Search Results

Search found 24201 results on 969 pages for 'andrew case'.

Page 791/969 | < Previous Page | 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798  | Next Page >

  • Web service performing asynchronous call

    - by kornelijepetak
    I have a webservice method FetchNumber() that fetches a number from a database and then returns it to the caller. But just before it returns the number to the caller, it needs to send this number to another service so instantiates and runs the BackgroundWorker whose job is to send this number to another service. public class FetchingNumberService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public int FetchNumber() { int value = Database.GetNumber(); AsyncUpdateNumber async = new AsyncUpdateNumber(value); return value; } } public class AsyncUpdateNumber { public AsyncUpdateNumber(int number) { sendingNumber = number; worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.DoWork += asynchronousCall; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void asynchronousCall(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Sending a number to a service (which is Synchronous) here } private int sendingNumber; private BackgroundWorker worker; } I don't want to block the web service (FetchNumber()) while sending this number to another service, because it can take a long time and the caller does not care about sending the number to another service. Caller expects this to return as soon as possible. FetchNumber() makes the background worker and runs it, then finishes (while worker is running in the background thread). I don't need any progress report or return value from the background worker. It's more of a fire-and-forget concept. My question is this. Since the web service object is instantiated per method call, what happens when the called method (FetchNumber() in this case) is finished, while the background worker it instatiated and ran is still running? What happens to the background thread? When does GC collect the service object? Does this prevent the background thread from executing correctly to the end? Are there any other side-effects on the background thread? Thanks for any input.

    Read the article

  • Struts2 Converting Enum Array fills array with single null value

    - by Kyle Partridge
    For a simple action class with these member variables: ... private TestConverterEnum test; private TestConverterEnum[] tests; private List<TestConverterEnum> tList; ... And a simple enum: public enum TestConverterEnum { A, B, C; } Using the default struts2 enum conversion, when I send the request like so: TestConterter.action?test=&tests=&tList=&b=asdf For test I get a null value, which is expected. For the Array and List, however, I get and Array (or list) with one null element. Is this what is expected? Is there a way to prevent this. We recently upgraded our struts2 version, and we had our own converters, which also don't work in this case, so I was hoping to use the default conversion method. We already have code that is validating these arrays for null and length, and I don't want to have to add another condition to these branches. Is there a way to prevent this bevavior?

    Read the article

  • Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

    - by user193655
    I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

    Read the article

  • Assign click event to addon icon on navigation bar

    - by Charsee
    We have created a chrome extension for our app. Where we call a METHOD from a "js file" on CLICK event of the "extension icon" placed on the navigation bar. For this we use message passing between the app.js (file containing the METHOD to be called on icon click) and background.html (using a js file included in this html). The script used to pass message is:(from background.html) chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function (tab) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tab.id, "showPopup"); }); and to listen the message :(in app.js) chrome.extension.onMessage.addListener(function(request) { if (request === "showPopup") { showPopup(); } }); The click event works as expected. But now we want to do same thing in mozilla extension. and we can't pass message to app.js on the click of the icon,so that it can execute the containing methods. We have also added the app.js using pageMod, something like this exports.main = function(options, callbacks) { pageMod.PageMod({ include: ["*"], contentScriptWhen: 'start', contentScriptFile: [data.url('jquery-1.7.1.min.js'),data.url('app.js')] }); createAndAddNavBarButton(); }; function createAndAddNavBarButton() { var navBar = document.getElementById('nav-bar');//assume document has been defined if (!navBar){return;}; var nbBtn = document.createElement('navbaricon'); nbBtn.setAttribute('id', 'navButton'); nbBtn.setAttribute('image', data.url('icon_16.png')); nbBtn.onclick = function(){ showPopup(); return true; } navBar.appendChild(btn); } But the click event does nothing and showPopup() is undefined. When a new page loads event associated with it in the app.js executes without any error but the click event doesn't work. Is there a method from where we can assign click event directly to this icon, as we have done in the case of chrome extension.

    Read the article

  • Generic property- specify the type at runtime

    - by Lirik
    I was reading a question on making a generic property, but I'm a little confused at by the last example from the first answer (I've included the relevant code below): You have to know the type at compile time. If you don't know the type at compile time then you must be storing it in an object, in which case you can add the following property to the Foo class: public object ConvertedValue { get { return Convert.ChangeType(Value, Type); } } That's seems strange: it's converting the value to the specified type, but it's returning it as an object when the value was stored as an object. Doesn't the returned object still require un-boxing? If it does, then why bother with the conversion of the type? I'm also trying to make a generic property whose type will be determined at run time: public class Foo { object Value {get;set;} Type ValType{get;set;} Foo(object value, Type type) { Value = value; ValType = type; } // I need a property that is actually // returned as the specified value type... public object ConvertedValue { get { return Convert.ChangeType(Value, ValType); } } } Is it possible to make a generic property? Does the return property still require unboxing after it's accessed?

    Read the article

  • Question about Client IDs

    - by George
    I have a user control that is emmitting javascript using the ClientId function. For example: Out &= "ValidatorHookupControlID(" & Quote & ddlMonth.ClientID & Quote & "), document.all(" & Quote & CustomValidator1.ClientID & Quote & "));" & vbCrLf It appears to me that the ClientID function DOES not return the ultimate ID that is sent to the browser. Instead, the ClientID function only appears to be aware of its current parent control, which in this case is a the User Control and so the ID that is returned is the ID "dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" When in fact the usercontrol is included in a master page and the ultimate ID that is used is: "ctl00_phPageContent_dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" I may be nuts, but that's what it appears to be doing. I expect that the ClientID function would return the ultimate ID used in the HTML. Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • XSLT line counter - is it that hard?

    - by Mr AH
    I have cheated every time I've needed to do a line count in XSLT by using JScript, but in this case I can't do that. I simply want to write out a line counter throughout an output file. This basic example has a simple solution: <xsl:for-each select="Records/Record"> <xsl:value-of select="position()"/> </xsl:for-each> Output would be: 1 2 3 4 etc... But what if the structure is more complex with nested foreach's : <xsl:for-each select="Records/Record"> <xsl:value-of select="position()"/> <xsl:for-each select="Records/Record"> <xsl:value-of select="position()"/> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:for-each> Here, the inner foreach would just reset the counter (so you get 1, 1, 2, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2 etc). Does anyone know how I can output the position in the file (ie. a line count)?

    Read the article

  • Jquery Cycle in Drupal - onAfter effect not working.

    - by jdln
    Im using the views slideshow module for drupal which uses the jquery cycle plugin. Here is my first simple slideshow where everything works properly: smartpeopletalkfast.co.uk/slideshow3/one Here is my 2nd slideshow: smartpeopletalkfast.co.uk/slideshow3/two Im trying to use the onAfter function. I want the next and previous buttons to be hidden when at the end of their cycle. This is demonstrated here: jquery.malsup.com/cycle/after.html The first slideshow that's working has these controls: prev: #prev1, next: #next1 The 2nd slideshow has these: prev: #prev1, next: #next1, end: onAfterr, timeout: 0 And Ive added this to the beginning of my document head. <script type="text/javascript"> function onAfterr(curr, next, opts) { var index = opts.currSlide; $('#prev1')[index == 0 ? 'hide' : 'show'](); $('#next1')[index == opts.slideCount - 1 ? 'hide' : 'show'](); } </script> I changed onAfter to onAfterr in case of a conflict. Nothing ive tried works and ive no idea why! Thanks

    Read the article

  • PHP GD imagecreatefromstring discards transparency

    - by meustrus
    I've been trying to get transparency to work with my application (which dynamically resizes images before storing them) and I think I've finally narrowed down the problem after much misdirection about imagealphablending and imagesavealpha. The source image is never loaded with proper transparency! // With this line, the output image has no transparency (where it should be // transparent, colors bleed out randomly or it's completely black, depending // on the image) $img = imagecreatefromstring($fileData); // With this line, it works as expected. $img = imagecreatefrompng($fileName); // Blah blah blah, lots of image resize code into $img2 goes here; I finally // tried just outputting $img instead. header('Content-Type: image/png'); imagealphablending($img, FALSE); imagesavealpha($img, TRUE); imagepng($img); imagedestroy($img); It would be some serious architectural difficulty to load the image from a file; this code is being used with a JSON API that gets queried from an iPhone app, and it's easier in this case (and more consistent) to upload images as base64-encoded strings in the POST data. Do I absolutely need to somehow store the image as a file (just so that PHP can load it into memory again)? Is there maybe a way to create a Stream from $fileData that can be passed to imagecreatefrompng?

    Read the article

  • Adroid's DateFormat replacement - missing the format() with FieldPosition

    - by user331244
    Hi, I need to split a date string into pieces and I'm doing it using the public final StringBuffer format (Object object, StringBuffer buffer, FieldPosition field) from the java.text.DateFormat class. However, the implementation of this function is really slow, hence Android has an own implementation in android.text.format.DateFormat. BUT, in my case, I want to extract the different pieces of the date string (year, minute and so on). Since I need to be locale independent, I can not use SimpleDateFormat and custom strings. I do it as follows: Calendar c = ... // find out what field to extract int field = getField(); // Create a date string Field calendarField = DateFormat.Field.ofCalendarField(field); FieldPosition fieldPosition = new FieldPosition(calendarField); StringBuffer label = new StringBuffer(); label = getDateFormat().format(c.getTime(), label, fieldPosition); // Find the piece that we are looking for int beginIndex = fieldPosition.getBeginIndex(); int endIndex = fieldPosition.getEndIndex(); String asString = label.substring(beginIndex, endIndex); For some reason, the format() overload with the FieldPosition argument is not included in the android platform. Any ideas of how to do this in another way? Is there any easy way to tokenize the pattern string? Any other ideas?

    Read the article

  • Go - Using a map for its set properties with user defined types

    - by Seth Hoenig
    I'm trying to use the built-in map type as a set for a type of my own (Point, in this case). The problem is, when I assign a Point to the map, and then later create a new, but equal point and use it as a key, the map behaves as though that key is not in the map. Is this not possible to do? // maptest.go package main import "fmt" func main() { set := make(map[*Point]bool) printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 0)] = true printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 2)] = true printSet(set) _, ok := set[NewPoint(3, 3)] // not in map if !ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for non existent element\n") } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for non existent element\n") } c, ok := set[NewPoint(0, 2)] // another one just like it already in map if ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for existent element\n") // should get this } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for existent element\n") // get this } fmt.Printf("c: %t\n", c) } func printSet(stuff map[*Point]bool) { fmt.Print("Set:\n") for k, v := range stuff { fmt.Printf("%s: %t\n", k, v) } } type Point struct { row int col int } func NewPoint(r, c int) *Point { return &Point{r, c} } func (p *Point) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("{%d, %d}", p.row, p.col) } func (p *Point) Eq(o *Point) bool { return p.row == o.row && p.col == o.col }

    Read the article

  • Float addition promoted to double?

    - by Andreas Brinck
    I had a small WTF moment this morning. Ths WTF can be summarized with this: float x = 0.2f; float y = 0.1f; float z = x + y; assert(z == x + y); //This assert is triggered! (Atleast with visual studio 2008) The reason seems to be that the expression x + y is promoted to double and compared with the truncated version in z. (If i change z to double the assert isn't triggered). I can see that for precision reasons it would make sense to perform all floating point arithmetics in double precision before converting the result to single precision. I found the following paragraph in the standard (which I guess I sort of already knew, but not in this context): 4.6.1. "An rvalue of type float can be converted to an rvalue of type double. The value is unchanged" My question is, is x + y guaranteed to be promoted to double or is at the compiler's discretion? UPDATE: Since many people has claimed that one shouldn't use == for floating point, I just wanted to state that in the specific case I'm working with, an exact comparison is justified. Floating point comparision is tricky, here's an interesting link on the subject which I think hasn't been mentioned.

    Read the article

  • Selecting data in clustered index order without ORDER BY

    - by kcrumley
    I know there is no guarantee without an ORDER BY clause, but are there any techniques to tune SQL Server tables so they're more likely to return rows in clustered index order, without having to specify ORDER BY every single time I want to run a super-quick ad hoc query? For example, would rebuilding my clustered index or updating statistics help? I'm aware that I can't count on a query like: select * from AuditLog where UserId = 992 to return records in the order of the clustered index, so I would never build code into an application based on this assumption. But for simple ad hoc queries, on almost all of my tables, the data consistently comes out in clustered index order, and I've gotten used to being able to expect the most recent results to be at the bottom. Out of all the many tables we use, I've only noticed two ever giving me results in an unpredicted order. This is really just an annoyance, but it would be nice to be able to minimize it. In case this is relevant because of page boundary issues or something like that, I should mention that one of the tables that has inconsistent ordering, the AuditLog table, is the longest table we have that has a clustered index on an identity column. Also, this database has recently been moved from SQL 2005 to SQL 2008, and we've seen no noticeable change in this behavior.

    Read the article

  • Swapping content in a seperate div on hover

    - by Fuego DeBassi
    I feel like this should work: $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); Basically I am hiding all the .children of "#viewport on load, then when a seperate element is hovered, in this case .module .one I want to change something on the corresponding viewport ID #viewport #one. Basic idea is a variable content window, where when a thumbnail or whatever I put in the modules swaps the content shown in the viewport. Something I am doing wrong? Here is my full code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".module .caption").hide(); $("#viewport").children().hide(); $(".module").hover(function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideDown().end().siblings('.module').addClass('under'); },function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideUp().end().siblings('.module').removeClass('under'); }); $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); }); </script> The bigger hover function in the middle is for some fancy rollover effects that the modules will perform themselves, but for these purposes I just want to figure out why I can't add a Class to a separate element when another is hovered. Would love some help/advice!

    Read the article

  • How can i use a commandlinetool (ie. sox) via subprocess.Popen with mod_wsgi?

    - by marue
    I have a custom django filefield that makes use of sox, a commandline audiotool. This works pretty well as long as i use the django development server. But as soon as i switch to the production server, using apache2 and mod_wsgi, mod_wsgi catches every output to stdout. This makes it impossible to use the commandline tool to evaluate the file, for example use it to check if the uploaded file really is an audio file like this: filetype=subprocess.Popen([sox,'--i','-t','%s'%self.path], shell=False,\ stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE) (filetype,error)=filetype.communicate() if error: raise EnvironmentError((1,'AudioFile error while determining audioformat: %s'%error)) Is there a way to workaround for this? edit the error i get is "missing filename". I am using mod_wsgi 2.5, standard with ubuntu 8.04. edit2 What exactly happens, when i call subprocess.Popen from within django in mod_wsgi? Shouldn't subprocess stdin/stdout be independent from django stdin/stdout? In that case mod_wsgi should not affect programms called via subprocess... I'm really confused right now, because the file i am trying to access is a temporary file, created via a filenamevariable that i pass to the file creation and the subprocess command. That file is being written to /tmp, where the rights are 777, so it can't be a rights issue. And the error message is not "file does not exist", but "missing filename", which suggests i am not passing a filename as parameter to the commandlinetool.

    Read the article

  • x509 certificate verification in C

    - by sid
    Hi All, I do have certificates in DER and PEM format, My goal is to retrieve the fields of Issuer and Subject And verify the Certificate with the CA public key and simultaneously verify CA certificate with the Root public key. I am able to retrieve all the details of issuer and subject But unable to verify the certificate. Please help. The API's used, x509 = d2i_X509_fp (fp, &x509); //READING DER Format x509 = PEM_read_X509 (fp, &x509, NULL, NULL); //READING PEM Format X509_NAME_oneline(X509_get_subject_name(x509), subject, sizeof (subject)); //to retrive the Subject X509_NAME_oneline(X509_get_issuer_name(x509), issuer, sizeof (issuer)); //to retrive the Issuer // to store the CA public key (in unsigned char *key)that will be used to verify the certificate (My case Always sha1WithRSAEncryption) RSA *x = X509_get_pubkey(x509)->pkey.rsa; bn = x->n; //extracts the bytes from public key & convert into unsigned char buffer buf_len = (size_t) BN_num_bytes (bn); stored_CA_pubKey = (unsigned char *)malloc (buf_len); i_n = BN_bn2bin (bn, (unsigned char *)stored_CA_pubKey); if (i_n != buf_len) LOG(ERROR," : key error\n"); if (key[0] & 0x80) LOG(DEBUG, "00\n"); stored_CA_pubKeyLen = EVP_PKEY_size(X509_get_pubkey(x509)); For Verification I went through different approaches but unable to verify a) i_x509_verify = X509_verify(cert_x509, ca_pubkey); b) /* verify the signature */ int iRet1, iRet2, iReason; iRet1 = EVP_VerifyInit(&md_ctx, EVP_sha1()); iRet2 = EVP_VerifyUpdate(&md_ctx, cert_code, cert_code_len); rv = EVP_VerifyFinal(&md_ctx, (const unsigned char *)stored_CA_pubKey, stored_CA_pubKeyLen, cert_pubkey); NOTE : cert_code & stored_CA_pubKey is unsigned char buffer. Thanks in Advance

    Read the article

  • PHP compare two dimension array

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys I would like to know how to compare two two-dimension arrays value. First array Array 1 ( [0] => Array ( [0] => a ) [1] => Array ( [0] => b ) [2] => Array ( [0] => c ) } Second one Array 2 ( [0] => Array ( [0] => a ) [1] => Array ( [0] => d ) [2] => Array ( [0] => e ) } I need to know if my loop could compare the arrays to check the matched value. In my case, array1[0][0]=a matches array2[0][0]=a. If it matches, php will output some html. My foreach loop foreach ($array1 as $arrays){ foreach($arrays as $array){ //need to compare array2 here not sure how to do it. } } I would appreciate any helps. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Match subpatterns in any order

    - by Yaroslav
    I have long regexp with two complicated subpatters inside. How i can match that subpatterns in any order? Simplified example: /(apple)?\s?(banana)?\s?(orange)?\s?(kiwi)?/ and i want to match both of apple banana orange kiwi apple orange banana kiwi It is very simplified example. In my case banana and orange is long complicated subpatterns and i don't want to do something like /(apple)?\s?((banana)?\s?(orange)?|(orange)?\s?(banana)?)\s?(kiwi)?/ Is it possible to group subpatterns like chars in character class? UPD Real data as requested: 14:24 26,37 Mb 108.53 01:19:02 06.07 24.39 19:39 46:00 my strings much longer, but it is significant part. Here you can see two lines what i need to match. First has two values: length (14 min 24 sec) and size 26.37 Mb. Second one has three values but in different order: size 108.53 Mb, length 01 h 19 m 02 s and date June, 07 Third one has two size and length Fourth has only length There are couple more variations and i need to parse all values. I have a regexp that pretty close except i can't figure out how to match patterns in different order without writing it twice. (?<size>\d{1,3}\[.,]\d{1,2}\s+(?:Mb)?)?\s? (?<length>(?:(?:01:)?\d{1,2}:\d{2}))?\s* (?<date>\d{2}\.\d{2}))? NOTE: that is only part of big regexp that forks fine already.

    Read the article

  • Conditional operator in Mako using Pylons

    - by Antoine Leclair
    In PHP, I often use the conditional operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

    Read the article

  • PHP Form Validation

    - by JM4
    This question will undoubtedly be difficult to answer and ask in a way that makes sense but I'll try my best: I have a form which uses PHP to display certain sections of the form such as: <?php if ($_SESSION['EnrType'] == "Individual") { display only form information for individual enrollment } ?> and <?php if ($_SESSION['Num_Enrs'] > 6) { display only form information for 7 total members enrollment } ?> In each form piece, unique information is collected about each enrollee but the basic criteria for each enrollee is the same, i.e. All enrollee's must use have a value in the FirstName field. Each field is named according to the enrollee number, i.e. Num1FirstName; Num2FirstName. I have a PHP validation script which is absolutely fantastic and am not looking to change it but the issue I am running into is duplication of the script in order to validate ALL fields in one swoop. On submission, all POSTED items are run through my validation script and based on the rules set return an error if they do not equal true. Sample code: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // import the validation library require("validation.php"); $rules = array(); // stores the validation rules //All Enrollee Rules $rules[] = "required,Num1FirstName,Num2FirstName,The First Name field is required."; The script above does the following, $rules[] ="REQUIREMENT,fieldname,error message" where requirement gives criteria (in this case, simply that a value is passed), fieldname is the name of the field being validated, and error message returns the error used. My Goal is to use the same formula above and have $rules[] run through ALL firstnames and return the error posted ONLY if they exist (i.e. dont check for member #7's first name if it doesnt exist on the screen). If I simply put a comma between the 'fieldnames' this only checks for the first, then second, and so on so this wont work. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How can I strip Python logging calls without commenting them out?

    - by cdleary
    Today I was thinking about a Python project I wrote about a year back where I used logging pretty extensively. I remember having to comment out a lot of logging calls in inner-loop-like scenarios (the 90% code) because of the overhead (hotshot indicated it was one of my biggest bottlenecks). I wonder now if there's some canonical way to programmatically strip out logging calls in Python applications without commenting and uncommenting all the time. I'd think you could use inspection/recompilation or bytecode manipulation to do something like this and target only the code objects that are causing bottlenecks. This way, you could add a manipulator as a post-compilation step and use a centralized configuration file, like so: [Leave ERROR and above] my_module.SomeClass.method_with_lots_of_warn_calls [Leave WARN and above] my_module.SomeOtherClass.method_with_lots_of_info_calls [Leave INFO and above] my_module.SomeWeirdClass.method_with_lots_of_debug_calls Of course, you'd want to use it sparingly and probably with per-function granularity -- only for code objects that have shown logging to be a bottleneck. Anybody know of anything like this? Note: There are a few things that make this more difficult to do in a performant manner because of dynamic typing and late binding. For example, any calls to a method named debug may have to be wrapped with an if not isinstance(log, Logger). In any case, I'm assuming all of the minor details can be overcome, either by a gentleman's agreement or some run-time checking. :-)

    Read the article

  • Every flash uploader giving bad progress values.

    - by Mike Boers
    The file upload script I wrote early last year for an internal website has been misbehaving oddly on a number of machines. On some machines it consistently works fine, on others it consistently misbehaves. I am having exactly the same problem with YUI Uploader, SWFUpload (2.2 and 2.5a), and Uploadify. On the misbehaving machines, the progress event (or callback as the case may be) is reporting the upload going far too quickly. It is progressing around 9 or 10MB/s, instead of the 50 or 60kb/s that is actually going on. The progress bar fills up very quickly, and then no more progress events are triggered. A few minutes later the completion event will trigger when the upload is actually done. I must emphasize that the file upload does proceed normally, even though the progress being reported is very wrong. The progress events are reporting a correct file size, but the reported amount uploaded is usually way too high, and it appears that it is always a multiple of 2^16 (65536). I'm only having this problem with Firefox 3.5 on Windows XP, all of which have various subversions of Flash 10. Has anyone heard of this happening, or have any idea what is going on? (I'm off to go file a number of bug reports, but hopefully someone here has some previous experience with this.)

    Read the article

  • NSPredicate cause update editing to return NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not NSFetchedResultsChangeUp

    - by Matthew Weiss
    I have predicate inside of - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController in a standard way starting from the CoreDataBook example. NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"state=%@ && date = %@ && date < %@", @"1",fromDate,toDate]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; This works fine however when editing an item, it returns with NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not Update. When the main view returns, it is missing the item. If I restart the simulator the delete was not saved and the correct editing result is shown the the predicate working correctly. case NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; break; I can confirm the behavior by commenting out the two predicate lines ONLY and then all works as it should correctly returning with the full set after editing and calling NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate instead of NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete. I have read http://matteocaldari.it/2009/11/multiple-contexts-controllers-delegates-and-coredata-bug who reports similar behavior but I have not found a work around to my problem. I can

    Read the article

  • Symfony2 Theming form generated by embedded controller action

    - by user1112057
    I am generating the form in embedded controller action. And now i have faced the following problem. The Form Theming is not working in that case. So what i have: The tempalte "page.html.twig" {% block content %} {% render 'MyBundle:Widget:index' %} {% endblock %} The indexAction() creates the form and rendering another template "form.html.twig" which is normally renders a form using form_row, form_rest and so on. So, now i am trying to customize form theming, and here is my problem. When i put the code {% form_theme form _self %} in the page.html.twig, i got an error the the form variable does not exists. And its correct, the form var is created later in the embedded controller. But when i put the theming code in embedded template "form.html.twig", i got another error "Variable "compound" does not exist" {% block form_label %} {% spaceless %} {% if not compound %} {% set label_attr = label_attr|merge({'for': id}) %} {% endif %} {% if required %} {% set label_attr = label_attr|merge({'class': (label_attr.class|default('') ~ ' required')|trim}) %} {% endif %} {% if label is empty %} {% set label = name|humanize %} {% endif %} <label{% for attrname, attrvalue in label_attr %} {{ attrname }}="{{ attrvalue }}"{% endfor %} {% if attr.tooltip is defined %}title="{{ attr.tooltip }}"{% endif %}>{{ label|trans({}, translation_domain) }}{% if required %}<span>*</span>{% endif %}</label> {% endspaceless %} {% endblock form_label %} This part of code was copied from this file https://github.com/symfony/symfony/blob/2.1/src/Symfony/Bridge/Twig/Resources/views/Form/form_div_layout.html.twig So tried someone to do something like this?

    Read the article

  • Can I connect to SQL from JavaScript MVC?

    - by user54197
    I am populating a list of names that will be added to my Sql Database. In this simple case, how do I send the information to SQL server without my page being refreshed? <script type="text/javascript"> function addNewRow() { $('#displayPropertyTable tr:last').after('<tr><td style="font-size:smaller;" class="name"></td><td style="font-size:smaller;" class="address"></td></tr>'); var $tr = $('#displayPropertyTable tr:last'); var propertyCondition = $('#txtPropAddress').val(); if (propertyCondition != "") { $tr.find('.name').text($('#txtPropName').val()); $tr.find('.address').text($('#txtPropAddress').val()); } } </script> ... <table id="displayPropertyTable" width= "100%"> <tr> <td style="font-size:smaller;" class="name"></td> <td style="font-size:smaller;" class="address"></td> </tr> </table> ... <table> <tr> <td><b>Name</b></td> <td colspan="2"><input id="txtPropName" type="text" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td><b>Address</b></td> <td colspan="2"><input id="txtPropAddress" type="text" /></td> </tr> </table> ... <button onclick="addNewRow();">Add</button>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 787 788 789 790 791 792 793 794 795 796 797 798  | Next Page >