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  • Class initialization and synchronized class method

    - by nybon
    Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

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  • Does adding to a method group count as using a variable?

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following code example taken from the code of a Form: protected void SomeMethod() { SomeOtherMethod(this.OnPaint); } private void SomeOtherMethod(Action<PaintEventArgs> onPaint) { onPaint += MyPaint; } protected void MyPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { // paint some stuff } The second method (SomeOtherMethod) has resharper complaining at me. It says of onPaint that "Value assigned is not used in any execution path". To my mind it was used because I added a method to the list of methods called when a paint was done. But usually when resharper tells me something like this it is because I am not understanding some part of C#. Like maybe when the param goes out of goes out of scope the item I added to the list gets removed (or something like that). I thought I would ask here to see if any one knows what resharper is trying to tell me. (Side Note: I usually just override OnPaint. But I am trying to get OnPaint to call a method in another class. I don't want to expose that method publicly so I thought I would pass in the OnPaint group and add to it.)

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  • resizing images with imagemagick via shell script

    - by jml
    Hi there, I don't really know that much about bash scripts OR imagemagick, but I am attempting to create a script in which you can give some sort of regexp matching pattern for a list of images and then process those into new files that have a given filename prefix. for example given the following dir listing: allfiles01.jpg allfiles02.jpg allfiles03.jpg i would like to call the script like so: ./resisemany.sh allfiles*.jpg 30 newnames*.jpg the end result of this would be that you get a bunch of new files with newnames, the numbers match up, so far what i have is: IMAGELIST=$1 RESIEZFACTOR=$2 NUMIMGS=length($IMAGELIST) for(i=0; i<NUMIMGS; i++) convert $IMAGELIST[i] -filter bessel -resize . RESIZEFACTOR . % myfile.JPG Thanks for any help... The parts that I obviously need help with are 1. how to give a bash script matching criteria that it understands 2. how to use the $2 without having it match the 2nd item in the image list 3. how to get the length of the image list 4. how to create a proper for loop in such a case 5. how to do proper text replacement for a shell command whereby you are appending items as i allude to. jml

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  • C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

    - by Wardy
    I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

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  • Lights off effect and jquery placement on wordpress

    - by Alexander Santiago
    I'm trying to implement a lights on/off on single posts of my wordpress theme. I know that I have to put this code on my css, which I did already: #the_lights{ background-color:#000; height:1px; width:1px; position:absolute; top:0; left:0; display:none; } #standout{ padding:5px; background-color:white; position:relative; z-index:1000; } Now this is the code that I'm having trouble with: function getHeight() { if ($.browser.msie) { var $temp = $("").css("position", "absolute") .css("left", "-10000px") .append($("body").html()); $("body").append($temp); var h = $temp.height(); $temp.remove(); return h; } return $("body").height(); } $(document).ready(function () { $("#the_lights").fadeTo(1, 0); $("#turnoff").click(function () { $("#the_lights").css("width", "100%"); $("#the_lights").css("height", getHeight() + "px"); $("#the_lights").css({‘display’: ‘block’ }); $("#the_lights").fadeTo("slow", 1); }); $("#soft").click(function () { $("#the_lights").css("width", "100%"); $("#the_lights").css("height", getHeight() + "px"); $("#the_lights").css("display", "block"); $("#the_lights").fadeTo("slow", 0.8); }); $("#turnon").click(function () { $("#the_lights").css("width", "1px"); $("#the_lights").css("height", "1px"); $("#the_lights").css("display", "block"); $("#the_lights").fadeTo("slow", 0); }); }); I think it's a jquery. Where do I place it and how do I call it's function? Been stuck on this thing for 6 hours now and any help would be greatly appreciated...

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  • I can't find the cause of an "unchecked or unsafe operations" warning in Java.

    - by Peter
    Hello, as per the title I am struggling to find the cause of an "unchecked or unsafe operations" warning in some code. If I have the following code, it compiles without any warnings: public void test() { Set<String> mySet = new HashSet<String>(); Set<String> myNewSet = mySet; //do stuff } Now, if I change where mySet comes from, specifically as the result of a method call, I get the "unchecked yadda yadda" warning: public void test() { Set<String> myNewSet = this.getSet(); //do stuff } public Set getSet() { Set<String> set = new HashSet<String>(); return set; } I have tried and tried to work out what the problem is and I am completely stumped. The issue is present whether I use Sets or Lists. Why would the Set returned by the getSet method be any different to the Set in the first example? Any help would be greatly appreciated as while the warning isn't the end of the world, it is bugging the hell out of me! :( Regards

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  • How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

    - by froadie
    I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

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  • jQuery code in ajax loaded content only runs once

    - by Michael Howland
    I have been looking around SO for a while and haven't been able to find anything that matches my issue, which I'm not even sure I can explain that well, so take that for what it's worth. I have a page that loads content into a div via AJAX (using the .load() method). There are several links in the navigation, meaning the content will change while navigating the site without refreshing the entire page. (Actually, to be honest, I just cribbed the DocTemplate layout [http://css-tricks.com/examples/DocTemplate/] from css-tricks.com. Apparently while I'm not a re-invent the wheel type programmer, I am a bash my head against the wheel incessantly to get it to work programmer.) So, index.php loads up some DB content in a div. There is also a jQuery UI modal input form on index.php. Essentially, the only HTML on the page is an empty div and a form. This all works fine, until I call up another page, then go back to index.php. The DB content is not loaded, and my form is shown there in all its naked glory. I know why this is happening. The page was not refreshed, nothing kicked off the code to load the content and hide the form. My question is, how can I ensure that the AJAX .load() and the .dialog() will run when loading index.php again? Is it even possible? Thanks, and my apologies for the length. I get verbose when I'm confused.

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  • PHP File Upload, using the FILES superglobal array

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody, I just have a quick question. Let's say that I'm setting up an upload feature for a project. I'm using PHP5, and I was wondering if by using the $_FILES superglobal array, I could have access to the "tmp_name" array key , which is the temporary path and name of the file being uploaded to display a preview of the image, before moving it to the "uploads" folder in the server. What I had in mind is something like this: Use jQuery to detect when the "file" input filed changes (when the user selects an image file), then place an ajax call to upload the the file, which will move it to the temp folder even before I use "move_uploaded_file". If I can somehow access the "tmp_name" array key, I could probably put it into and "img" tag to display a preview. Later move the file to it's final location when the submit button is clicked. I'm not asking for any code examples or anything, since I'd be thrilled to accomplish this on my own, I just want to find out if there is access to that array key in any way. Thanks in advance.

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  • BWToolkit inclusion crashing

    - by Schroedinger
    Hey guys I'm using the latest version of XCode (3.2.2) and I've linked the framework using the tutorial. I was building my app and tested it and I get a BWToolkit exception on decoding. I've included the Framework in the frameworks and added it to the copy files stage. I even created a new dummy app including the framework and adding it to the copy files stage and it still crashes when I try to run. Any ideas? Do I need to include it somewhere in the app? I'm worried I've overlooked something really simple. 2010-04-13 14:14:24.540 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] An uncaught exception was raised 2010-04-13 14:14:24.543 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] *** -[NSKeyedUnarchiver decodeObjectForKey:]: cannot decode object of class (BWSplitView) 2010-04-13 14:14:24.545 BWTestFramework[7504:a0f] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidUnarchiveOperationException', reason: '*** -[NSKeyedUnarchiver decodeObjectForKey:]: cannot decode object of class (BWSplitView)' *** Call stack at first throw: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77d24 __exceptionPreprocess + 180 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff82ba00f3 objc_exception_throw + 45 2 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77b47 +[NSException raise:format:arguments:] + 103 3 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff84a77ad4 +[NSException raise:format:] + 148 4 Foundation 0x00007fff83804aa6 _decodeObjectBinary + 2427 5 Foundation 0x00007fff83805825 -[NSKeyedUnarchiver _decodeArrayOfObjectsForKey:] + 1229 6 Foundation 0x00007fff83805d65 -[NSArray(NSArray) initWithCoder:] + 462 7 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 8 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 9 AppKit 0x00007fff8069fbfb -[NSView initWithCoder:] + 362 10 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 11 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 12 AppKit 0x00007fff806adfbb -[NSWindowTemplate initWithCoder:] + 3824 13 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 14 Foundation 0x00007fff83805825 -[NSKeyedUnarchiver _decodeArrayOfObjectsForKey:] + 1229 15 Foundation 0x00007fff83805268 -[NSSet(NSSet) initWithCoder:] + 447 16 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 17 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 18 AppKit 0x00007fff8062fcde -[NSIBObjectData initWithCoder:] + 1983 19 Foundation 0x00007fff83804b1f _decodeObjectBinary + 2548 20 Foundation 0x00007fff83803f99 _decodeObject + 208 21 AppKit 0x00007fff8062f40d loadNib + 146 22 AppKit 0x00007fff8062e96d +[NSBundle(NSNibLoading) _loadNibFile:nameTable:withZone:ownerBundle:] + 248 23 AppKit 0x00007fff8062e7a5 +[NSBundle(NSNibLoading) loadNibNamed:owner:] + 326 24 AppKit 0x00007fff8062bd27 NSApplicationMain + 279 25 BWTestFramework 0x0000000100001891 main + 33 26 BWTestFramework 0x0000000100001868 start + 52 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' That's the crash report

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  • Attaching event on the fly with prototype

    - by andreas
    Hi, I've been scratching my head over this for an hour... I have a list of todo which has done button on each item. Every time a user clicks on that, it's supposed to do an Ajax call to the server, calling the marking function then updates the whole list. The problem I'm facing is that the new list has done buttons as well on each item. And it doesn't attach the click event anymore after first update. How do you attach an event handler on newly updated element with prototype? Note: I've passed evalScripts: true to the updater wrapper initial event handler attach <script type="text/javascript"> document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { $$('.todo-done a').each(function(a) { $(a).observe('click', function(e) { var todoId = $(this).readAttribute('href').substr(1); new Ajax.Updater('todo-list', $.utils.getPath('/todos/ajax_mark/done'), { onComplete: function() { $.utils.updateList({evalScripts: true}); } }); }); }) }); </script> updateList: <script type="text/javascript"> var Utils = Class.create({ updateList: function(options) { if(typeof options == 'undefined') { options = {}; } new Ajax.Updater('todo-list', $.utils.getPath('/todos/ajax_get'), $H(options).merge({ onComplete: function() { $first = $('todo-list').down(); $first.hide(); Effect.Appear($first, {duration: 0.7}); new Effect.Pulsate($('todo-list').down(), {pulses: 1, duration: 0.4, queue: 'end'}); } }) ); } }) $.utils = new Utils('globals'); </script> any help is very much appreciated, thank you :)

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  • Spring 3.0 vs J2EE 6.0

    - by StudiousJoseph
    Hi everybody, I'm confronted with a situation... I've been asked to give an advise regarding which approach to take, in terms of J2EE development between Spring 3.0 and J2EE 6.0. I was, and still am, a promoter of Spring 2.5 over classic J2EE 5 development, specially with JBoss, I even migrated old apps to Spring and influenced the re-definition of the development policy here to include Spring specific APIs, and helped the development of a strategic plan to foster more lightweight solutions like Spring + Tomcat, instead of the heavier ones of JBoss, right now, we're using JBoss merely as a Web container, having what i call the "container inside the container paradox", that is, having Spring apps, with most of its APIs, running inside JBoss, So we're in the process of migrating to tomcat. However, with the coming of J2EE 6.0 many features, that made Spring attractive at that time, easy deployment, less-coupling, even some sort of D.I, etc, seems to have been mimicked, in one way or the other. JSF 2.0, JPA 2.0, WebBeans, WebProfiles, etc. So, the question goes... From your point of view, how save, and logical, it is to continue to invest in a non-standard J2EE development framework like Spring given the new perspectives offered by J2EE 6.0? Can we talk about maybe 3 or 4 more years of Spring development, or do you recommend early adoption of J2EE 6.0 APIs and it's practices? I'll appreciate any insights with this...

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  • How to set an empty value using XPath?

    - by Ricardo
    Using this xml example: <templateitem itemid="5"> <templateitemdata>%ARN%</templateitemdata> </templateitem> <templateitem itemid="6"> <templateitemdata></templateitemdata> </templateitem> I am using XPath to get and set Node values. The code I am using to get the nodes is: private static Node ***getNode***(Document doc, String XPathQuery) throws XPathExpressionException { XPath xpath = XPathFactory.newInstance().newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile(XPathQuery); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; if(nodes != null && nodes.getLength() >0) return nodes.item(0); throw new XPathExpressionException("No node list found for " + XPathQuery); } To get %ARN% value: "//templateitem[@itemid=5]/templateitemdata/text()" and with the getNode method I can get the node, and then call the getNodeValue(). Besides getting that value, I would like to set templateitemdata value for the "templateitem[@itemid=6]" since its empty. But the code I use can't get the node since its empty. The result is null. Do you know a way get the node so I can set the value?

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  • What does the JS function 'postMessage()' do when called on an html object tag?

    - by Stephano
    I was recently searching for a way to call the print function on a PDF I was displaying in adobe air. I solved this problem with a little help from this fellow, and by calling postMessage on my PDF like so: //this is the HTML I use to view my PDF <object id="PDFObj" data="test.pdf" type="application/pdf"/> ... //this actionscript lives in my air app var pdfObj:Object = htmlLoader.window.document.getElementById("PDFObj"); pdfObj.postMessage([message]); I've tried this in JavaScript as well, just to be sure it wasn't adobe sneaking in and helping me out... var obj = document.getElementById("PDFObj"); obj.postMessage([message]); Works well in JavaScript and in ActionScript. I looked up what the MDC had to say about postMessage, but all I found was window.postMessage. Now, the code works like a charm, and postMessage magically sends my message to my PDF's embedded JavaScript. However, I'm still not sure how I'm doing this. I found adobe talking about this method, but not really explaining it: HTML-PDF communication basics JavaScript in an HTML page can send a message to JavaScript in PDF content by calling the postMessage() method of the DOM object representing the PDF content. Any ideas how this is accomplished?

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  • Changing the innerHTML of elements in a nested div tag..

    - by PoorCoder
    -- Representative code only - I need to know how to change the innerhtml of the tablerow -- <html> <head> <script> //full javascript declaration - function call after page loads.. function () { document.getElementById('tr1').innerHTML='<td>Test</td>'; // does not work.. document.getElementByTagNames('tr')[0].innerHTML='<td>Test</td>'; // does not work.. document.getElementById('div2').getElementsByTagNames('tr')[0].innerHTML='<td>Test</td>'; //does not work.. document.getElementById('div1').div2.tr1.innerHTML='<td>Test</td>'; //nope } </script> </head> <body> <div id='div1'> <div id='div2'> <table> <tr id='tr1'></tr> </table> </div> </div> </body> </html> Thanks for the help

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  • Why do bind1st and bind2nd require constant function objects?

    - by rlbond
    So, I was writing a C++ program which would allow me to take control of the entire world. I was all done writing the final translation unit, but I got an error: error C3848: expression having type 'const `anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<T,BinaryFunction>' would lose some const-volatile qualifiers in order to call 'void `anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<T,BinaryFunction>::operator ()(const point::Point &,const int &)' with [ T=SideCounter, BinaryFunction=std::plus<int> ] c:\program files (x86)\microsoft visual studio 9.0\vc\include\functional(324) : while compiling class template member function 'void std::binder2nd<_Fn2>::operator ()(point::Point &) const' with [ _Fn2=`anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<SideCounter,std::plus<int>> ] c:\users\****\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\TAKE_OVER_THE_WORLD\grid_divider.cpp(361) : see reference to class template instantiation 'std::binder2nd<_Fn2>' being compiled with [ _Fn2=`anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<SideCounter,std::plus<int>> ] I looked in the specifications of binder2nd and there it was: it took a const AdaptibleBinaryFunction. So, not a big deal, I thought. I just used boost::bind instead, right? Wrong! Now my take-over-the-world program takes too long to compile (bind is used inside a template which is instantiated quite a lot)! At this rate, my nemesis is going to take over the world first! I can't let that happen -- he uses Java! So can someone tell me why this design decision was made? It seems like an odd decision. I guess I'll have to make some of the elements of my class mutable for now...

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  • Advanced Localization with Omission of Arguments in Xcode

    - by coneybeare
    I have this formatted string that I am having a translator work on. ENGLISH "Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@" = "Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@" GERMAN TRANSLATION "Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@" = "Hör Dir mal %2$@ in %3$@ an: %4$@"; These are passed to a [NSString stringWithFormat:] call: ////////////////////////////////////// // Share Over Twitter NSString *frmt = NSLocalizedString(@"Check out the %1$@ %2$@ in %3$@: %4$@", @"The default tweet for sharing sounds. Use %1$@ for where the sound type (Sound, mix, playlist) will be, %2$@ for where the audio name will be, %3$@ for the app name, and %3$@ for where the sound link will be."); NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"sounds/%@", SoundSoundID(audio)]; NSString *url = ([audio audioType] == UAAudioTypeSound ? UrlFor(urlString) : APP_SHORTLINK); NSString *msg = [NSString stringWithFormat: frmt, [[Audio titleForAudioType:[audio audioType]] lowercaseString], [NSString stringWithFormat:@"\"%@\"", AudioName(audio)], APP_NAME, url]; NSString *applink = [NSString stringWithFormat:@" %@", APP_SHORTLINK]; if (msg.length <= (140 - applink.length)) { msg = [msg stringByAppendingString:applink]; } returnString = msg; With the desired and actual outcome of: ENGLISH desired: "Check out the sound "This Sound Name" in My App Name: link_to_sound link_to_app" actual: "Check out the sound "This Sound Name" in My App Name: link_to_sound link_to_app" GERMAN desired: "Hör Dir mal "This Sound Name" in My App Name an: link_to_sound link_to_app" actual: "Hör Dir mal sound in "This Sound Name" an: My App Name link_to_app" THE PROBLEM The problem is that I was under the assumption that by using numbered variable in the NSLocalizedString, I could do things like this, where the %1$@ variable is completely omitted. If you notice, the German translation of the format string does not use the first argument (%1$@) at all but it ("sound") still appears in the output string. What am I doing wrong?

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  • how to use a parameterized function for the Default Binding of a Sql Server column

    - by Walt Gaber
    I have a table that catalogs selected files from multiple sources. I want to record whether a file is a duplicate of a previously cataloged file at the time the new file is cataloged. I have a column in my table (“primary_duplicate”) to record each entry as ‘P’ (primary) or ‘D’ (duplicate). I would like to provide a Default Binding for this column that would check for other occurrences of this file (i.e. name, length, timestamp) at the time the new file is being recorded. I have created a function that performs this check (see “GetPrimaryDuplicate” below). But I don’t know how to bind this function which requires three parameters to the table’s “primary_duplicate” column as its Default Binding. I would like to avoid using a trigger. I currently have a stored procedure used to insert new records that performs this check. But I would like to ensure that the flag is set correctly if an insert is performed outside of this stored procedure. How can I call this function with values from the row that is being inserted? USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog]( [id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [catalog_timestamp] [datetime] NOT NULL, [primary_duplicate] nchar NOT NULL, [name] nvarchar NULL, [length] [bigint] NULL, [timestamp] [datetime] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_id] DEFAULT (newid()) FOR [id] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_catalog_timestamp] DEFAULT (getdate()) FOR [catalog_timestamp] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FileCatalog] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_FileCatalog_primary_duplicate] DEFAULT (N'GetPrimaryDuplicate(name, length, timestamp)') FOR [primary_duplicate] GO USE [MyDatabase] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[GetPrimaryDuplicate] ( @name nvarchar(255), @length bigint, @timestamp datetime ) RETURNS nchar(1) AS BEGIN DECLARE @c int SELECT @c = COUNT(*) FROM FileCatalog WHERE name=@name and length=@length and timestamp=@timestamp and primary_duplicate = 'P' IF @c > 0 RETURN 'D' -- Duplicate RETURN 'P' -- Primary END GO

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  • Verify an event was raised by mocked object

    - by joblot
    In my unit test how can I verify that an event is raised by the mocked object. I have a View(UI) -- ViewModel -- DataProvider -- ServiceProxy. ServiceProxy makes async call to serivce operation. When async operation is complete a method on DataProvider is called (callback method is passed as a method parameter). The callback method then raise and event which ViewModel is listening to. For ViewModel test I mock DataProvider and verify that handler exists for event raised by DataProvider. When testing DataProvider I mock ServiceProxy, but how can I test that callback method is called and event is raised. I am using RhinoMock 3.5 and AAA syntax Thanks -- DataProvider -- public partial class DataProvider { public event EventHandler<EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>> GetProductDefinitionCompleted; public void GetProductDefinition() { var service = IoC.Resolve<IServiceProxy>(); service.GetProductDefinitionAsync(GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback); } private void GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback(ProductDefinition productDefinition, ServiceError error) { OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(this, new EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>(productDefinition, error)); } protected void OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(object sender, EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition> e) { if (GetProductDefinitionCompleted != null) GetProductDefinitionCompleted(sender, e); } } -- ServiceProxy -- public class ServiceProxy : ClientBase<IService>, IServiceProxy { public void GetProductDefinitionAsync(Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback) { Channel.BeginGetProductDefinition(EndGetProductDefinition, callback); } private void EndGetProductDefinition(IAsyncResult result) { Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback = result.AsyncState as Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError>; ServiceError error; ProductDefinition results = Channel.EndGetProductDefinition(out error, result); if (callback != null) callback(results, error); } }

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  • Life Scope of Temporary Variable

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    #include <cstdio> #include <string> void fun(const char* c) { printf("--> %s\n", c); } std::string get() { std::string str = "Hello World"; return str; } int main() { const char *cc = get().c_str(); // cc is not valid at this point. As it is pointing to // temporary string internal buffer, and the temporary string // has already been destroyed at this point. fun(cc); // But I am surprise this call will yield valid result. // It seems that the returned temporary string is valid within // scope (...) // What my understanding is, scope means {...} // Is this valid behavior guarantee by C++ standard? Or it depends // on your compiler vendor implementations? fun(get().c_str()); getchar(); } The output is : --> --> Hello World Hello, may I know the correct behavior is guarantee by C++ standard, or it depends on your compiler vendor implementations? I have tested this under VC2008 and VC6. Works fine for both.

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  • How to make safe frequent DataSource switches for AbstractRoutingDataSource?

    - by serg555
    I implemented Dynamic DataSource Routing for Spring+Hibernate according to this article. I have several databases with same structure and I need to select which db will run each specific query. Everything works fine on localhost, but I am worrying about how this will hold up in real web site environment. They are using some static context holder to determine which datasource to use: public class CustomerContextHolder { private static final ThreadLocal<CustomerType> contextHolder = new ThreadLocal<CustomerType>(); public static void setCustomerType(CustomerType customerType) { Assert.notNull(customerType, "customerType cannot be null"); contextHolder.set(customerType); } public static CustomerType getCustomerType() { return (CustomerType) contextHolder.get(); } public static void clearCustomerType() { contextHolder.remove(); } } It is wrapped inside some ThreadLocal container, but what exactly does that mean? What will happen when two web requests call this piece of code in parallel: CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType(CustomerType.GOLD); //<another user will switch customer type here to CustomerType.SILVER in another request> List<Item> goldItems = catalog.getItems(); Is every web request wrapped into its own thread in Spring MVC? Will CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType() changes be visible to other web users? My controllers have synchronizeOnSession=true. How to make sure that nobody else will switch datasource until I run required query for current user? Thanks.

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  • Is there an easier way to do Classic ASP "relative path"?

    - by Alex.Piechowski
    Right now, I'm having trouble. First of all I have a page, let's call it "http://blah.com/login". That obviously goes strait to "index.asp" A line of Main.asp: <!--#include file="resource/menu.asp"--> Page top includes all of what I need for my menu... so: Part of resource/menu.htm: <div id="colortab" class="ddcolortabs"> <ul> <li><a href="main.asp" title="Main" rel="dropmain"><span>Main</span></a></li> ... </ul> </div> <!--Main drop down menu --> <div id="dropmain" class="dropmenudiv_a"> <a href="main/announcements.asp">Announcements</a> <a href="main/contacts.asp">Contact Information</a> <a href="main/MeetingPlans.asp">Meeting Plan</a> <a href="main/photos.asp">Photo Gallery</a> <a href="main/events.asp">Upcoming Events</a> </div> Let's say I click on the "announcements" (http://blah.com/login/main/announcements.asp) link... Now I'm at the announcements page! But wait, I include the same menu file. Guess what happens: I get sent to "http://blah.com/login/main/main/announcements.asp Which doesn't exist... My solution: Make a menu_sub.asp include for any subpages. But wait a second... this WORKS, but it gets REALLY REALLY messy... What can I do to use just one main "menu.asp" instead of "menu_sub.asp"? using "/main/announcements.asp" WON'T be an option because this is a web application that will be on different directories per server. Any ideas? PLEASE

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  • Flag bit computation and detection

    - by Majid
    Hi all, In some code I'm working on I should take care of ten independent parameters which can take one of two values (0 or 1). This creates 2^10 distinct conditions. Some of the conditions never occur and can be left out, but those which do occur are still A LOT and making a switch to handle all cases is insane. I want to use 10 if statements instead of a huge switch. For this I know I should use flag bits, or rather flag bytes as the language is javascript and its easier to work with a 10 byte string with to represent a 10-bit binary. Now, my problem is, I don't know how to implement this. I have seen this used in APIs where multiple-selectable options are exposed with numbers 1, 2, 4, 8, ... , n^(n-1) which are decimal equivalents of 1, 10, 100, 1000, etc. in binary. So if we make call like bar = foo(7), bar will be an object with whatever options the three rightmost flags enable. I can convert the decimal number into binary and in each if statement check to see if the corresponding digit is set or not. But I wonder, is there a way to determine the n-th digit of a decimal number is zero or one in binary form, without actually doing the conversion?

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  • Issue calling superclass method in subclass constructor

    - by stormin986
    I get a NullPointerException calling a Superclass Method in Subclass Inner Class Constructor... What's the Deal? In my application's main class (subclass of Application), I have a public inner class that simply contains 3 public string objects. In the parent class I declare an object of that inner class. public class MainApplication extends Application { public class Data { public String x; public String y; public String z; } private Data data; MainApplication() { data = new Data() data.x = SuperClassMethod(); } } After I instantiate the object in the constructor, I get a runtime error when I try to assign a value in the inner class with a superclass method. Any idea what's up here?? Can you not call superclass methods in the subclass constructor? ** Edit ** Original question was about inner class member assignment in outer class constructor. Turned out the issue was with calling a superclass method in the class's constructor. It was giving me a null pointer exception. Thus, the question has changed.

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  • MSBuild / PowerShell: Copy SQL Server 2012 database to SQL Azure via BACPAC (for Continuous Integration)

    - by giveme5minutes
    I'm creating a continuous integration MSBuild script which copies a database in on-premise SQL Server 2012 to SQL Azure. Easy right? Methods After a fair bit of research I've come across the following methods: Use PowerShell to access the DAC library directly, then use the MSBuild PowerShell extension to wrap the script. This would require installing PowerShell 3 and working out how to make the MSBuild PowerShell extension work with it, as apparently MS moved the DAC API to a different namespace in the latest version of the library. PowerShell would give direct access to the API, but may require quite a bit of boilerplate. Use the sample DAC Framework Client Side Tools, which requires compiling them myself, as the downloads available from Codeplex only include the Hosted version. It would also require fixing them to use DAC 3.0 classes as they appear to currently use an earlier version of DAC. I could then call these tools from an <Exec Command="" /> in the MSBuild script. Less boilerplate and if I hit any bumps in the road I can just make changes to the source. Processes Using whichever method, the process could be either: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Upload BACPAC to blog storage Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Hosted DAC Or: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Client DAC Question All of the above seems to be quite a lot of effort for something that seems to be a standard feature... so before I start reinventing the wheel and documenting the results for all to see, is there something really obvious that I've missed here? Is there pre-written script that MS has released that I have not yet uncovered? There's an command in the GUI of SQL Server Management Studio 2012 that does EXACTLY what I'm trying to do (right click on local database, click "Tasks", click "Deploy Database to SQL Azure"). Surely if it's a few clicks in the GUI it must be a single command on the command line somewhere??

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