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  • Nested attributes form for model which belongs_to few models

    - by ExiRe
    I have few models - User, Teacher and TeacherLeader. class User < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible ..., :teacher_attributes has_one :teacher has_one :teacher_leader accepts_nested_attributes_for :teacher_leader end class Teacher < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_one :teacher_leader end class TeacherLeader < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :teacher end I would like to fill TeacherLeader via nested attributes. So, i do such things in controller: class TeacherLeadersController < ApplicationController ... def new @user = User.new @teacher_leader = @user.build_teacher_leader @teachers_collection = Teacher.all.collect do |t| [ "#{t.teacher_last_name} #{t.teacher_first_name} #{t.teacher_middle_name}", t.id ] end @choosen_teacher = @teachers_collection.first.last unless @teachers_collection.empty? end end And also have such view (new.html.erb): <%= form_for @user, :url => teacher_leaders_url, :html => {:class => "form-horizontal"} do |f| %> <%= field_set_tag do %> <% f.fields_for :teacher_leader do |tl| %> <div class="control-group"> <%= tl.label :teacher_id, "Teacher names", :class => "control-label" %> <div class="controls"> <%= select_tag( :teacher_id, options_for_select( @teachers_collection, @choosen_teacher )) %> </div> </div> <% end %> <div class="control-group"> <%= f.label :user_login, "Login", :class => "control-label" %> <div class="controls"> <%= f.text_field :user_login, :placeholder => @everpresent_field_placeholder %> </div> </div> <div class="control-group"> <%= f.label :password, "Pass", :class => "control-label" %> <div class="controls"> <%= f.text_field :password, :placeholder => @everpresent_field_placeholder %> </div> </div> <% end %> <%= f.submit "Create", :class => "btn btn-large btn-success" %> <% end %> Problem is that select form here does NOT appear. Why? Do i do something wrong?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

    - by lmttag
    We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Unset/Change Binding in WPF

    - by captcalamares
    How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

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  • Paging & Sorting grids with ASP.Net MVC

    - by Scott Ivey
    I'm new to MVC, and am not following how you'd do paging and sorting on a grid. I'm used to using the asp.Net GridView control with an ObjectDataSource pointed at objects in our business layer - and in that case the ODS handles all of the paging & sorting using the methods that our ORM generates on the objects. I've looked at using the same ORM with MVC - and things work out fine there - i just loop thru the collections to build the table on the page - but without the ODS to handle the paging & sorting, i'm confused as to how I'd handle that. Would I have a separate controller for the paging and sorting? I'm not sure what the best practices are for this scenario, so if someone can point me in the right direction it would be much appreciated. Edit: Ok, so I understand that I need to roll my own - but where do I start? I've created a CustomerController, and a view that displays a table of customers that looks like below - and I want to sort on FirstName or LastName columns. My Model has a Sort() method on it that'll take a string sort expression in the format that would be used by a GridView/ODS pair. Would I create a new Action on my CustomerController called Sort, and put an ActionLink in my header? <table> <tr> <th> First Name </th> <th> Last Name </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FirstName) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.LastName) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table>

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  • Spring's JdbcDaoSupport (using MySQL Connector/J) fails after executing sql that adds FK

    - by John
    I am using Spring's JdbcDaoSupport class with a DriverManagerDataSource using the MySQL Connector/J 5.0 driver (driverClassName=com.mysql.jdbc.driver). allowMultiQueries is set to true in the url. My application is an in-house tool we recently developed that executes sql scripts in a directory one-by-one (allows us to re-create our schema and reference table data for a given date, etc, but I digress). The sql scripts sometime contain multiple statements (hence allowMultiQueries), so one script can create a table, add indexes for that table, etc. The problem happens when including a statement to add a foreign key constraint in one of these files. If I have a file that looks like... --(column/constraint names are examples) CREATE TABLE myTable ( fk1 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, fk2 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (fk1, fk2) ); ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk1 FOREIGN KEY (fk1) REFERENCES myOtherTable (id) ; ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk2 FOREIGN KEY (fk2) REFERENCES myOtherOtherTable (id) ; then JdbcTemplate.execute throws an UncategorizedSqlException with the following error message and stack trace: Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.jdbc.UncategorizedSQLException: StatementCallback; uncategorized SQLException for SQL [ THE SQL YOU SEE ABOVE LISTED HERE ]; SQL state [HY000]; error code [1005]; Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150); nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:83) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) and the table and foreign keys are not inserted. Also, especially weird: if I take the foreign key statements out of the script I showed above and then place them in their own script that executes after (so I now have 1 script with just the create table statement, and 1 script with the add foreign key statements that executes after that) then what happens is: tool executes create table script, works fine, table is created tool executes add fk script, throws the same exception as seen above (except errno=121 this time), but the FKs actually get added (!!!) In other words, when the create table/FK statements are in the same script then the exception is thrown and nothing is created, but when they are different scripts a nearly identical exception is thrown but both things get created. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if you'd like me to clarify anything more.

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  • Cross-site request forgery protections: Where do I put all these lines?

    - by brilliant
    Hello, I was looking for a python code that would be able to log in from "Google App Engine" to some of my accounts on some websites (like yahoo or eBay) and was given this code: import urllib, urllib2, cookielib url = "https://login.yahoo.com/config/login?" form_data = {'login' : 'my-login-here', 'passwd' : 'my-password-here'} jar = cookielib.CookieJar() opener = urllib2.build_opener(urllib2.HTTPCookieProcessor(jar)) form_data = urllib.urlencode(form_data) # data returned from this pages contains redirection resp = opener.open(url, form_data) # yahoo redirects to http://my.yahoo.com, so lets go there instead resp = opener.open('http://mail.yahoo.com') print resp.read() Unfortunately, this code didn't work, so I asked another question here and one supporter among other things said this: "You send MD5 hash and not plain password. Also you'd have to play along with all kinds of CSRF protections etc. that they're implementing. Look: <input type="hidden" name=".tries" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name=".src" value="ym"> <input type="hidden" name=".md5" value=""> <input type="hidden" name=".hash" value=""> <input type="hidden" name=".js" value=""> <input type="hidden" name=".last" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="promo" value=""> <input type="hidden" name=".intl" value="us"> <input type="hidden" name=".bypass" value=""> <input type="hidden" name=".partner" value=""> <input type="hidden" name=".u" value="bd5tdpd5rf2pg"> <input type="hidden" name=".v" value="0"> <input type="hidden" name=".challenge" value="5qUiIPGVFzRZ2BHhvtdGXoehfiOj"> <input type="hidden" name=".yplus" value=""> <input type="hidden" name=".emailCode" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="pkg" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="stepid" value=""> <input type="hidden" name=".ev" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="hasMsgr" value="0"> <input type="hidden" name=".chkP" value="Y"> <input type="hidden" name=".done" value="http://mail.yahoo.com"> <input type="hidden" name=".pd" value="ym_ver=0&c=&ivt=&sg="> I am not quite sure where he got all these lines from and where in my code I am supposed to add them. Do You have any idea? I know I was supposed to ask him this question first, and I did, but he never returned, so I decided to ask a separate question here.

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  • WPF ClickOnce Bootstrap Dection Failure on One Machine

    - by Dexter Morgan
    Hello Friend, I've decided to use ClickOnce technology to deploy my new WPF application. By and large, ClickOnce works as advertised but I've hit a minor glitch regarding Bootstrapping and framework detection. Some background: - I'm using the standard Visual Studio-generated publish.htm page as my launch page. - The only prerequisite is the .NET Framework 4.0 Client Profile. - All clients using IE 8. - All clients already have the .NET 4.0 Client Profile installed. ClickOnce works as advertised on the vast majority of machines. The VS-generated JScript correctly detects that the framework is installed and presents the user with a Run button. The app launches just fine. I'm getting odd results on one of the machines, however. On the offending machine, the VS-generated JScript tells the user that the prereqs may not be installed -- or rather, it FAILS to detect that the framework is already installed. The "launch" link successfully launches the application but the Run link points to the bootstrapper setup.exe. Why is it failing to detect the framework on this one machine? It occurred to me that framework detection is largely a matter of examining the useragent string that's submitted by the browser. So, what you see below are two UserAgent strings. The first is from a machine where things are working properly. The second is from the offending machine. THIS ONE WORKS: 2011-01-11 15:14:14 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 72.130.187.100 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+Media+Center+PC+5.0;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+.NET4.0C) 304 0 0 THIS ONE DOESN'T: 2011-01-11 18:49:12 W3SVC1 192.168.0.36 GET /publish.htm - 80 - 76.212.204.169 Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.1;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+GTB6.6;+SLCC2;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30729;+Media+Center+PC+6.0;+.NET4.0C) 200 0 0 The useragent string of both machines clearly states, "hey the .NET 4.0 client profile is installed here" -- yet the second machine seems unable to detect it. I don't know enough about useragent strings to understand why the former works and the latter fails. The only difference as far as I can tell is that the offending machine is running 64bit. But that shouldn't make a difference. Should it? Any ideas? Dexter Morgan

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  • DB Design Pattern - Many to many classification / categorised tagging.

    - by Robin Day
    I have an existing database design that stores Job Vacancies. The "Vacancy" table has a number of fixed fields across all clients, such as "Title", "Description", "Salary range". There is an EAV design for "Custom" fields that the Clients can setup themselves, such as, "Manager Name", "Working Hours". The field names are stored in a "ClientText" table and the data stored in a "VacancyClientText" table with VacancyId, ClientTextId and Value. Lastly there is a many to many EAV design for custom tagging / categorising the vacancies with things such as Locations/Offices the vacancy is in, a list of skills required. This is stored as a "ClientCategory" table listing the types of tag, "Locations, Skills", a "ClientCategoryItem" table listing the valid values for each Category, e.g., "London,Paris,New York,Rome", "C#,VB,PHP,Python". Finally there is a "VacancyClientCategoryItem" table with VacancyId and ClientCategoryItemId for each of the selected items for the vacancy. There are no limits to the number of custom fields or custom categories that the client can add. I am now designing a new system that is very similar to the existing system, however, I have the ability to restrict the number of custom fields a Client can have and it's being built from scratch so I have no legacy issues to deal with. For the Custom Fields my solution is simple, I have 5 additional columns on the Vacancy Table called CustomField1-5. This removes one of the EAV designs. It is with the tagging / categorising design that I am struggling. If I limit a client to having 5 categories / types of tag. Should I create 5 tables listing the possible values "CustomCategoryItems1-5" and then an additional 5 many to many tables "VacancyCustomCategoryItem1-5" This would result in 10 tables performing the same storage as the three tables in the existing system. Also, should (heaven forbid) the requirements change in that I need 6 custom categories rather than 5 then this will result in a lot of code change. Therefore, can anyone suggest any DB Design Patterns that would be more suitable to storing such data. I'm happy to stick with the EAV approach, however, the existing system has come across all the usual performance issues and complex queries associated with such a design. Any advice / suggestions are much appreciated. The DBMS system used is SQL Server 2005, however, 2008 is an option if required for any particular pattern.

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  • Ideas on implementing threads and cross process communication. - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occured. I have already implemented a thread on the first process which currently creates the data to send to the second process and makes it available to the second process. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. Following is a small snippet of what I have so far in the producer application; Rolling the dice and sending the data: case IDM_FILE_ROLLDICE: { hDiceRoll = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc(hMainWindow), // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &hDiceID // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); } break; The data being sent to the other process: DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { HANDLE hMainHandle = *((HANDLE*)passedHandle); WCHAR buffer[256]; LPCTSTR pBuf; LPVOID lpMsgBuf; LPVOID lpDisplayBuf; struct diceData storage; HANDLE hMapFile; DWORD dw; //Roll dice and store results in variable storage = RollDice(); hMapFile = CreateFileMapping( (HANDLE)0xFFFFFFFF, // use paging file NULL, // default security PAGE_READWRITE, // read/write access 0, // maximum object size (high-order DWORD) BUF_SIZE, // maximum object size (low-order DWORD) szName); // name of mapping object if (hMapFile == NULL) { dw = GetLastError(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not create file mapping object",L"Error",MB_OK); return 1; } pBuf = (LPTSTR) MapViewOfFile(hMapFile, // handle to map object FILE_MAP_ALL_ACCESS, // read/write permission 0, 0, BUF_SIZE); if (pBuf == NULL) { MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Could not map view of file",L"Error",MB_OK); CloseHandle(hMapFile); return 1; } CopyMemory((PVOID)pBuf, &storage, (_tcslen(szMsg) * sizeof(TCHAR))); //_getch(); MessageBox(hMainHandle,L"Completed!",L"Success",MB_OK); UnmapViewOfFile(pBuf); return 0; } I'd like to think I am at least on the right lines, although for some reason when the application finishes creating the thread it hits the return DefWindowProc(hMainWindow, message, wParam, lParam); it crashes saying there's no more source code for the current location. I know there are certain ways to implement things but as I've mentioned I'm not sure if i'm doing this the right way, has anybody else tried to do the same thing? Thanks!

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  • Java DriverManager Always Assigns My Driver

    - by JGB146
    I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

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  • how to update an Android ListActivity on changing data of the connected SimpleCursorAdapter

    - by 4485670
    I have the following code. What I want to achieve is to update the shown list when I click an entry so I can traverse through the list. I found the two uncommented ways to do it here on stackoverflow, but neither works. I also got the advice to create a new ListActivity on the data update, but that sounds like wasting resources? EDIT: I found the solution myself. All you need to do is call "SimpleCursorAdapter.changeCursor(new Cursor);". No notifying, no things in UI-Thread or whatever. import android.app.ListActivity; import android.database.Cursor; import android.os.Bundle; import android.util.Log; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ListView; import android.widget.SimpleCursorAdapter; public class MyActivity extends ListActivity { private DepartmentDbAdapter mDbHelper; private Cursor cursor; private String[] from = new String[] { DepartmentDbAdapter.KEY_NAME }; private int[] to = new int[] { R.id.text1 }; private SimpleCursorAdapter notes; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.departments_list); mDbHelper = new DepartmentDbAdapter(this); mDbHelper.open(); // Get all of the departments from the database and create the item list cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(1); this.startManagingCursor(cursor); // Now create an array adapter and set it to display using our row notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.department_row, cursor, from, to); this.setListAdapter(notes); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); // get new data and update the list this.updateData(safeLongToInt(id)); } /** * update data for the list * * @param int departmentId id of the parent department */ private void updateData(int departmentId) { // close the old one, get a new one cursor.close(); cursor = mDbHelper.fetchSubItemByParentId(departmentId); // change the cursor of the adapter to the new one notes.changeCursor(cursor); } /** * safely convert long to in to save memory * * @param long l the long variable * * @return integer */ public static int safeLongToInt(long l) { if (l < Integer.MIN_VALUE || l > Integer.MAX_VALUE) { throw new IllegalArgumentException (l + " cannot be cast to int without changing its value."); } return (int) l; } }

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  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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  • PHP echo query result in Class??

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I have a question about PHP Class. I am trying to get the result from Mysql via PHP. I would like to know if the best practice is to display the result inside the Class or store the result and handle it in html. For example, display result inside the Class class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); } while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ //display the result..ex: echo $row['winner']; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); //no returns } } Or return the query result as a variable and handle in php class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); // create an array } $ret = array(); while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ $ret[]=$row; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); return $ret; // and handle the return value in php } } Two things here: I found that returned variable in php is a little bit complex to play with since it is two dimension array. I am not sure what the best practice is and would like to ask you experts opinions. Every time I create a new method, I have to recreate the $connection variable: see below $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } It seems like redundant to me. Can I only do it once instead of calling it anytime I need a query? I am new to php class. hope you guys can help me. thanks.

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  • UNIX pipes on C block on read

    - by Toni Cárdenas
    I'm struggling to implement a shell with pipelines for class. typedef struct { char** cmd; int in[2]; int out[2]; } cmdio; cmdio cmds[MAX_PIPE + 1]; Commands in the pipeline are read and stored in cmds. cmdio[i].in is the pair of file descriptors of the input pipe returned by pipe(). For the first command, which reads from terminal input, it is just {fileno(stdin), -1}. cmdin[i].outis similar for the output pipe/terminal output. cmdio[i].in is the same as cmd[i-1].out. For example: $ ls -l | sort | wc CMD: ls -l IN: 0 -1 OUT: 3 4 CMD: sort IN: 3 4 OUT: 5 6 CMD: wc IN: 5 6 OUT: -1 1 We pass each command to process_command, which does a number of things: for (cmdi = 0; cmds[cmdi].cmd != NULL; cmdi++) { process_command(&cmds[cmdi]); } Now, inside process_command: if (!(pid_fork = fork())) { dup2(cmd->in[0], fileno(stdin)); dup2(cmd->out[1], fileno(stdout)); if (cmd->in[1] >= 0) { if (close(cmd->in[1])) { perror(NULL); } } if (cmd->out[0] >= 0) { if (close(cmd->out[0])) { perror(NULL); } } execvp(cmd->cmd[0], cmd->cmd); exit(-1); } The problem is that reading from the pipe blocks forever: COMMAND $ ls | wc Created pipe, in: 5 out: 6 Foreground pid: 9042, command: ls, Exited, info: 0 [blocked running read() within wc] If, instead of exchanging the process with execvp, I just do this: if (!(pid_fork = fork())) { dup2(cmd->in[0], fileno(stdin)); dup2(cmd->out[1], fileno(stdout)); if (cmd->in[1] >= 0) { if (close(cmd->in[1])) { perror(NULL); } } if (cmd->out[0] >= 0) { if (close(cmd->out[0])) { perror(NULL); } } char buf[6]; read(fileno(stdin), buf, 5); buf[5] = '\0'; printf("%s\n", buf); exit(0); } It happens to work: COMMAND $ cmd1 | cmd2 | cmd3 | cmd4 | cmd5 Pipe creada, in: 11 out: 12 Pipe creada, in: 13 out: 14 Pipe creada, in: 15 out: 16 Pipe creada, in: 17 out: 18 hola! Foreground pid: 9251, command: cmd1, Exited, info: 0 Foreground pid: 9252, command: cmd2, Exited, info: 0 Foreground pid: 9253, command: cmd3, Exited, info: 0 Foreground pid: 9254, command: cmd4, Exited, info: 0 hola! Foreground pid: 9255, command: cmd5, Exited, info: 0 What could be the problem?

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  • Get data from aspx.cs page to aspx page.

    - by Brad8118
    So I am using a jquery plug in that allows me to change the order of things in a list by dragging and dropping them. So my goal is to be able to grab a list of my objects (AlertInfo) and using it in a javascript function. I was able to use a json webservice call in a test project to pass the data to the page. But we don't have a webservice page now so I tried to grab it from a aspx.cs page and it hasn't worked. ///Aspx page: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "~/Alerts/GetAlerts", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { var data = eval("(" + msg.d + ")"); jQuery.each(data, function (rec) { AlertList[AlertList.length] = new objAlert(this.id, this.title, this.details, JSONDateSerializationFix(this.startdate), JSONDateSerializationFix(this.enddate)); UpdateDisplayList(); }) }, error: function (msg) { alert("BRAD" + msg); } The issue is that the Alerts page in "URL /Alerts/GetAlerts" is Alerts.aspx.cs. I can't figure out if I can use this ajax command to call a method in a aspx.cs page. //Code behind page aspx.cs [WebMethod] //[ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public string GetAlerts() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return new JavaScriptSerializer().Serialize(list); } public List GetAlertsList() { List list = AlertInfo.GetTestAlerts(); return list; ; } So I was hoping that I could load data into an asp control (dataList) and then grab the data //code behind page protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { dataListAlertList.DataSource = GetAlertsList(); dataListAlertList.DataBind(); } public static List<AlertInfo> GetTestAlerts() { List<AlertInfo> list = new List<AlertInfo>(); list.Add(new AlertInfo("0", "Alert 1 Title", "Alert 1 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); list.Add(new AlertInfo("1", "Alert 2 Title", "Alert 2 Detail", "10/10/2010", "10/10/2011")); return list; } //.aspx page $(document).ready(function () { var a1 = $("#dataListAlertList").val(); // do fun stuff now. } But I keep getting undefined....

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  • 2nd Year College - Learning - Microsoft Server Products

    - by Ryan
    As the title says, I just finished my first year of college (majoring in Software Engineering). Fortunately my school likes Microsoft enough, and I can get pretty much anything I want that Microsoft sells. I also can get IBM Websphere and the like for free as well. Earlier this year, I set up an oldish computer (2.6 Pentium D, x64) to run ubuntu server headless. I'm predominately a Java developer, so Apache, Maven, Nexus, Sonar, SVN, etc made it onto the machine. It worked really well for personal and school projects, especially team projects (quick ramp up). Anyways, I started to pick up C# to complement my Java knowledge (don't judge me :P), and am interested in working with some of the associated Microsoft equivalents. The machine currently has the Ubuntu install, as well as Windows 7 Ultimate. I do all of my actual development work off my laptop, also running Windows 7 Ultimate. I was wondering what software you would recommend putting on the machine. I’m not actually serving anything off the machine itself, but in Ubuntu I had it doing integration tests with Hudson on every commit, and profiling my applications, etc, etc. The machine would be running headless, and I would remote into it. Here is what I am currently leaning towards / wondering about: Windows 7 Ultimate vs Windows Server 2008 (R2) (no one is really clear why I should go with one over the other) Windows Team Foundation Sharepoint (Never used it before, kind of meh about it) IBM Websphere or Glassfish (Some Java EE web server) SQL Server 2008 A DVCS In order to better control product conflicts / limit resource use, I’m wondering if I should install things into virtual machines (I can get VmWare or Microsoft Virtualization Products) I also plan on installing everything I had running under Linux (it’s almost entirely Java based development software, so it’ll run on both, only reason I went with ubuntu during the year was because the apache build seemed better). I’m primarily looking to become familiar with enterprise software development tools, as well as get something functional that will help my development process. (IE, I’ll still use project and assign tasks even though I might be the only one to assign tasks to, just to practice doing so). Is there any other software / configuration details I should explore? Opinions on my current list? I primarily use C#, Java, and PHP. I'm familiar with ruby, and python as well. Thanks!

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  • Setting default values for inherited property without using accessor in Objective-C?

    - by Ben Stock
    I always see people debating whether or not to use a property's setter in the -init method. I don't know enough about the Objective-C language yet to have an opinion one way or the other. With that said, lately I've been sticking to ivars exclusively. It seems cleaner in a way. I don't know. I digress. Anyway, here's my problem … Say we have a class called Dude with an interface that looks like this: @interface Dude : NSObject { @private NSUInteger _numberOfGirlfriends; } @property (nonatomic, assign) NSUInteger numberOfGirlfriends; @end And an implementation that looks like this: @implementation Dude - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _numberOfGirlfriends = 0; } } @end Now let's say I want to extend Dude. My subclass will be called Playa. And since a playa should have mad girlfriends, when Playa gets initialized, I don't want him to start with 0; I want him to have 10. Here's Playa.m: @implementation Playa - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { // Attempting to set the ivar directly will result in the compiler saying, // "Instance variable `_numberOfGirlfriends` is private." // _numberOfGirlfriends = 10; <- Can't do this. // Thus, the only way to set it is with the mutator: self.numberOfGirlfriends = 10; // Or: [self setNumberOfGirlfriends:10]; } } @end So what's a Objective-C newcomer to do? Well, I mean, there's only one thing I can do, and that's set the property. Unless there's something I'm missing. Any ideas, suggestions, tips, or tricks? Sidenote: The other thing that bugs me about setting the ivar directly — and what a lot of ivar-proponents say is a "plus" — is that there are no KVC notifications. A lot of times, I want the KVC magic to happen. 50% of my setters end in [self setNeedsDisplay:YES], so without the notification, my UI doesn't update unless I remember to manually add -setNeedsDisplay. That's a bad example, but the point stands. I utilize KVC all over the place, so without notifications, things can act wonky. Anyway, any info is much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Why does std::map operator[] create an object if the key doesn't exist?

    - by n1ck
    Hi, I'm pretty sure I already saw this question somewhere (comp.lang.c++? Google doesn't seem to find it there either) but a quick search here doesn't seem to find it so here it is: Why does the std::map operator[] create an object if the key doesn't exist? I don't know but for me this seems counter-intuitive if you compare to most other operator[] (like std::vector) where if you use it you must be sure that the index exists. I'm wondering what's the rationale for implementing this behavior in std::map. Like I said wouldn't it be more intuitive to act more like an index in a vector and crash (well undefined behavior I guess) when accessed with an invalid key? Refining my question after seeing the answers: Ok so far I got a lot of answers saying basically it's cheap so why not or things similar. I totally agree with that but why not use a dedicated function for that (I think one of the comment said that in java there is no operator[] and the function is called put)? My point is why doesn't map operator[] work like a vector? If I use operator[] on an out of range index on a vector I wouldn't like it to insert an element even if it was cheap because that probably mean an error in my code. My point is why isn't it the same thing with map. I mean, for me, using operator[] on a map would mean: i know this key already exist (for whatever reason, i just inserted it, I have redundancy somewhere, whatever). I think it would be more intuitive that way. That said what are the advantage of doing the current behavior with operator[] (and only for that, I agree that a function with the current behavior should be there, just not operator[])? Maybe it give clearer code that way? I don't know. Another answer was that it already existed that way so why not keep it but then, probably when they (the ones before stl) choose to implement it that way they found it provided an advantage or something? So my question is basically: why choose to implement it that way, meaning a somewhat lack of consistency with other operator[]. What benefit do it give? Thanks

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  • casting doubles to integers in order to gain speed

    - by antirez
    Hello all, in Redis (http://code.google.com/p/redis) there are scores associated to elements, in order to take this elements sorted. This scores are doubles, even if many users actually sort by integers (for instance unix times). When the database is saved we need to write this doubles ok disk. This is what is used currently: snprintf((char*)buf+1,sizeof(buf)-1,"%.17g",val); Additionally infinity and not-a-number conditions are checked in order to also represent this in the final database file. Unfortunately converting a double into the string representation is pretty slow. While we have a function in Redis that converts an integer into a string representation in a much faster way. So my idea was to check if a double could be casted into an integer without lost of data, and then using the function to turn the integer into a string if this is true. For this to provide a good speedup of course the test for integer "equivalence" must be fast. So I used a trick that is probably undefined behavior but that worked very well in practice. Something like that: double x = ... some value ... if (x == (double)((long long)x)) use_the_fast_integer_function((long long)x); else use_the_slow_snprintf(x); In my reasoning the double casting above converts the double into a long, and then back into an integer. If the range fits, and there is no decimal part, the number will survive the conversion and will be exactly the same as the initial number. As I wanted to make sure this will not break things in some system, I joined #c on freenode and I got a lot of insults ;) So I'm now trying here. Is there a standard way to do what I'm trying to do without going outside ANSI C? Otherwise, is the above code supposed to work in all the Posix systems that currently Redis targets? That is, archs where Linux / Mac OS X / *BSD / Solaris are running nowaday? What I can add in order to make the code saner is an explicit check for the range of the double before trying the cast at all. Thank you for any help.

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  • .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

    - by Groxx
    I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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  • Commitment to Zend Framework - any arguments against?

    - by Pekka
    I am refurbishing a big CMS that I have been working on for quite a number of years now. The product itself is great, but some components, the Database and translation classes for example, need urgent replacing - partly self-made as far back as 2002, grown into a bit of a chaos over time, and might have trouble surviving a security audit. So, I've been looking closely at a number of frameworks (or, more exactly, component Libraries, as I do not intend to change the basic structure of the CMS) and ended up with liking Zend Framework the best. They offer a solid MVC model but don't force you into it, and they offer a lot of professional components that have obviously received a lot of attention (Did you know there are multiple plurals in Russian, and you can't translate them using a simple ($number == 0) or ($number > 1) switch? I didn't, but Zend_Translate can handle it. Just to illustrate the level of thorougness the library seems to have been built with.) I am now literally at the point of no return, starting to replace key components of the system by the Zend-made ones. I'm not really having second thoughts - and I am surely not looking to incite a flame war - but before going onward, I would like to step back for a moment and look whether there is anything speaking against tying a big system closely to Zend Framework. What I like about Zend: As far as I can see, very high quality code Extremely well documented, at least regarding introductions to how things work (Haven't had to use detailed API documentation yet) Backed by a company that has an interest in seeing the framework prosper Well received in the community, has a considerable user base Employs coding standards I like Comes with a full set of unit tests Feels to me like the right choice to make - or at least, one of the right choices - in terms of modern, professional PHP development. I have been thinking about encapsulating and abstracting ZF's functionality into own classes to be able to switch frameworks more easily, but have come to the conclusion that this would not be a good idea because: it would be an unnecessary level of abstraction it could cost performance the big advantage of using a framework - the existence of a developer base that is familiar with its components - would partly be cancelled out therefore, the commitment to ZF would be a deep one. Thus my question: Is there anything substantial speaking against committing to the Zend Framework? Do you have insider knowledge of plans of Zend Inc.'s to go evil in 2011, and make it a closed source library? Is Zend Inc. run by vampires? Are there conceptual flaws in the code base you start to notice when you've transitioned all your projects to it? Is the appearance of quality code an illusion? Does the code look good, but run terribly slow on anything below my quad-core workstation?

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • Issues in Ajax based applications

    - by Sinuhe
    I'm very interested in developing Ajax based applications. This is, loading almost all of the content of the application via XMLHttpRequest, instead of only some combos and widgets. But if I try to do this form scratch, soon I find some problems without an easy solution. I wonder if there is some framework (both client and server side) to deal with this issues. As far as I know, there isn't (but I've searched mainly in Java world). So I am seriously thinking of doing my own framework, at least for my projects. Therefore, in this question I ask for several things. First, the possible problems of an ajax based development. Then, I'm looking for some framework or utility in order to deal with them. Finally, if there is no framework available, what features must it have. Here are the issues I thought: 1 - JavaScript must be enabled. Security paranoia isn't the only problem: a lot of mobile devices couldn't use the application, too. 2 - Sometimes you need to update more than one DIV (e.g. main content, menu and breadcrumbs). 3 - Unknown response type: when you make an Ajax call, you set the callback function too, usually specifying if expected response is a javascript object or in which DIV put the result. But this fails when you get another type of response: for example when the session has expired and the user must log in again. 4 - Browser's refresh, back and forward buttons can be a real pain. User will expect different behaviors depending on the situation. 5 - When search engines indexes a site, only follow links. Thus, content load by Ajax won't "exist" for who doesn't know about it yet. 6 - Users can ask for open a link in a different window/tab. 7 - Address bar doesn't show the "real" page you are in. So, you can't copy the location and send it to a friend or bookmark the page. 8 - If you want to monetize the site, you can put some advertisings. As you don't refresh entire page and you want to change the ad after some time, you have to refresh only the DIV where the ad is. But this can violate the Terms and Conditions of your ad service. In fact, it can go against AdSense TOS. 9 - When you refresh an entire page, all JavaScript gets "cleaned". But in Ajax calls, all JavaScript objects will remain. 10 - You can't easily change your CSS properties.

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  • Running OpenMPI on Windows XP

    - by iamweird
    Hi there. I'm trying to build a simple cluster based on Windows XP. I compiled OpenMPI-1.4.2 successfully, and tools like mpicc and ompi_info work too, but I can't get my mpirun working properly. The only output I can see is Z:\orterun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname [host0:04728] Failed to initialize COM library. Error code = -2147417850 [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\mca\ess\hnp\ess_hnp_module.c at line 218 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_plm_init failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\runtime\orte_init.c at line 132 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_ess_set_name failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\..\..\openmpi -1.4.2\orte\tools\orterun\orterun.c at line 543 Where z:\hosts.txt appears as follows: host0 host1 Z: is a shared network drive available to both host0 and host1. What my problem is and how do I fix it? Upd: Ok, this problem seems to be fixed. It seems to me that WideCap driver and/or software components causes this error to appear. A "clean" machine runs local task successfully. Anyway, I still cannot run a task within at least 2 machines, I'm getting following message: Z:\mpirun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname connecting to host1 username:cluster password:******** Save Credential?(Y/N) y [host0:04728] This feature hasn't been implemented yet. [host0:04728] Could not connect to namespace cimv2 on node host1. Error code =-2147024891 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- mpirun was unable to start the specified application as it encountered an error. More information may be available above. -------------------------------------------------------------------------- I googled a little and did all the things as described here: http://www.open-mpi.org/community/lists/users/2010/03/12355.php but I'm still getting the same error. Can anyone help me? Upd2: Error code -2147024891 might be WMI error WBEM_E_INVALID_PARAMETER (0x80041008) which occures when one of the parameters passed to the WMI call is not correct. Does this mean that the problem is in OpenMPI source code itself? Or maybe it's because of wrong/outdated wincred.h and credui.lib I used while building OpenMPI from the source code?

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  • Coping with feelings of technical mediocrity

    - by Karim
    As I've progressed as a programmer, I noticed more nuance and areas I could study in depth. In part, I've come to think of myself from, at one point, a "guru" to now much less, even mediocre or inadequate. Is this normal, or is it a sign of a destructive excessive ambition? Background I started to program when I was still a kid, I had about 10 or 11 years. I really enjoy my work and never get bored from it. It's amazing how somebody could be paid for what he really likes to do and would be doing it anyway even for free. When I first started to program, I was feeling proud of what I was doing, each application I built was for me a success and after 2-3 year I had a feeling that I'm a coding guru. It was a nice feeling. ;-) But the more I was in the field and the more types of software I started to develop, I was starting to have a feeling that I'm completely wrong in thinking I'm a guru. I felt that I'm not even a mediocre developer. Each new field I start to work on is giving me this feeling. Like when I once developed a device driver for a client, I saw how much I need to learn about device drivers. When I developed a video filter for an application, I saw how much do I still need to learn about DirectShow, Color Spaces, and all the theory behind that. The worst thing was when I started to learn algorithms. It was several years ago. I knew then the basic structures and algorithms like the sorting, some types of trees, some hashtables, strings, etc. and when I really wanted to learn a group of structures I learned about 5-6 new types and saw that in fact even this small group has several hundred subtypes of structures. It's depressing how little time people have in their lives to learn all this stuff. I'm now a software developer with about 10 years of experience and I still feel that I'm not a proficient developer when I think about things that others do in the industry.

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