Search Results

Search found 23968 results on 959 pages for 'tail call'.

Page 781/959 | < Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >

  • Blackberry application works in simulator but not device

    - by Kai
    I read some of the similar posts on this site that deal with what seems to be the same issue and the responses didn't really seem to clarify things for me. My application works fine in the simulator. I believe I'm on Bold 9000 with OS 4.6. The app is signed. My app makes an HTTP call via 3G to fetch an XML result. type is application/xhtml+xml. In the device, it gives no error. it makes no visual sign of error. I tell the try catch to print the results to the screen and I get nothing. HttpConnection was taken right out of the demos and works fine in sim. Since it gives no error, I begin to reflect back on things I recall reading back when the project began. deviceside=true? Something like that? My request is simply HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(url); where url is just a standard url, no get vars. Based on the amount of time I see the connection arrows in the corner of the screen, I assume the app is launching the initial communication to my server, then either getting a bad result, or it gets results and the persistent store is not functioning as expected. I have no idea where to begin with this. Posting code would be ridiculous since it would be basically my whole app. I guess my question is if anyone knows of any major differences with device versus simulator that could cause something like http connection or persistent store to fail? A build setting? An OS restriction? Any standard procedure I may have just not known about that everyone should do before beginning device testing? Thanks

    Read the article

  • WCF service consuming passively issued SAML token

    - by Neillyboy
    What is the best way to pass an existing SAML token from a website already authenticated via a passive STS? We have built an Identity Provider which is issuing passive claims to the website for authentication. We have this working. Now we would like to add some WCF services into the mix - calling them from the context of the already authenticated web application. Ideally we would just like to pass the SAML token on without doing anything to it (i.e. adding new claims / re-signing). All of the examples I have seen require the ActAs sts implementation - but is this really necessary? This seems a bit bloated for what we want to achieve. I would have thought a simple implementation passing the bootstrap token into the channel - using the CreateChannelActingAs or CreateChannelWithIssuedToken mechanism (and setting ChannelFactory.Credentials.SupportInteractive = false) to call the WCF service with the correct binding (what would that be?) would have been enough. We are using the Fabrikam example code as reference, but as I say, think the ActAs functionality here is overkill for what we are trying to achieve.

    Read the article

  • How can I work around WinXP using ports 1025-5000 as ephemeral?

    - by Chris Dolan
    If you create a TCP client socket with port 0 instead of a non-zero port, then the operating system chooses any free ephemeral port for you. Most OSes choose ephemeral ports from the IANA dynamic port range of 49152-65535. However in Windows Server 2003 and earlier (including XP) Microsoft used ports 1025-5000 as the ephemeral range, according to their bind() documentation. I run multiple Java services on the same hardware. On rare occasions, this range collides with well-known ports that I use for other services (e.g. port 4160 for Jini discovery). While rare, this has caused real problems. Is there any easy way to tell Windows or Java to use a different port range for client sockets? Microsoft's docs indicate that I can change the high end of that range via the MaxUserPort TcpIP registry setting, but I see no way to change the low end. Update: I've made some progress on this. It looks like Microsoft has a concept of reserved ports that are exceptions to the ephemeral port range. There's a registry setting that lets you change this permanently and apparently there must be an API to do the same thing because there's a data structure that holds high/low values for reserved port ranges, but I can't find the actual function call anywhere... The registry solution may work, but now I'm fixated on this API.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Default Button after dispose and setVisible

    - by DaDaDom
    Hi, given the following code: public class DialogTest implements ActionListener { public static void main(String[] args) {DialogTest g = new DialogTest();} public DialogTest() { JButton b1 = new JButton("Button A"); b1.addActionListener(this); JDialog d = new JDialog(); d.setDefaultCloseOperation(JDialog.DISPOSE_ON_CLOSE); JPanel p = new JPanel(); p.add(b1); d.add(p); d.getRootPane().setDefaultButton(b1); d.pack(); d.setVisible(true); d.dispose(); d.pack(); d.setVisible(true); } public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) {System.out.println("hello");} } Shouldn't pressing the Enter key write something to the console? According to the docs (http://java.sun.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/awt/Window.html#dispose()): The Window and its subcomponents can be made displayable again by rebuilding the native resources with a subsequent call to pack or show. The states of the recreated Window and its subcomponents will be identical to the states of these objects at the point where the Window was disposed Is this intended behaviour?

    Read the article

  • UML Modelling in C++Builder 2010 Professional

    - by Gordon Brandly
    I'd like to do some basic class diagram UML models in the Pro version of C++Builder 2010. Embarcadero has a C++Builder Features Matrix document, one line of which says "UML Code Visualization – at any time, get a UML model view of your source code" and has a check in the "Professional" column of that table -- I assume this means it should be available to me. Yet, when I open an existing project and do a View | Model View, there's nothing in the Model View window. The only diagram I can find is on the Graph tab of the C++ Class Explorer. I wouldn't call that a UML diagram myself -- is that what Embarcadero is referring to? Embarcadero's table shows that many UML diagrams are not available in Pro, but it looks to me like Class Diagrams should be available. Other lines in that same table indicate that both "Full two-way class diagrams with synchronization between code and diagrams" and "Diagram hyper-linking and annotations" are also supposed to be available in Pro. The Class Explorer graph is one-way only as far as I can tell, so I hope they're referring to something else I haven't been able to find so far. Thanks for any insight into this.

    Read the article

  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

    Read the article

  • Why is my UIWebView not scrollable?

    - by Thomas
    In my most frustrating roadblock to date, I've come across a UIWebView that will NOT scroll! I call it via this IBAction: -(IBAction)session2ButtonPressed:(id)sender { Session2ViewController *session2View = [[Session2ViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"Session2ViewController" bundle:nil]; self.addictionViewController = session2View; [self.view insertSubview:addictionViewController.view atIndex:[self.view.subviews count]]; [session2View release]; } In the viewDidLoad of Session2ViewController.m, I have - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // TRP - Grab data from plist // TRP - Build file path to the plist NSString *filePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Addiction" ofType:@"plist"]; // TRP - Create NSDictionary with contents of the plist NSDictionary *addictionDict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:filePath]; // TRP - Create an array with contents of the dictionary NSArray *addictionData = [addictionDict objectForKey:@"Addiction1"]; NSLog(@"addictionData (array): %@", addictionData); // TRP - Create a string with the contents of the array NSString *addictionText = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"<DIV style='font-family:%@;font-size:%d;'>%@</DIV>", @"Helvetica", 18, [addictionData objectAtIndex:1]]; addictionInfo.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; // TRP - Load the string created and stored into addictionText and display in the UIWebView [addictionInfo loadHTMLString:addictionText baseURL:nil]; // TODO: MAKE THIS WEBVIEW SCROLL!!!!!! } In the nib, I connected my web view to the delegate and to the outlet. When I run my main project, the plist with my HTML code shows up, but does not scroll. I copied and pasted this code into a new project, wired the nib the exact same way, and badda-boom badda-bing. . . it works. I even tried to create a new nib from scratch in this project, and the exact same code would not work. Whiskey Tango Foxtrot Any ideas?? Thanks! Thomas

    Read the article

  • Memory Leak Looping cfmodule inside cffunction

    - by orangepips
    Hoping someone else can confirm or tell me what I'm doing wrong. I am able to consistently reproduce an OOM running by calling the file oom.cfm (shown below). Using jconsole I am able to see the request consumes memory and never releases it until complete. The issue appears to be calling <cfmodule> inside of <cffunction>, where if I comment out the <cfmodule> call things are garbage collected while the request is running. ColdFusion version: 9,0,1,274733 JVM Arguments java.home=C:/Program Files/Java/jdk1.6.0_18 java.args=-server -Xms768m -Xmx768m -Dsun.io.useCanonCaches=false -XX:MaxPermSize=512m -XX:+UseParallelGC -Xbatch -Dcoldfusion.rootDir={application.home}/ -Djava.security.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/coldfusion.policy -Djava.security.auth.policy={application.home}/servers/41ep8/cfusion.ear/cfusion.war/WEB-INF/cfusion/lib/neo_jaas.policy -Xdebug -Xrunjdwp:transport=dt_socket,server=y,suspend=n,address=56033 Test Case oom.cfm (this calls template.cfm below) <cffunction name="fun" output="false" access="public" returntype="any" hint=""> <cfset var local = structNew()/> <!--- comment out cfmodule and no OOM ---> <cfmodule template="template.cfm"> </cffunction> <cfset size = 1000 * 200> <cfloop from="1" to="#size#" index="idx"> <cfset fun()> <cfif NOT idx mod 1000> <cflog file="se-err" text="#idx# of #size#"> </cfif> </cfloop> template.cfm <!--- I am empty! --->

    Read the article

  • Java Reflection, java.lang.IllegalAccessException Error

    - by rubby
    Hi all, My goal is : Third class will read the name of the class as String from console.Upon reading the name of the class, it will automatically and dynamically (!) generate that class and call its writeout method. If that class is not read from input, it will not be initialized. And I am taking java.lang.IllegalAccessException: Class deneme.class3 can not access a member of class java.lang.Object with modifiers "protected" error. And i don't know how i can fix it.. Can anyone help me? import java.io.*; import java.lang.reflect.*; class class3 { public void run() { try { BufferedReader reader= new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(System.in)); String line=reader.readLine(); Class c1 = Class.forName("java.lang.String"); Object obj = new Object(); Class c2 = obj.getClass(); Method writeout = null; for( Method mth : c2.getDeclaredMethods() ) { writeout = mth; break; } Object o = c2.newInstance(); writeout.invoke( o ); } catch(Exception ee) { System.out.println("ERROR! "+ee); } } public void writeout3() { System.out.println("class3"); } } class class4 { public void writeout4() { System.out.println("class4"); } } class ornek { public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println("Please Enter Name of Class : "); class3 example = new class3(); example.run(); } }

    Read the article

  • Calling services from the Orchestrating layer in SOA?

    - by Martin Lee
    The Service Oriented Architecture Principles site says that Service Composition is an important thing in SOA. But Service Loose Coupling is important as well. Does that mean that the "Orchestrating layer" should be the only one that is allowed to make calls to services in the system? As I understand SOA, the "Orchestrating layer" 'glues' all the services together into one software application. I tried to depict that on Fig.A and Fig.B. The difference between the two is that on Fig.A the application is composed of services and all the logic is done in the "Orchestrating layer" (all calls to services are done from the "Orchestrating layer" only). On Fig.B the application is composed from services, but one service calls another service. Does the architecture on Fig.B violate the "Service Loose Coupling" principle of SOA? Can a service call another service in SOA? And more generally, can the architecture on Fig.A be considered superior to the one on Fig.B in terms of service loose coupling, abstraction, reusability, autonomy, etc.? My guess is that the A architecture is much more universal, but it can add some unnecessary data transfers between the "Orchestrating layer" and all the called services.

    Read the article

  • pthread condition variables on Linux, odd behaviour.

    - by janesconference
    Hi. I'm synchronizing reader and writer processes on Linux. I have 0 or more process (the readers) that need to sleep until they are woken up, read a resource, go back to sleep and so on. Please note I don't know how many reader processes are up at any moment. I have one process (the writer) that writes on a resource, wakes up the readers and does its business until another resource is ready (in detail, I developed a no starve reader-writers solution, but that's not important). To implement the sleep / wake up mechanism I use a Posix condition value, pthread_cond_t. The clients call a pthread_cond_wait() on the variable to sleep, while the server does a pthread_cond_broadcast() to wake them all up. As the manual says, I surround these two calls with a lock/unlock of the associated pthread mutex. The condition variable and the mutex are initialized in the server and shared between processes through a shared memory area (because I'm not working with threads, but with separate processes) an I'm sure my kernel / syscall support it (because I checked _POSIX_THREAD_PROCESS_SHARED). What happens is that the first client process sleeps and wakes up perfectly. When I start the second process, it blocks on its pthread_cond_wait() and never wakes up, even if I'm sure (by the logs) that pthread_cond_broadcast() is called. If I kill the first process, and launch another one, it works perfectly. In other words, the condition variable pthread_cond_broadcast() seems to wake up only one process a time. If more than one process wait on the very same shared condition variable, only the first one manages to wake up correctly, while the others just seem to ignore the broadcast. Why this behaviour? If I send a pthread_cond_broadcast(), every waiting process should wake up, not just one (and, however, not always the same one).

    Read the article

  • A little confusion about AJAX and inserting into DOM..

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. THanks!!

    Read the article

  • How can I map stored procedure result into a custom class with linq-to-sql?

    - by Remnant
    I have a stored procedure that returns a result set (4 columns x n Rows). The data is based on multiple tables within my database and provides a summary for each department within a corporate. Here is sample: usp_GetDepartmentSummary DeptName EmployeeCount Male Female HR 12 5 7 etc... I am using linq-to-sql to retrieve data from my database (nb - have to use sproc as it is something I have inherited). I would like to call the above sproc and map into a department class: public class Department { public string DeptName {get; set;} public int EmployeeCount {get; set;} public int MaleCount {get; set;} public int FemaleCount {get; set;} } In VS2008, I can drag and drop my sproc onto the methods pane of the linq-to-sql designer. When I examine the designer.cs the return type for this sproc is defined as: ISingleResult<usp_GetDepartmentSummaryResult> What I would like to do is amend this somehow so that it returns a Department type so that I can pass the results of the sproc as a strongly typed view: <% foreach (var dept in Model) { %> <ul> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.DeptName %></li> <li class="deptname"><%= dept.EmployeeCount %></li> etc... Any ideas how to achieve this? NB - I have tried amending the designer.cs and dbml xml file directly but with limited success. I admit to being a little out of my depth when it comes to updating those files directly and I am not sure it is best practice? Would be good to get some diretion. Thanks much

    Read the article

  • How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

    - by Manas Saha
    Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

    Read the article

  • Login problem with php

    - by shinod
    I want to prevent multiple log in with same log in credentials simultaneously. So I made a column login_status and set it to 1 when some one logging in and change to 0 when logging out besides I set session after successful logged in. If user won't click on log out(in case of user close tab or because of some network problem) it doesn't update database and then one can't use that log in credentials again. So I use a ajax call to set current time stamp in database with related log in credentials and it is updated in each 2 minutes if user not navigate from that page. Then if some one attempts to log in with same log in credentials, it will check these time stamp if column login_status is 1, then if the time stamp is older than 3 minutes it allows the log in.Then it solving that problem. But the new problem is if user closes the tab or browser window and after 3 minutes one can log in with same log in credentials from somewhere and if the previous user open that page automatically it will log in as session is already set. How can I prevent this.

    Read the article

  • How can I display multiple django modelformset forms together?

    - by JT
    I have a problem with needing to provide multiple model backed forms on the same page. I understand how to do this with single forms, i.e. just create both the forms call them something different then use the appropriate names in the template. Now how exactly do you expand that solution to work with modelformsets? The wrinkle, of course, is that each 'form' must be rendered together in the appropriate fieldset. For example I want my template to produce something like this: <fieldset> <label for="id_base-0-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-0-desc" type="text" name="base-0-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-0-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-0-icecream" id="id_likes-0-icecream" /> </fieldset> <fieldset> <label for="id_base-1-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-1-desc" type="text" name="base-1-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-1-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-1-icecream" id="id_likes-1-icecream" /> </fieldset> I am using a loop like this to process the results for base_form, likes_form in map(None, base_forms, likes_forms): which works as I'd expect (I'm using map because the # of forms can be different). The problem is that I can't figure out a way to do the same thing with the templating engine. The system does work if I layout all the base models together then all the likes models after wards, but it doesn't meet the layout requirements.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Response Filter to Reformat the rendered output of ASPX pages?

    - by PropellerHead
    I've created a simple HttpModule and response stream to reformat the rendered output of web pages (see code snippets below). In the HttpModule I set the Response.Filter to my PageStream: m_Application.Context.Response.Filter = new PageStream(m_Application.Context); In the PageStream I overwrite the Write method in order to do my reformatting of the rendered output: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { string html = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer); //Do some string resplace operations here... byte[] input = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(html); m_DefaultStream.Write(input, 0, input.Length); } And this work fine when using it on simple HTML pages (.html), but when I use this method on ASPX pages (.aspx), the Write method is called several times, splitting up the reformatting into different steps, and potentially destroying the string replacement operations. How do I solve this? Is there a way to let the ASPX page NOT call Write several times, e.g. by changing its buffer size, or have I chosen the wrong approach entirely, by using this Response.Filter method to manipulate the rendered output?

    Read the article

  • how to intercept processing when Session.IsNewSession is true

    - by Cen
    I have a small 4-page application for my customers to work through. They fill out information. If they let it sit too long, and the Session timeout out, I want to pop up a javascript alert that their session has expired, and that they need to start over. At that point, then redirected to the beginning page of the application. I'm getting some strange behavior. I'm stepping through code, forcing my Sessioni.IsNewSession to be true. At this point, I write out a call to Javascript to a Literal Control placed at the bottom of the . The javascript is called, and the redirection occurs. However, what is happening is.. I am pressing a button which is more or less a "Next Page" button and triggering this code. The next page is being displayed, and then the Alert and redirection occurs. The result I was expecting was to stay on the same page I received the "Timeout", with the alert to pop-up over it, then redirection. I'm checking for Session.IsNewSession in a BaseClass for these pages, overriding the OnInit event. Any ideas why I am getting this behavior? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Using Sphinx with a distutils-built C extension

    - by detly
    I have written a Python module including a submodule written in C: the module itself is called foo and the C part is foo._bar. The structure looks like: src/ foo/__init__.py <- contains the public stuff foo/_bar/bar.c <- the C extension doc/ <- Sphinx configuration conf.py ... foo/__init__.py imports _bar to augment it, and the useful stuff is exposed in the foo module. This works fine when it's built, but obviously won't work in uncompiled form, since _bar doesn't exist until it's built. I'd like to use Sphinx to document the project, and use the autodoc extension on the foo module. This means I need to build the project before I can build the documentation. Since I build with distutils, the built module ends up in some variably named dir build/lib.linux-ARCH-PYVERSION — which means I can't just hard-code the directory into a Sphinx' conf.py. So how do I configure my distutils setup.py script to run the Sphinx builder over the built module? For completeness, here's the call to setup (the 'fake' things are custom builders that subclass build and build_ext): setup(cmdclass = { 'fake': fake, 'build_ext_fake' : build_ext_fake }, package_dir = {'': 'src'}, packages = ['foo'], name = 'foo', version = '0.1', description = desc, ext_modules = [module_real])

    Read the article

  • How can I automatically elevate a COM interface used for automation?

    - by Jim Flood
    I have a Windows service built with ATL to expose a LocalServer32 COM interface for a set of admin commands used for configuring the service, and these can be used from VBScript for example: Set myObj = WScript.CreateObject("MySvc.Administrator") myObj.DoSomething() I want DoSomething to run elevated, and I would like the UAC prompt to come up automatically when this is called by the VBScript. Is this possible? I know I can run the script in an elevated command shell, and that I can use objShell.ShellExecute WScript.FullName, Chr(34) & WScript.ScriptFullName & Chr(34), vbNullString, "runas" for example, to run the VBScript itself elevated, and either of those work fine -- the COM method finds itself elevated. However, AFAIK getting an elevated Explorer window on the desktop is convoluted (it's not as simple as right-clicking Start/Accessories/Windows Explorer/Run as Administrator, which doesn't actually elevate.) I want a user in the local admin group to be able to drag-and-drop files and folders onto the script, and then have the script call the admin COM interface with those pathnames as arguments. (And I am hoping for something simpler than monkeying around with the args and using ShellExecute "runas".) I've tried setting UAC Execution Level to requireAdministrator in the service EXE's manifest, and setting Elevated/Enabled = 1 and LocalizedString in the registry for the MySvc.Administrator class, and these don't do the trick.

    Read the article

  • Asymptotic runtime of list-to-tree function

    - by Deestan
    I have a merge function which takes time O(log n) to combine two trees into one, and a listToTree function which converts an initial list of elements to singleton trees and repeatedly calls merge on each successive pair of trees until only one tree remains. Function signatures and relevant implementations are as follows: merge :: Tree a -> Tree a -> Tree a --// O(log n) where n is size of input trees singleton :: a -> Tree a --// O(1) empty :: Tree a --// O(1) listToTree :: [a] -> Tree a --// Supposedly O(n) listToTree = listToTreeR . (map singleton) listToTreeR :: [Tree a] -> Tree a listToTreeR [] = empty listToTreeR (x:[]) = x listToTreeR xs = listToTreeR (mergePairs xs) mergePairs :: [Tree a] -> [Tree a] mergePairs [] = [] mergePairs (x:[]) = [x] mergePairs (x:y:xs) = merge x y : mergePairs xs This is a slightly simplified version of exercise 3.3 in Purely Functional Data Structures by Chris Okasaki. According to the exercise, I shall now show that listToTree takes O(n) time. Which I can't. :-( There are trivially ceil(log n) recursive calls to listToTreeR, meaning ceil(log n) calls to mergePairs. The running time of mergePairs is dependent on the length of the list, and the sizes of the trees. The length of the list is 2^h-1, and the sizes of the trees are log(n/(2^h)), where h=log n is the first recursive step, and h=1 is the last recursive step. Each call to mergePairs thus takes time (2^h-1) * log(n/(2^h)) I'm having trouble taking this analysis any further. Can anyone give me a hint in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Trouble with object injection in Spring.Net

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I have a issue with my Spring.Net configuration where its not injecting an object. I have a CommService to which an object named GeneralEmail is injected to. Here is the configuration: <!-- GeneralMail Object --> <object id="GeneralMailObject" type="CommUtil.Email.GeneralEmail, CommUtil"> <constructor-arg name="host" value="xxxxx.com"/> <constructor-arg name="port" value="25"/> <constructor-arg name="user" value="[email protected]"/> <constructor-arg name="password" value="xxxxx"/> <constructor-arg name="template" value="xxxxx"/> </object> <!-- Communication Service --> <object id="CommServiceObject" type="TApp.Code.Services.CommService, TApp"> <property name="emailService" ref="GeneralMailObject" /> </object> The communication service object is again injected to many other aspx pages & service. In one scenario, I need to call the commnucation service from an static WebMethod. I try doing: CommService cso = new CommService(); But when i try to get the emailService object, its null! why didn't the spring inject the GeneralMail object into my cso object? What am I doing wrong and how do I access the object from spring container. Thanks in advance for the suggestions and solutions. Reagrds, Abdel Olakara

    Read the article

  • Some Async Socket Code - Help with Garbage Collection?

    - by divinci
    Hi all, I think this question is really about my understanding of Garbage collection and variable references. But I will go ahead and throw out some code for you to look at. // Please note do not use this code for async sockets, just to highlight my question // SocketTransport // This is a simple wrapper class that is used as the 'state' object // when performing Async Socket Reads/Writes public class SocketTransport { public Socket Socket; public byte[] Buffer; public SocketTransport(Socket socket, byte[] buffer) { this.Socket = socket; this.Buffer = buffer; } } // Entry point - creates a SocketTransport, then passes it as the state // object when Asyncly reading from the socket. public void ReadOne(Socket socket) { SocketTransport socketTransport_One = new SocketTransport(socket, new byte[10]); socketTransport_One.Socket.BeginRecieve ( socketTransport_One.Buffer, // Buffer to store data 0, // Buffer offset 10, // Read Length SocketFlags.None // SocketFlags new AsyncCallback(OnReadOne), // Callback when BeginRead completes socketTransport_One // 'state' object to pass to Callback. ); } public void OnReadOne(IAsyncResult ar) { SocketTransport socketTransport_One = ar.asyncState as SocketTransport; ProcessReadOneBuffer(socketTransport_One.Buffer); // Do processing // New Read // Create another! SocketTransport (what happens to first one?) SocketTransport socketTransport_Two = new SocketTransport(socket, new byte[10]); socketTransport_Two.Socket.BeginRecieve ( socketTransport_One.Buffer, 0, 10, SocketFlags.None new AsyncCallback(OnReadTwo), socketTransport_Two ); } public void OnReadTwo(IAsyncResult ar) { SocketTransport socketTransport_Two = ar.asyncState as SocketTransport; .............. So my question is: The first SocketTransport to be created (socketTransport_One) has a strong reference to a Socket object (lets call is ~SocketA~). Once the async read is completed, a new SocketTransport object is created (socketTransport_Two) also with a strong reference to ~SocketA~. Q1. Will socketTransport_One be collected by the garbage collector when method OnReadOne exits? Even though it still contains a strong reference to ~SocketA~ Thanks all!

    Read the article

  • How do I configure multiple Ubuntu Python installations to avoid App Engine's SSL error?

    - by Linc
    I have Karmic Koala which has Python 2.6 installed by default. However I can't run any Python App Engine projects because they require Python 2.5 and python ssl. To install ssl I installed python2.5-dev first while following some instructions I found elsewhere. sudo apt-get install libssl-dev sudo apt-get install python-setuptools sudo apt-get install python2.5-dev sudo easy_install-2.5 pyopenssl However, I am afraid this is not good for my Ubuntu installation since Ubuntu expects to see version 2.6 of Python when you type 'python' on the command line. Instead, it says '2.5.5'. I tried to revert to the original default version of Python by doing this: sudo apt-get remove python2.5-dev But that didn't seem to do anything either - when I type 'python' on the command line it still say 2.5.5. And App Engine still doesn't work after all this. I continue to get an SSL-related error whenever I try to run my Python app: AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'HTTPSHandler' UPDATE: Just checked whether SSL actually installed as a result of those commands by typing this: $ python2.5 Python 2.5.5 (r255:77872, Apr 29 2010, 23:59:20) [GCC 4.4.1] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import ssl Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named ssl >>> As you can see, SSL is still not installed, which explains the continuing App Engine error. If anyone knows how I can dig myself out of this hole, I would appreciate it.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 777 778 779 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788  | Next Page >