Search Results

Search found 23968 results on 959 pages for 'tail call'.

Page 786/959 | < Previous Page | 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793  | Next Page >

• OpenMP - running things in parallel and some in sequence within them

  - by Sayan Ghosh

  Hi, I have a scenario like: for (i = 0; i < n; i++) { for (j = 0; j < m; j++) { for (k = 0; k < x; k++) { val = 2*i + j + 4*k if (val != 0) { for(t = 0; t < l; t++) { someFunction((i + t) + someFunction(j + t) + k*t) } } } } } Considering this is block A, Now I have two more similar blocks in my code. I want to put them in parallel, so I used OpenMP pragmas. However I am not able to parallelize it, because I am a tad confused that which variables would be shared and private in this case. If the function call in the inner loop was an operation like sum += x, then I could have added a reduction clause. In general, how would one approach parallelizing a code using OpenMP, when we there is a nested for loop, and then another inner for loop doing the main operation. I tried declaring a parallel region, and then simply putting pragma fors before the blocks, but definitely I am missing a point there! Thanks, Sayan

  Read the article

• Pointer initialization

  - by SoulBeaver

  Sorry if this question has been asked before. On my search through SO I didn't find one that asked what I wanted to know. Basically, when I have this: typedef struct node { int data; node *node; } *head; and do node *newItem = new node; I am under the impression that I am declaring and reserving space, but not defining, a pointer to struct node, is that correct? So when I do newItem->data = 100 and newItem->next = 0 I get confused. newItem = 0would declare what exactly? Both data and next? The object as a whole? I'm especially confused when I use typedef. Which part is the macro? I assume node because that's how I call it, but why do I need it? Finally, what happens when I do: node *temp; temp = new node; temp = head->next; head->next = newItem; newItem->next = temp; I mean, head-next is a pointer pointing to object newItem, so I assume not to newItem.data or next themselves. So how can I use an uninitialized pointer that I described above safely like here? is head now not pointing to an uninitialized pointer?

  Read the article

• jQuery modal dialog on ajaxStart event

  - by bdl

  I'm trying to use a jQuery UI modal dialog as a loading indicator via the ajaxStart, ajaxStop / ajaxComplete events. When the page fires, an Ajax handler loads some data, and the modal dialog shows just fine. However, it never hides or closes the dialog when the Ajax event is complete. It's a very small bit of code from the local server that is returned, so the actual Ajax event is very quick. Here's my actual code for the modal div: $("#modalwindow").dialog({ modal: true, height: 50, width: 200, zIndex: 999, resizable: false, title: "Please wait..." }) .bind("ajaxStart", function(){ $(this).show(); }) .bind("ajaxStop", function(){ $(this).hide(); }); The Ajax event is just a plain vanilla $.ajax({}) GET method call. Based on some searching here and Google, I've tried altering the ajaxStop handler to use $("#modalwindow").close(), $("#modalwindow").destroy(), etc. (#modalwindow referred to here as to give explicit context). I've also tried using the standard $("#modalwindow").dialog({}).ajaxStart(... as well. Should I be binding the events to a different object? Or calling them from within the $.ajax() complete event? I should mention, I'm testing on the latest IE8, FF 3.6 and Chrome. All have the same / effect.

  Read the article

• How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

  - by Manas Saha

  Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

  Read the article

• Template compiling errors on iPhone SDK 3.2

  - by Didier Malenfant

  I'm porting over some templated code from Windows and I'm hitting some compiler differences on the iPhone 3.2 SDK. Original code inside a class template's member function is: return BinarySearch<uint32, CSimpleKey<T> >(key); where BinarySearch is a method inherited from another template. This produces the following error: csimplekeytable.h:131: error: no matching function for call to 'BinarySearch(NEngine::uint32&)' The visual studio compiler seems to walk up the template hierarchy fine but gcc needs me to fully qualify where the function comes from (I have verified this by fixing the same issues with template member variables that way). So I now need to change this into: return CSimpleTable<CSimpleKey<T> >::BinarySearch<uint32, CSimpleKey<T> >(key); Which now produces the following error: csimplekeytable.h:132: error: expected primary-expression before ',' token csimplekeytable.h:132: error: expected primary-expression before '>' token After some head scratching, I believe what's going on here is that it's trying to resolve the '<' before BinarySearch as a 'Less Than' operator for some reason. So two questions: - Am I on the right path with my interpretation of the error? - How do I fix it? -D

  Read the article

• Doubts about .NET Garbage Collector

  - by Smjert

  I've read some docs about the .NET Garbage Collector but i still have some doubts (examples in C#): 1)Does GC.Collect() call a partial or a full collection? 2)Does a partial collection block the execution of the "victim" application? If yes.. then i suppose this is a very "light" things to do since i'm running a game server that uses 2-3GB of memory and i "never" have execution stops (or i can't see them..). 3)I've read about GC roots but still can't understand how exactly they works. Suppose that this is the code (C#): MyClass1: [...] public List<MyClass2> classList = new List<MyClass2>(); [...] Main: main() { MyClass1 a = new MyClass1(); MyClass2 b = new MyClass2(); a.classList.Add(b); b = null; DoSomeLongWork(); } Will b ever be eligible to be garbage collected(before the DoSomeLongWork finishes)? The reference to b that classList contains, can it be considered a root? Or a root is only the first reference to the instance? (i mean, b is the root reference because the instantiation happens there).

  Read the article

• Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean?

  - by Alex Worden

  Hi, Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean? I'm trying to refactor some cut/pasted code from two separate projects into a common class. In one of the projects, the code lives in a class I'll call "MyClient" that is being instantiated from Spring. It is injected with another spring-instantiated class "MyRegistry", then the MyClient class uses that class to look up an endpoint. All I really need is the endpoint String in my refactored class, which can be initialized via a Setter. I really cannot have a dependency on MyRegistry from MyClient in the refactored code. So, my question is this... is there a way I can inject the endpoint String from spring that was looked up in the MyRegistry class. So, I currently have: <bean id="registryService" class="foo.MyRegistry"> ...properties set etc... </bean> <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="registry" ref="registryService"/> </bean> But I'd like to have (and I know this is imaginary Spring syntax) <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="endPoint" value="registryService.getEndPoint('bar')"/> </bean> where MyRegistry will have a method getEndPoint(Stirng endPointName) Hope that makes sense from a the standpoint of what I'm trying to achieve. Please let me know if something like this is possible in Spring!

  Read the article

• Iframe/Popup redirecting opener window

  - by Bara

  Hello all, I have a page located at x.com. On this page is a button that, when clicked, will launch a new window (using javascript's window.open() method) to a page that is located at z.com. The popup does a few things, then redirects the original window (the opener, x.com) to a different page based on some parameters defined in the popup. This works fine in Firefox/Chrome, but not in IE. In IE (8 specifically, but I believe 7 also has this problem) the original window (the opener) is not redirected. Instead, a new window comes up and THAT window is redirected. I've tried many different methods to try and get this to work, including changing the popup to an iframe loaded on the page and having a function on the opener that the popup/iframe call. The problem seems to be that IE refuses to allow cross-domain sites to talk to each other via javascript. Is there a way around this? How can I get the parent window to redirect to a page based on parameters in a popup or iframe? Bara

  Read the article

• Dynamically adding controls from an Event after Page_Init

  - by GenericTypeTea

  Might seem like a daft title as you shouldn't add dynamic controls after Page_Init if you want to maintain ViewState, but I couldn't think of a better way of explaining the problem. I have a class similar to the following: public class WebCustomForm : WebControl, IScriptControl { internal CustomRender Content { get { object content = this.Page.Session[this.SESSION_CONTENT_TRACKER]; return content as CustomRender; } private set { this.Page.Session[this.SESSION_CONTENT_TRACKER] = value; } } } CustomRender is an abstract class that implements ITemplate that I use to self-contain a CustomForms module I'm in the middle of writing. On the Page_Init of the page that holds the WebCustomForm, I Initialise the control by passing the relevant Ids to it. Then on the overridden OnInit method of the WebCustomForm I call the Instantiate the CustomRender control that's currently active: if (this.Content != null) { this.Content.InstantiateIn(this); } The problem is that my CustomRender controls need the ability to change the CustomRender control of the WebCustomForm. But when the events that fire on the CustomRender fire, the Page_Init event has obviously already gone off. So, my question is, how can I change the content of the WebCustomForm from a dynamically added control within it? The way I see it, I have two options: I separate the CustomRender controls out into their own stand alone control and basically have an aspx page per control and handle the events myself on the page (although I was hoping to just make a control I drop on the page and forget about) I don't use events and just keep requesting the current page, but with different Request Parameters Or I go back to the drawing board with any better suggetions anyone can give me.

  Read the article

• pthreads: reader/writer locks, upgrading read lock to write lock

  - by ScaryAardvark

  I'm using read/write locks on Linux and I've found that trying to upgrade a read locked object to a write lock deadlocks. i.e. // acquire the read lock in thread 1. pthread_rwlock_rdlock( &lock ); // make a decision to upgrade the lock in threads 1. pthread_rwlock_wrlock( &lock ); // this deadlocks as already hold read lock. I've read the man page and it's quite specific. The calling thread may deadlock if at the time the call is made it holds the read-write lock (whether a read or write lock). What is the best way to upgrade a read lock to a write lock in these circumstances.. I don't want to introduce a race on the variable I'm protecting. Presumably I can create another mutex to encompass the releasing of the read lock and the acquiring of the write lock but then I don't really see the use of read/write locks. I might as well simply use a normal mutex. Thx

  Read the article

• Constructor Overloading

  - by Mark Baker

  Normally when I want to create a class constructor that accepts different types of parameters, I'll use a kludgy overloading principle of not defining any args in the constructor definition: e.g. for an ECEF coordinate class constructor, I want it to accept either $x, $y and $z arguments, or to accept a single array argument containg x, y and z values, or to accept a single LatLong object I'd create a constructor looking something like: function __construct() { // Identify if any arguments have been passed to the constructor if (func_num_args() > 0) { $args = func_get_args(); // Identify the overload constructor required, based on the datatype of the first argument $argType = gettype($args[0]); switch($argType) { case 'array' : // Array of Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromArray'; break; case 'object' : // A LatLong object that needs converting to Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromLatLong'; break; default : // Individual Cartesian co-ordinate values $overloadConstructor = 'setCoordinatesFromXYZ'; break; } // Call the appropriate overload constructor call_user_func_array(array($this,$overloadConstructor),$args); } } // function __construct() I'm looking at an alternative: to provide a straight constructor with $x, $y and $z as defined arguments, and to provide static methods of createECEFfromArray() and createECEFfromLatLong() that handle all the necessary extraction of x, y and z; then create a new ECEF object using the standard constructor, and return that Which option is cleaner from an OO purists perspective?

  Read the article

• Application.ProcessMessages hangs???

  - by X-Ray

  my single threaded delphi 2009 app (not quite yet complete) has started to have a problem with Application.ProcessMessages hanging. my app has a TTimer object that fires every 100 ms to poll an external device. i use Application.ProcessMessages to update the screen when something changes so the app is still responsive. one of these was in a grid OnMouseDown event. in there, it had an Application.ProcessMessages that essentially hung. removing that was no problem except that i soon discovered another Application.ProcessMessages that was also blocking. i think what may be happening to me is that the TTimer is--in the app mode i'm currently debugging--probably taking too long to complete. i have prevented the TTimer.OnTimer event hander from re-entering the same code (see below): procedure TfrmMeas.tmrCheckTimer(Sender: TObject); begin if m_CheckTimerBusy then exit; m_CheckTimerBusy:=true; try PollForAndShowMeasurements; finally m_CheckTimerBusy:=false; end; end; what places would it be a bad practice to call Application.ProcessMessages? OnPaint routines springs to mind as something that wouldn't make sense. any general recommendations? i am surprised to see this kind of problem arise at this point in the development!

  Read the article

• Canceling a WSK I/O operation when driver is unloading

  - by eaducac

  I've been learning how to write drivers with the Windows DDK recently. After creating a few test drivers experimenting with system threads and synchronization, I decided to step it up a notch and write a driver that actually does something, albeit something useless. Currently, my driver connects to my other computer using Winsock Kernel and just loops and echoes back whatever I send to it until it gets the command "exit", which causes it to break out of the loop. In my loop, after I call WskReceive() to get some data from the other computer, I use KeWaitForMultipleObjects() to wait for either of two SynchronizationEvents. BlockEvent gets set by my IRP's CompletionRoutine() to let my thread know that it's received some data from the socket. EndEvent gets set by my DriverUnload() routine to tell the thread that it's being unloaded and it needs to terminate. When I send the "exit" command, the thread terminates with no problems, and I can safely unload the driver afterward. If I try to stop the driver while it's still waiting on data from the other computer, however, it blue screens with the error DRIVER_UNLOADED_WITHOUT_CANCELLING_PENDING_OPERATIONS. After I get the EndEvent but before I exit the loop, I've tried canceling the IRP with IoCancelIrp() and completing it with IoCompleteRequest(), but both of those give me DRIVER_IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL errors. I then tried calling WskDisconnect(), hoping that would cause the receive operation to complete, but that took me back to the CANCELLING_PENDING_OPERATIONS error. How do I cancel my pending I/O operation from my WSK socket at the IRQL I'm running at when the driver is unloaded?

  Read the article

• The rules to connect a web service trough the SSL and Certificates

  - by blgnklc

  There is a web service running on tomcat on a server. It is built on Java Servlet. It is listening others to call itself on a SSL enabled http port. so its web service adreess looks like: https://172.29.12.12/axis/services/XYZClient?wsdl On the other hand I want to connect the web service above from a windows application which is built on .NET frame work. Finally, when I want to connect the web service from my computer; I get some specific erros; Firstly I get; Proxy authentication error; then I added some new line to my code; Dim cr As System.Net.NetworkCredential = New System.Net.NetworkCredential("xname", "xsurname", "xdomainname") Dim myProxy As New WebProxy("http://mar.xxxyyy.com", True) myProxy.Credentials = cr Secondly, after this modifications It says that bad request. I did not get over this error. Moreover I did try to connect the web server on the same computer. I copied my executable program to the computer where the web service runs. The error was like; The underlying connection was closed: Could not establish trust relationship for SSL/TLS secure channel PS: When I try to connect to web service by using Internet Explorer; I see firstly some warnings about accepting an unknown certificate and I click take me to web service an I get there clearly. I want to know what are the basic elements to connect a web service, could you please tell me the requirements that I have to use on my windows project. regards bk

  Read the article

• C# 4.0 'dynamic' doesn't set ref/out arguments

  - by Buu Nguyen

  I'm experimenting with DynamicObject. One of the things I try to do is setting the values of ref/out arguments, as shown in the code below. However, I am not able to have the values of i and j in Main() set properly (even though they are set correctly in TryInvokeMember()). Does anyone know how to call a DynamicObject object with ref/out arguments and be able to retrieve the values set inside the method? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { dynamic proxy = new Proxy(new Target()); int i = 10; int j = 20; proxy.Wrap(ref i, ref j); Console.WriteLine(i + ":" + j); // Print "10:20" while expect "20:10" } } class Proxy : DynamicObject { private readonly Target target; public Proxy(Target target) { this.target = target; } public override bool TryInvokeMember(InvokeMemberBinder binder, object[] args, out object result) { int i = (int) args[0]; int j = (int) args[1]; target.Swap(ref i, ref j); args[0] = i; args[1] = j; result = null; return true; } } class Target { public void Swap(ref int i, ref int j) { int tmp = i; i = j; j = tmp; } }

  Read the article

• PHP File Upload, using the FILES superglobal array

  - by jnkrois

  Hello everybody, I just have a quick question. Let's say that I'm setting up an upload feature for a project. I'm using PHP5, and I was wondering if by using the $_FILES superglobal array, I could have access to the "tmp_name" array key , which is the temporary path and name of the file being uploaded to display a preview of the image, before moving it to the "uploads" folder in the server. What I had in mind is something like this: Use jQuery to detect when the "file" input filed changes (when the user selects an image file), then place an ajax call to upload the the file, which will move it to the temp folder even before I use "move_uploaded_file". If I can somehow access the "tmp_name" array key, I could probably put it into and "img" tag to display a preview. Later move the file to it's final location when the submit button is clicked. I'm not asking for any code examples or anything, since I'd be thrilled to accomplish this on my own, I just want to find out if there is access to that array key in any way. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Sybase stored procedure - how do I create an index on a #table?

  - by DVK

  I have a stored procedure which creates and works with a temporary #table Some of the queries would be tremendously optimized if that temporary #table would have an index created on it. However, creating an index within the stored procedure fails: create procedure test1 as SELECT f1, f2, f3 INTO #table1 FROM main_table WHERE 1 = 2 -- insert rows into #table1 create index my_idx on #table1 (f1) SELECT f1, f2, f3 FROM #table1 (index my_idx) WHERE f1 = 11 -- "QUERY X" When I call the above, the query plan for "QUERY X" shows a table scan. If I simply run the code above outside the stored procedure, the messages show the following warning: Index 'my_idx' specified as optimizer hint in the FROM clause of table '#table1' does not exist. Optimizer will choose another index instead. This can be resolved when running ad-hoc (outside the stored procedure) by splitting the code above in two batches by addding "go" after index creation: create index my_idx on #table1 (f1) go Now, "QUERY X" query plan shows the use of index "my_idx". QUESTION: How do I mimique running the "create index" in a separate batch when it's inside the stored procedure? I can't insert a "go" there like I do with the ad-hoc copy above. P.S. If it matters, this is on Sybase 12.

  Read the article

• Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

  - by Greg

  Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

  Read the article

• How to make safe frequent DataSource switches for AbstractRoutingDataSource?

  - by serg555

  I implemented Dynamic DataSource Routing for Spring+Hibernate according to this article. I have several databases with same structure and I need to select which db will run each specific query. Everything works fine on localhost, but I am worrying about how this will hold up in real web site environment. They are using some static context holder to determine which datasource to use: public class CustomerContextHolder { private static final ThreadLocal<CustomerType> contextHolder = new ThreadLocal<CustomerType>(); public static void setCustomerType(CustomerType customerType) { Assert.notNull(customerType, "customerType cannot be null"); contextHolder.set(customerType); } public static CustomerType getCustomerType() { return (CustomerType) contextHolder.get(); } public static void clearCustomerType() { contextHolder.remove(); } } It is wrapped inside some ThreadLocal container, but what exactly does that mean? What will happen when two web requests call this piece of code in parallel: CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType(CustomerType.GOLD); //<another user will switch customer type here to CustomerType.SILVER in another request> List<Item> goldItems = catalog.getItems(); Is every web request wrapped into its own thread in Spring MVC? Will CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType() changes be visible to other web users? My controllers have synchronizeOnSession=true. How to make sure that nobody else will switch datasource until I run required query for current user? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Does adding to a method group count as using a variable?

  - by Vaccano

  I have the following code example taken from the code of a Form: protected void SomeMethod() { SomeOtherMethod(this.OnPaint); } private void SomeOtherMethod(Action<PaintEventArgs> onPaint) { onPaint += MyPaint; } protected void MyPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { // paint some stuff } The second method (SomeOtherMethod) has resharper complaining at me. It says of onPaint that "Value assigned is not used in any execution path". To my mind it was used because I added a method to the list of methods called when a paint was done. But usually when resharper tells me something like this it is because I am not understanding some part of C#. Like maybe when the param goes out of goes out of scope the item I added to the list gets removed (or something like that). I thought I would ask here to see if any one knows what resharper is trying to tell me. (Side Note: I usually just override OnPaint. But I am trying to get OnPaint to call a method in another class. I don't want to expose that method publicly so I thought I would pass in the OnPaint group and add to it.)

  Read the article

• Why ntp settle time toe long?

  - by fercis

  I simply try to set-up NTP to my system. Both server and clients will run on my computer which are linked together with local link. One of them will have the reference clock. Both the server and Client are linux Ubuntu. I install ntp daemon to both sides. In clients, I enter the ip address of the server to /etc/ntp.conf. Everything works fine. However, the setting of the time to correct time in client side takes too long time (around 17 minutes). Is it possible to gather correct time just at startup. I write some code that regularly calls "ntpdate " by system call and the problem is solved but there has to be something that allows me to decrease the poll time of the client to 1-2 minutes. There are some settings as maxpoll - minpoll in ntp.conf, but I couldn't manage to understand their function, because with the best configuration (minpoll 4? 16 seconds?) I also cannot see that client side corrects its time before 10 minutes. In addition, in some cases my client is an embedded system (ARM - IGEP board) and it always opens with an irrelevant date (2-3 years ago). So the time that takes to correct the time should not depend on the time difference also.

  Read the article

• create an independent hidden process

  - by Jessica

  I'm creating an application with its main window hidden by using the following code: STARTUPINFO siStartupInfo; PROCESS_INFORMATION piProcessInfo; memset(&siStartupInfo, 0, sizeof(siStartupInfo)); memset(&piProcessInfo, 0, sizeof(piProcessInfo)); siStartupInfo.cb = sizeof(siStartupInfo); siStartupInfo.dwFlags = STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW | STARTF_FORCEOFFFEEDBACK | STARTF_USESTDHANDLES; siStartupInfo.wShowWindow = SW_HIDE; if(CreateProcess(MyApplication, "", 0, 0, FALSE, 0, 0, 0, &siStartupInfo, &piProcessInfo) == FALSE) { // blah return 0; } Everything works correctly except my main application (the one calling this code) window loses focus when I open the new program. I tried lowering the priority of the new process but the focus problem is still there. Is there anyway to avoid this? furthermore, is there any way to create another process without using CreateProcess (or any of the API's that call CreateProcess like ShellExecute)? My guess is that my app is losing focus because it was given to the new process, even when it's hidden. To those of you curious out there that will certainly ask the usual "why do you want to do this", my answer is because I have a watchdog process that cannot be a service and it gets started whenever I open my main application. Satisfied? Thanks for the help. Code will be appreciated. Jess.

  Read the article

• spring.net proxy factory with target type needs property virtual ?

  - by Vince

  Hi all, I'm creating spring.net proxy in code by using ProxyFactory object with ProxyTargetType to true to have a proxy on a non interfaced complex object. Proxying seems ok till i call a method on that object. The method references a public property and if this property is not virtual it's value is null. This doesn't happen if i use Spring.Aop.Framework.AutoProxy.InheritanceBasedAopConfigurer in spring config file but in this case i can't use this because spring context doesn't own this object. Is this normal to have such behavior or is there a tweak to perform what i want (proxying object virtual method without having to change properties virtual)? Note that i tried factory.AutoDetectInterfaces and factory.ProxyTargetAttributes values but doesn't help. My proxy creation code: public static T CreateMethodCallStatProxy<T>() { // Proxy factory ProxyFactory factory = new ProxyFactory(); factory.AddAdvice(new CallMonitorTrackerAdvice()); factory.ProxyTargetType = true; // Create instance factory.Target = Activator.CreateInstance<T>(); // Get proxy T proxiedClass = (T)factory.GetProxy(); return proxiedClass; } Thanks for your help

  Read the article

• Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

  - by Kent Boogaart

  I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

  Read the article

• C# XAML get new width and height for Canvas

  - by Jack Navarro

  I have searched through many times but have not seen this before. Probably really simple question but can't wrap my head around it. Wrote a VSTO add-in for Excel that draws a Grid dynamically. Then launches a new window and replaces the contents of the Canvas with the generated Grid. The problem is with printing. When I call the print procedure the canvas.height and canvas.width returned is the old value prior to replacing it with the grid. Sample: string="<Grid Name=\"CanvasGrid\" xmlns=\"http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation\">..Lots of stuff..</Grid>"; // Launch new window and replace the Canvas element WpfUserControl newWindow = new WpfUserControl(); newWindow.Show(); //To test MessageBox.Show(myCanvas.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 894 Grid testGrid = myCanvas.FindName("CanvasGrid") as Grid; MessageBox.Show("Grid " + testGrid.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 234 StringReader stringReader = new StringReader(LssAllcChrt); XmlReader xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(stringReader); Canvas myCanvas = newWindow.FindName("GrphCnvs") as Canvas; myCanvas.Children.Clear(); myCanvas.Children.Add((UIElement)XamlReader.Load(xmlReader)); //To test MessageBox.Show(myCanvas.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 894 but should be much larger the Grid spans all three of my screens Grid testGrid = myCanvas.FindName("CanvasGrid") as Grid; MessageBox.Show("Grid " + testGrid.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 234 but should be much larger the Grid spans all three of my screens //Run code from WpfUserControl.cs after it loads from button click Grid testGrid = canvas.FindName("CanvasGrid") as Grid; MessageBox.Show("Grid " + testGrid.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 234 but should be much larger the Grid spans all three of my screens So basically I have no way of telling what my new width and height are Any Ideas

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791 792 793  | Next Page >