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  • How to set an empty value using XPath?

    - by Ricardo
    Using this xml example: <templateitem itemid="5"> <templateitemdata>%ARN%</templateitemdata> </templateitem> <templateitem itemid="6"> <templateitemdata></templateitemdata> </templateitem> I am using XPath to get and set Node values. The code I am using to get the nodes is: private static Node ***getNode***(Document doc, String XPathQuery) throws XPathExpressionException { XPath xpath = XPathFactory.newInstance().newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile(XPathQuery); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; if(nodes != null && nodes.getLength() >0) return nodes.item(0); throw new XPathExpressionException("No node list found for " + XPathQuery); } To get %ARN% value: "//templateitem[@itemid=5]/templateitemdata/text()" and with the getNode method I can get the node, and then call the getNodeValue(). Besides getting that value, I would like to set templateitemdata value for the "templateitem[@itemid=6]" since its empty. But the code I use can't get the node since its empty. The result is null. Do you know a way get the node so I can set the value?

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  • Browsers disagree about the text of a body element

    - by Charles Anderson
    My HTML looks like this: <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function init() { var text = jQuery('body').text(); alert('length = ' + text.length); } </script> </head> <body onload="init()">0123456789</body> </html> When I load this in Firefox, the length is reported as 10. However, in Chrome it's 11 because it thinks there's a linefeed after the '9'. In IE it's also 11, but the last character is an escape. Meanwhile, Opera thinks there are 12 characters, with the last two being CR LF. If I change the body element to include a span: <body onload="init()"><span>0123456789</span></body> and the jQuery call to: var text = jQuery('body span').text(); then all the browsers agree that the length is 10. Clearly it's the body element that's causing the issue, but can anyone explain exactly why this is happening? I'm particularly surprised because the excellent jQuery is normally browser-independent.

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  • Selective JQuery validation

    - by TenaciousImpy
    Hi, I'm using JQuery Validation to validate a particular textbox in my form. The textbox is an optional website section, which uses the url validation method. This works fine and validates accordingly. I would like to have http:// preset into the textbox, to save the user having to type it. However, when the text is set, the validator becomes 'active', and prevents anything on the form being submitted until either the http:// is manually removed, or a valid website is entered. Is there a way of preseting text into the textbox, which won't cause the validator to start validating? I tried to use $("[id$='tbWebsite']").val("http://"); just before I call form.validate(), but it doesn't work (i.e. it still gets checked). I've never used JQuery Validator before, so hopefully there's a fix for this that I'm missing! An alternate solution for my case in particular, could be to activate the validator if a certain button is pressed (instead of any button on the form). Would that be possible? Thanks

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  • mod_rewrite with location-based ACL in apache?

    - by Alexey
    Hi. There is a CGI-script that provides some API for our customers. Call syntax is: script.cgi?module=<str>&func=<str>[&other-options] The task is to make different authentiction rules for different modules. Optionally, it will be great to have nice URLs. My config: <VirtualHost *:80> DocumentRoot /var/www/example ServerName example.com # Global policy is to deny all <Location /> Order deny,allow Deny from all </Location> # doesn't work :( <Location /api/foo> Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from 127.0.0.1 </Location> RewriteEngine On # The only allowed type of requests: RewriteRule /api/(.+?)/(.+) /cgi-bin/api.cgi?module=$1&func=$2 [PT] # All others are forbidden: RewriteRule /(.*) - [F] RewriteLog /var/log/apache2/rewrite.log RewriteLogLevel 5 ScriptAlias /cgi-bin /var/www/example <Directory /var/www/example> Options -Indexes AddHandler cgi-script .cgi </Directory> </VirtualHost> Well, I know that problem is order of processing that directives. <Location>s will be processed after mod_rewrite has done its work. But I believe there is a way to change it. :) Using of standard Order deny,allow + Allow from <something> directives is preferable because it's commonly used in other places like this. Thank you for your attention. :)

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  • Global resources can't be resolved after publishing Website in VS2008

    - by Scoregraphic
    Hi there I have a web-project running in VS 2008. We have some global resource files (*.resx) in the App_GlobalResources folder for internationalisation. All this works like a charm on my local IIS installation out of VS. But when I publish my web-project to the local filesystem and/or another server, all the resources can no longer be found. So I guess the pre-compilation is somehow corrupting stuff. When I call the pre-compiled web, I get an error that the resource object with key xyz cannot be found, although it could be found before. I checked with .NET reflector if the resource stuff made it into the *.dlls. All those identifiers are there (bin/Web.dll, bin/<culture>/Web.resources.dll). The identifiers are loaded like this: <asp:MenuItem NavigateUrl="~/OrderNew.aspx" Text="<%$ Resources:MyProject, MenuNewOrder %>" Value="NewOrder"> The resource files are called MyProject.resx and MyProject.<culture>.resx where <culture> corresponds the the specific culture (i.e. MyProject.de-DE.resx). Any ideas how to solve this? I really appreciate any help. Thanks Edit: If I copy the App_GlobalResources folder manually to the output, the resources may be loaded normally. So I really really wonder what this pre-compilation is all about. I'm still interested in solving the issue "the right way".

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  • CALayer and Off-Screen Rendering

    - by Luke Mcneice
    I have a Paging UIScrollView with a contentSize large enough to hold a number of small UIScrollViews for zooming, The viewForZoomingInScrollView is a viewController that holds a CALayer for drawing a PDF page onto. This allows me to navigate through a PDF much like the ibooks PDF reader. The code that draws the PDF (Tiled Layers) is located in: - (void)drawLayer:(CALayer *)layer inContext:(CGContextRef)ctx; And simply adding a 'page' to the visible screen calls this method automatically. When I change page there is some delay before all the tiles are drawn, even though the object (page) has already been created. What i want to be able to do is render the next page before the user scrolls to it, thus preventing the visible tiling effect. However, i have found that if the layer is located offscreen adding it to the scrollview doesn't call the drawLayer. Any Ideas/common gotchas here? I have tried: [viewController.view.layer setNeedsLayout]; [viewController.view.layer setNeedsDisplay]; NB: The fact that this is replicating the ibooks functionally is irrelevant within the context of the full app.

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  • Automated testing for Facebook SDK wrapper

    - by Andree
    Hi there! In my Facebook application, I have one Facebook wrapper class to encapsulates some call to Facebook API. I want to to write a unit test for this wrapper class, but since it depends on a so called "access token", which we should get from Facebook dynamically, I'm not sure if it's possible to write one. But apparently the Facebook SDK itself has a PHPUnit test class. After studying the test code for a while, I know that involves a creation of dummy cookie-based session key. private static $VALID_EXPIRED_SESSION = array( 'access_token' => '254752073152|2.I_eTFkcTKSzX5no3jI4r1Q__.3600.1273359600-1677846385|uI7GwrmBUed8seZZ05JbdzGFUpk.', 'expires' => '1273359600', 'secret' => '0d9F7pxWjM_QakY_51VZqw__', 'session_key' => '2.I_eTFkcTKSzX5no3jI4r1Q__.3600.1273359600-1677846385', 'sig' => '9f6ae89510b30dddb3f864f3caf32fb3', 'uid' => '1677846385' ); . . . $cookieName = 'fbs_' . self::APP_ID; $session = self::$VALID_EXPIRED_SESSION; $_COOKIE[$cookieName] = '"' . http_build_query($session) . '"'; What I don't understand is, how do I get the "access_token", "sig", "session_key" etc? As far as I'm concerned, it should be dynamically exchanged from Facebook and involves user action (logging in).

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  • Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

    - by Greg
    Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

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  • Multiple queries using same datacontext throws SqlException

    - by Raj
    I've search control with which I'm trying to implement search as user types something. I'm using Linq to SQL to fire queries against the database. Though it works fine usually, when user types the queries really fast some random SqlException is thrown. These are the two different error message I stumbled across recently: A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Invalid attempt to call Read when reader is closed. Edit: Included code DataContextFactory class: public DataContextFactory(IConnectionStringFactory connectionStringFactory) { this.dataContext = new RegionDataContext(connectionStringFactory.ConnectionString); } public DataContext Context { get { return this.dataContext; } } public void SaveAll() { this.dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } Registering IDataContextFactory with Unity // Get connection string from Application.Current settings ConnectionInfo connectionInfo = Application.Current.Properties["ConnectionInfo"] as ConnectionInfo; // Register ConnectionStringFactory with Unity container as a Singleton this.container.RegisterType<IConnectionStringFactory, ConnectionStringFactory>(new ContainerControlledLifetimeManager(), new InjectionConstructor(connectionInfo.ConnectionString)); // Register DataContextFactory with Unity container this.container.RegisterType<IDataContextFactory, DataContextFactory>(); Connection string: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS2008;User Instance=true;Integrated Security=true;AttachDbFilename=C:\client.mdf;MultipleActiveResultSets=true; Using datacontext from a repository class: // IDataContextFactory dependency is injected by Unity public CompanyRepository(IDataContextFactory dataContextFactory) { this.dataContextFactory = dataContextFactory; } // return List<T> of companies var results = this.dataContextFactory.Context.GetTable<CompanyEntity>() .Join(this.dataContextFactory.Context.GetTable<RegionEntity>(), c => c.regioncode, r => r.regioncode, (c, r) => new { c = c, r = r }) .Where(t => t.c.summary_region != null) .Select(t => new { Id = t.c.compcode, Company = t.c.compname, Region = t.r.regionname }).ToList(); What is the work around?

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  • PHP File Upload, using the FILES superglobal array

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody, I just have a quick question. Let's say that I'm setting up an upload feature for a project. I'm using PHP5, and I was wondering if by using the $_FILES superglobal array, I could have access to the "tmp_name" array key , which is the temporary path and name of the file being uploaded to display a preview of the image, before moving it to the "uploads" folder in the server. What I had in mind is something like this: Use jQuery to detect when the "file" input filed changes (when the user selects an image file), then place an ajax call to upload the the file, which will move it to the temp folder even before I use "move_uploaded_file". If I can somehow access the "tmp_name" array key, I could probably put it into and "img" tag to display a preview. Later move the file to it's final location when the submit button is clicked. I'm not asking for any code examples or anything, since I'd be thrilled to accomplish this on my own, I just want to find out if there is access to that array key in any way. Thanks in advance.

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  • Pointer initialization

    - by SoulBeaver
    Sorry if this question has been asked before. On my search through SO I didn't find one that asked what I wanted to know. Basically, when I have this: typedef struct node { int data; node *node; } *head; and do node *newItem = new node; I am under the impression that I am declaring and reserving space, but not defining, a pointer to struct node, is that correct? So when I do newItem->data = 100 and newItem->next = 0 I get confused. newItem = 0would declare what exactly? Both data and next? The object as a whole? I'm especially confused when I use typedef. Which part is the macro? I assume node because that's how I call it, but why do I need it? Finally, what happens when I do: node *temp; temp = new node; temp = head->next; head->next = newItem; newItem->next = temp; I mean, head-next is a pointer pointing to object newItem, so I assume not to newItem.data or next themselves. So how can I use an uninitialized pointer that I described above safely like here? is head now not pointing to an uninitialized pointer?

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  • I can't find the cause of an "unchecked or unsafe operations" warning in Java.

    - by Peter
    Hello, as per the title I am struggling to find the cause of an "unchecked or unsafe operations" warning in some code. If I have the following code, it compiles without any warnings: public void test() { Set<String> mySet = new HashSet<String>(); Set<String> myNewSet = mySet; //do stuff } Now, if I change where mySet comes from, specifically as the result of a method call, I get the "unchecked yadda yadda" warning: public void test() { Set<String> myNewSet = this.getSet(); //do stuff } public Set getSet() { Set<String> set = new HashSet<String>(); return set; } I have tried and tried to work out what the problem is and I am completely stumped. The issue is present whether I use Sets or Lists. Why would the Set returned by the getSet method be any different to the Set in the first example? Any help would be greatly appreciated as while the warning isn't the end of the world, it is bugging the hell out of me! :( Regards

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  • Canceling a WSK I/O operation when driver is unloading

    - by eaducac
    I've been learning how to write drivers with the Windows DDK recently. After creating a few test drivers experimenting with system threads and synchronization, I decided to step it up a notch and write a driver that actually does something, albeit something useless. Currently, my driver connects to my other computer using Winsock Kernel and just loops and echoes back whatever I send to it until it gets the command "exit", which causes it to break out of the loop. In my loop, after I call WskReceive() to get some data from the other computer, I use KeWaitForMultipleObjects() to wait for either of two SynchronizationEvents. BlockEvent gets set by my IRP's CompletionRoutine() to let my thread know that it's received some data from the socket. EndEvent gets set by my DriverUnload() routine to tell the thread that it's being unloaded and it needs to terminate. When I send the "exit" command, the thread terminates with no problems, and I can safely unload the driver afterward. If I try to stop the driver while it's still waiting on data from the other computer, however, it blue screens with the error DRIVER_UNLOADED_WITHOUT_CANCELLING_PENDING_OPERATIONS. After I get the EndEvent but before I exit the loop, I've tried canceling the IRP with IoCancelIrp() and completing it with IoCompleteRequest(), but both of those give me DRIVER_IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL errors. I then tried calling WskDisconnect(), hoping that would cause the receive operation to complete, but that took me back to the CANCELLING_PENDING_OPERATIONS error. How do I cancel my pending I/O operation from my WSK socket at the IRQL I'm running at when the driver is unloaded?

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  • Verify an event was raised by mocked object

    - by joblot
    In my unit test how can I verify that an event is raised by the mocked object. I have a View(UI) -- ViewModel -- DataProvider -- ServiceProxy. ServiceProxy makes async call to serivce operation. When async operation is complete a method on DataProvider is called (callback method is passed as a method parameter). The callback method then raise and event which ViewModel is listening to. For ViewModel test I mock DataProvider and verify that handler exists for event raised by DataProvider. When testing DataProvider I mock ServiceProxy, but how can I test that callback method is called and event is raised. I am using RhinoMock 3.5 and AAA syntax Thanks -- DataProvider -- public partial class DataProvider { public event EventHandler<EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>> GetProductDefinitionCompleted; public void GetProductDefinition() { var service = IoC.Resolve<IServiceProxy>(); service.GetProductDefinitionAsync(GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback); } private void GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback(ProductDefinition productDefinition, ServiceError error) { OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(this, new EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>(productDefinition, error)); } protected void OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(object sender, EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition> e) { if (GetProductDefinitionCompleted != null) GetProductDefinitionCompleted(sender, e); } } -- ServiceProxy -- public class ServiceProxy : ClientBase<IService>, IServiceProxy { public void GetProductDefinitionAsync(Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback) { Channel.BeginGetProductDefinition(EndGetProductDefinition, callback); } private void EndGetProductDefinition(IAsyncResult result) { Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback = result.AsyncState as Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError>; ServiceError error; ProductDefinition results = Channel.EndGetProductDefinition(out error, result); if (callback != null) callback(results, error); } }

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  • Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

    - by user292662
    Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

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  • qtruby, QUiLoader and respond_to?

    - by Tim Sylvester
    I'm writing a simple Qt4 application in Ruby (using qtruby) to teach myself both. Mostly it has gone well, but in trying to use Ruby's "duck typing" I've run into a snag; respond_to? doesn't seem to reflect reality. irb(main):001:0> require 'rubygems' => true irb(main):002:0> require 'Qt4' => true irb(main):003:0> require 'qtuitools' => true irb(main):004:0> Qt::Application.new(ARGV) => #<Qt::Application:0xc3c9a08 objectName="ruby"> irb(main):005:0> file = Qt::File.new("dlg.ui") { open(Qt::File::ReadOnly) } => #<Qt::File:0xc2e1748 objectName=""> irb(main):006:0> obj = Qt::UiLoader.new().load(file, nil) => #<Qt::Dialog:0xc2bf650 objectName="dlg", x=0, y=0, width=283, height=244> irb(main):007:0> obj.respond_to?('children') => false irb(main):008:0> obj.respond_to?(:children) => false irb(main):009:0> obj.children => [#<Qt::FormInternal::TranslationWatcher:0xc2a1980 objectName="">, ... As you can see, when I check to ensure that the object I get back from loading the UI file has a children accessor I get false. If call that accessor, however, I get an array rather than a NoMethodError. So, is this a bug or have I incorrectly understood respond_to?? This looks like the problem described here, but I thought I would get an expert opinion before filing a bug against the project.

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  • Problem with setVisible (true)

    - by Jessy
    The two examples shown below are same. Both are supposed to produce same result e.g. generate the coordinates of images displayed on JPanel. Example 1, works perfectly (print the coordinates of images), however example 2 returning 0 for the coordinate. I was wondering why because, I have put the setvisible (true) after adding the panel, in both examples. The only difference is that example 1 used extends JPanel and example 2 extends JFrame EXAMPLE 1: public class Grid extends JPanel{ public static void main(String[] args){ JFrame jf=new JFrame(); jf.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); final Grid grid = new Grid(); jf.add(grid); jf.pack(); Component[] components = grid.getComponents(); for (Component component : components) { System.out.println("Coordinate: "+ component.getBounds()); } jf.setVisible(true); } } EXAMPLE 2: public class Grid extends JFrame { public Grid () { setLayout(new GridBagLayout()); GridBagLayout m = new GridBagLayout(); Container c = getContentPane(); c.setLayout (m); GridBagConstraints con = new GridBagConstraints(); //construct the JPanel pDraw = new JPanel(); ... m.setConstraints(pDraw, con); pDraw.add (new GetCoordinate ()); // call new class to generate the coordinate c.add(pDraw); pack(); setVisible(true); } public static void main(String[] args) { new Grid(); } }

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  • OpenMP - running things in parallel and some in sequence within them

    - by Sayan Ghosh
    Hi, I have a scenario like: for (i = 0; i < n; i++) { for (j = 0; j < m; j++) { for (k = 0; k < x; k++) { val = 2*i + j + 4*k if (val != 0) { for(t = 0; t < l; t++) { someFunction((i + t) + someFunction(j + t) + k*t) } } } } } Considering this is block A, Now I have two more similar blocks in my code. I want to put them in parallel, so I used OpenMP pragmas. However I am not able to parallelize it, because I am a tad confused that which variables would be shared and private in this case. If the function call in the inner loop was an operation like sum += x, then I could have added a reduction clause. In general, how would one approach parallelizing a code using OpenMP, when we there is a nested for loop, and then another inner for loop doing the main operation. I tried declaring a parallel region, and then simply putting pragma fors before the blocks, but definitely I am missing a point there! Thanks, Sayan

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  • In Java it seems Public constructors are always a bad coding practice

    - by Adam Gent
    This maybe a controversial question and may not be suited for this forum (so I will not be insulted if you choose to close this question). It seems given the current capabilities of Java there is no reason to make constructors public ... ever. Friendly, private, protected are OK but public no. It seems that its almost always a better idea to provide a public static method for creating objects. Every Java Bean serialization technology (JAXB, Jackson, Spring etc...) can call a protected or private no-arg constructor. My questions are: I have never seen this practice decreed or written down anywhere? Maybe Bloch mentions it but I don't own is book. Is there a use case other than perhaps not being super DRY that I missed? EDIT: I explain why static methods are better. .1. For one you get better type inference. For example See Guava's http://code.google.com/p/guava-libraries/wiki/CollectionUtilitiesExplained .2. As a designer of the class you can later change what is returned with a static method. .3. Dealing with constructor inheritance is painful especially if you have to pre-calculate something.

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  • How to get the output of an XslCompiledTransform into an XmlReader?

    - by Graham Clark
    I have an XslCompiledTransform object, and I want the output in an XmlReader object, as I need to pass it through a second stylesheet. I'm getting a bit confused - I can successfully transform some XML and read it using either a StreamReader or an XmlDocument, but when I try an XmlReader, I get nothing. In the example below, stylesheet is my XslCompiledTransform object. The first two Console.WriteLine calls output the correct transformed XML, but the third call gives no XML. I'm guessing it might be that the XmlTextReader is expecting text, so maybe I need to wrap this in a StreamReader..? What am I doing wrong? MemoryStream transformed = new MemoryStream(); stylesheet.Transform(input, args, transformed); transformed.Position = 0; StreamReader s = new StreamReader(transformed); Console.WriteLine("s = " + s.ReadToEnd()); // writes XML transformed.Position = 0; XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(transformed); Console.WriteLine("doc = " + doc.OuterXml); // writes XML transformed.Position = 0; XmlReader reader = new XmlTextReader(transformed); Console.WriteLine("reader = " + reader.ReadOuterXml()); // no XML written

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  • how to play an audio soundclip when a nib is loaded - welcome screen - xcode

    - by Pavan
    I would like to do the following two things: 1) I would like to play an audio file qhen a nib is loaded 2) After that i would like to switch views when the audio file has finished playing. This will be easy as i just need to call the event that initiates the change of view by using the delegate method -(void) audioPlayerDidFinishPlaying{ //code to change view } I dont know how to to play the audio file when a nib is loaded. Using the AVFoundation framework, I tried doing the following after setting up the audio player and the variables associated with it in the appropriate places i wrote the following: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString *soundFilePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource: @"sound" ofType: @"mp3"]; NSURL *fileURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: soundFilePath]; AVAudioPlayer *newPlayer = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL: fileURL error:nil]; [fileURL release]; self.player = newPlayer; [newPlayer release]; [player prepareToPlay]; [player setDelegate: self]; [player play]; } Although this does not play the file as the viewdidload method gets called before the nib is shown so the audio is never played or heard. What do i need to do so that i can play the audio file AFTER the nib has loaded and is shown on the screen? can someone please help me as ive been working on this for 3 hours now. Thanks in advance.

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  • Is it possible to unit test methods that rely on NHibernate Detached Criteria?

    - by Aim Kai
    I have tried to use Moq to unit test a method on a repository that uses the DetachedCriteria class. But I come up against a problem whereby I cannot actually mock the internal Criteria object that is built inside. Is there any way to mock detached criteria? Test Method [Test] [Category("UnitTest")] public void FindByNameSuccessTest() { //Mock hibernate here var sessionMock = new Mock<ISession>(); var sessionManager = new Mock<ISessionManager>(); var queryMock = new Mock<IQuery>(); var criteria = new Mock<ICriteria>(); var sessionIMock = new Mock<NHibernate.Engine.ISessionImplementor>(); var expectedRestriction = new Restriction {Id = 1, Name="Test"}; //Set up expected returns sessionManager.Setup(m => m.OpenSession()).Returns(sessionMock.Object); sessionMock.Setup(x => x.GetSessionImplementation()).Returns(sessionIMock.Object); queryMock.Setup(x => x.UniqueResult<SopRestriction>()).Returns(expectedRestriction); criteria.Setup(x => x.UniqueResult()).Returns(expectedRestriction); //Build repository var rep = new TestRepository(sessionManager.Object); //Call repostitory here to get list var returnR = rep.FindByName("Test"); Assert.That(returnR.Id == expectedRestriction.Id); } Repository Class public class TestRepository { protected readonly ISessionManager SessionManager; public virtual ISession Session { get { return SessionManager.OpenSession(); } } public TestRepository(ISessionManager sessionManager) { } public SopRestriction FindByName(string name) { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Restriction>().Add<Restriction>(x => x.Name == name) return criteria.GetExecutableCriteria(Session).UniqueResult<T>(); } } Note I am using "NHibernate.LambdaExtensions" and "Castle.Facilities.NHibernateIntegration" here as well. Any help would be gratefully appreciated.

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  • wcf trying to set up tracing to debug, not writing to log file

    - by joey j
    here's my web.config, running a WCF service in an application on IIS7, but nothing is being written to the specified file. permission on the file has been granted for everyone. </listeners> I can add a service reference just fine. I then try to call the service from a windows app and, after a few minutes, get an error on the machine running the windows app "Client is unable to finish the security negotiation within the configured timeout (00:00:00). The current negotiation leg is 1 (00:00:00)." but absolutely nothing is written to the trace log file specified in config. Is there something else I need to do to enable tracing? thanks for your help EDIT: "sources" section now matches the section recommended here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa702726.aspx I've added the "diagnostics and the event viewer shows: "Message Logging has been turned on. Sensitive information may be logged in the clear, even if it was encrypted on the wire: for example, message bodies. Process Name: w3wp Process ID: 1784 " but the log file is still empty

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  • Apply CSS style to anchor problem

    - by Jake
    Using jquery I have a clicking tab mechanism that are nothing but anchor tags that return false but call javascript functions to run some events on the page. The problem is I am using jquery to apply an opacity style to the active anchor. and the other sibling anchor get a lesser opacity view. My code looks like this $("#menutab li a").click(function(){ $(this).animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); } I would think this code would act only on the clicked element and apply that css style to that element and the other style to the other anchor tags except the clicked one. It kind of does that, but also what it does is leave the earlier clicked element to opacity =1, so if I click an element it sets it opacity to 1 and then if I click another one it sets it opacity to 1 while leave the earlier clicked one to 1 also instead of setting it to .25 like the others. Edit: I changed the above code to: $("#menutab ul li").click(function(){ $(this).children().animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().children().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); }); and now I get the desired effect, except that when the first anchor in the list is clicked doesn't follow the event rules, When the first one is clicked its as if, the click event is not triggered, because no opacity style changes. which I don't understand.

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  • Is it possible for a function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope?

    - by Elliot Bonneville
    I can't think of a way to explain what I'm after more than I've done in the title, so I'll repeat it. Is it possible for an anonymous function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope? The following code block should explain what I'm trying to do better than I can: function myObj(testFunc) { this.testFunc = testFunc; this.Foo = function Foo(test) { this.test = test; this.saySomething = function(text) { alert(text); }; }; var Foo = this.Foo; this.testFunc.apply(this); } var test = new myObj(function() { var test = new Foo(); test.saySomething("Hello world"); }); When I run this, I get an error: "Foo is not defined." How do I ensure that Foo will be defined when I call the anonymous function? Here's a jsFiddle for further experimentation. Edit: I am aware of the fact that adding the line var Foo = this.Foo; to the anonymous function I pass in to my instance of myObj will make this work. However, I'd like to avoid having to expose the variable inside the anonymous function--do I have any other options?.

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