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  • Custom cell in list in Flash AS3

    - by Stian Flatby
    I am no expert in Flash, and I need some quick help here, without needing to learn everything from scratch. Short story, I have to make a list where each cell contains an image, two labels, and a button. List/Cell example: img - label - label - button img - label - label - button As a Java-programmer, I have tried to quicly learn the syntax and visualness of Flash and AS3, but with no luck so far. I have fairly understood the basics of movie clips etc. I saw a tutorial on how to add a list, and add some text to it. So I dragged in a list, and in the code went list.addItem({label:"hello"}); , and that worked ofc. So i thought if I double-clicked the MC of the list, i would get to tweak some things. In there I have been wandering around different halls of cell-renderers etc. I have now come to the point that I entered the CellRenderer_skinUp or something, and customized it to my liking. When this was done, I expected i could use list.addItem(); and get an empty "version" of my cell, with the img, labels and the button. But AS3 expects an input in addItem. From my object-oriented view, I am thinking that i have to create an object of the cell i have made, but i have no luck reaching it.. I tried to go var test:CellRenderer = list.listItem; list.addItem(test); ..But with no luck. This is just for funsies, but I really want to make this work, however not so much that I am willing to read up on ALOT of Flash and AS3. I felt that I was closing in on the prize, but the compiler expected a semicolon after the variable (list.addItem({test:something});). Note: If possible, I do NOT want this: list.addItem({image:"src",label:"text",label"text",button:"text"}); Well.. It actually is what I want, but I would really like to custom-draw everything. Does anyone get what I am trying to do, and has any answers for me? Am I approaching this the wrong way? I have searched the interwebs for custom list-cells, but with no luck. Please, any guiding here is appreciated! Sti

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  • Programmatically triggering events in Javascript for IE using jQuery

    - by Dan Herbert
    When an Event is triggered by a user in IE, it is set to the window.event object. The only way to see what triggered the event is by accessing the window.event object (as far as I know) This causes a problem in ASP.NET validators if an event is triggered programmatically, like when triggering an event through jQuery. In this case, the window.event object stores the last user-triggered event. When the onchange event is fired programmatically for a text box that has an ASP.NET validator attached to it, the validation breaks because it is looking at the element that fired last event, which is not the element the validator is for. Does anyone know a way around this? It seems like a problem that is solvable, but from looking online, most people just find ways to ignore the problem instead of solving it. To explain what I'm doing specifically: I'm using a jQuery time picker plugin on a text box that also has 2 ASP.NET validators associated with it. When the time is changed, I'm using an update panel to post back to the server to do some things dynamically, so I need the onchange event to fire in order to trigger the postback for that text box. The jQuery time picker operates by creating a hidden unordered list that is made visible when the text box is clicked. When one of the list items is clicked, the "change" event is fired programmatically for the text box through jQuery's change() method. Because the trigger for the event was a list item, IE sees the list item as the source of the event, not the text box, like it should. I'm not too concerned with this ASP.NET validator working as soon as the text box is changed, I just need the "change" event to be processed so my postback event is called for the text box. The problem is that the validator throws an exception in IE which stops any event from being triggered. Firefox (and I assume other browsers) don't have this issue. Only IE due to the different event model. Has anyone encountered this and seen how to fix it? I've found this problem reported several other places, but they offer no solutions: jQuery's forum, with the jQuery UI Datepicker and an ASP.NET Validator ASP.NET forums, bug with ValidatorOnChange() function

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  • Simplifying const Overloading?

    - by templatetypedef
    Hello all- I've been teaching a C++ programming class for many years now and one of the trickiest things to explain to students is const overloading. I commonly use the example of a vector-like class and its operator[] function: template <typename T> class Vector { public: T& operator[] (size_t index); const T& operator[] (size_t index) const; }; I have little to no trouble explaining why it is that two versions of the operator[] function are needed, but in trying to explain how to unify the two implementations together I often find myself wasting a lot of time with language arcana. The problem is that the only good, reliable way that I know how to implement one of these functions in terms of the other is with the const_cast/static_cast trick: template <typename T> const T& Vector<T>::operator[] (size_t index) const { /* ... your implementation here ... */ } template <typename T> T& Vector<T>::operator[] (size_t index) { return const_cast<T&>(static_cast<const Vector&>(*this)[index]); } The problem with this setup is that it's extremely tricky to explain and not at all intuitively obvious. When you explain it as "cast to const, then call the const version, then strip off constness" it's a little easier to understand, but the actual syntax is frightening,. Explaining what const_cast is, why it's appropriate here, and why it's almost universally inappropriate elsewhere usually takes me five to ten minutes of lecture time, and making sense of this whole expression often requires more effort than the difference between const T* and T* const. I feel that students need to know about const-overloading and how to do it without needlessly duplicating the code in the two functions, but this trick seems a bit excessive in an introductory C++ programming course. My question is this - is there a simpler way to implement const-overloaded functions in terms of one another? Or is there a simpler way of explaining this existing trick to students? Thanks so much!

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  • PyGTK: Radiobuttons are still displayed after removal

    - by canavanin
    Hi everyone! I am using PyGTK and the gtk.assistant. On one page I would like to display two radiobuttons in case the user selected a certain option on a previous page. The labels of the buttons - and whether the buttons are to be present at all - are to depend entirely on that earlier selection. Furthermore, if the user goes back and changes that selection, the page containing the radiobuttons is to be updated accordingly. I have got as far as having the radiobuttons displayed when necessary, and with the correct labels. The trouble is that if I go back and change the determining selection, or if I move one page further than the 'radiobutton page' and then move back, the buttons are not only not removed (in case that would have been required), their number has also doubled. To show you what I'm doing, here's part of my code (I've left out bits that do unrelated things, that's why the function name doesn't fit). The function is called when the "prepare" signal is emitted prior to construction of the 'radiobutten page'. def make_class_skills_treestore(self): print self.trained_by_default_hbox.get_children() # PRINT 1 for child in self.trained_by_default_hbox.get_children(): if type(child) == gtk.RadioButton: self.trained_by_default_hbox.remove(child) #child.destroy() # <-- removed the labels, but not the buttons print self.trained_by_default_hbox.get_children() # PRINT 2 class_skills = self.data.data['classes'][selected_class].class_skills.values() default_trained_count = (class_skills.count([True, True]) , class_skills.count([True, False])) num_default_trained_skills = default_trained_count[1] / 2 # you have to pick one of a pair --> don't # count each as trained by default for i in range(default_trained_count[0]): # those are trained by default --> no choice num_default_trained_skills +=1 selected_class = self.get_classes_key_from_class_selection() if default_trained_count[1]: for skill in self.data.data['classes'][selected_class].class_skills.keys(): if self.data.data['classes'][selected_class].class_skills[skill] == [ True, False ] and not self.default_radio: self.default_radio.append(gtk.RadioButton(group=None, label=skill)) elif self.data.data['classes'][selected_class].class_skills[skill] == [ True, False ] and self.default_radio: self.default_radio.append(gtk.RadioButton(group=self.default_radio[0], label=skill)) if self.default_radio: for radio in self.default_radio: self.trained_by_default_hbox.add(radio) self.trained_by_default_hbox.show_all() self.trained_by_default_hbox and self.trained_by_default_label, as well as self.default_radio stem from the above function's class. I have two print statements (PRINT 1 and PRINT 2) in there for debugging. Here's what they give me: PRINT 1: [<gtk.Label object at 0x8fc4c84 (GtkLabel at 0x90a2f20)>, <gtk.RadioButton object at 0x8fc4d4c (GtkRadioButton at 0x90e4018)>, <gtk.RadioButton object at 0x8fc4cac (GtkRadioButton at 0x90ceec0)>] PRINT 2: [<gtk.Label object at 0x8fc4c84 (GtkLabel at 0x90a2f20)>] So the buttons have indeed been removed, yet they still show up on the page. I know the code requires some refactoring, but first I'd like to get it to work at all... If someone could help me out that would be great! Thanks a lot in advance for your replies - any kind of help is highly appreciated.

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  • Architecture Suggestions/Recommendations for a Web Application with Sub-Apps

    - by user579218
    Hello. I’m starting to plan an architecture for a big web application, and I wanted to get suggestions and/or recommendations on where to begin and which technologies and/or frameworks to use. The application will be an Intranet-based web site using Windows authentication, running on IIS and using SQL Server and ASP.NET. It’ll need to be structured as a main/shell application with sub-applications that are “pluggable” based on some configuration settings. The main or shell application is to provide the overall user interface structure – header/footer, dynamically built tabs for each available sub-app, and a content area in which the sub-application will be loaded when the user clicks on the sub-application’s tab. So, on start-up of the main/shell application, configuration information will be queried from a database, and, based on the user and which of the sub-apps are available, the main or shell app would dynamically build tabs (or buttons or something) as a way to access each individual application. On start-up, the content area will be populated with the “home” sub-app. But, clicking on an sub-app tab will cause the content area to be populated with the sub-app corresponding to the tab. For example, we’re going to have a reports application, a display application, and probably a couple other distinct applications. On startup of the main/shell application, after determining who the user is, the main app will query the database to determine which sub-apps the user can use and build out the UI. Then the user can navigate between available sub-apps and do their work in each. Finally, the entire app and all sub-apps need to be a layered design with presentation, service, business, and data access layers, as well as cross-cutting objects for things such as logging, exception handling, etc. Anyway, my questions revolve around where to begin to plan something like this application. What technologies/frameworks would work best in developing a solution for this application? MVC? MVP? WCSF? EF? NHibernate? Enterprise Library? Repository Pattern? Others???? I know all these technologies/frameworks are not used for the same purpose, but knowing which ones to focus on is a little overwhelming. Which ones would be the best choice(s) for a solution? Which ones work well together for an end-to-end design? How would one structure the VS project for something like this? Thanks!

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  • Building a DataTable in C# with one column at a time

    - by Awaken
    I am trying to build a Retirement Calculator as a chance to make something useful and learn C# better. Currently, I am trying to build a DataTable with a dynamic amount of rows/columns. For context, I ask the user for some inputs regarding salary, % of salary being invested, and expected ROI. I have some other stuff too, but it isn't really part of the issue I am having. Because the number of columns I need for the DataTable is unknown until the formula is run (while+for loop completes), I am having trouble doing things as DataColumns. Hopefully the code below will help. I am really trying to build the table one column at a time. I realize I could reverse it to build it one row at a time because the Years before retirement (yearsRetire) is known, but I would prefer not to and I want to learn more. Sorry for the indentation and commenting. I tried to leave some of my commented coding attempts in there. Thanks for any help. public double calcROI() { double testROI = 0.00; double tempRetireAmount = 0; double adjustRetire = goalAmount * (1 + (Math.Pow(inflation,yearsRetire))); // Loop through ROI values until the calculated retire amount with the test ROI // is greater than the target amount adjusted for inflation while (tempRetireAmount < adjustRetire) { //Increment ROI by 1% per while iteration testROI += .01; //Make a new Column to hold the values for ROI for this while iteration //dtMain.Columns.Add(Convert.ToString(testROI)); //DataColumn tempdc = new DataColumn(Convert.ToString(testROI)); //Loop through the number of years entered by user and see the amount //at Retirement with current ROI for (int i = 0; i < yearsRetire; i++) { //Main formula to calculate amount after i years tempRetireAmount = (tempRetireAmount + salary*savingsPct) * (1 + testROI); // Add value for this year/ROI to table/column //DataRow dr = .NewRow(); //dr tempRetireAmount; //tempdc[i] = tempRetireAmount; } //Need to add column of data to my Main DataTable //dtMain.Rows.Add(dr); //dtMain.Columns.Add(tempdc); } return testROI; }

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  • What is the proper way to change the UINavigationController transition effect

    - by Felipe Sabino
    I have seen lots of people asking on how to push/pop UINavigationControllers using other animations besides the default one, like flip or curl. The problem is that either the question/answer was relative old, which means the have some things like [UIView beginAnimations:] (example here) or they use two very different approaches. The first is to use UIView's transitionFromView:toView:duration:options:completion: selector before pushing the controller (with the animation flag set to NO), like the following: UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [UIView transitionFromView:self.view toView:ctrl.view duration:1 options:UIViewAnimationOptionTransitionFlipFromTop completion:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; Another one is to use CoreAnimation explicitly with a CATransaction like the following: // remember you will have to have the QuartzCore framework added to your project for this approach and also add <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> to the class this code is used CATransition* transition = [CATransition animation]; transition.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseIn]; transition.duration = 1.0f; transition.type = @"flip"; transition.subtype = @"fromTop"; [self.navigationController.view.layer removeAllAnimations]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:transition forKey:kCATransition]; UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; There are pros and cons for both approaches. The first approach gives me a much cleaner code but restricts me from using animations like "suckEffect", "cube" and others. The second approach feels wrong just by looking at it. It starts by using undocumented transitions types (i.e. not present in the Common transition types documentation from CATransition Class Reference) which might get your app rejected from App Store (I mean might as I could not found any reference of apps being rejected because it was using this transactions, which I would also appreciate any clarification on this matter), but it gives you much more flexibility on your animations, as I can use other animation types such as "cameraIris", "rippleEffect" and so on. Regarding all that, do I really need to appeal for QuartzCore and CoreAnimation whenever I need a fancier UINavigationController transition? Is there any other way to accomplish the same effect using only UIKit? If not, will the use of string values like "flip" and "cube" instead of the pre-defined constants (kCATransitionFade, kCATransitionMoveIn, etc...) be an issue regarding my app approval in the App Store? Also, are there other pros and cons regarding both approaches that could help me deciding whether to choose each one of them?

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  • jQuery: load refuses to get dynamic content in IE6

    - by user260157
    jQuery refuses to load my dynamic content in IE6. All in FireFox & Safari works fine. Only IE6 is being a pain. When I try the a html with <p>Hello World</p> that works. Properly. But when loading a PHP it doesn't work! As you can see it's doing multiple things. <script type="text/javascript"> // When the document is ready set up our sortable with it's inherant function(s) $(document).ready(function() { // Sort list & amend in database function sortTableMenuAndReload() { var order = $('#menuList').sortable('serialize'); $.post("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/process-sortable.php",order); $("#menuList").load("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/sortableMenu_ajax.php"); } function sortTableOrder() { var order = $('#menuList').sortable('serialize'); $.post("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/process-sortable.php",order); } function sortTableOrderAndRemove(removeID) { $('#listItem_'+removeID).remove(); var order = $('#menuList').sortable('serialize'); $.post("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/process-sortable.php",order); $("#menuList").load("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/sortableMenu_ajax.php"); } $("#menuList > li > .remove").live('click', function () { var removeID = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: 'PLUGINS/SortableMenu/removeLine.php', data: 'id='+removeID, success: sortTableOrderAndRemove(removeID) }); }); $("#menuList > li > .publish").live('click', function () { var publishID = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: 'PLUGINS/SortableMenu/publishLine.php', data: 'id='+publishID, success: sortTableOrder }); }); $('#new_documents > li').draggable({ addClasses: false, helper:'clone', connectToSortable:'#menuList' }); $("#menuList").droppable({ addClasses: false, drop: function() { var clone = $("#menuList > li#newArticleTYPE1"); $(clone).attr("id","listItem_newArticleTYPE1"); } }); $("#menuList").sortable({ opacity: 0.6, handle : '.handle, .remove', update : sortTableMenuAndReload }); }); </script>

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  • This code appears to achieve the return of a null reference in C++

    - by Chuck
    Hi folks, My C++ knowledge is somewhat piecemeal. I was reworking some code at work. I changed a function to return a reference to a type. Inside, I look up an object based on an identifier passed in, then return a reference to the object if found. Of course I ran into the issue of what to return if I don't find the object, and in looking around the web, many people claim that returning a "null reference" in C++ is impossible. Based on this advice, I tried the trick of returning a success/fail boolean, and making the object reference an out parameter. However, I ran into the roadblock of needing to initialize the references I would pass as actual parameters, and of course there is no way to do this. I retreated to the usual approach of just returning a pointer. I asked a colleague about it. He uses the following trick quite often, which is accepted by both a recent version of the Sun compiler and by gcc: MyType& someFunc(int id) { // successful case here: // ... // fail case: return *static_cast<MyType*>(0); } // Use: ... MyType& mt = somefunc(myIdNum); if (&mt) // test for "null reference" { // whatever } ... I have been maintaining this code base for a while, but I find that I don't have as much time to look up the small details about the language as I would like. I've been digging through my reference book but the answer to this one eludes me. Now, I had a C++ course a few years ago, and therein we emphasized that in C++ everything is types, so I try to keep that in mind when thinking things through. Deconstructing the expression: "*static_cast(0);", it indeed seems to me that we take a literal zero, cast it to a pointer to MyType (which makes it a null pointer), and then apply the dereferencing operator in the context of assigning to a reference type (the return type), which should give me a reference to the same object pointed to by the pointer. This sure looks like returning a null reference to me. Any advice in explaining why this works (or why it shouldn't) would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Chuck

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  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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  • vb.net how to start a folder monitor service at runtime and pass on the folder path to monitor?

    - by mazrabul
    hi, I have the following windows service file: Imports System.ServiceProcess Imports System.IO Public Class fswService Dim fsw As FileSystemWatcher Dim lf As StreamWriter Protected Overrides Sub OnStart(ByVal args As String()) ' Add code here to start your service. This method should set things ' in motion so your service can do its work. lf = New StreamWriter(Application.StartupPath & "\fsw_lg.log") fsw = New FileSystemWatcher() fsw.Path = args(0) fsw.IncludeSubdirectories = True fsw.Filter = ".txt" fsw.EnableRaisingEvents = True AddHandler fsw.Created, New FileSystemEventHandler(AddressOf file_created) AddHandler fsw.Changed, New FileSystemEventHandler(AddressOf file_changed) AddHandler fsw.Deleted, New FileSystemEventHandler(AddressOf file_deleted) End Sub Public Sub file_created(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As FileSystemEventArgs) lf.WriteLine(Now.ToShortDateString & "-" & Now.ToShortTimeString & "-" & e.FullPath & "-created") End Sub Public Sub file_changed(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As FileSystemEventArgs) lf.WriteLine(Now.ToShortDateString & "-" & Now.ToShortTimeString & "-" & e.FullPath & "-changed") End Sub Public Sub file_deleted(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As FileSystemEventArgs) lf.WriteLine(Now.ToShortDateString & "-" & Now.ToShortTimeString & "-" & e.FullPath & "-deleted") End Sub Protected Overrides Sub OnStop() lf.Close() End Sub End Class i have the ServiceName set to fswService (same as class name). When I added an installer I also set the ServiceName for the ServiceInstaller1 as fswService. I want to start this service at runtime based on the user setting the path of the folder to be watched. To achieve this I have the following: Dim fsw_controller As New ServiceProcess.ServiceController fsw_controller.Start(fswService) 2 problems: first, intellisense error saying: 'fswService' is a type and cannot be used as an expression. second, I can not figure out a way to pass on to the service the path of the folder to watch (which is stored at My.Settings.userPath). I really thought this is how you start a service. Am I missing something? Your help is, as always, appreciated. Thanks

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  • Marionette js itemview not defined: then on browser refresh it is defined and all works well - race condition?

    - by Robert
    Yeah it's just the initial browser load or two after a cache clear. Subsequent refreshes clear the problem up. I'm thinking the item views just aren't fully constructed in time to be used in the collection views on the first load. But then they are on a refresh? Don't know. There must be something about the code sequence or loading or the load time itself. Not sure. I'm loading via require.js. Have two collections - users and messages. Each renders in its own list view. Each works, just not the first time or two the browser loads. The first time you load after clearing browser cache the console reports, for instance: "Uncaught ReferenceError: MessageItemView is not defined" A simple browser refresh clears it up. Same goes for the user collection. It's collection view says it doesn't know anything about its item view. But a simple browser refresh and all is well. My views (item and collection) are in separate files. Is that the problem? For instance, here is my message collection view in its own file: messagelistview.js var MessageListView = Marionette.CollectionView.extend({ itemView: MessageItemView, el: $("#messages") }); And the message item view is in a separate file: messageview.js var MessageItemView = Marionette.ItemView.extend({ tagName: "div", template: Handlebars.compile( '<div>{{fromUserName}}:</div>' + '<div>{{message}}</div>' + ) }); Then in my main module file, which references each of those files, the collection view is constructed and displayed: main.js //Define a model MessageModel = Backbone.Model.extend(); //Make an instance of MessageItemView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js MessageView = new MessageItemView(); //Define a message collection var MessageCollection = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: MessageModel }); //Make an instance of MessageCollection var collMessages = new MessageCollection(); //Make an instance of a MessageListView - code in separate file, messagelistview.js var messageListView = new MessageListView({ collection: collMessages }); App.messageListRegion.show(messageListView); Do I just have things sequenced wrong? I'm thinking it's some kind of race condition only because over 3G to an iPad the item views are always undefined. They never seem to get constructed in time. PC on a hard wired connection does see success after a browser refresh or two.

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  • KeyNotFound Exception in CSsharp

    - by C Patton
    I'm about ready to bang my head against the wall I have a class called Map which has a dictionary called tiles. class Map { public Dictionary<Location, Tile> tiles = new Dictionary<Location, Tile>(); public Size mapSize; public Map(Size size) { this.mapSize = size; } //etc... I fill this dictionary temporarily to test some things.. public void FillTemp(Dictionary<int, Item> itemInfo) { Random r = new Random(); for(int i =0; i < mapSize.Width; i++) { for(int j=0; j<mapSize.Height; j++) { Location temp = new Location(i, j, 0); int rint = r.Next(0, (itemInfo.Count - 1)); Tile t = new Tile(new Item(rint, rint)); tiles[temp] = t; } } } and in my main program code Map m = new Map(10, 10); m.FillTemp(iInfo); Tile t = m.GetTile(new Location(2, 2, 0)); //The problem line now, if I add a breakpoint in my code, I can clearly see that my instance (m) of the map class is filled with pairs via the function above, but when I try to access a value with the GetTile function: public Tile GetTile(Location location) { if(this.tiles.ContainsKey(location)) { return this.tiles[location]; } else { return null; } } it ALWAYS returns null. Again, if I view inside the Map object and find the Location key where x=2,y=2,z=0 , I clearly see the value being a Tile that FillTemp generated.. Why is it doing this? I've had no problems with a Dictionary such as this so far. I have no idea why it's returning null. and again, when debugging, I can CLEARLY see that the Map instance contains the Location key it says it does not... very frustrating. Any clues? Need any more info? Help would be greatly appreciated :)

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  • Weird Datagrid / paint behaviour

    - by Shane.C
    The scenario: A method sends out a broadcast packet, and returned packets that are validated are deemed okay to be added as a row in my datagrid (The returned packets are from devices i want to add into my program). So for each packet returned, containing information about a device, i create a new row. This is done by first sending packets out, creating rows and adding them to a list of rows that are to be added, and then after 5 seconds (In which case all packets would have returned by then) i add the rows. Here's a few snippets of code. Here for each returned packet, i create a row and add it to a list; DataRow row = DGSource.NewRow(); row["Name"] = deviceName; row["Model"] = deviceModel; row["Location"] = deviceLocation; row["IP"] = finishedIP; row["MAC"] = finishedMac; row["Subnet"] = finishedSubnet; row["Gateway"] = finishedGateway; rowsToAdd.Add(row); Then when the timer elapses; void timerToAddRows_Elapsed(object sender, System.Timers.ElapsedEventArgs e) { timerToAddRows.Enabled = false; try { int count = 0; foreach (DataRow rowToAdd in rowsToAdd) { DGSource.Rows.Add(rowToAdd); count++; } rowsToAdd.Clear(); DGAutoDevices.InvokeEx(f => DGAutoDevices.Refresh()); lblNumberFound.InvokeEx(f => lblNumberFound.Text = count + " new devices found."); } catch { } } So at this point, each row has been added, and i call the re paint, by doing refresh. (Note: i've also tried refreshing the form itself, no avail). However, when the datagrid shows the rows, the scroll bar / datagrid seems to have weird behavour..for example i can't highlight anything with clicks (It's set to full row selection), and the scroll bar looks like so; Calling refresh doesn't work, although if i resize the window even 1 pixel, or minimize and maximise, the problem is solved. Other things to note : The method that get's the packets and adds the rows to the list, and then from the list to the datagrid runs in it's own thread. Any ideas as to something i might be missing here?

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  • Messing with the stack in assembly and c++

    - by user246100
    I want to do the following: I have a function that is not mine (it really doesn't matter here but just to say that I don't have control over it) and that I want to patch so that it calls a function of mine, preserving the arguments list (jumping is not an option). What I'm trying to do is, to put the stack pointer as it was before that function is called and then call mine (like going back and do again the same thing but with a different function). This doesn't work straight because the stack becomes messed up. I believe that when I do the call it replaces the return address. So, I did a step to preserve the return address saving it in a globally variable and it works but this is not ok because I want it to resist to recursitivy and you know what I mean. Anyway, i'm a newbie in assembly so that's why I'm here. Please, don't tell me about already made software to do this because I want to make things my way. Of course, this code has to be compiler and optimization independent. My code (If it is bigger than what is acceptable please tell me how to post it): // A function that is not mine but to which I have access and want to patch so that it calls a function of mine with its original arguments void real(int a,int b,int c,int d) { } // A function that I want to be called, receiving the original arguments void receiver(int a,int b,int c,int d) { printf("Arguments %d %d %d %d\n",a,b,c,d); } long helper; // A patch to apply in the "real" function and on which I will call "receiver" with the same arguments that "real" received. __declspec( naked ) void patch() { _asm { // This first two instructions save the return address in a global variable // If I don't save and restore, the program won't work correctly. // I want to do this without having to use a global variable mov eax, [ebp+4] mov helper,eax push ebp mov ebp, esp // Make that the stack becomes as it were before the real function was called add esp, 8 // Calls our receiver call receiver mov esp, ebp pop ebp // Restores the return address previously saved mov eax, helper mov [ebp+4],eax ret } } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { FlushInstructionCache(GetCurrentProcess(),&real,5); DWORD oldProtection; VirtualProtect(&real,5,PAGE_EXECUTE_READWRITE,&oldProtection); // Patching the real function to go to my patch ((unsigned char*)real)[0] = 0xE9; *((long*)((long)(real) + sizeof(unsigned char))) = (char*)patch - (char*)real - 5; // calling real function (I'm just calling it with inline assembly because otherwise it seems to works as if it were un patched // that is strange but irrelevant for this _asm { push 666 push 1337 push 69 push 100 call real add esp, 16 } return 0; }

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  • Database Schema Versioning Strategies

    - by Jack Ryan
    I work on a project that uses a reasonably large database, the live version weighing in at somewhere around 60-80GB. The live database is the only real definitive source of our schema, and because of its size duplicating this database is too slow to be done often. This means we have ended up developing our database schema in a pretty ad hoc way, using sql compare to migrate changes from dev dbs to the live system, and only wiping our dev dbs every month or two. I am hoping to get some pointers on how to improve our database development work flow so that we have a little more control. Some things to think about: Currently nobody is really in charge of the database schema, all developers can change it if they need to, though generally these decisions are talked about before they are done. There are stored procedures, functions, and views in the database. These should probably be dumped to files so they can be reloaded on every build. Schema changes should probably be checked in as scripts. We have started to do this recently. However all our scripts must then be numbered (because there may be dependencies between them), and must be re runnable (because our build script currently runs them all in order). This makes them hard to read because they are full of conditionals that check whether tables or columns already exist. This is a step that is often forgotten by developers. Getting a new database should be quick and easy. This is currently a big problem, it takes several hours to get a copy of last nights backup and restore it onto a dev machine. Some mechanism needs to be in place to allow developers to update static data. We have tables that contain data that is never updated through the application, but does potentially need to be changed when we do a new release (often this drives dropdowns). The whole thing needs to be runnable as part of a build script. Are there any tools that can be used to help to do this? Eventually I would like to be at a point where a new DB can be built from scratch without copying any data from the live system. I don't mind writing some scripts to glue all the steps together but each part should be easily editable so that we continue to use it rather than make changes directly on DBs.

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  • DFS Backtracking with java

    - by Cláudio Ribeiro
    I'm having problems with DFS backtracking in an adjacency matrix. Here's my code: (i added the test to the main in case someone wants to test it) public class Graph { private int numVertex; private int numEdges; private boolean[][] adj; public Graph(int numVertex, int numEdges) { this.numVertex = numVertex; this.numEdges = numEdges; this.adj = new boolean[numVertex][numVertex]; } public void addEdge(int start, int end){ adj[start-1][end-1] = true; adj[end-1][start-1] = true; } List<Integer> visited = new ArrayList<Integer>(); public Integer DFS(Graph G, int startVertex){ int i=0; if(pilha.isEmpty()) pilha.push(startVertex); for(i=1; i<G.numVertex; i++){ pilha.push(i); if(G.adj[i-1][startVertex-1] != false){ G.adj[i-1][startVertex-1] = false; G.adj[startVertex-1][i-1] = false; DFS(G,i); break; }else{ visited.add(pilha.pop()); } System.out.println("Stack: " + pilha); } return -1; } Stack<Integer> pilha = new Stack(); public static void main(String[] args) { Graph g = new Graph(6, 9); g.addEdge(1, 2); g.addEdge(1, 5); g.addEdge(2, 4); g.addEdge(2, 5); g.addEdge(2, 6); g.addEdge(3, 4); g.addEdge(3, 5); g.addEdge(4, 5); g.addEdge(6, 4); g.DFS(g, 1); } } I'm trying to solve the euler path problem. the program solves basic graphs but when it needs to backtrack, it just does not do it. I think the problem might be in the stack manipulations or in the recursive dfs call. I've tried a lot of things, but still can't seem to figure out why it does not backtrack. Can somebody help me ?

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  • Exceptions confusion

    - by Misiur
    Hi there. I'm trying to build site using OOP in PHP. Everyone is talking about Singleton, hermetization, MVC, and using exceptions. So I've tried to do it like this: Class building whole site: class Core { public $is_core; public $theme; private $db; public $language; private $info; static private $instance; public function __construct($lang = 'eng', $theme = 'default') { if(!self::$instance) { try { $this->db = new sdb(DB_TYPE.':host='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } catch(PDOException $e) { throw new CoreException($e->getMessage()); } try { $this->language = new Language($lang); } catch(LangException $e) { throw new CoreException($e->getMessage()); } try { $this->theme = new Theme($theme); } catch(ThemeException $e) { throw new CoreException($e->getMessage()); } } return self::$instance; } public function getSite($what) { return $this->language->getLang(); } private function __clone() { } } Class managing themes class Theme { private $theme; public function __construct($name = 'default') { if(!is_dir("themes/$name")) { throw new ThemeException("Unable to load theme $name"); } else { $this->theme = $name; } } public function getTheme() { return $this->theme; } public function display($part) { if(!is_file("themes/$this->theme/$part.php")) { throw new ThemeException("Unable to load theme part: themes/$this->theme/$part.php"); } else { return 'So far so good'; } } } And usage: error_reporting(E_ALL); require_once('config.php'); require_once('functions.php'); try { $core = new Core(); } catch(CoreException $e) { echo 'Core Exception: '.$e->getMessage(); } echo $core->theme->getTheme(); echo "<br />"; echo $core->language->getLang(); try { $core->theme->display('footer'); } catch(ThemeException $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } I don't like those exception handlers - i don't want to catch them like some pokemons... I want to use things simple: $core-theme-display('footer'); And if something is wrong, and debug mode is enabled, then aplication show error. What should i do?

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  • C++ Stack Overflow

    - by PhilMAN
    Here is some code: void main() { GameEngine ge("phil", "anotherguy"); string response; do { ge.playGame(); cout << endl << "Do you want to (r)eplay the same battle, (s)tart a new battle, or (q)uit? "; cin >> response; } while(response == "r" || response == "R" || response == "s" || response == "S" ); } GameEngine::GameEngine(string name1, string name2) { p1Name = name1; p2Name = name2; } void GameEngine::playGame() { cout << "PLAY GAME" << endl; Army p1, p2; Battlefield testField; RuleSet rs; int xSize = 13; // Number of rows int ySize = 13; // Number of columns loadData(p1, p2, testField, rs, xSize, ySize); ... } void GameEngine::loadData(Army& p1, Army& p2, Battlefield& testField, RuleSet& rs, int& xSize, int& ySize) { string terrain = BattlefieldUtils::pickTerrain(); string armySplit[14];//id index 1 string ruleSplit[19];//in index 7 string armyP1, armyP2, ruleSet; Skill p1Skills[8]; Skill p2Skills[8]; CreatureStack p1Stacks[20]; CreatureStack p2Stacks[20]; ... } CreatureStack(){quantity = 0; isLive = false; id = -1;}; Army(){}; Battlefield(){}; RuleSet(){}; I have posted every line of code that executes until the program crashes. This code ran fine for a long time, I added some stuff that does not even execute until way after the code I have posted here, and bam stack overflow that occurs at GameEngine::loadData() line: CreatureStack p2Stacks[20]; will not go away. What am I doing wrong here? Is that all the stack can handle? I increased the stack size in Visual Studio and got the error to go away, but that slowed things down considerably, so I would rather just get to the source of the issue and fix that.

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  • Is there anything wrong with having a few private methods exposing IQueryable<T> and all public meth

    - by Nate Bross
    I'm wondering if there is a better way to approach this problem. The objective is to reuse code. Let’s say that I have a Linq-To-SQL datacontext and I've written a "repository style" class that wraps up a lot of the methods I need and exposes IQueryables. (so far, no problem). Now, I'm building a service layer to sit on top of this repository, many of the service methods will be 1<-1 with repository methods, but some will not. I think a code sample will illustrate this better than words. public class ServiceLayer { MyClassDataContext context; IMyRepository rpo; public ServiceLayer(MyClassDataContext ctx) { context = ctx; rpo = new MyRepository(context); } private IQueryable<MyClass> ReadAllMyClass() { // pretend there is some complex business logic here // and maybe some filtering of the current users access to "all" // that I don't want to repeat in all of the public methods that access // MyClass objects. return rpo.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetAllMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing return this.ReadAllMyClass(); } public IEnumerable<MyClass> GetActiveMyClass() { // call private IQueryable so we can do attional "in-database" processing // in this case a .Where() clause return this.ReadAllMyClass().Where(mc => mc.IsActive.Equals(true)); } #region "Something my class MAY need to do in the future" private IQueryable<MyOtherTable> ReadAllMyOtherTable() { // there could be additional constrains which define // "all" for the current user return context.MyOtherTable; } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetAllMyOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable(); } public IEnumerable<MyOtherTable> GetInactiveOtherTable() { return this.ReadAllMyOtherTable.Where(ot => ot.IsActive.Equals(false)); } #endregion } This particular case is not the best illustration, since I could just call the repository directly in the GetActiveMyClass method, but let’s presume that my private IQueryable does some extra processing and business logic that I don't want to replicate in both of my public methods. Is that a bad way to attack an issue like this? I don't see it being so complex that it really warrants building a third class to sit between the repository and the service class, but I'd like to get your thoughts. For the sake of argument, lets presume two additional things. This service is going to be exposed through WCF and that each of these public IEnumerable methods will be calling a .Select(m => m.ToViewModel()) on each returned collection which will convert it to a POCO for serialization. The service will eventually need to expose some context.SomeOtherTable which wont be wrapped into the repository.

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  • Is it possible to use .data() as a search criteria?

    - by Andrew
    I have a pretty complex chat application going on, and there are multiple chat panes, chat entries, chat submits, etc. going on in the same window. At first I was going to do something like.... <input type="text" class="chattext" id="chattext-42"> <input type="text" class="chattext" id="chattext-93"> <input type="button" class="chatsubmit" id="chatsubmit-42"> <input type="button" class="chatsubmit" id="chatsubmit-93"> ... etc. (of course this is vastly simplified, they'd be in separate divs, separate visibilities, etc) So, when they clicked on a .chatsubmit, it would then get the id of that and find the last two characters for the chat ID. This presents some problems, as it would require rewrites if IDs changed lengths, and seems just plain inelegant to me. I then remembered the .data() facility in jQuery... I thought, maybe I could do it more like this: <input type="text" class="chattext"> ... and add a .data("id", 42) to this one <input type="button" class="chatsubmit"> ... and add a .data("id", 42) So that when they click chatsubmit, it gets the ID, and then finds the chattext with that ID and processes it. But looking at the documentation, I don't see an easy way to search by this. For example, let's say the event target in this case is the chatsubmit with the data('id') of 42... var ID = $(event.target).data('id'); // Sets it to 42 var chattext = ... And here I run into the trouble. How do I find which DOM element matches a class of chattext and a data('id') of 42? Is there any easy method, or do I have to search every .chattext for the one with an id of 42? Or is there another easy way of doing this? I did consider the possibility of the container div having the ID, which would make it, I think,? slightly easier to get. But if this works, it could be dealing with things in other container divs as well, making that not a long-term solution. Edit: Literally seconds after posting this, I found this: http://james.padolsey.com/javascript/extending-jquerys-selector-capabilities/ which includes information on extending the selector to data. So I'll try that out, and in the meantime, is this a completely foolhardy way of handling this?

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  • MySQL search for user and their roles

    - by Jenkz
    I am re-writing the SQL which lets a user search for any other user on our site and also shows their roles. An an example, roles can be "Writer", "Editor", "Publisher". Each role links a User to a Publication. Users can take multiple roles within multiple publications. Example table setup: "users" : user_id, firstname, lastname "publications" : publication_id, name "link_writers" : user_id, publication_id "link_editors" : user_id, publication_id Current psuedo SQL: SELECT * FROM ( (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%') UNION (SELECT user_id FROM users WHERE lastname LIKE '%Jenkz%') ) AS dt JOIN (ROLES STATEMENT) AS roles ON roles.user_id = dt.user_id At the moment my roles statement is: SELECT dt2.user_id, dt2.publication_id, dt.role FROM ( (SELECT 'writer' AS role, link_writers.user_id, link_writers.publication_id FROM link_writers) UNION (SELECT 'editor' AS role, link_editors.user_id, link_editors.publication_id FROM link_editors) ) AS dt2 The reason for wrapping the roles statement in UNION clauses is that some roles are more complex and require a table join to find the publication_id and user_id. As an example "publishers" might be linked accross two tables "link_publishers": user_id, publisher_group_id "link_publisher_groups": publisher_group_id, publication_id So in that instance, the query forming part of my UNION would be: SELECT 'publisher' AS role, link_publishers.user_id, link_publisher_groups.publication_id FROM link_publishers JOIN link_publisher_groups ON lpg.group_id = lp.group_id I'm pretty confident that my table setup is good (I was warned off the one-table-for-all system when researching the layout). My problem is that there are now 100,000 rows in the users table and upto 70,000 rows in each of the link tables. Initial lookup in the users table is fast, but the joining really slows things down. How can I only join on the relevant roles? -------------------------- EDIT ---------------------------------- Explain above (open in a new window to see full resolution). The bottom bit in red, is the "WHERE firstname LIKE '%Jenkz%'" the third row searches WHERE CONCAT(firstname, ' ', lastname) LIKE '%Jenkz%'. Hence the large row count, but I think this is unavoidable, unless there is a way to put an index accross concatenated fields? The green bit at the top just shows the total rows scanned from the ROLES STATEMENT. You can then see each individual UNION clause (#6 - #12) which all show a large number of rows. Some of the indexes are normal, some are unique. It seems that MySQL isn't optimizing to use the dt.user_id as a comparison for the internal of the UNION statements. Is there any way to force this behaviour? Please note that my real setup is not publications and writers but "webmasters", "players", "teams" etc.

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  • Unable to get set intersection to work

    - by chavanak
    Sorry for the double post, I will update this question if I can't get things to work :) I am trying to compare two files. I will list the two file content: File 1 File 2 "d.complex.1" "d.complex.1" 1 4 5 5 48 47 65 21 d.complex.10 d.complex.10 46 6 21 46 109 121 192 192 TI am trying to compare the contents of the two file but not in a trivial way. I will explain what I want with an example. If you observe the file content I have typed above, the d.complex.1 of file_1 has "5" similar to d.complex.1 in file_2; the same d.complex.1 in file_1 has nothing similar to d.complex.10 in file_2. What I am trying to do is just to print out those d.complex. which has nothing in similar with the other d.complex. Consider the d.complex. as a heading if you want. But all I am trying is compare the numbers below each d.complex. and if nothing matches, I want that particular d.complex. from both files to be printed. If even one number is present in both d.complex. of both files, I want it to be rejected. My Code: The method I chose to achieve this was to use sets and then do a difference. Code I wrote was: first_complex=open( "file1.txt", "r" ) first_complex_lines=first_complex.readlines() first_complex_lines=map( string.strip, first_complex_lines ) first_complex.close() second_complex=open( "file2.txt", "r" ) second_complex_lines=second_complex.readlines() second_complex_lines=map( string.strip, second_complex_lines ) second_complex.close() list_1=[] list_2=[] res_1=[] for line in first_complex_lines: if line.startswith( "d.complex" ): res_1.append( [] ) res_1[-1].append( line ) res_2=[] for line in second_complex_lines: if line.startswith( "d.complex" ): res_2.append( [] ) res_2[-1].append( line ) h=len( res_1 ) k=len( res_2 ) for i in res_1: for j in res_2: print i[0] print j[0] target_set=set ( i ) target_set_1=set( j ) for s in target_set: if s not in target_set_1: if s[0] != "d": print s The above code is giving an output like this (just an example): d.complex.1.dssp d.complex.1.dssp 1 48 65 d.complex.1.dssp d.complex.10.dssp 46 21 109 What I would like to have is: d.complex.1 d.complex.1 (name from file2) d.complex.1 d.complex.10 (name from file2) I am sorry for confusing you guys, but this is all that is required. I am so new to python so my concept above might be flawed. Also I have never used sets before :(. Can someone give me a hand here?

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  • Query performs poorly unless a temp table is used

    - by Paul McLoughlin
    The following query takes about 1 minute to run, and has the following IO statistics: SELECT T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT, SUM(T2.UNITS) AS TotalUnits FROM dbo.TRANS AS T JOIN dbo.TRANS AS T2 ON T2.RGN=T.RGN AND T2.CD=T.CD AND T2.FUND_CD=T.FUND_CD AND T2.TRDT<=T.TRDT JOIN TASK_REQUESTS AS T3 ON T3.CD=T.CD AND T3.RGN=T.RGN AND T3.TASK = 'UPDATE_MEM_BAL' GROUP BY T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT (4447 row(s) affected) Table 'TRANSACTIONS'. Scan count 5977, logical reads 7527408, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. Table 'TASK_REQUESTS'. Scan count 1, logical reads 11, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. SQL Server Execution Times: CPU time = 58157 ms, elapsed time = 61437 ms. If I instead introduce a temporary table then the query returns quickly and performs less logical reads: CREATE TABLE #MyTable(RGN VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, CD VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY([RGN],[CD])); INSERT INTO #MyTable(RGN, CD) SELECT RGN, CD FROM TASK_REQUESTS WHERE TASK='UPDATE_MEM_BAL'; SELECT T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT, SUM(T2.UNITS) AS TotalUnits FROM dbo.TRANS AS T JOIN dbo.TRANS AS T2 ON T2.RGN=T.RGN AND T2.CD=T.CD AND T2.FUND_CD=T.FUND_CD AND T2.TRDT<=T.TRDT JOIN #MyTable AS T3 ON T3.CD=T.CD AND T3.RGN=T.RGN GROUP BY T.RGN, T.CD, T.FUND_CD, T.TRDT (4447 row(s) affected) Table 'Worktable'. Scan count 5974, logical reads 382339, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. Table 'TRANSACTIONS'. Scan count 4, logical reads 4547, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. Table '#MyTable________________________________________________________________000000000013'. Scan count 1, logical reads 2, physical reads 0, read-ahead reads 0, lob logical reads 0, lob physical reads 0, lob read-ahead reads 0. SQL Server Execution Times: CPU time = 1420 ms, elapsed time = 1515 ms. The interesting thing for me is that the TASK_REQUEST table is a small table (3 rows at present) and statistics are up to date on the table. Any idea why such different execution plans and execution times would be occuring? And ideally how to change things so that I don't need to use the temp table to get decent performance? The only real difference in the execution plans is that the temp table version introduces an index spool (eager spool) operation.

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  • Better way to write an object generator for an RAII template class?

    - by Dan
    I would like to write an object generator for a templated RAII class -- basically a function template to construct an object using type deduction of parameters so the types don't have to be specified explicitly. The problem I foresee is that the helper function that takes care of type deduction for me is going to return the object by value, which will result in a premature call to the RAII destructor when the copy is made. Perhaps C++0x move semantics could help but that's not an option for me. Anyone seen this problem before and have a good solution? This is what I have: template<typename T, typename U, typename V> class FooAdder { private: typedef OtherThing<T, U, V> Thing; Thing &thing_; int a_; // many other members public: FooAdder(Thing &thing, int a); ~FooAdder(); void foo(T t, U u); void bar(V v); }; The gist is that OtherThing has a horrible interface, and FooAdder is supposed to make it easier to use. The intended use is roughly like this: FooAdder(myThing, 2) .foo(3, 4) .foo(5, 6) .bar(7) .foo(8, 9); The FooAdder constructor initializes some internal data structures. The foo and bar methods populate those data structures. The ~FooAdder dtor wraps things up and calls a method on thing_, taking care of all the nastiness. That would work fine if FooAdder wasn't a template. But since it is, I would need to put the types in, more like this: FooAdder<Abc, Def, Ghi>(myThing, 2) ... That's annoying, because the types can be inferred based on myThing. So I would prefer to create a templated object generator, similar to std::make_pair, that will do the type deduction for me. Something like this: template<typename T, typename U, typename V> FooAdder<T, U, V> AddFoo(Thing &thing, int a) { return FooAdder<T, U, V>(thing, a); } That seems problematic: because it returns by value, the stack temporary object will be destructed, which will cause the RAII dtor to run prematurely. One thought I had was to give FooAdder a copy ctor with move semantics, kinda like std::auto_ptr. But I would like to do this without dynamic memory allocation, so I thought the copy ctor could set a flag within FooAdder indicating the dtor shouldn't do the wrap-up. Like this: FooAdder(FooAdder &rhs) // Note: rhs is not const : thing_(rhs.thing_) , a_(rhs.a_) , // etc... lots of other members, annoying. , moved(false) { rhs.moved = true; } ~FooAdder() { if (!moved) { // do whatever it would have done } } Seems clunky. Anyone got a better way?

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