iPod to test an app. The device is all set up with the right provisioning profiles, etc-- that's not really the issue. But every time I start the app from Xcode on the device, I get the "A signed resource has been added, modified, or deleted." error from the Organizer window. Wait, I know, you think it's a provisioning profile problem. But here's the kicker: if I just delete the app from the iPod (using the main screen) and try again, it works fine. I only get this error when the app is already installed. The other kicker is that this behavior doesn't happen on an iPhone that I have for occasional testing-- on that device, I can start/restart/restart indefinitely. But using the iPod, my compile-run-test cycle is annoyingly slow since I have to manually delete the app each time. Any ideas? I'm using Xcode 3.2.2 (prerelease) FWIW. The iPod has stock OS 3.1.2 on it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

    - by Doug Kavendek
    In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

    Read the article

  • Set up Gitosis, but can't clone

    - by Tim Rupe
    I've set up Gitosis on a remote Ubuntu box which I will refer to as linuxserver as my host in the following commands. I'm also connecting from a Windows box using Cygwin. I followed the instructions according to: http://scie.nti.st/2007/11/14/hosting-git-repositories-the-easy-and-secure-way I had no problems up until I needed to clone the gitosis-admin repository to my local machine git clone git@linuxserver:gitosis-admin.git When I do this, the command executes, but hangs there displaying nothing until I ctrl-c to get back to a command prompt. No messages are displayed at all. I'm pretty sure I have my ssh keys set up properly, because logging in using "ssh linuxserver" into my regular account works perfectly without asking for a password. Edit: Over the weekend I set up a near identical Ubuntu box at home, and had no problem setting up Gitosis. The only difference was that I was connecting from OSX instead of Cygwin. Edit: I've also discovered that when using the Bash Shell provided with "Git Extensions", I have no problems, so the issue definitely seems to be some kind of Cygwin conflict. Edit: Just an update, but about a month after posting this question, I switched to Mercurial, and found that I prefer it much more than git. Thanks for the suggestions, but I don't plan on going back to git to try any of them out.

    Read the article

  • deadlock because of foreign key?

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using SQL Server 2008 Enterprise. I met with deadlock in the following store procedure, but because of my fault, I did not record the deadlock graph. But now I can not reproduce deadlock issue. I want to have a postmortem to find the root cause of deadlock to avoid deadlock in the future. The deadlock happens on delete statement. For the delete statement, Param1 is a column of table FooTable, Param1 is a foreign key of another table (refers to another primary key clustered index column of the other table). There is no index on Param1 itself for table FooTable. FooTable has another column which is used as clustered primary key, but not Param1 column. Here is my guess why there is deadlock, and I want to let people review whether my analysis is correct? Since Param1 column has no index, there will be a table scan, and will acquire table level lock, because of foreign key, the delete operation will also need to check master table (e.g. to acquire lock on master table); Some operation on master table acquires master table lock, but want to acquire lock on FooTable; (1) and (2) cause cycle lock which makes deadlock happen. My analysis correct? Any reproduce scenario? create PROCEDURE [dbo].[FooProc] ( @Param1 int ,@Param2 int ,@Param3 int ) AS DELETE FooTable WHERE Param1 = @Param1 INSERT INTO FooTable ( Param1 ,Param2 ,Param3 ) VALUES ( @Param1 ,@Param2 ,@Param3 ) DECLARE @ID bigint SET @ID = ISNULL(@@Identity,-1) IF @ID > 0 BEGIN SELECT IdentityStr FROM FooTable WHERE ID = @ID END thanks in advance, George

    Read the article

  • How to make an entity out of a join table without primary key

    - by tputkonen
    I'm trying to generate JPA entities out of an existing database having an "interesting" design. Database has a table called UserSet, which can have links to several other UserSets. There is a one to many relation between UserSets and LinkedUserSets. LinkedUserSets also has one to one relation to UserSets. I tried to generate a JPA Entity out of the database structure using Dali JPA Tools. The resulting entity Linkeduserset misses @Id or @EmbeddedId annotation and thus failes to compile. As the resulting entity contains only two @JoinColumns (which cannot be marked as @Id), I have not so far found a way around this issue. Database structure can not be modified in any way. Is there a way to overcome this somehow? Relevant pars of create table statements: CREATE TABLE `LinkedUserSets` ( `UsrSetID` INT(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0' , `ChildID` INT(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0' , CONSTRAINT `fk_LinkedUserSets_UserSet1` FOREIGN KEY (`UsrSetID` ) REFERENCES `UserSet` (`UsrSetID` )); CREATE TABLE `UserSet` ( `UsrSetID` INT(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , PRIMARY KEY (`UsrSetID`), CONSTRAINT `fk_UserSet_LinkedUserSets1` FOREIGN KEY (`UsrSetID` ) REFERENCES `LinkedUserSets` (`ChildID` )); Generated entities: @Entity @Table(name="linkedusersets") public class Linkeduserset { //bi-directional many-to-one association to Userset @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="UsrSetID") private Userset userset1; //bi-directional one-to-one association to Userset @OneToOne @JoinColumn(name="ChildID") private Userset userset2; } @Entity @Table(name="userset") public class Userset { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Column(name="UsrSetID") private int jngSetID; //bi-directional many-to-one association to Linkeduserset @OneToMany(mappedBy="userset1") private Set<Linkeduserset> linkedusersets; //bi-directional one-to-one association to Linkeduserset @OneToOne(mappedBy="userset2") private Linkeduserset linkeduserset; } Error message: Entity "Linkeduserset" has no Id or EmbeddedId

    Read the article

  • How do you implement a good profanity filter?

    - by Ben Throop
    Many of us need to deal with user input, search queries, and situations where the input text can potentially contain profanity or undesirable language. Oftentimes this needs to be filtered out. Where can one find a good list of swear words in various languages and dialects? Are there APIs available to sources that contain good lists? Or maybe an API that simply says "yes this is clean" or "no this is dirty" with some parameters? What are some good methods for catching folks trying to trick the system, like a$$, azz, or a55? Bonus points if you offer solutions for PHP. :) Edit: Response to answers that say simply avoid the programmatic issue: I think there is a place for this kind of filter when, for instance, a user can use public image search to find pictures that get added to a sensitive community pool. If they can search for "penis", then they will likely get many pictures of, yep. If we don't want pictures of that, then preventing the word as a search term is a good gatekeeper, though admittedly not a foolproof method. Getting the list of words in the first place is the real question. So I'm really referring to a way to figure out of a single token is dirty or not and then simply disallow it. I'd not bother preventing a sentiment like the totally hilarious "long necked giraffe" reference. Nothing you can do there. :)

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Index cost

    - by yellowstar
    I have read that one of the tradeoffs for adding table indexes in SQL Server is the increased cost of insert/update/delete queries to benefit the performance of select queries. I can conceptually understand what happens in the case of an insert because SQL Server has to write entries into each index matching the new rows, but update and delete are a little more murky to me because I can't quite wrap my head around what the database engine has to do. Let's take DELETE as an example and assume I have the following schema (pardon the pseudo-SQL) TABLE Foo col1 int ,col2 int ,col3 int ,col4 int PRIMARY KEY (col1,col2) INDEX IX_1 col3 INCLUDE col4 Now, if I issue the statement DELETE FROM Foo WHERE col1=12 AND col2 > 34 I understand what the engine must do to update the table (or clustered index if you prefer). The index is set up to make it easy to find the range of rows to be removed and do so. However, at this point it also needs to update IX_1 and the query that I gave it gives no obvious efficient way for the database engine to find the rows to update. Is it forced to do a full index scan at this point? Does the engine read the rows from the clustered index first and generate a smarter internal delete against the index? It might help me to wrap my head around this if I understood better what is going on under the hood, but I guess my real question is this. I have a database that is spending a significant amount of time in delete and I'm trying to figure out what I can do about it. When I display the execution plan for the deletion, it just shows an entry for "Clustered Index Delete" on table Foo which lists in the details section the other indices that need to be updated but I don't get any indication of the relative cost of these other indices. Are they all equal in this case? Is there some way that I can estimate the impact of removing one or more of these indices without having to actually try it?

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

    Read the article

  • Misalignement in the output Bitmap created from a byte array

    - by Daniel
    I am trying to understand why I have troubles creating a Bitmap from a byte array. I post this after a careful scrutiny of the existing posts about Bitmap creation from byte arrays, like the followings: Creating a bitmap from a byte[], Working with Image and Bitmap in c#?, C#: Bitmap Creation using bytes array My code is aimed to execute a filter on a digital image 8bppIndexed writing the pixel value on a byte [] buffer to be converted again (after some processing to manage gray levels) in a 8BppIndexed Bitmap My input image is a trivial image created by means of specific perl code: https://www.box.com/shared/zqt46c4pcvmxhc92i7ct Of course, after executing the filter the output image has lost the first and last rows and the first and last columns, due to the way the filter manage borders, so from the original 256 x 256 image i get a 254 x 254 image. Just to stay focused on the issue I have commented the code responsible for executing the filter so that the operation really performed is an obvious: ComputedPixel = InputImage.GetPixel(myColumn, myRow).R; I know, i should use lock and unlock but I prefer one headache one by one. Anyway this code should be a sort of identity transform, and at last i use: private unsafe void FillOutputImage() { OutputImage = new Bitmap (OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows , PixelFormat .Format8bppIndexed); ColorPalette ncp = OutputImage.Palette; for (int i = 0; i < 256; i++) ncp.Entries[i] = Color .FromArgb(255, i, i, i); OutputImage.Palette = ncp; Rectangle area = new Rectangle(0, 0, OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows); var data = OutputImage.LockBits(area, ImageLockMode.WriteOnly, OutputImage.PixelFormat); Marshal .Copy (byteBuffer, 0, data.Scan0, byteBuffer.Length); OutputImage.UnlockBits(data); } The output image I get is the following: https://www.box.com/shared/p6tubyi6dsf7cyregg9e It is quite clear that I am losing a pixel per row, but i cannot understand why: I have carefully controlled all the parameters: OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows and the byte [] byteBuffer length and content even writing known values as way to test. The code is nearly identical to other code posted in stackOverflow and elsewhere. Someone maybe could help to identify where the problem is? Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • Javascript doesnt update

    - by Trikam
    Hi all, I have a function that passes a parameter which is a function call and then i use setTimeout to call this passed function call. now i tried two methods with setTimout to raise the event and i used function.call(). When this passed parameter function call was raised none of the javascript was being updated, below is the javascript which im using to raise the event and the javascript which is supposed to be updated: The function being passed is [context] - function() { ErrorMessageFileSelect('diverrortextchoosechannal','The file chosen is to big, you must choose a file less than 1MB'); } function FileSizeOnLoad(contentLength,context) { if (context != null) { // context.call(); setTimeout(context,0); // or context.call(); } else { $('#inputHiddenFileSizeField').val(contentLength); DisplayChoseFileInformation(contentLength); } } //this is where the update should happen function ErrorMessageFileSelect(className, errorMessage) { $('div.' + className).text(errorMessage); alert($('div.' + className).text()); } Is there somthing im missing, can someone help me with this issue please. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Use a vector to index a matrix without linear index

    - by David_G
    G'day, I'm trying to find a way to use a vector of [x,y] points to index from a large matrix in MATLAB. Usually, I would convert the subscript points to the linear index of the matrix.(for eg. Use a vector as an index to a matrix in MATLab) However, the matrix is 4-dimensional, and I want to take all of the elements of the 3rd and 4th dimensions that have the same 1st and 2nd dimension. Let me hopefully demonstrate with an example: Matrix = nan(4,4,2,2); % where the dimensions are (x,y,depth,time) Matrix(1,2,:,:) = 999; % note that this value could change in depth (3rd dim) and time (4th time) Matrix(3,4,:,:) = 888; % note that this value could change in depth (3rd dim) and time (4th time) Matrix(4,4,:,:) = 124; Now, I want to be able to index with the subscripts (1,2) and (3,4), etc and return not only the 999 and 888 which exist in Matrix(:,:,1,1) but the contents which exist at Matrix(:,:,1,2),Matrix(:,:,2,1) and Matrix(:,:,2,2), and so on (IRL, the dimensions of Matrix might be more like size(Matrix) = (300 250 30 200) I don't want to use linear indices because I would like the results to be in a similar vector fashion. For example, I would like a result which is something like: ans(time=1) 999 888 124 999 888 124 ans(time=2) etc etc etc etc etc etc I'd also like to add that due to the size of the matrix I'm dealing with, speed is an issue here - thus why I'd like to use subscript indices to index to the data. I should also mention that (unlike this question: Accessing values using subscripts without using sub2ind) since I want all the information stored in the extra dimensions, 3 and 4, of the i and jth indices, I don't think that a slightly faster version of sub2ind still would not cut it..

    Read the article

  • Java: Exception in thread main java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError

    - by cath
    I am trying to get the Red5 Flash Media Server working on my computer. I have installed it, but when I run the server I get this error Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/red5/server/Bootstrap Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.red5.server.Bootstrap at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:217) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:205) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:321) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:294) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:266) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:334) Could not find the main class: org.red5.server.Bootstrap. Program will exit. I came across this link where someone had the same issue: http://trac.red5.org/ticket/762 It looks like they ran this command: export CLASSPATH=3D$RED5_HOME/lib/slf4j-api-1.5.10.jar:$RED5_HOME/lib/logback- core-0.9.18.jar:$RED5_HOME/lib/logback-classic-0.9.18.jar I have red5 installed in /usr/share/red5, so I ran this: export CLASSPATH=3D$/usr/share/red5/lib/slf4j-api-1.5.10.jar:$/usr/share/red5/lib/logback-core-0.9.18.jar:$/usr/share/red5/lib/logback-classic-0.9.18.jar Yet despite all this I am still seeing the same error message.

    Read the article

  • Altering lazy-loaded object's private variables

    - by Kevin Pang
    I'm running into an issue with private setters when using NHibernate and lazy-loading. Let's say I have a class that looks like this: public class User { public int Foo {get; private set;} public IList<User> Friends {get; set;} public void SetFirstFriendsFoo() { // This line works in a unit test but does nothing during a live run with // a lazy-loaded Friends list Users(0).Foo = 1; } } The SetFirstFriendsFoo call works perfectly inside a unit test (as it should since objects of the same type can access each others private properties). However, when running live with a lazy-loaded Friends list, the SetFirstFriendsFoo call silently fails. I'm guessing the reason for this is because at run-time, the Users(0).Foo object is no longer of type User, but of a proxy class that inherits from User since the Friends list was lazy-loaded. My question is this: shouldn't this generate a run-time exception? You get compile-time exceptions if you try to access another class's private properties, but when you run into a situation like this is looks like the app just ignores you and continues along its way.

    Read the article

  • JQuery - Sticky sidebar not working in Firefox

    - by user1473358
    I'm working on a site with a Sticky sidebar (fixed position under certain conditions, etc) that is working fine in Chrome & Safari, but breaks in Firefox. I'm not sure what the issue is since I didn't write the script: $(document).ready(function() { /* var defaults = { containerID: 'toTop', // fading element id containerHoverID: 'toTopHover', // fading element hover id scrollSpeed: 1200, easingType: 'linear' }; */ $().UItoTop({ easingType: 'easeOutQuart' }); if (!!$('.sticky').offset()) { // make sure ".sticky" element exists var stickyTop = $('.sticky').offset().top; // returns number var newsTop = $('#news_single').offset().top; // returns number $(window).scroll(function(){ // scroll event var windowTop = $(window).scrollTop(); // returns number var width = $(window).width(); var height = $(window).height(); if (stickyTop < windowTop && width > 960 && height > 450){ $('.sticky').css({ position: 'fixed', top: 40 }); $('#news_single').css({ left: 230 }); } else { $('.sticky').css('position','static'); $('#news_single').css({ left: 0 }); } }); } }); Here's the site (the sidebar in question is the one with the red header, to the left): http://www.parisgaa.org/parisgaels/this-is-a-heading-too-a-longer-one I'd appreciate any help with this.

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC.Net 3 RC2 bug ?

    - by Jarek Waliszko
    Hello, so far I've been using ASP.Net 3 BETA. Everything was working fine till the update to RC2 version. Of course I've read ScottGu's article about RC2. My problem is following. Basically I have 2 controllers: public class DynamicPageController : Controller { public ActionResult Redirect(string resource, int? pageNumber, int? id) { } } public class SystemController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { } } In the Globals.asax I have routes like this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.MapRoute( "SystemRoute", "System/{action}", new { controller = "System", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "PageRoute", "{resource}/{id}/{pageNumber}", new { controller = "DynamicPage", action = "Redirect", resource = UrlParameter.Optional, pageNumber = UrlParameter.Optional, id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); } In the code, I have simple link creation: System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper u = new System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper(context); string url = u.Action("Index", "System"); and the url is "/my_app/System" in both versions (BETA and RC2) But the code below (the syntax is the same as above, only controller and action names are different): string url = u.Action("Redirect", "DynamicPage", new RouteValueDictionary(new { resource = "Home" })); gives url which is null in RC2. It should be (and in fact in BETA was) "/my_app/Home" Why ? Is it a bug ? How can I create url for my "DynamicPage" controller ? Regards BTW: From where can I now download ASP.Mvc BETA version along with ASP.Net Web Pages 1.0 installers ? Since RC2 announcement I have problems finding mentioned 2 installers. Normally I would upgrade my code but this issue described above makes me stay with BETA for a while, since I have no time for migration and testing everything now.

    Read the article

  • How do I add a comment to an image using jQuery

    - by marcamillion
    So I am trying to replicate Facebook's picture tagging functionality, and I have the functionality that onClick, a box is created and there is a comment box. Now the issue is that I want to be able to (without doing any back-end processing) take the input from the input field and add it in some form to the underlying image area that they have selected. I would also like to add a small image to that area, that shows that a comment is there. How do I do that? See the code below for what I have for the comment box: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var tag_box = $("<div>").appendTo("body").css({ "width": "40px", "height":"40px", "border":"4px solid #000000", "position":"absolute", "display":"none", "padding":"15px" }); var comment_box = $("<form action='#'><input id='comment' type='text' name='comment' placeholder='Add comment'></form>").appendTo(tag_box).css({"position":"absolute"}); $("#image-wrapper").live('click', function(e){ tag_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 40, "top": e.pageY - 40, "display": "block" }) .after(comment_box.css({ "left": e.pageX - 65, "top": e.pageY + 40 })); }); }); </script> Now...whenever the user presses enter, the info in the comment box is appended to the URL like so: .html?comment=comment value# Thanks

    Read the article

  • nHibernate Mapping file

    - by bharat
    <property name="NetworkRunId" column="Network_Run_Id" /> <property name="StudyKey" column="Study_Key" insert="false" update="false" /> <property name="AnnualizationFactor" column="Annualization_Factor" /> <property name="CreateDate" column="Create_Date" /> <property name="ModifyDate" column="Modify_Date" /> <many-to-one name="StudyInfo" class="Study" lazy="false" cascade="save-update"> <column name="Study_Key" /> </many-to-one> <many-to-one name="MemberInfo" class="BusinessDataEntities.Domain.NetworkAdministration.VHAMemberCompany, BusinessDataEntities" lazy="false"> <column name="Member_ID" /> </many-to-one> <many-to-one name="NetworkRunStudyXrefInfo" class="BusinessDataEntities.Domain.NetworkAdministration.NetworkRunStudyXref, BusinessDataEntities" lazy="false"> <column name="Network_Run_Id" /> </many-to-one> <join table="[HCO_Spend_Network_Run_Study]"> <key column="HCO_Spend_Id" /> <property name="NetworkRunId" column="Network_Run_Id" insert="false" update="false"/> </join> issue with the Network run id not exist in the first table but i have a join that is having the Network_Run_Id as property how do i fix this

    Read the article

  • Query on object id in VQL

    - by Banang
    I'm currently working with the versant object database (using jvi), and have a case where I need to query the database based on an object id. What I'm trying to achieve is something along the lines of Employee employee = new Employee("Mr. Pickles"); session.commit(); FundVQLQuery q = new FundVQLQuery(session, "select * from Employee employee where employee = $1"); q.bind(employee); q.execute(); However, I'm finding out the hard way (I get an EVJ_NOT_A_VALID_KEY_TYPE error thrown at me) that this is infact not the way to do it. Anyone got any experience in working with VQL? Your help is much apreciated! A small clarification: The problem is I'm running some performance tests on the database using the pole position framework, and one of the tests in that framework requires me to fetch an object from the database using either an object reference or a low level object id. Thus, I'm not allowed to reference specific fields in the employee object, but must perform the query on the object in its entirety. So, it's not allowed for me to go "select * from Employee e where e.id = 4", I need it to use the entire object. Accepted answer: Since there is some sort of lunacy magic built into SO that prevents me to mark an accepted answer after a bounty has run out, readers should know that the answer posted by Chris Holmes solves this issue. Readers are encouraged to up-vote his post to further signalize the correctness of his answer to any future readers of this thread.

    Read the article

  • Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' when compiling web site

    - by ahsteele
    I have been using Windows 7 for a while but have not had to work with a particular legacy intranet application since my upgrade. Unfortunately, this application is setup as an ASP.NET Website project hosted on a remote server. When I have the website open in Visual Studio 2008 and try to debug it: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed To resolve this issue on Windows Vista machines I would change the machine's .NET Security Configuration to trust the local intranet. I believe this configuration utility relied upon the mscorcfg.msc which from some cursory research appears to be apart of the .NET 2.0 SDK. I have tried to follow the instructions from this Microsoft Support article running the command below to no avail. Drive:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\caspol.exe -m -ag 1 -url "file:////\\computername\sharename\*" FullTrust -exclusive on Presently, I have the following .NET and ASP.NET components installed on my machine Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 2.0 SP2 Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 3.5 Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Client Profile Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Extended Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Multi-Targeting Pack Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2008 Tools Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2010 Tools Do I need to install the .NET 2.0 SDK? Am I issuing the caspol command incorrectly? Is there something else that I am missing?

    Read the article

  • Grails UrlMappings with .html

    - by Glennn
    I'm developing a Grails web application (mainly as a learning exercise). I have previously written some standard Grails apps, but in this case I wanted to try creating a controller that would intercept all requests (including static html) of the form: <a href="/testApp/testJsp.jsp">test 1</a> <a href="/testApp/testGsp.gsp">test 2</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtm.htm">test 3</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtml.html">test 4</a> The intent is to do some simple business logic (auditing) each time a user clicks a link. I know I could do this using a Filter (or a range of other methods), however I thought this should work too and wanted to do this using a Grails framework. I set up the Grail UrlMappings.groovy file to map all URLs of that form (/$myPathParam?) to a single controller: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { } } "/$path?" (controller: 'auditRecord', action: 'showPage') "500"(view:'/error') } } In that controller (in the appropriate "showPage" action) I've been printing out the path information, for example: def showPage = { println "params.path = " + params.path ... render(view: resultingView) } The results of the println in the showPage action for each of my four links are testJsp.jsp testGsp.gsp testHtm.htm testHtml Why is the last one "testHtml", not "testHtml.html"? In a previous (Stack Overflow query) Olexandr encountered this issue and was advised to simply concatenate the value of request.format - which, indeed, does return "html". However request.format also returns "html" for all four links. I'm interested in gaining an understanding of what Grails is doing and why. Is there some way to configure Grails so the params.path variable in the controller shows "testHtml.html" rather than stripping off the "html" extension? It doesn't seem to remove the extension for any other file type (including .htm). Is there a good reason it's doing this? I know that it is a bit unusual to use a controller for static html, but still would like to understand what's going on.

    Read the article

  • Using libcurl to create a valid POST

    - by Haraldo
    static int get( const char * cURL, const char * cParam ) { CURL *handle; CURLcode result; std::string buffer; char errorBuffer[CURL_ERROR_SIZE]; //struct curl_slist *headers = NULL; //headers = curl_slist_append(headers, "Content-Type: Multipart/Related"); //headers = curl_slist_append(headers, "type: text/xml"); // Create our curl handle handle = curl_easy_init(); if( handle ) { curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_ERRORBUFFER, errorBuffer); //curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); //curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headers); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, cParam); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDSIZE, strlen(cParam)); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_WRITEFUNCTION, Request::writer); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_WRITEDATA, &buffer); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "libcurl-agent/1.0"); curl_easy_setopt(handle, CURLOPT_URL, cURL); result = curl_easy_perform(handle); curl_easy_cleanup(handle); } if( result == CURLE_OK ) { return atoi( buffer.c_str() ); } return 0; } Hi there, first of all I'm having trouble debugging this in visual studio express 2008 so I'm unsure what buffer.c_str() might actually be returning but I am outputting 1 or 0 to the web page being posted to. Therefore I'm expecting the buffer to be one or the other, however I seem to only be returning 0 or equivalent. Does the code above look like it will return what I expect or should my variable types be different? The conversion using "atoi" may be an issue. Any thought would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789  | Next Page >