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  • Calling javascript function from android webview?

    - by Edmond Tamas
    I try to call a javascript function from directly form my application (webview.apk), in order to start a script which would autoplay a html5 video clip, I have tried to add itt right after webview loadURL but wwithout luck. Maybe someone could take a look at the code. What am I missing? Thanks! package tscolari.mobile_sample; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.webkit.WebSettings; import android.webkit.WebView; import android.webkit.WebViewClient; import android.webkit.WebChromeClient; import android.media.MediaPlayer; public class InfoSpotActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); WebView mainWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.mainWebView); WebSettings webSettings = mainWebView.getSettings(); webSettings.setJavaScriptEnabled(true); mainWebView.setWebChromeClient(new WebChromeClient()); mainWebView.setWebViewClient(new MyCustomWebViewClient()); mainWebView.setScrollBarStyle(View.SCROLLBARS_INSIDE_OVERLAY); mainWebView.loadUrl("http://server.info-spot.net"); mainWebView.loadUrl("javascript:playVideo()"); } private class MyCustomWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } } }

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  • Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object?

    - by Bill
    I am programming in C#; the code was working about a week ago, however it throws an exception and I don't understand at all what could be wrong with it. Var root = new CalculationNode(); -> Throw exception. In the call stack thats the only thing listed, I've been told that it could be that I need a clean build, but I am open to any ideas or suggestions. Thanks, -Bill Update: Exception's Detail System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled by user code Message=Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object. Source=Calculator.Logic StackTrace: at ~.Calculator.Logic.MyBaseExpressionParser.Parse(String expression) in ~\Source\Calculator.Logic\MyBaseExpressionParser.cs:line 44 at ~.Calculator.Logic.Tests.MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.BasicMathDivision() in ~\Projects\Tests\Calculator.Logic.Tests\MyBaseCalculatorServiceTests.cs:line 60 InnerException: CalculationNode's code: public sealed calss CalculationNode { public CalculationNode() { this.Left = null; this.Right = null; this.Element = new CalculationElement(); } public CalculationNode Left {get;set;} public CalculationNode Right {get;set;} public CalculationElement Element {get; set;} } CalculationElement's code: public sealed class CalculationElement { public CalculationElement() { Value = string.Empty; IsOperator = false; } public string Value {get; set} public bool IsOperator {get; set} }

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  • How to make safe frequent DataSource switches for AbstractRoutingDataSource?

    - by serg555
    I implemented Dynamic DataSource Routing for Spring+Hibernate according to this article. I have several databases with same structure and I need to select which db will run each specific query. Everything works fine on localhost, but I am worrying about how this will hold up in real web site environment. They are using some static context holder to determine which datasource to use: public class CustomerContextHolder { private static final ThreadLocal<CustomerType> contextHolder = new ThreadLocal<CustomerType>(); public static void setCustomerType(CustomerType customerType) { Assert.notNull(customerType, "customerType cannot be null"); contextHolder.set(customerType); } public static CustomerType getCustomerType() { return (CustomerType) contextHolder.get(); } public static void clearCustomerType() { contextHolder.remove(); } } It is wrapped inside some ThreadLocal container, but what exactly does that mean? What will happen when two web requests call this piece of code in parallel: CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType(CustomerType.GOLD); //<another user will switch customer type here to CustomerType.SILVER in another request> List<Item> goldItems = catalog.getItems(); Is every web request wrapped into its own thread in Spring MVC? Will CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType() changes be visible to other web users? My controllers have synchronizeOnSession=true. How to make sure that nobody else will switch datasource until I run required query for current user? Thanks.

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  • Attaching an event to an Iframe that contains more iframes

    - by Oscar Godson
    I have an editor which is in my window that contains a wrapping iframe and then 2 more iframes inside like (the HTML inside the <iframe> element is inserted via write() in JS, not hardcoded like this): <iframe class="parent"> <div class="wrapper"> <iframe class="editor"></iframe> <iframe class="previewer"></iframe> </div> </iframe> One is an editor, the other is a previewer. The first one that contains the two (we'll call this the parent) has an eventListener for mousemove attached to it, but nothing is firing. If i add a 5px border for example, the event will fire when I move my mouse on the border of the parent, but not when i hover over the middle which contains the editor or previewer (previewer is display:none while the editor is visible, and vice versa). So, the blue area in the following i can mousemove, but the rest I can't. It's most likely because of the stacking order, but how can I attach an event to fire on the entire frame? I need mousemove because on mousemove I display a menu in the bottom right. I want the same menu to display whether or not the editor or the previewer is visible.

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  • Testing Broadcasting and receiving messages

    - by Avik
    Guys am having some difficulty figuring this out: I am trying to test whether the code(in c#) to broadcast a message and receiving the message works: The code to send the datagram(in this case its the hostname) is: public partial class Form1 : Form { String hostName; byte[] hostBuffer = new byte[1024]; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); StartNotification(); } public void StartNotification() { IPEndPoint notifyIP = new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Broadcast, 6000); hostName = Dns.GetHostName(); hostBuffer = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(hostName); UdpClient newUdpClient = new UdpClient(); newUdpClient.Send(hostBuffer, hostBuffer.Length, notifyIP); } } And the code to receive the datagram is: public partial class Form1 : Form { byte[] receivedNotification = new byte[1024]; String notificationReceived; StringBuilder listBox; UdpClient udpServer; IPEndPoint remoteEndPoint; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); udpServer = new UdpClient(new IPEndPoint(IPAddress.Any, 1234)); remoteEndPoint=null; startUdpListener1(); } public void startUdpListener1() { receivedNotification = udpServer.Receive(ref remoteEndPoint); notificationReceived = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(receivedNotification); listBox = new StringBuilder(this.listBox1.Text); listBox.AppendLine(notificationReceived); this.listBox1.Items.Add(listBox.ToString()); } } For the reception of the code I have a form that has only a listbox(listBox1). The problem here is that when i execute the code to receive, the program runs but the form isnt visible. However when I comment the function call( startUdpListener1() ), the purpose isnt served but the form is visible. Whats going wrong?

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  • Weird Qt SSL issue -- error "No Error" shows up, nothing else, and if I ignore it, everything works

    - by houbysoft
    The issue is as follows : in my Qt app, I have a QWebView, which I use to load a HTTPS page. Everything worked fine on my development machine, so I'm now trying to get it to run on a test machine. I ran the app, but the page didn't load (the QWebView was blank). After much debugging, I found the problem is that an SSL error shows up, and the sslErrors() signal is fired. Here is my sslErrors() handling code: void blah::sslErrors(QNetworkReply *reply, const QList<QSslError> &errors) { foreach(QSslError error, errors) { qDebug() << error.errorString() << endl; } reply->ignoreSslErrors(); } The only thing the above code prints is: "No error" So there's no error, but unless I call reply->ignoreSslErrors(), the page doesn't load (on the test machine, on my developer computer no error is reported). Huh? Is this a bug? Is it safe to ignore the error, if I make sure it's of the type "No error"?

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  • Selective JQuery validation

    - by TenaciousImpy
    Hi, I'm using JQuery Validation to validate a particular textbox in my form. The textbox is an optional website section, which uses the url validation method. This works fine and validates accordingly. I would like to have http:// preset into the textbox, to save the user having to type it. However, when the text is set, the validator becomes 'active', and prevents anything on the form being submitted until either the http:// is manually removed, or a valid website is entered. Is there a way of preseting text into the textbox, which won't cause the validator to start validating? I tried to use $("[id$='tbWebsite']").val("http://"); just before I call form.validate(), but it doesn't work (i.e. it still gets checked). I've never used JQuery Validator before, so hopefully there's a fix for this that I'm missing! An alternate solution for my case in particular, could be to activate the validator if a certain button is pressed (instead of any button on the form). Would that be possible? Thanks

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  • WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

    - by Neillyboy
    What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

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  • PHP Database connection practice

    - by Phill Pafford
    I have a script that connects to multiple databases (Oracle, MySQL and MSSQL), each database connection might not be used each time the script runs but all could be used in a single script execution. My question is, "Is it better to connect to all the databases once in the beginning of the script even though all the connections might not be used. Or is it better to connect to them as needed, the only catch is that I would need to have the connection call in a loop (so the database connection would be new for X amount of times in the loop). Yeah Example Code #1: // Connections at the beginning of the script $dbh_oracle = connect2db(); $dbh_mysql = connect2db(); $dbh_mssql = connect2db(); for ($i=1; $i<=5; $i++) { // NOTE: might not use all the connections $rs = queryDb($query,$dbh_*); // $dbh can be any of the 3 connections } Yeah Example Code #2: // Connections in the loop for ($i=1; $i<=5; $i++) { // NOTE: Would use all the connections but connecting multiple times $dbh_oracle = connect2db(); $dbh_mysql = connect2db(); $dbh_mssql = connect2db(); $rs_oracle = queryDb($query,$dbh_oracle); $rs_mysql = queryDb($query,$dbh_mysql); $rs_mssql = queryDb($query,$dbh_mssql); } now I know you could use a persistent connection but would that be one connection open for each database in the loop as well? Like mysql_pconnect(), mssql_pconnect() and adodb for Oracle persistent connection method. I know that persistent connection can also be resource hogs and as I'm looking for best performance/practice.

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  • Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

    - by Greg
    Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

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  • Avoiding Multiple Dialog Calls with htaccess

    - by Jeffrey J Weimer
    OK, I'm new to this, so pardon if the question is already a FAQ. Searching multiple places still leaves me dumbfounded. I have a Web site generated with iWeb09/Mac hosting on an ISP. To secure certain pages, I am trying to set up .htaccess + .htpasswd files. The basic directory structure is ... Main index.html Images.html Images (some css, js stuff) Media Image01 Image01.jpeg ... Image02 Image02.jpeg ... I want to password protect access to the Images directory and all the files therein. The index.html file has a link to the Images.html file that contains the layout for the files in the Images directory. I have put a basic .htaccess file at the Main level that restricts access via ... <Files "Images.html"> AuthType Basic AuthName "Images" AuthUserFile /Main/.htpasswd AuthGroupFile /dev/null Require valid-user </Files> I have then created a valid .htpasswd file. All works at the start, however after the first call to set up the Images.html page, the secure login prompt is displayed multiple times, presumably once for every sub-sub-directory Images/Media/ImageXX (with multiple sub-directories, I just give up after two or three times). I have also tried placing the .htaccess file inside the Images directory with the same problem. Recommendations I have seen suggest a better convention is needed in the basic .htaccess file itself. Alternatively, perhaps a companion .htaccess is needed in the Images directory. So, how do I fix this problem? -- JJW

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  • Access 2007 DAO VBA Error 3381 causes objects in calling methods to "break".

    - by MT
    ---AFTER FURTHER INVESTIGATION--- "tblABC" in the below example must be a linked table (to another Access database). If "tblABC" is in the same database as the code then the problem does not occur. Hi, We have recently upgraded to Office 2007. We have a method in which we have an open recordset (DAO). We then call another sub (UpdatingSub below) that executes SQL. This method has its own error handler. If error 3381 is encountered then the recordset in the calling method becomes "unset" and we get error 3420 'Object invalid or no longer set'. Other errors in UpdatingSub do not cause the same problem. This code works fine in Access 2003. Private Sub Whatonearth() Dim rs As dao.Recordset set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("tblLinkedABC") Debug.Print rs.RecordCount UpdatingSub "ALTER TABLE tblTest DROP Column ColumnNotThere" 'Error 3240 occurs on the below line even though err 3381 is trapped in the calling procedure 'This appears to be because error 3381 is encountered when calling UpdatingSub above Debug.Print rs.RecordCount End Sub Private Sub WhatonearthThatWorks() Dim rs As dao.Recordset set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("tblLinkedABC") Debug.Print rs.RecordCount 'Change the update to generate a different error UpdatingSub "NONSENSE SQL STATEMENT" 'Error is trapped in UpdatingSub. Next line works fine. Debug.Print rs.RecordCount End Sub Private Sub UpdatingSub(strSQL As String) On Error GoTo ErrHandler: CurrentDb.Execute strSQL ErrHandler: 'LogError' End Sub Any thoughts? We are running Office Access 2007 (12.0.6211.1000) SP1 MSO (12.0.6425.1000). Perhaps see if SP2 can be distributed? Sorry about formatting - not sure how to fix that.

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • How to tell which dataform button ended edit when using EventToCommand

    - by Rodd
    I'm new to SilverLight and Mvvm-Light. I have a DataForm on my view that displays/edits a SelectedPerson property (a Person object) of my view model. I want to execute a command on my viewmodel when the user clicks the Save button but don't want to take action if the user clicks cancel. I added the following to my ViewModel: public RelayCommand PersonEditEnded {get; set;} ... public void Initialize() { PersonEditEnded = new RelayCommand(DoSomething); ... } public void DoSomething() { } I added the following to my View: <toolkit:DataForm x:Name="PersonForm" ... CurrentItem="{Binding SelectedPerson, Mode=TwoWay}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="EditEnded"> <gs:EventToCommand Command="{Binding PersonEditEnded, Mode=OneWay}"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </toolkit:DataForm> This works and the DoSomething method is being called when the user presses Submit. However, DoSomething is also called when user presses Cancel. Is there a way to know which button was pressed or to supress the call when Cancel is pressed? Thanks for whatever help you can offer!

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  • In Ruby, why does a method invocation not be able to be treated as a unit when "do" and "end" is use

    - by Jian Lin
    The following question is related to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2127836/ruby-print-inject-do-syntax The question is, can we insist on using DO and END and make it work with puts or p? This works: a = [1,2,3,4] b = a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end puts b # prints out 10 so, is it correct to say, inject is a class method of the Array class, which takes a block of code, and then returns a number. If so, then it should be no different from calling a function and getting back a return value: b = foo(3) puts b or b = circle.getRadius() puts b In the above two cases, we can directly say puts foo(3) puts circle.getRadius() so, there is no way to make it work directly by using the following 2 ways: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end but it gives ch01q2.rb:7:in `inject': no block given (LocalJumpError) from ch01q2.rb:4:in `each' from ch01q2.rb:4:in `inject' from ch01q2.rb:4 grouping the method call using ( ) doesn't work either: a = [1,2,3,4] puts (a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end) and this gives: ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected kDO_BLOCK, expecting ')' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected '|', expecting '=' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:6: syntax error, unexpected kEND, expecting $end end) ^ finally, the following version works: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject { |sum, x| sum + x } but why doesn't the grouping of the method invocation using ( ) work? What if a programmer insists that he uses do and end, can it be made to work directly with p or puts, without an extra temporary variable?

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  • Inheritance issue with ivar on the iPhone

    - by Buffalo
    I am using the BLIP/MYNetwork library to establish a basic tcp socket connection between the iPhone and my computer. So far, the code builds and runs correctly in simulator but deploying to device yields the following error: error: property 'delegate' attempting to use ivar '_delegate' declared in super class of 'TCPConnection' @interface TCPConnection : TCPEndpoint { @private TCPListener *_server; IPAddress *_address; BOOL _isIncoming, _checkedPeerCert; TCPConnectionStatus _status; TCPReader *_reader; TCPWriter *_writer; NSError *_error; NSTimeInterval _openTimeout; } /** The delegate object that will be called when the connection opens, closes or receives messages. */ @property (assign) id<TCPConnectionDelegate> delegate; /** The delegate messages sent by TCPConnection. All methods are optional. */ @protocol TCPConnectionDelegate <NSObject> @optional /** Called after the connection successfully opens. */ - (void) connectionDidOpen: (TCPConnection*)connection; /** Called after the connection fails to open due to an error. */ - (void) connection: (TCPConnection*)connection failedToOpen: (NSError*)error; /** Called when the identity of the peer is known, if using an SSL connection and the SSL settings say to check the peer's certificate. This happens, if at all, after the -connectionDidOpen: call. */ - (BOOL) connection: (TCPConnection*)connection authorizeSSLPeer: (SecCertificateRef)peerCert; /** Called after the connection closes. You can check the connection's error property to see if it was normal or abnormal. */ - (void) connectionDidClose: (TCPConnection*)connection; @end @interface TCPEndpoint : NSObject { NSMutableDictionary *_sslProperties; id _delegate; } - (void) tellDelegate: (SEL)selector withObject: (id)param; @end Does anyone know how I would fix this? Would I simply declare _delegate as a public property of the base class "TCPEndPoint"? Thanks for the help ya'll!

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  • backbone.js removing template from DOM upon success

    - by timpone
    I'm writing a simple message board app to learn backbone. It's going ok (a lot of the use of this isn't making sense) but am a little stuck in terms of how I would remove a form / html from the dom. I have included most of the code but you can see about 4 lines up from the bottom, the part that isn't working. How would I remove this from the DOM? thx in advance var MbForm=Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click button.add-new-post': 'savePost' }, el: $('#detail'), template:_.template($('#post-add-edit-tmpl').html()), render: function(){ var compiled_template = this.template(); this.$el.html(compiled_template); return this; }, savePost: function(e){ //var self=this; //console.log("I want you to say Hello!"); data={ header: $('#post_header').val(), detail: $('#post_detail').val(), forum_id: $('#forum_id').val(), post_id: $('#post_id').val(), parent_id: $('#parent_id').val() }; this.model.save(data, { success: function(){ alert('this saved'); //$(this.el).html('this is what i want'); this.$el.remove();// <- this is the part that isn't working /* none of these worked - error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot call method 'unbind' of undefined this.$el.unbind(); this.$el.empty(); this.el.unbind(); this.el.empty(); */ //this.unbind(); //self.append('this is appended'); } });

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  • Fun with "The remote server returned an error: NotFound" - Silverlight4 Out of Browser

    - by Scott Silvi
    Hey all - I'm running SL4 on VS2010. I've got an app that authenticates via a web service to SPROC in my db. Unfortunately this is not WCF/WCF RIA, as I'm inheriting the DB/services from my client. This works perfectly inside of a browser. I'm attempting to move this OOB, and it's at this point that my authentication fails. Here's the steps I took... 1) SL App Properties Enable running app Out of Browser 2) SL App Properties Out of Browser Settings Require elevated trust when running OOB If i set a breakpoint on my logon button click, I see the service call is being made. However, if I step through it (or set a breakpoint on the actual logon web service), the code never gets that far. Here's the block it fails on: public LogonSVC.LogonResponse EndLogon(System.IAsyncResult result) { object[] _args = new object[0]; LogonSVC.LogonResponse _result = ((LogonSVC.LogonResponse)(base.EndInvoke("Logon", _args, result))); return _result; } I know using Elevated Trust means the crossdomain.xml isn't necessary. I dropped one in that allows everything, just to test, and that still fails. here's the code that calls the service: private void loginButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string Username = txtUserName.Text; string Password = txtPassword.Password; Uri iSilverlightServiceUriRelative = new Uri(App.Current.Host.Source, "../Services/Logon.asmx"); EndpointAddress iSilverlightServiceEndpoint = new EndpointAddress(iSilverlightServiceUriRelative); BasicHttpBinding iSilverlightServiceBinding = new BasicHttpBinding(BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport);// Transport if it's HTTPS:// LogonService = new LogonSVC.LogonSoapClient(iSilverlightServiceBinding, iSilverlightServiceEndpoint); LogonService.LogonCompleted += new EventHandler<LogonSVC.LogonCompletedEventArgs>(LogonService_LogonCompleted); LogonService.LogonAsync(Username, Password); } My LogonService_LogonCompleted doesn't fire either (which makes sense, just a heads up). I don't know how to fiddler this, as this is running OOB with the site served via localhost/IIS. I know this works though in browser, so I'm curious what would break it OOB. Thank you, Scott

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  • Managing logs/warnings in Python extensions

    - by Dimitri Tcaciuc
    TL;DR version: What do you use for configurable (and preferably captured) logging inside your C++ bits in a Python project? Details follow. Say you have a a few compiled .so modules that may need to do some error checking and warn user of (partially) incorrect data. Currently I'm having a pretty simplistic setup where I'm using logging framework from Python code and log4cxx library from C/C++. log4cxx log level is defined in a file (log4cxx.properties) and is currently fixed and I'm thinking how to make it more flexible. Couple of choices that I see: One way to control it would be to have a module-wide configuration call. # foo/__init__.py import sys from _foo import import bar, baz, configure_log configure_log(sys.stdout, WARNING) # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): # Maybe a custom context to change the logfile for # the module and restore it at the end. with CaptureLog(foo) as log: assert foo.bar() == 5 assert log.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Have every compiled function that does logging accept optional log parameters. # foo.c int bar(PyObject* x, PyObject* logfile, PyObject* loglevel) { LoggerPtr logger = default_logger("foo"); if (logfile != Py_None) logger = file_logger(logfile, loglevel); ... } # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): with TemporaryFile() as logfile: assert foo.bar(logfile=logfile, loglevel=DEBUG) == 5 assert logfile.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Some other way? Second one seems to be somewhat cleaner, but it requires function signature alteration (or using kwargs and parsing them). First one is.. probably somewhat awkward but sets up entire module in one go and removes logic from each individual function. What are your thoughts on this? I'm all ears to alternative solutions as well. Thanks,

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  • Caching issue with javascript and asp.net

    - by Ed Woodcock
    Hi guys: I asked a question a while back on here regarding caching data for a calendar/scheduling web app, and got some good responses. However, I have now decided to change my approach and stat caching the data in javascript. I am directly caching the HTML for each day's column in the calendar grid inside the $('body').data() object, which gives very fast page load times (almost unnoticable). However, problems start to arise when the user requests data that is not yet in the cache. This data is created by the server using an ajax call, so it's asynchronous, and takes about 0.2s per week's data. My current approach is simply to block for 0.5s when the user requests information from the server, and cache 4 weeks either side in the inital page load (and 1 extra week per page change request), however I doubt this is the optimal method. Does anyone have a suggestion as to how to improve the situation? To summarise: Each week takes 0.2s to retrieve from the server, asynchronously. Performance must be as close to real-time as possible. (however the data is not needed to be fully real-time: most appointments are added by the user and so we can re-cache after this) Currently 4 weeks are cached on either side of the inial week loaded: this is not enough. to cache 1 year takes ~ 21s, this is too slow for an initial load.

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  • Javascript: prototypeal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function?

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  • Problem loading scripts from Ajax Response

    - by konathamrajesh
    The problem is I am using get_info() to make a ajax call to Result.lasso and paste the response in div with id 'test'.I am unable to use the sendForm() function from the page where i am calling the get_info(). I have also tried using different versions of jQuery 1.1.1.3 is working fine.But i am facing the problem while using higher versions of jquery. The error with higher versions is as follows missing } in XML expression [Break on this error] alert('hi');\n test.lasso (line 3) sendForm is not defined [Break on this error] sendForm(); get_info() function definition <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.2.6/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <SCRIPT> function get_info() { $.ajax({url: "Result.lasso", context: document.body, success: function(response){ document.getElementById('test').innerHTML = response ;},dataType:"script"}); } </SCRIPT> The code in Result.lasso is as follows [Content_Type: 'text/html; charset=UTF-8'] <script type="text/javascript"> function sendForm() { alert('hi'); } </script> [Date] form name= "abc" method = "get" action = "abcd.lasso"> input type ="text" name = "element1"/> input type = "button" value="Click" onClick = "javascript: sendForm();"/> </form> Please help me out in resolving this problem Thanks, Rajesh Konatham

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  • postgres stored procedure problem

    - by easyrider
    Hi all, Ich have a problem in postgres function: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION getVar(id bigint) RETURNS TABLE (repoid bigint, suf VARCHAR, nam VARCHAR) AS $$ declare rec record; BEGIN FOR rec IN (WITH RECURSIVE children(repoobjectid,variant_of_object_fk, suffix, variantname) AS ( SELECT repoobjectid, variant_of_object_fk, '' as suffix,variantname FROM b2m.repoobject_tab WHERE repoobjectid = id UNION ALL SELECT repo.repoobjectid, repo.variant_of_object_fk, suffix || '..' , repo.variantname FROM b2m.repoobject_tab repo, children WHERE children.repoobjectid = repo.variant_of_object_fk) SELECT repoobjectid,suffix,variantname FROM children) LOOP RETURN next; END LOOP; RETURN; END; It can be compiled, but if y try to call it select * from getVar(18) I got 8 empty rows with 3 columns. If i execute the following part of procedure with hard-coded id parameter: WITH RECURSIVE children(repoobjectid,variant_of_object_fk, suffix, variantname) AS ( SELECT repoobjectid, variant_of_object_fk, '' as suffix,variantname FROM b2m.repoobject_tab WHERE repoobjectid = 18 UNION ALL SELECT repo.repoobjectid, repo.variant_of_object_fk, suffix || '..' , repo.variantname FROM b2m.repoobject_tab repo, children WHERE children.repoobjectid = repo.variant_of_object_fk) SELECT repoobjectid,suffix,variantname FROM children I got exactly, what i need 8 rows with data: repoobjectid suffix variantname 18 19 .. for IPhone 22 .. for Nokia 23 .... OS 1.0 and so on. What is going wrong ? Please help. Thanx in advance

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  • implement SIMD in C++

    - by Hristo
    I'm working on a bit of code and I'm trying to optimize it as much as possible, basically get it running under a certain time limit. The following makes the call... static affinity_partitioner ap; parallel_for(blocked_range<size_t>(0, T), LoopBody(score), ap); ... and the following is what is executed. void operator()(const blocked_range<size_t> &r) const { int temp; int i; int j; size_t k; size_t begin = r.begin(); size_t end = r.end(); for(k = begin; k != end; ++k) { // for each trainee temp = 0; for(i = 0; i < N; ++i) { // for each sample int trr = trRating[k][i]; int ei = E[i]; for(j = 0; j < ei; ++j) { // for each expert temp += delta(i, trr, exRating[j][i]); } } myscore[k] = temp; } } I'm using Intel's TBB to optimize this. But I've also been reading about SIMD and SSE2 and things along that nature. So my question is, how do I store the variables (i,j,k) in registers so that they can be accessed faster by the CPU? I think the answer has to do with implementing SSE2 or some variation of it, but I have no idea how to do that. Any ideas? Thanks, Hristo

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  • How to pass dynamic parameters to .pde file

    - by Kalpana
    class Shape contains two methods drawCircle() and drawTriangle(). Each function takes different set of arguments. At present, I invoke this by calling the pde file directly. How to pass these arguments from a HTML file directly if I have to control the arguments being passed to the draw function? 1) Example.html has (current version) <script src="processing-1.0.0.min.js"></script> <canvas data-processing-sources="example.pde"></canvas> 2) Example.pde has class Shape { void drawCircle(intx, int y, int radius) { ellipse(x, y, radius, radius); } void drawTriangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2, int x3, int y3) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2, x3, y3); } } Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 40, 70); I am looking to do something like this in my HTML file, so that I can move all the functions into a separate file and call them with different arguments to draw different shapes (much similar to how you would do it in Java) A.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawCircle(10, 10, 3); </script> B.html <script> Shape shape = new Shape(); shape.drawTriangle(30, 75, 58, 20, 86, 75); </script> 2) Iam using Example2.pde has void setup() { size(200,200); background(125); fill(255); } void rectangle(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { rect(x1, y1, x2, y2); } My Example2.html has var processingInstance; processingInstance.rectangle(30, 20, 55, 55); but this is not working. How to pass these parameters dynamically from html.

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