Search Results

Search found 20869 results on 835 pages for 'things i hate'.

Page 784/835 | < Previous Page | 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791  | Next Page >

• Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

  - by themoondothshine

  Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

  Read the article

• Minutia on Objective-C Categories and Extensions.

  - by Matt Wilding

  I learned something new while trying to figure out why my readwrite property declared in a private Category wasn't generating a setter. It was because my Category was named: // .m @interface MyClass (private) @property (readwrite, copy) NSArray* myProperty; @end Changing it to: // .m @interface MyClass () @property (readwrite, copy) NSArray* myProperty; @end and my setter is synthesized. I now know that Class Extension is not just another name for an anonymous Category. Leaving a Category unnamed causes it to morph into a different beast: one that now gives compile-time method implementation enforcement and allows you to add ivars. I now understand the general philosophies underlying each of these: Categories are generally used to add methods to any class at runtime, and Class Extensions are generally used to enforce private API implementation and add ivars. I accept this. But there are trifles that confuse me. First, at a hight level: Why differentiate like this? These concepts seem like similar ideas that can't decide if they are the same, or different concepts. If they are the same, I would expect the exact same things to be possible using a Category with no name as is with a named Category (which they are not). If they are different, (which they are) I would expect a greater syntactical disparity between the two. It seems odd to say, "Oh, by the way, to implement a Class Extension, just write a Category, but leave out the name. It magically changes." Second, on the topic of compile time enforcement: If you can't add properties in a named Category, why does doing so convince the compiler that you did just that? To clarify, I'll illustrate with my example. I can declare a readonly property in the header file: // .h @interface MyClass : NSObject @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end Now, I want to head over to the implementation file and give myself private readwrite access to the property. If I do it correctly: // .m @interface MyClass () @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end I get a warning when I don't synthesize, and when I do, I can set the property and everything is peachy. But, frustratingly, if I happen to be slightly misguided about the difference between Category and Class Extension and I try: // .m @interface MyClass (private) @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end The compiler is completely pacified into thinking that the property is readwrite. I get no warning, and not even the nice compile error "Object cannot be set - either readonly property or no setter found" upon setting myString that I would had I not declared the readwrite property in the Category. I just get the "Does not respond to selector" exception at runtime. If adding ivars and properties is not supported by (named) Categories, is it too much to ask that the compiler play by the same rules? Am I missing some grand design philosophy?

  Read the article

• How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

  - by kevinegham

  Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

  Read the article

• Returning JSON in CFFunction and appending it to layer is causing an error

  - by Mel

  I'm using the qTip jQuery plugin to generate a dynamic tooltip. I'm getting an error in my JS, and I'm unsure if its source is the JSON or the JS. The tooltip calls the following function: (sorry about all this code, but it's necessary) <cffunction name="fGameDetails" access="remote" returnType="any" returnformat="JSON" output="false" hint="This grabs game details for the games.cfm page"> <!---Argument, which is the game ID---> <cfargument name="gameID" type="numeric" required="true" hint="CFC will look for GameID and retrieve its details"> <!---Local var---> <cfset var qGameDetails = ""> <!---Database query---> <cfquery name="qGameDetails" datasource="#REQUEST.datasource#"> SELECT titles.titleName AS tName, titles.titleBrief AS tBrief, games.gameID, games.titleID, games.releaseDate AS rDate, genres.genreName AS gName, platforms.platformAbbr AS pAbbr, platforms.platformName AS pName, creviews.cReviewScore AS rScore, ratings.ratingName AS rName FROM games Inner Join platforms ON platforms.platformID = games.platformID Inner Join titles ON titles.titleID = games.titleID Inner Join genres ON genres.genreID = games.genreID Inner Join creviews ON games.gameID = creviews.gameID Inner Join ratings ON ratings.ratingID = games.ratingID WHERE (games.gameID = #ARGUMENTS.gameID#); </cfquery> <cfreturn qGameDetails> </cffunction> This function returns the following JSON: { "COLUMNS": [ "TNAME", "TBRIEF", "GAMEID", "TITLEID", "RDATE", "GNAME", "PABBR", "PNAME", "RSCORE", "RNAME" ], "DATA": [ [ "Dark Void", "Ancient gods known as 'The Watchers,' once banished from our world by superhuman Adepts, have returned with a vengeance.", 154, 54, "January, 19 2010 00:00:00", "Action & Adventure", "PS3", "Playstation 3", 3.3, "14 Anos" ] ] } The problem I'm having is every time I try to append the JSON to the layer #catalog, I get a syntax error that says "missing parenthetical." This is the JavaScript I'm using: $(document).ready(function() { $('#catalog a[href]').each(function() { $(this).qtip( { content: { url: '/gamezilla/resources/components/viewgames.cfc?method=fGameDetails', data: { gameID: $(this).attr('href').match(/gameID=([0-9]+)$/)[1] }, method: 'get' }, api: { beforeContentUpdate: function(content) { var json = eval('(' + content + ')'); content = $('<div />').append( $('<h1 />', { html: json.TNAME })); return content; } }, style: { width: 300, height: 300, padding: 0, name: 'light', tip: { corner: 'leftMiddle', size: { x: 40, y : 40 } } }, position: { corner: { target: 'rightMiddle', tooltip: 'leftMiddle' } } }); }); }); Any ideas where I'm going wrong? I tried many things for several days and I can't find the issue. Many thanks!

  Read the article

• A two player game over the intranet..

  - by Santwana

  Hi everybody.. I am a student of 3rd year engineering and only a novice in my programming skills. I need some help with my project.. I wish to develop a two player game to be played over the network (Intranet). I want to develop a simple website with a few html pages for this.My ideas for the project run as follows: 1.People can log in from different systems and check who ever is online on the network currently. the page also shows who is playing with whom. 2.If a person is interested in playing with a player who is currently online, he sends a request of which the other player is somehow notified( using a message or an alert on his profile page..) 3.If the player accepts the request, a game is started. This is exactly where I am clueless.. How can I make them play the game? I need to develop a turn based game with two players, eg chessboard.. how can I do this? The game has to be played live.. and it is time tracked. i need your help with coding the above.. the other features i wish to include are: 4.The game could not be abruptly terminated by any one if the users.The request to terminate the game should be sent to the other player first and only if he accepts can the game be terminated. Whoever wins the game would get a plus 10 on their credit and if he terminated he gets a minus 10. The credits remains constant even if he loses but the success percentage is reduced. 6.The player with highest winning percentage is projected as the player of the week on the home page and he can post a challenge to all others.. I only have an intermediate knowledge of core java and know the basics of Swing and Awt. I am not at all familiar with networking in java right now. I have 5 to 6 weeks of time for developing the project but I hope to learn the things before I start my project. i would prefer to use a lan to illustrate the project and I know only java,jsp,oracle,html and bit of xml to develop my proj. Also I wish to know if I can code this within 6 weeks, would it be too difficult or complicated? Please spare some time to tell me. Please.. please.. I need your suggestions and help.. thank you so much..

  Read the article

• Akka framework support for finding duplicate messages

  - by scala_is_awesome

  I'm trying to build a high-performance distributed system with Akka and Scala. If a message requesting an expensive (and side-effect-free) computation arrives, and the exact same computation has already been requested before, I want to avoid computing the result again. If the computation requested previously has already completed and the result is available, I can cache it and re-use it. However, the time window in which duplicate computation can be requested may be arbitrarily small. e.g. I could get a thousand or a million messages requesting the same expensive computation at the same instant for all practical purposes. There is a commercial product called Gigaspaces that supposedly handles this situation. However there seems to be no framework support for dealing with duplicate work requests in Akka at the moment. Given that the Akka framework already has access to all the messages being routed through the framework, it seems that a framework solution could make a lot of sense here. Here is what I am proposing for the Akka framework to do: 1. Create a trait to indicate a type of messages (say, "ExpensiveComputation" or something similar) that are to be subject to the following caching approach. 2. Smartly (hashing etc.) identify identical messages received by (the same or different) actors within a user-configurable time window. Other options: select a maximum buffer size of memory to be used for this purpose, subject to (say LRU) replacement etc. Akka can also choose to cache only the results of messages that were expensive to process; the messages that took very little time to process can be re-processed again if needed; no need to waste precious buffer space caching them and their results. 3. When identical messages (received within that time window, possibly "at the same time instant") are identified, avoid unnecessary duplicate computations. The framework would do this automatically, and essentially, the duplicate messages would never get received by a new actor for processing; they would silently vanish and the result from processing it once (whether that computation was already done in the past, or ongoing right then) would get sent to all appropriate recipients (immediately if already available, and upon completion of the computation if not). Note that messages should be considered identical even if the "reply" fields are different, as long as the semantics/computations they represent are identical in every other respect. Also note that the computation should be purely functional, i.e. free from side-effects, for the caching optimization suggested to work and not change the program semantics at all. If what I am suggesting is not compatible with the Akka way of doing things, and/or if you see some strong reasons why this is a very bad idea, please let me know. Thanks, Is Awesome, Scala

  Read the article

• MATLAB arbitrary code execution

  - by aristotle2600

  I am writing an automatic grader program under linux. There are several graders written in MATLAB, so I want to tie them all together and let students run a program to do an assignment, and have them choose the assignment. I am using a C++ main program, which then has mcc-compiled MATLAB libraries linked to it. Specifically, my program reads a config file for the names of the various matlab programs, and other information. It then uses that information to present choices to the student. So, If an assignment changes, is added or removed, then all you have to do is change the config file. The idea is that next, the program invokes the correct matlab library that has been compiled with mcc. But, that means that the libraries have to be recompiled if a grader gets changed. Worse, the whole program must be recompiled if a grader is added or removed. So, I would like one, simple, unchanging matlab library function to call the grader m-files directly. I currently have such a library, that uses eval on a string passed to it from the main program. The problem is that when I do this, apparently, mcc absorbs the grader m-code into itself; changing the grader m code after compilation has no effect. I would like for this not to happen. It was brought to my attention that Mathworks may not want me to be able to do this, since it could bypass matlab entirely. That is not my intention, and I would be happy with a solution that requires a full matlab install. My possible solutions are to use a mex file for the main program, or have the main program call a mcc library, which then calls a mex file, which then calls the proper grader. The reason I am hesitant about the first solution is that I'm not sure how many changes I would have to make to my code to make it work; my code is C++, not C, which I think makes things more complicated. The 2nd solution, though, may just be more complicated and ultimately have the same problem. So, any thoughts on this situation? How should I do this?

  Read the article

• help with generating models from database for many to many in doctrine

  - by ajsie

  im using doctrine and i have set up some test tables to be generated into models: I want a many-to-many relationship models (3 tables converted into 3 models) (things are simplified to make the point clear) mysql tables: user: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR group: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR user_group: user_id INT // primary and foreign key to user.id group_id INT // primary and foreign key to group.id i thought that it would generate these models (from the documentation): // User.php class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Group as Groups', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'group_id' ) ); } } // Group.php class Group extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as Users', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'user_id' ) ); } } // UserGroup.php class UserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id') ); $this->hasColumn('group_id') ); } } but it generated this: // User.php abstract class BaseUser extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id')); } } // Group.php abstract class BaseGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'group_id')); } } // UserGroup.php abstract class BaseUserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id'); $this->hasColumn('group_id'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasOne('User', array( 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); $this->hasOne('Group', array( 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); } } as you can see, there is no 'refClass' in the 'User' and 'Group' models pointing to the 'UserGroup'. the 'UserGroup' table in this case is just another table from Doctrine's perspective not a reference table. I've checked my table definitions in mysql. They are correct. user_group has 2 columns (primary keys and foreign keys), each one pointing to the primary key in either User or Group. But i want the standard many-to-many relationship models in Doctrine models. I'd appreciate some help. I have struggled to figure it out for a half day now. What is wrong? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Java: file write on finalize method

  - by sowrov

  In my understanding a singleton object will destroy only when the application is about to terminate. So in C++ I write a Singleton class to log my application and in that Singleton logger's destructor I log the time when my application was terminated. Things worked perfectly in C++. Now I want to have that same logger in Java, as in java there is no destructor so I implemented the finalize method for that singleton logger. But it seem that finalize method actually never get called. So, I add that System.runFinalizersOnExit(true); line, somewhere in my code (though I know it is deprecated) and that finalize method get called every time before termination of the app. But still there is a problem! If I try to write anything on file in that finalize method, It does not work, though System.out work without any problem! :( Can you guys help me on this problem? Here is a sample code of what I am try to do: Singleton Logger Class: public class MyLogger { FileWriter writer; private MyLogger() { try { this.writer = new FileWriter("log.txt"); } catch (IOException ex) { } } public static MyLogger getInstance() { return MyLoggerHolder.INSTANCE; } private static class MyLoggerHolder { private static final MyLogger INSTANCE = new MyLogger(); } @Override protected void finalize () { try { super.finalize(); System.out.println("Here"); //worked correctly. this.writer.write(new Date().toString()+System.getProperty("line.separator")); this.writer.write("End"); this.writer.flush(); //does not work! this.writer.close(); } catch (Throwable ex) { } } public synchronized void log(String str) { try { this.writer.write(new Date().toString()+System.getProperty("line.separator")); this.writer.write(str+"\n"); this.writer.flush(); } catch (IOException ex) { } } } Main: public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { System.runFinalizersOnExit(true); MyLogger logger = MyLogger.getInstance(); logger.log("test"); } }

  Read the article

• Applying styles to a GridView matching certain criteria

  - by NickK

  Hi everyone. I'm fairly new to ASP.Net so it's probably just me being a bit stupid, but I just can't figure out why this isn't working. Basically, I have a GridView control (GridView1) on a page which is reading from a database. I already have a CSS style applied to the GridView and all I want to do is change the background image applied in the style depending on if a certain cell has data in it or not. The way I'm trying to handle this change is updating the CSS class applied to each row through C#. I have the code below doing this: protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = e.Row; string s = row.Cells[7].Text; if (s.Length > 0) { row.CssClass = "newRowBackground"; } else { row.CssClass = "oldRowBackground"; } } In theory, the data from Cell[7] will either be null or be a string (in this case, likely a person's name). The problem is that when the page loads, every row in the GridView has the new style applied to it, whether it's empty or not. However, when I change it to use hard coded examples, it works fine. So for example, the below would work exactly how I want it to: protected void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = e.Row; string s = row.Cells[7].Text; if (s == "Smith") //Matching a name in one of the rows { row.CssClass = "newRowBackground"; } else { row.CssClass = "oldRowBackground"; } } It seems as if the top piece of code is always returning the string with a value greater than 0, but when I check the database the fields are all null (except for my test record of "Smith"). I'm probably doing something very simple that's wrong here, but I can't see what. Like I said, I'm still very new to this. One thing I have tried is changing the argument in the if statement to things like: if (s != null), if (s != "") and if (s == string.empty) all with no luck. Any help is greatly appreciated and don't hesitate to tell me if I'm just being stupid here. :)

  Read the article

• Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

  - by David

  I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

  Read the article

• python object to native c++ pointer

  - by Lodle

  Im toying around with the idea to use python as an embedded scripting language for a project im working on and have got most things working. However i cant seem to be able to convert a python extended object back into a native c++ pointer. So this is my class: class CGEGameModeBase { public: virtual void FunctionCall()=0; virtual const char* StringReturn()=0; }; class CGEPYGameMode : public CGEGameModeBase, public boost::python::wrapper<CGEPYGameMode> { public: virtual void FunctionCall() { if (override f = this->get_override("FunctionCall")) f(); } virtual const char* StringReturn() { if (override f = this->get_override("StringReturn")) return f(); return "FAILED TO CALL"; } }; Boost wrapping: BOOST_PYTHON_MODULE(GEGameMode) { class_<CGEGameModeBase, boost::noncopyable>("CGEGameModeBase", no_init); class_<CGEPYGameMode, bases<CGEGameModeBase> >("CGEPYGameMode", no_init) .def("FunctionCall", &CGEPYGameMode::FunctionCall) .def("StringReturn", &CGEPYGameMode::StringReturn); } and the python code: import GEGameMode def Ident(): return "Alpha" def NewGamePlay(): return "NewAlpha" def NewAlpha(): import GEGameMode import GEUtil class Alpha(GEGameMode.CGEPYGameMode): def __init__(self): print "Made new Alpha!" def FunctionCall(self): GEUtil.Msg("This is function test Alpha!") def StringReturn(self): return "This is return test Alpha!" return Alpha() Now i can call the first to functions fine by doing this: const char* ident = extract< const char* >( GetLocalDict()["Ident"]() ); const char* newgameplay = extract< const char* >( GetLocalDict()["NewGamePlay"]() ); printf("Loading Script: %s\n", ident); CGEPYGameMode* m_pGameMode = extract< CGEPYGameMode* >( GetLocalDict()[newgameplay]() ); However when i try and convert the Alpha class back to its base class (last line above) i get an boost error: TypeError: No registered converter was able to extract a C++ pointer to type class CGEPYGameMode from this Python object of type Alpha I have done alot of searching on the net but cant work out how to convert the Alpha object into its base class pointer. I could leave it as an object but rather have it as a pointer so some non python aware code can use it. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• KeyNotFound Exception in Dictionary(of T)

  - by C Patton

  I'm about ready to bang my head against the wall I have a class called Map which has a dictionary called tiles. class Map { public Dictionary<Location, Tile> tiles = new Dictionary<Location, Tile>(); public Size mapSize; public Map(Size size) { this.mapSize = size; } //etc... I fill this dictionary temporarily to test some things.. public void FillTemp(Dictionary<int, Item> itemInfo) { Random r = new Random(); for(int i =0; i < mapSize.Width; i++) { for(int j=0; j<mapSize.Height; j++) { Location temp = new Location(i, j, 0); int rint = r.Next(0, (itemInfo.Count - 1)); Tile t = new Tile(new Item(rint, rint)); tiles[temp] = t; } } } and in my main program code Map m = new Map(10, 10); m.FillTemp(iInfo); Tile t = m.GetTile(new Location(2, 2, 0)); //The problem line now, if I add a breakpoint in my code, I can clearly see that my instance (m) of the map class is filled with pairs via the function above, but when I try to access a value with the GetTile function: public Tile GetTile(Location location) { if(this.tiles.ContainsKey(location)) { return this.tiles[location]; } else { return null; } } it ALWAYS returns null. Again, if I view inside the Map object and find the Location key where x=2,y=2,z=0 , I clearly see the value being a Tile that FillTemp generated.. Why is it doing this? I've had no problems with a Dictionary such as this so far. I have no idea why it's returning null. and again, when debugging, I can CLEARLY see that the Map instance contains the Location key it says it does not... very frustrating. Any clues? Need any more info? Help would be greatly appreciated :)

  Read the article

• jQuery multiple class selection

  - by morpheous

  I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

  Read the article

• Hacking "Contact Form 7" code to Add A "Referred By" field

  - by Scott B

  I've got about 6 subdomains that have a "contact us" link and I'm sending all these links to a single form that uses "Contact Form 7". I add ?from=site-name to each of the links so that I can set a $referredFrom variable in the contact form. The only two things I'm missing are (1) the ability to insert this referredFrom variable into the email that I get whenever someone submits the form and (2) The ability to redirect the user back to the site they came from (stored in $referredFrom) Any ideas? Here's a bit of code from includes/classes.php that I thought might be part of the email insert but its not doing much... function mail() { global $referrer; $refferedfrom = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE $fes = $this->form_scan_shortcode(); foreach ( $fes as $fe ) { $name = $fe['name']; $pipes = $fe['pipes']; if ( empty( $name ) ) continue; $value = $_POST[$name]; if ( WPCF7_USE_PIPE && is_a( $pipes, 'WPCF7_Pipes' ) && ! $pipes->zero() ) { if ( is_array( $value) ) { $new_value = array(); foreach ( $value as $v ) { $new_value[] = $pipes->do_pipe( $v ); } $value = $new_value; } else { $value = $pipes->do_pipe( $value ); } } $this->posted_data[$name] = $value; $this->posted_data[$refferedfrom] = $referrer; //HERE IS MY CUSTOM CODE } I'm also thinking that I could insert the referredFrom code somewhere in this function as well... function compose_and_send_mail( $mail_template ) { $regex = '/\[\s*([a-zA-Z][0-9a-zA-Z:._-]*)\s*\]/'; $callback = array( &$this, 'mail_callback' ); $mail_subject = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['subject'] ); $mail_sender = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['sender'] ); $mail_body = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['body'] ); $mail_recipient = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['recipient'] ); $mail_headers = "From: $mail_sender\n"; if ( $mail_template['use_html'] ) $mail_headers .= "Content-Type: text/html\n"; $mail_additional_headers = preg_replace_callback( $regex, $callback, $mail_template['additional_headers'] ); $mail_headers .= trim( $mail_additional_headers ) . "\n"; if ( $this->uploaded_files ) { $for_this_mail = array(); foreach ( $this->uploaded_files as $name => $path ) { if ( false === strpos( $mail_template['attachments'], "[${name}]" ) ) continue; $for_this_mail[] = $path; } return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers, $for_this_mail ); } else { return @wp_mail( $mail_recipient, $mail_subject, $mail_body, $mail_headers ); } }

  Read the article

• Can MySQL reasonably perform queries on billions of rows?

  - by haxney

  I am planning on storing scans from a mass spectrometer in a MySQL database and would like to know whether storing and analyzing this amount of data is remotely feasible. I know performance varies wildly depending on the environment, but I'm looking for the rough order of magnitude: will queries take 5 days or 5 milliseconds? Input format Each input file contains a single run of the spectrometer; each run is comprised of a set of scans, and each scan has an ordered array of datapoints. There is a bit of metadata, but the majority of the file is comprised of arrays 32- or 64-bit ints or floats. Host system |----------------+-------------------------------| | OS | Windows 2008 64-bit | | MySQL version | 5.5.24 (x86_64) | | CPU | 2x Xeon E5420 (8 cores total) | | RAM | 8GB | | SSD filesystem | 500 GiB | | HDD RAID | 12 TiB | |----------------+-------------------------------| There are some other services running on the server using negligible processor time. File statistics |------------------+--------------| | number of files | ~16,000 | | total size | 1.3 TiB | | min size | 0 bytes | | max size | 12 GiB | | mean | 800 MiB | | median | 500 MiB | | total datapoints | ~200 billion | |------------------+--------------| The total number of datapoints is a very rough estimate. Proposed schema I'm planning on doing things "right" (i.e. normalizing the data like crazy) and so would have a runs table, a spectra table with a foreign key to runs, and a datapoints table with a foreign key to spectra. The 200 Billion datapoint question I am going to be analyzing across multiple spectra and possibly even multiple runs, resulting in queries which could touch millions of rows. Assuming I index everything properly (which is a topic for another question) and am not trying to shuffle hundreds of MiB across the network, is it remotely plausible for MySQL to handle this? UPDATE: additional info The scan data will be coming from files in the XML-based mzML format. The meat of this format is in the <binaryDataArrayList> elements where the data is stored. Each scan produces = 2 <binaryDataArray> elements which, taken together, form a 2-dimensional (or more) array of the form [[123.456, 234.567, ...], ...]. These data are write-once, so update performance and transaction safety are not concerns. My naïve plan for a database schema is: runs table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | start_time | TIMESTAMP | | name | VARCHAR | |-------------+-------------| spectra table | column name | type | |----------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | name | VARCHAR | | index | INT | | spectrum_type | INT | | representation | INT | | run_id | FOREIGN KEY | |----------------+-------------| datapoints table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | spectrum_id | FOREIGN KEY | | mz | DOUBLE | | num_counts | DOUBLE | | index | INT | |-------------+-------------| Is this reasonable?

  Read the article

• How to page multiple data sets in ASP.NET MVC

  - by REA_ANDREW

  On a single view I will have three sets of paged data. Which means for each model I will have The Objects The Page Index The Page Size My initial thought was for example: public class PagedModel<T> where T:class { public IList<T> Objects { get; set; } public int ModelPageIndex { get; set; } public int ModelPageSize { get; set; } } Then having a model which is to be supplied to the action as for example: public class TypesViewModel { public PagedModel<ObjectA> Types1 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectB> Typed2 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectC> Types3 { get; set; } } So if I then for example have the Index view inherit from the type: System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<uk.co.andrewrea.forum.Web.Models.TypesViewModel> Now my initial aciton method for the index is simply: public ActionResult Index() { var forDisplayPurposes = new TypesViewModel(); return View(forDisplayPurposes); } If I then want to page, it is here where I am struggling to decide which action to take. Lets say that I select the next page of the Types2 PageModel. What should the action look like for this in order to return the new view showing the second page of the Types2 PageModel I was thinking possibly to duplicate the action but use it with POST [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(TypesViewModel model) { return View(model); } Is this a good way to approach it. I understand there is always Session, but I was just wondering how such a thing is achieved currently out there. If any best methods have been mutually accepted and things. So simply, one page with multiple paged models. How to persist the data for each using a wrapper model. Which way should you pass in the model and which way should you page the data, i.e. Form Post Lastly, I have seen the routes take this into account i.e. {controller}/{action}/{id}/{pageindex}/{pagesize} but this only accounts for one model and I do not really wwant to repeat the pagesize and pageindex values for the number of models I have inside the wrapper model. Thanks for your time!! Andrew

  Read the article

• How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

  - by oscar.fimbres

  I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

  Read the article

• No matter what, I can't get this stupid progress bar to update from a thread!

  - by Synthetix

  I have a Windows app written in C (using gcc/MinGW) that works pretty well except for a few UI problems. One, I simply cannot get the progress bar to update from a thread. In fact, I probably can't get ANY UI stuff to update. Basically, I have a spawned thread that does some processing, and from that thread I attempt to update the progress bar in the main thread. I tried this by using PostMessage() to the main hwnd, but no luck even though I can do other things like open message boxes. However, it's unclear whether the message box is getting called within the thread or on the main thread. Here's some code: //in header/globally accessible HWND wnd; //main application window HWND progress_bar; //progress bar typedef struct { //to pass to thread DWORD mainThreadId; HWND mainHwnd; char *filename; } THREADSTUFF; //callback function LRESULT CALLBACK WndProc(HWND hwnd, UINT msg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam){ switch(msg){ case WM_CREATE:{ //create progress bar progress_bar = CreateWindowEx( 0, PROGRESS_CLASS, (LPCTSTR)NULL, WS_CHILD | WS_VISIBLE, 79,164,455,15, hwnd, (HMENU)20, NULL, NULL); break; } case WM_COMMAND:{ if(LOWORD(wParam)==2){ //do some processing in a thread //struct of stuff I need to pass to thread THREADSTUFF *threadStuff; threadStuff = (THREADSTUFF*)malloc(sizeof(*threadStuff)); threadStuff->mainThreadId = GetCurrentThreadId(); threadStuff->mainHwnd = hwnd; threadStuff->filename = (void*)&filename; hThread1 = CreateThread(NULL,0,convertFile (LPVOID)threadStuff,0,NULL); }else if(LOWORD(wParam)==5){ //update progress bar MessageBox(hwnd,"I got a message!", "Message", MB_OK | MB_ICONINFORMATION); PostMessage(progress_bar,PBM_STEPIT,0,CLR_DEFAULT); } break; } } } This all seems to work okay. The problem is in the thread: DWORD WINAPI convertFile(LPVOID params){ //get passed params, this works perfectly fine THREADSTUFF *tData = (THREADSTUFF*)params; MessageBox(tData->mainHwnd,tData->filename,"File name",MB_OK | MB_ICONINFORMATION); //yep PostThreadMessage(tData->mainThreadId,WM_COMMAND,5,0); //only shows message PostMessage(tData->mainHwnd,WM_COMMAND,5,0); //only shows message } When I say, "only shows message," that means the MessageBox() function in the callback works, but not the PostMessage() to update the position of the progress bar. What am I missing?

  Read the article

• TestNG - Factories and Dataproviders

  - by Tim K

  Background Story I'm working at a software firm developing a test automation framework to replace our old spaghetti tangled system. Since our system requires a login for almost everything we do, I decided it would be best to use @BeforeMethod, @DataProvider, and @Factory to setup my tests. However, I've run into some issues. Sample Test Case Lets say the software system is a baseball team roster. We want to test to make sure a user can search for a team member by name. (Note: I'm aware that BeforeMethods don't run in any given order -- assume that's been taken care of for now.) @BeforeMethod public void setupSelenium() { // login with username & password // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page } @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String playerName, String searchTerm) { // search for "searchTerm" // browse through results // pass if we find playerName // fail (Didn't find the player) } This test case assumes the following: The user has already logged on (in a BeforeMethod, most likely) The user has already navigated to the search page (trivial, before method) The parameters to the test are associated with the aforementioned login The Problems So lets try and figure out how to handle the parameters for the test case. Idea #1 This method allows us to associate dataproviders with usernames, and lets us use multiple users for any specific test case! @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String user, String pass, String name, String search) { // login with user/pass // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page // ... } ...but there's lots of repetition, as we have to make EVERY function accept two extra parameters. Not to mention, we're also testing the acknowledge announcements feature, which we don't actually want to test. Idea #2 So lets use the factory to initialize things properly! class BaseTestCase { public BaseTestCase(String user, String password, Object[][] data); } class SomeTest { @Factory public void ... } With this, we end up having to write one factory per test case... Although, it does let us have multiple users per test-case. Conclusion I'm about fresh out of ideas. There was another idea I had where I was loading data from an XML file, and then calling the methods from a program... but its getting silly. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• How would you structure your entity model for storing arbitrary key/value data with different data t

  - by Nathan Ridley

  I keep coming across scenarios where it will be useful to store a set of arbitrary data in a table using a per-row key/value model, rather than a rigid column/field model. The problem is, I want to store the values with their correct data type rather than converting everything to a string. This means I have to choose either a single table with multiple nullable columns, one for each data type, or a set of value tables, one for each data type. I'm also unsure as to whether I should use full third normal form and separate the keys into a separate table, referencing them via a foreign key from the value table(s), or if it would be better to keep things simple and store the string keys in the value table(s) and accept the duplication of strings. Old/bad: This solution makes adding additional values a pain in a fluid environment because the table needs to be modified regularly. MyTable ============================ ID Key1 Key2 Key3 int int string date ---------------------------- 1 Value1 Value2 Value3 2 Value4 Value5 Value6 Single Table Solution This solution allows simplicity via a single table. The querying code still needs to check for nulls to determine which data type the field is storing. A check constraint is probably also required to ensure only one of the value fields contains non-nulll data. DataValues ============================================================= ID RecordID Key IntValue StringValue DateValue int int string int string date ------------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 NULL NULL 2 1 Key2 NULL Value2 NULL 3 1 Key3 NULL NULL Value3 4 2 Key1 Value4 NULL NULL 5 2 Key2 NULL Value5 NULL 6 2 Key3 NULL NULL Value6 Multiple-Table Solution This solution allows for more concise purposing of each table, though the code needs to know the data type in advance as it needs to query a different table for each data type. Indexing is probably simpler and more efficient because there are less columns that need indexing. IntegerValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string int ------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 2 2 Key1 Value4 StringValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string string ------------------------------- 1 1 Key2 Value2 2 2 Key2 Value5 DateValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string date ------------------------------- 1 1 Key3 Value3 2 2 Key3 Value6 How do you approach this problem? Which solution is better? Also, should the key column be separated into a separate table and referenced via a foreign key or be should it be kept in the value table and bulk updated if for some reason the key name changes?

  Read the article

• Separation of domain and ui layer in a composite

  - by hansmaad

  Hi all, i'm wondering if there is a pattern how to separate the domain logic of a class from the ui responsibilities of the objects in the domain layer. Example: // Domain classes interface MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) // Where do we put these: // Draw(Screen) ?? // ShowProperties(View) ?? // ... } class Assembly : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) subParts } class Pipe : MachinePart { CalculateX(in, out) length, diamater... } There is an application that calculates the value X for machines assembled from many machine parts. The assembly is loaded from a file representation and is designed as a composite. Each concrete part class stores some data to implement the CalculateX(in,out) method to simulate behaviour of the whole assembly. The application runs well but without GUI. To increase the usability a GUi should be developed on top of the existing implementation (changes to the existing code are allowed). The GUI should show a schematic graphical representation of the assembly and provide part specific dialogs to edit several parameters. To achieve these goals the application needs new functionality for each machine part to draw a schematic representation on the screen, show a property dialog and other things not related to the domain of machine simulation. I can think of some different solutions to implement a Draw(Screen) functionality for each part but i am not happy with each of them. First i could add a Draw(Screen) method to the MachinePart interface but this would mix-up domain code with ui code and i had to add a lot of functionality to each machine part class what makes my domain model hard to read and hard to understand. Another "simple" solution is to make all parts visitable and implement ui code in visitors but Visitor does not belong to my favorite patterns. I could derive UI variants from each machine part class to add the UI implementation there but i had to check if each part class is suited for inheritance and had to be careful on changes to the base classes. My currently favorite design is to create a parallel composite hierarchy where each component stores data to define a machine part, has implementation for UI methods and a factory method which creates instances of the corresponding domain classes, so that i can "convert" a UI assembly to a domain assembly. But there are problems to go back from the created domain hierarchy to the UI hierarchy for showing calculation results in the drawing for example (imagine some parts store some values during the calculation i want to show in the schematic representation after the simluation). Maybe there are some proven patterns for such problems?

  Read the article

• Multi domain rails app. How to intelligently use MVC?

  - by denial

  Background: We have app a, b, and plan to add more apps into this same application. The apps are similar enough they could share many views, assets, and actions. Currently a,b live in a single rails app(2.3.10). c will be similar enough that it could also be in this rails app. The problem: As we continue to add more apps to this one app, there's going to be too much case logic that the app will soon become a nightmare to maintain. There will also be potential namespace issues. However, the apps are very similar in function and layout, it also makes sense to keep them in one app so that it's one app to maintain(since roughly 50% of site look/functionality will be shared). What we are trying to do is keep this as clean as possible so it's easy for multiple teams to work on and easy to maintain. Some things we've thought about/are trying: Engines. Make each app an engine. This would let us base routes on the domain. It also allows us to pull out controllers, models and views for the specific app. This solution does not seem ideal as we won't be reusing the apps any time soon. And explicitly stating the host in the routes doesn't seem right. Skinning/themes. The auth logic would be different between the apps. Each user model would be different. So it's not just a skinning problem. In app/view add folder sitea for sitea views, siteb for siteb views and so on. Do the same for controllers and models. This is still pretty messy and since it didn't follow naming conventions, it did not work with rails so nicely and made much of the code messier. Making another rails app. We just didn't want to maintain the same controller or view in 2 apps if they are identical. What we want to do is make the app intelligently use a controller based on the host. So there would be a sessions controller for each app, and perhaps some parent session controller for shared logic(not needed now). In each of these session controllers, it handles authentication for that specific app. So if the domain is a.mysite.com, it would use session controller for app a and know to use app a's views,models,controllers. And if the domain is b.mysite, it would use the session controller for b. And there would be a user model for a and user model for b, which also would be determined by the domain. Does anyone have any suggestions or experience with this situation? And ideally using rails 2.3.x as updating to rails 3 isn't an option right now.

  Read the article

• Different behavior of reflected generic delegates with and without debugger

  - by Andrew_B

  Hello. We have encountered some strange things while calling reflected generic delegates. In some cases with attatched debuger we can make impossible call, while without debugger we cannot catch any exception and application fastfails. Here is the code: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Reflection; namespace GenericDelegate { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private delegate Class2 Delegate1(); private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MethodInfo mi = typeof (Class1<>).GetMethod("GetClass", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Static); if (mi != null) { Delegate1 del = (Delegate1) Delegate.CreateDelegate(typeof (Delegate1), mi); MessageBox.Show("1"); try { del(); } catch (Exception) { MessageBox.Show("No, I can`t catch it"); } MessageBox.Show("2"); mi.Invoke(null, new object[] {});//It's Ok, we'll get exception here MessageBox.Show("3"); } } class Class2 { } class Class1<T> : Class2 { internal static Class2 GetClass() { Type type = typeof(T); MessageBox.Show("Type name " + type.FullName +" Type: " + type + " Assembly " + type.Assembly); return new Class1<T>(); } } } } There are two problems: Behavior differs with debugger and without You cannot catch this error without debugger by clr tricks. It's just not the clr exception. There are memory acces vialation, reading zero pointer inside of internal code. Use case: You develop something like plugins system for your app. You read external assembly, find suitable method in some type, and execute it. And we just forgot about that we need to check up is the type generic or not. Under VS (and .net from 2.0 to 4.0) everything works fine. Called function does not uses static context of generic type and type parameters. But without VS application fails with no sound. We even cannot identify call stack attaching debuger. Tested with .net 4.0 The question is why VS catches but runtime do not?

  Read the article

• Best Practices for Working with Multiple Monitors in Visual Studio 2010

  - by Clever Human

  Now that Visual Studio 2010 has support for multiple monitors, I am curious how other people have their environments arranged. I have yet to come up with an arrangement that I am really satisfied with. The current best I have come up with for my 2 monitor system is to have all code windows detached. Then, on my primary monitor, I am able to have two code windows side by side (using the Windows 7 keyboard shortcuts WinKey+LeftArrow and WinKey+RightArrow.) On my secondary monitor I put the rest of the IDE with all of the tool windows that are normally on the bottom (errors list, find window, call stack, etc...) docked where the code windows normally go. I've also tried having all those things detached and having almost nothing in the IDE proper. The problems with this layout are: Newly opened code windows always open in the IDE, not on top of one of the detached windows. Detached code windows do not remember their exact placement from session to session (they are slightly off, having me to use the winkey + arrow key shortcut again and again for each window. There seems to be no way to have the code panes aware that they are on top of one another (IE -- multiple tabs.) The CTRL+TAB shortcut always displays on top of the IDE proper. The Code Panes are always "on top" of (children of) the IDE. So clicking on any code pane brings the IDE to the foreground, even when I care only about that code pane, and not the IDE. Other more minor issues... What would go a long way to making this better is having the code panes detach such that they are tab strips that can have other code panes docked within them. The new multi-monitor support in VS2010 is good, but it still seems really lacking. Can these issues be solved with an add-in? If so, is anyone aware of one? Is there a better way to work with the IDE on multiple monitors than what I am doing? NOTE: While this question is subjective (there is certainly no "this is the best way and that's final" answer) I'd really like to know possibly better methods of working with the IDE than what I have come up with. The intent is not to start a "mine's best" flame war.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 780 781 782 783 784 785 786 787 788 789 790 791  | Next Page >