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  • Sybase stored procedure - how do I create an index on a #table?

    - by DVK
    I have a stored procedure which creates and works with a temporary #table Some of the queries would be tremendously optimized if that temporary #table would have an index created on it. However, creating an index within the stored procedure fails: create procedure test1 as SELECT f1, f2, f3 INTO #table1 FROM main_table WHERE 1 = 2 -- insert rows into #table1 create index my_idx on #table1 (f1) SELECT f1, f2, f3 FROM #table1 (index my_idx) WHERE f1 = 11 -- "QUERY X" When I call the above, the query plan for "QUERY X" shows a table scan. If I simply run the code above outside the stored procedure, the messages show the following warning: Index 'my_idx' specified as optimizer hint in the FROM clause of table '#table1' does not exist. Optimizer will choose another index instead. This can be resolved when running ad-hoc (outside the stored procedure) by splitting the code above in two batches by addding "go" after index creation: create index my_idx on #table1 (f1) go Now, "QUERY X" query plan shows the use of index "my_idx". QUESTION: How do I mimique running the "create index" in a separate batch when it's inside the stored procedure? I can't insert a "go" there like I do with the ad-hoc copy above. P.S. If it matters, this is on Sybase 12.

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  • Login problem with php

    - by shinod
    I want to prevent multiple log in with same log in credentials simultaneously. So I made a column login_status and set it to 1 when some one logging in and change to 0 when logging out besides I set session after successful logged in. If user won't click on log out(in case of user close tab or because of some network problem) it doesn't update database and then one can't use that log in credentials again. So I use a ajax call to set current time stamp in database with related log in credentials and it is updated in each 2 minutes if user not navigate from that page. Then if some one attempts to log in with same log in credentials, it will check these time stamp if column login_status is 1, then if the time stamp is older than 3 minutes it allows the log in.Then it solving that problem. But the new problem is if user closes the tab or browser window and after 3 minutes one can log in with same log in credentials from somewhere and if the previous user open that page automatically it will log in as session is already set. How can I prevent this.

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  • Browsers disagree about the text of a body element

    - by Charles Anderson
    My HTML looks like this: <html> <head> <title>Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function init() { var text = jQuery('body').text(); alert('length = ' + text.length); } </script> </head> <body onload="init()">0123456789</body> </html> When I load this in Firefox, the length is reported as 10. However, in Chrome it's 11 because it thinks there's a linefeed after the '9'. In IE it's also 11, but the last character is an escape. Meanwhile, Opera thinks there are 12 characters, with the last two being CR LF. If I change the body element to include a span: <body onload="init()"><span>0123456789</span></body> and the jQuery call to: var text = jQuery('body span').text(); then all the browsers agree that the length is 10. Clearly it's the body element that's causing the issue, but can anyone explain exactly why this is happening? I'm particularly surprised because the excellent jQuery is normally browser-independent.

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  • Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

    - by user292662
    Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

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  • qtruby, QUiLoader and respond_to?

    - by Tim Sylvester
    I'm writing a simple Qt4 application in Ruby (using qtruby) to teach myself both. Mostly it has gone well, but in trying to use Ruby's "duck typing" I've run into a snag; respond_to? doesn't seem to reflect reality. irb(main):001:0> require 'rubygems' => true irb(main):002:0> require 'Qt4' => true irb(main):003:0> require 'qtuitools' => true irb(main):004:0> Qt::Application.new(ARGV) => #<Qt::Application:0xc3c9a08 objectName="ruby"> irb(main):005:0> file = Qt::File.new("dlg.ui") { open(Qt::File::ReadOnly) } => #<Qt::File:0xc2e1748 objectName=""> irb(main):006:0> obj = Qt::UiLoader.new().load(file, nil) => #<Qt::Dialog:0xc2bf650 objectName="dlg", x=0, y=0, width=283, height=244> irb(main):007:0> obj.respond_to?('children') => false irb(main):008:0> obj.respond_to?(:children) => false irb(main):009:0> obj.children => [#<Qt::FormInternal::TranslationWatcher:0xc2a1980 objectName="">, ... As you can see, when I check to ensure that the object I get back from loading the UI file has a children accessor I get false. If call that accessor, however, I get an array rather than a NoMethodError. So, is this a bug or have I incorrectly understood respond_to?? This looks like the problem described here, but I thought I would get an expert opinion before filing a bug against the project.

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  • How to set an empty value using XPath?

    - by Ricardo
    Using this xml example: <templateitem itemid="5"> <templateitemdata>%ARN%</templateitemdata> </templateitem> <templateitem itemid="6"> <templateitemdata></templateitemdata> </templateitem> I am using XPath to get and set Node values. The code I am using to get the nodes is: private static Node ***getNode***(Document doc, String XPathQuery) throws XPathExpressionException { XPath xpath = XPathFactory.newInstance().newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile(XPathQuery); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; if(nodes != null && nodes.getLength() >0) return nodes.item(0); throw new XPathExpressionException("No node list found for " + XPathQuery); } To get %ARN% value: "//templateitem[@itemid=5]/templateitemdata/text()" and with the getNode method I can get the node, and then call the getNodeValue(). Besides getting that value, I would like to set templateitemdata value for the "templateitem[@itemid=6]" since its empty. But the code I use can't get the node since its empty. The result is null. Do you know a way get the node so I can set the value?

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  • Delete ONE SPECIFIC table of a database - leave the rest intact

    - by Jayomat
    Hi, I have a database where I store two different kinds of data. One table is for favorite routes, the other stores the retrieved routes from a server. I can retrieve the routes etc just fine. But after retrieving the first Route, pressing back or HOME, and then retrieving another route, the routes table is filled with all the old routes plus the new ones. So my question: how do I delete ONLY the routes table and not the whole database because I don't want to delete the added favorites....?! I found the following function in the android docs: public int delete (String table, String whereClause, String[] whereArgs) and I tried to implement it, but I must pass a SQLiteDataBase as an argument. But how? I implemented: public void deleteTableRoutes(SQLiteDataBase db){ db.delete("routes", null, null); } But I want to call this function from a different class where I have no reference to the database.. so what do I have to pass as an argument? Or how do I get a reference to my database? I build my database upon the code example of the NotePadExample from the dev docs. How to solve this problem? thanks

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  • Multiple queries using same datacontext throws SqlException

    - by Raj
    I've search control with which I'm trying to implement search as user types something. I'm using Linq to SQL to fire queries against the database. Though it works fine usually, when user types the queries really fast some random SqlException is thrown. These are the two different error message I stumbled across recently: A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Invalid attempt to call Read when reader is closed. Edit: Included code DataContextFactory class: public DataContextFactory(IConnectionStringFactory connectionStringFactory) { this.dataContext = new RegionDataContext(connectionStringFactory.ConnectionString); } public DataContext Context { get { return this.dataContext; } } public void SaveAll() { this.dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } Registering IDataContextFactory with Unity // Get connection string from Application.Current settings ConnectionInfo connectionInfo = Application.Current.Properties["ConnectionInfo"] as ConnectionInfo; // Register ConnectionStringFactory with Unity container as a Singleton this.container.RegisterType<IConnectionStringFactory, ConnectionStringFactory>(new ContainerControlledLifetimeManager(), new InjectionConstructor(connectionInfo.ConnectionString)); // Register DataContextFactory with Unity container this.container.RegisterType<IDataContextFactory, DataContextFactory>(); Connection string: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS2008;User Instance=true;Integrated Security=true;AttachDbFilename=C:\client.mdf;MultipleActiveResultSets=true; Using datacontext from a repository class: // IDataContextFactory dependency is injected by Unity public CompanyRepository(IDataContextFactory dataContextFactory) { this.dataContextFactory = dataContextFactory; } // return List<T> of companies var results = this.dataContextFactory.Context.GetTable<CompanyEntity>() .Join(this.dataContextFactory.Context.GetTable<RegionEntity>(), c => c.regioncode, r => r.regioncode, (c, r) => new { c = c, r = r }) .Where(t => t.c.summary_region != null) .Select(t => new { Id = t.c.compcode, Company = t.c.compname, Region = t.r.regionname }).ToList(); What is the work around?

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  • Global resources can't be resolved after publishing Website in VS2008

    - by Scoregraphic
    Hi there I have a web-project running in VS 2008. We have some global resource files (*.resx) in the App_GlobalResources folder for internationalisation. All this works like a charm on my local IIS installation out of VS. But when I publish my web-project to the local filesystem and/or another server, all the resources can no longer be found. So I guess the pre-compilation is somehow corrupting stuff. When I call the pre-compiled web, I get an error that the resource object with key xyz cannot be found, although it could be found before. I checked with .NET reflector if the resource stuff made it into the *.dlls. All those identifiers are there (bin/Web.dll, bin/<culture>/Web.resources.dll). The identifiers are loaded like this: <asp:MenuItem NavigateUrl="~/OrderNew.aspx" Text="<%$ Resources:MyProject, MenuNewOrder %>" Value="NewOrder"> The resource files are called MyProject.resx and MyProject.<culture>.resx where <culture> corresponds the the specific culture (i.e. MyProject.de-DE.resx). Any ideas how to solve this? I really appreciate any help. Thanks Edit: If I copy the App_GlobalResources folder manually to the output, the resources may be loaded normally. So I really really wonder what this pre-compilation is all about. I'm still interested in solving the issue "the right way".

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  • How do I get save (no exclamation point) semantics in an ActiveRecord transaction?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have two models: Person and Address which I'd like to create in a transaction. That is, I want to try to create the Person and, if that succeeds, create the related Address. I would like to use save semantics (return true or false) rather than save! semantics (raise an ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid or not). This doesn't work because the user.save doesn't trigger a rollback on the transaction: class Person def save_with_address(address_options = {}) transaction do self.save address = Address.build(address_options) address.person = self address.save end end end (Changing the self.save call to an if self.save block around the rest doesn't help, because the Person save still succeeds even when the Address one fails.) And this doesn't work because it raises the ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid exception out of the transaction block without triggering an ActiveRecord::Rollback: class Person def save_with_address(address_options = {}) transaction do save! address = Address.build(address_options) address.person = self address.save! end end end The Rails documentation specifically warns against catching the ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid inside the transaction block. I guess my first question is: why isn't this transaction block... transacting on both saves?

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  • Blackberry application works in simulator but not device

    - by Kai
    I read some of the similar posts on this site that deal with what seems to be the same issue and the responses didn't really seem to clarify things for me. My application works fine in the simulator. I believe I'm on Bold 9000 with OS 4.6. The app is signed. My app makes an HTTP call via 3G to fetch an XML result. type is application/xhtml+xml. In the device, it gives no error. it makes no visual sign of error. I tell the try catch to print the results to the screen and I get nothing. HttpConnection was taken right out of the demos and works fine in sim. Since it gives no error, I begin to reflect back on things I recall reading back when the project began. deviceside=true? Something like that? My request is simply HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(url); where url is just a standard url, no get vars. Based on the amount of time I see the connection arrows in the corner of the screen, I assume the app is launching the initial communication to my server, then either getting a bad result, or it gets results and the persistent store is not functioning as expected. I have no idea where to begin with this. Posting code would be ridiculous since it would be basically my whole app. I guess my question is if anyone knows of any major differences with device versus simulator that could cause something like http connection or persistent store to fail? A build setting? An OS restriction? Any standard procedure I may have just not known about that everyone should do before beginning device testing? Thanks

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  • Apply CSS style to anchor problem

    - by Jake
    Using jquery I have a clicking tab mechanism that are nothing but anchor tags that return false but call javascript functions to run some events on the page. The problem is I am using jquery to apply an opacity style to the active anchor. and the other sibling anchor get a lesser opacity view. My code looks like this $("#menutab li a").click(function(){ $(this).animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); } I would think this code would act only on the clicked element and apply that css style to that element and the other style to the other anchor tags except the clicked one. It kind of does that, but also what it does is leave the earlier clicked element to opacity =1, so if I click an element it sets it opacity to 1 and then if I click another one it sets it opacity to 1 while leave the earlier clicked one to 1 also instead of setting it to .25 like the others. Edit: I changed the above code to: $("#menutab ul li").click(function(){ $(this).children().animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().children().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); }); and now I get the desired effect, except that when the first anchor in the list is clicked doesn't follow the event rules, When the first one is clicked its as if, the click event is not triggered, because no opacity style changes. which I don't understand.

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  • spring.net proxy factory with target type needs property virtual ?

    - by Vince
    Hi all, I'm creating spring.net proxy in code by using ProxyFactory object with ProxyTargetType to true to have a proxy on a non interfaced complex object. Proxying seems ok till i call a method on that object. The method references a public property and if this property is not virtual it's value is null. This doesn't happen if i use Spring.Aop.Framework.AutoProxy.InheritanceBasedAopConfigurer in spring config file but in this case i can't use this because spring context doesn't own this object. Is this normal to have such behavior or is there a tweak to perform what i want (proxying object virtual method without having to change properties virtual)? Note that i tried factory.AutoDetectInterfaces and factory.ProxyTargetAttributes values but doesn't help. My proxy creation code: public static T CreateMethodCallStatProxy<T>() { // Proxy factory ProxyFactory factory = new ProxyFactory(); factory.AddAdvice(new CallMonitorTrackerAdvice()); factory.ProxyTargetType = true; // Create instance factory.Target = Activator.CreateInstance<T>(); // Get proxy T proxiedClass = (T)factory.GetProxy(); return proxiedClass; } Thanks for your help

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  • Asterisk: Dropping calls with an "ast_yyerror"

    - by Nick
    I'm having an issue where asterisk will play our greeting to the caller, and then drop the call instead of making our phones ring. The bit of information I could find said it was caused by an error in evaluating a dialplan expression. I'm thinking it's this line: exten = START,n,GotoIf($[${FORCE_CLOSED}=TRUE]?CLOSED,1) But I'm not sure what's wrong with it. I see the following error on the console: [Apr 4 16:29:49] WARNING[27038]: ast_expr2.fl:459 ast_yyerror: ast_yyerror(): syntax error: syntax error, unexpected '=', expecting $end; Input:=TRUE^ Surrounding Console output: -- Executing [START@AGInbound:1] Answer("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:2] BackGround("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", 0000_AG_THANK_YOU_FOR_CALLING_AG") in new stack -- Playing '0000_AG_THANK_YOU_FOR_CALLING_AG.slin' (language 'en') [Apr 4 16:29:49] WARNING[27038]: ast_expr2.fl:459 ast_yyerror: ast_yyerror(): syntax error: syntax error, unexpected '=', expecting $end; Input: =TRUE ^ [Apr 4 16:29:49] WARNING[27038]: ast_expr2.fl:463 ast_yyerror: If you have questions, please refer to doc/tex/channelvariables.tex in the asterisk source. -- Executing [START@AGInbound:3] GotoIf("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "?CLOSED,1") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:4] GotoIfTime("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "9:30-17:0|mon-fri|*|*?OPEN,1") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:5] GotoIfTime("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "10:0-18:30|sat|*|*?OPEN,1") in new stack -- Executing [START@AGInbound:6] GotoIfTime("IAX2/AtlantaTeliax-10086", "12:0-17:0|sun|*|*?OPEN,1") in new stack Relevant lines from the dial plan: exten = START,1,Answer() exten = START,n,Background(0000_AG_THANK_YOU_FOR_CALLING_AG) ; See if we're open ; Force Closed if no one's going to be answering exten = START,n,GotoIf($[${FORCE_CLOSED}=TRUE]?CLOSED,1) exten = START,n,GotoIfTime(${AG_WEEKDAY_OPEN_HOUR}:${AG_WEEKDAY_OPEN_MIN}-${AG$ exten = START,n,GotoIfTime(${AG_SATURDAY_OPEN_HOUR}:${AG_SATURDAY_OPEN_MIN}-${$ exten = START,n,GotoIfTime(${AG_SUNDAY_OPEN_HOUR}:${AG_SUNDAY_OPEN_MIN}-${AG_S$ ; ...and we're not. But maybe the time of day has been overridden? exten = START,n,GotoIf($[${OVERRIDE_TIME_OF_DAY}=TRUE]?OPEN,1) ; No override... We're definatly closed. exten = START,n,Goto(CLOSED,1)

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  • Using SetParent to steal the main window of another process but keeping the message loops separate

    - by insta
    Background: My coworker and I are maintaining a million-line legacy application we inherited. Its frontend is written in VB6, and as we're devoting almost all of our resources to converting it to C#, we are looking for quick & dirty solutions to our specific problem. The application behaves in a plugin-ish manner. There are up to 20ish separate ActiveX controls that can be loaded at once in a grid-style layout. The problem is that the ActiveX controls do all of their processing on their own UI thread, and as a lot of it is blocking waiting on network access, the UI gets very soupy. When our hosting C# app loads these controls, it becomes unresponsive because of how many controls are chewing up UI resources doing nothing. To top it off, the controls are fragile and will crash at the slightest provocation. When they are hosted in the main C# app, it creates serious instability. The best my coworker and I have come up with so far is starting a process per ActiveX control. This process, which we call the proxy, is another winforms app. It uses named pipes to communicate with the hosting process. The hosting process creates a window, loads an ActiveX control of our choice (via some reflections & AxHost magic), and tells the main process what its window handle is via the named pipe. The main process uses a combination of SetParent, and SetWindowPos to move the proxy application into itself to emulate a plugin. Size updates are sent via the named pipe. This works well enough until the ActiveX application does some sort of lengthy process and we click around on the main window while it's working. For awhile the main window is responsive, but eventually it becomes unresponsive as the child window waits for its UI thread. How can we keep the child windows on their own complete thread while still getting the benefits of SetParent? (please let me know if anything isn't clear!)

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  • Upgrade .NET 1.1 WinForm/Service to what?

    - by Conor
    Hi Folks, We have a current WinForm/Windows Service running in .NET 1.1 out on various customer sites that is getting data from internal systems, transforming it and then calling a Web Service synchronously. This client app will no longer work in Vista or Windows 7 etc.. and its time to update!! I was looking for ideas on what I could do here, I didn't write the App and I have the Business team telling me they want the world but I need to be realistic :) Things the service must be able to do: - Handle multiple formats from internal system and transform to a schema SAP, ERP etc.. - Run silently and just work on customer sites (it does currently albeit .NET 1.1) - The Customers are unable to call our web service from their sites as they are not technical enough. - Upgrade it's self when updates occur (currently don't have this capability) Is there anything I can do here other than upgrade the service to run in .NET and add a few more transformation capabilities e..g they want the customer to be able to give us a flat file, an xml file, a csv and the service transforms it and calls the Web Service? I was hoping in this day and age we could use the Web, but automating this 100% rules it out in my eyes? I could be totally wrong!! Any help would be gratefully appreciated! Cheers. Conor

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  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

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  • ASP.NET Response Filter to Reformat the rendered output of ASPX pages?

    - by PropellerHead
    I've created a simple HttpModule and response stream to reformat the rendered output of web pages (see code snippets below). In the HttpModule I set the Response.Filter to my PageStream: m_Application.Context.Response.Filter = new PageStream(m_Application.Context); In the PageStream I overwrite the Write method in order to do my reformatting of the rendered output: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { string html = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer); //Do some string resplace operations here... byte[] input = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(html); m_DefaultStream.Write(input, 0, input.Length); } And this work fine when using it on simple HTML pages (.html), but when I use this method on ASPX pages (.aspx), the Write method is called several times, splitting up the reformatting into different steps, and potentially destroying the string replacement operations. How do I solve this? Is there a way to let the ASPX page NOT call Write several times, e.g. by changing its buffer size, or have I chosen the wrong approach entirely, by using this Response.Filter method to manipulate the rendered output?

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  • Attaching event on the fly with prototype

    - by andreas
    Hi, I've been scratching my head over this for an hour... I have a list of todo which has done button on each item. Every time a user clicks on that, it's supposed to do an Ajax call to the server, calling the marking function then updates the whole list. The problem I'm facing is that the new list has done buttons as well on each item. And it doesn't attach the click event anymore after first update. How do you attach an event handler on newly updated element with prototype? Note: I've passed evalScripts: true to the updater wrapper initial event handler attach <script type="text/javascript"> document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { $$('.todo-done a').each(function(a) { $(a).observe('click', function(e) { var todoId = $(this).readAttribute('href').substr(1); new Ajax.Updater('todo-list', $.utils.getPath('/todos/ajax_mark/done'), { onComplete: function() { $.utils.updateList({evalScripts: true}); } }); }); }) }); </script> updateList: <script type="text/javascript"> var Utils = Class.create({ updateList: function(options) { if(typeof options == 'undefined') { options = {}; } new Ajax.Updater('todo-list', $.utils.getPath('/todos/ajax_get'), $H(options).merge({ onComplete: function() { $first = $('todo-list').down(); $first.hide(); Effect.Appear($first, {duration: 0.7}); new Effect.Pulsate($('todo-list').down(), {pulses: 1, duration: 0.4, queue: 'end'}); } }) ); } }) $.utils = new Utils('globals'); </script> any help is very much appreciated, thank you :)

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  • OpenMP - running things in parallel and some in sequence within them

    - by Sayan Ghosh
    Hi, I have a scenario like: for (i = 0; i < n; i++) { for (j = 0; j < m; j++) { for (k = 0; k < x; k++) { val = 2*i + j + 4*k if (val != 0) { for(t = 0; t < l; t++) { someFunction((i + t) + someFunction(j + t) + k*t) } } } } } Considering this is block A, Now I have two more similar blocks in my code. I want to put them in parallel, so I used OpenMP pragmas. However I am not able to parallelize it, because I am a tad confused that which variables would be shared and private in this case. If the function call in the inner loop was an operation like sum += x, then I could have added a reduction clause. In general, how would one approach parallelizing a code using OpenMP, when we there is a nested for loop, and then another inner for loop doing the main operation. I tried declaring a parallel region, and then simply putting pragma fors before the blocks, but definitely I am missing a point there! Thanks, Sayan

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  • Is it possible to unit test methods that rely on NHibernate Detached Criteria?

    - by Aim Kai
    I have tried to use Moq to unit test a method on a repository that uses the DetachedCriteria class. But I come up against a problem whereby I cannot actually mock the internal Criteria object that is built inside. Is there any way to mock detached criteria? Test Method [Test] [Category("UnitTest")] public void FindByNameSuccessTest() { //Mock hibernate here var sessionMock = new Mock<ISession>(); var sessionManager = new Mock<ISessionManager>(); var queryMock = new Mock<IQuery>(); var criteria = new Mock<ICriteria>(); var sessionIMock = new Mock<NHibernate.Engine.ISessionImplementor>(); var expectedRestriction = new Restriction {Id = 1, Name="Test"}; //Set up expected returns sessionManager.Setup(m => m.OpenSession()).Returns(sessionMock.Object); sessionMock.Setup(x => x.GetSessionImplementation()).Returns(sessionIMock.Object); queryMock.Setup(x => x.UniqueResult<SopRestriction>()).Returns(expectedRestriction); criteria.Setup(x => x.UniqueResult()).Returns(expectedRestriction); //Build repository var rep = new TestRepository(sessionManager.Object); //Call repostitory here to get list var returnR = rep.FindByName("Test"); Assert.That(returnR.Id == expectedRestriction.Id); } Repository Class public class TestRepository { protected readonly ISessionManager SessionManager; public virtual ISession Session { get { return SessionManager.OpenSession(); } } public TestRepository(ISessionManager sessionManager) { } public SopRestriction FindByName(string name) { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Restriction>().Add<Restriction>(x => x.Name == name) return criteria.GetExecutableCriteria(Session).UniqueResult<T>(); } } Note I am using "NHibernate.LambdaExtensions" and "Castle.Facilities.NHibernateIntegration" here as well. Any help would be gratefully appreciated.

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  • Is there a difference between starting an application from the OS or from adb

    - by aruwen
    I do have a curious error in my application. My app crashes (don't mind the crash, I roughly know why - classloader) when I start the application from the OS directly, then kill it from the background via any Task Killer (this is one of the few ways to reproduce the crash consistently - simulating the OS freeing memory and closing the application) and try to restart it again. The thing is, if I start the application via adb shell using the following command: adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n com.my.packagename/myLaunchActivity I cannot reproduce the crash. So is there any difference in how Android OS calls the application as opposed to the above call? EDIT: added the manifest (just changed names) <?xml version="1.0" ?> <manifest android:versionCode="5" android:versionName="1.05" package="com.my.sample" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> <application android:icon="@drawable/square_my_logo" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my.InfoActivity" android:screenOrientation="landscape"></activity> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.KickStart" android:screenOrientation="landscape"/> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.Launcher" android:screenOrientation="landscape"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"/> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE"/></manifest> starting the com.my2.Launcher from the adb shell

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  • Verify an event was raised by mocked object

    - by joblot
    In my unit test how can I verify that an event is raised by the mocked object. I have a View(UI) -- ViewModel -- DataProvider -- ServiceProxy. ServiceProxy makes async call to serivce operation. When async operation is complete a method on DataProvider is called (callback method is passed as a method parameter). The callback method then raise and event which ViewModel is listening to. For ViewModel test I mock DataProvider and verify that handler exists for event raised by DataProvider. When testing DataProvider I mock ServiceProxy, but how can I test that callback method is called and event is raised. I am using RhinoMock 3.5 and AAA syntax Thanks -- DataProvider -- public partial class DataProvider { public event EventHandler<EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>> GetProductDefinitionCompleted; public void GetProductDefinition() { var service = IoC.Resolve<IServiceProxy>(); service.GetProductDefinitionAsync(GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback); } private void GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback(ProductDefinition productDefinition, ServiceError error) { OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(this, new EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>(productDefinition, error)); } protected void OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(object sender, EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition> e) { if (GetProductDefinitionCompleted != null) GetProductDefinitionCompleted(sender, e); } } -- ServiceProxy -- public class ServiceProxy : ClientBase<IService>, IServiceProxy { public void GetProductDefinitionAsync(Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback) { Channel.BeginGetProductDefinition(EndGetProductDefinition, callback); } private void EndGetProductDefinition(IAsyncResult result) { Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback = result.AsyncState as Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError>; ServiceError error; ProductDefinition results = Channel.EndGetProductDefinition(out error, result); if (callback != null) callback(results, error); } }

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  • Read file:// URLs in IE XMLHttpRequest

    - by Dan Fabulich
    I'm developing a JavaScript application that's meant to be run either from a web server (over http) or from the file system (on a file:// URL). As part of this code, I need to use XMLHttpRequest to load files in the same directory as the page and in subdirectories of the page. This code works fine ("PASS") when executed on a web server, but doesn't work ("FAIL") in Internet Explorer 8 when run off the file system: <html><head> <script> window.onload = function() { var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.open("GET", window.location.href, false); xhr.send(null); if (/TestString/.test(xhr.responseText)) { document.body.innerHTML="<p>PASS</p>"; } } </script> <body><p>FAIL</p></body> Of course, at first it fails because no scripts can run at all on the file system; the user is prompted a yellow bar, warning that "To help protect your security, Internet Explorer has restricted this webpage from running scripts or ActiveX controls that could access your computer." But even once I click on the bar and "Allow Blocked Content" the page still fails; I get an "Access is Denied" error on the xhr.open call. This puzzles me, because MSDN says that "For development purposes, the file:// protocol is allowed from the Local Machine zone." This local file should be part of the Local Machine Zone, right? How can I get code like this to work? I'm fine with prompting the user with security warnings; I'm not OK with forcing them to turn off security in the control panel. EDIT: I am not, in fact, loading an XML document in my case; I'm loading a plain text file (.txt).

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  • ASP.NET CacheDependency out of ThreadPool

    - by Stephen
    In an async http handler, we add items to the ASP.NET cache, with dependencies on some files. If the async method executes on a thread from the ThreadPool, all is fine: AsyncResult result = new AsyncResult(context, cb, extraData); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(new WaitCallBack(DoProcessRequest), result); But as soon as we try to execute on a thread out of the ThreadPool: AsyncResult result = new AsyncResult(context, cb, extraData); Runner runner = new Runner(result); Thread thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(runner.Run()); ... where Runner.Run just invokes DoProcessRequest, The dependencies do trigger right after the thread exits. I.e. the items are immediately removed from the cache, the reason being the dependencies. We want to use an out-of-pool thread because the processing might take a long time. So obviously something's missing when we create the thread. We might need to propagate the call context, the http context... Has anybody already encountered that issue? Note: off-the-shelf custom threadpools probably solve this. Writing our own threadpool is probably a bad idea (think NIH syndrom). Yet I'd like to understand this in details, though.

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