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• How to use python to create a GUI application which have cool animation/effects under Linux (like 3D

  - by sgon00

  Hi, I am not sure if my question title makes sense to you or not. I am seeing many cool applications which have cool animations/effects. I would like to learn how to use python to create this kind of GUI applications under Linux. "cool animation/effects" like 3D wall in Cooliris which is written in flash and compiz effects with opengl. I also heard of some python GUI library like wxPython and pyQT. Since I am completely new to python GUI programming, can anyone suggest me where to start and what I should learn to achieve and create such application? maybe learn pyQT with openGL feature? pyopengl binding? I have no clue on where to start. thank you very much for your time and suggestion. By the way, in case if someone need to know which kind of application I am going to create, well, just any kind of applications. maybe photo explorer with 3D wall, maybe IM client, maybe facebook client etc...

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• Given a typical Rails 3 environment, why am I unable to execute any tests?

  - by Tom

  I'm working on writing simple unit tests for a Rails 3 project, but I'm unable to actually execute any tests. Case in point, attempting to run the test auto-generated by Rails fails: require 'test_helper' class UserTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase # Replace this with your real tests. test "the truth" do assert true end end Results in the following error: <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require': no such file to load -- test_helper (LoadError) from <internal:lib/rubygems/custom_require>:29:in `require' from user_test.rb:1:in `<main>' Commenting out the require 'test_helper' line and attempting to run the test results in this error: user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) The action pack gems appear to be properly installed and up to date: actionmailer (3.0.3, 2.3.5) actionpack (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activemodel (3.0.3) activerecord (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activeresource (3.0.3, 2.3.5) activesupport (3.0.3, 2.3.5) Ruby is at 1.9.2p0 and Rails is at 3.0.3. The sample dump of my test directory is as follows: /fixtures /functional /integration /performance /unit -- /helpers -- user_helper_test.rb -- user_test.rb test_helper.rb I've never seen this problem before - I've run the typical rake tasks for preparing the test environment. I have nothing out of the ordinary in my application or environment configuration files, nor have I installed any unusual gems that would interfere with the test environment. Edit Xavier Holt's suggestion, explicitly specifying the path to the test_helper worked; however, this revealed an issue with ActiveSupport. Now when I attempt to run the test, I receive the following error message (as also listed above): user_test.rb:3:in `<main>': uninitialized constant Object::ActiveSupport (NameError) But as you can see above, Action Pack is all installed and update to date.

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• regular expression for emails NOT ending with replace script

  - by corroded

  I'm currently modifying my regex for this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2782031/extracting-email-addresses-in-an-html-block-in-ruby-rails basically, im making another obfuscator that uses ROT13 by parsing a block of text for all links that contain a mailto referrer(using hpricot). One use case this doesn't catch is that if the user just typed in an email address(without turning it into a link via tinymce) So here's the basic flow of my method: 1. parse a block of text for all tags with href="mailto:..." 2. replace each tag with a javascript function that changes this into ROT13 (using this script: http://unixmonkey.net/?p=20) 3. once all links are obfuscated, pass the resulting block of text into another function that parses for all emails(this one has an email regex that reverses the email address and then adds a span to that email - to reverse it back) step 3 is supposed to clean the block of text for remaining emails that AREN'T in a href tags(meaning it wasn't parsed by hpricot). Problem with this is that the emails that were converted to ROT13 are still found by my regex. What i want to catch are just emails that WEREN'T CONVERTED to ROT13. How do i do this? well all emails the WERE CONVERTED have a trailing "'.replace" in them. meaning, i need to get all emails WITHOUT that string. so far i have this regex: /\b([A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+.[A-Z]{2,4}('.replace))\b/i but this gets all the emails with the trailing '.replace i want to get the opposite and I'm currently stumped with this. any help from regex gurus out there? MORE INFO: Here's the regex + the block of text im parsing: http://www.rubular.com/r/NqXIHrNqjI as you can see, the first two 'email addresses' are already obfuscated using ROT13. I need a regex that gets the emails [email protected] and [email protected]

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• VB.NET: Dialog exits when enter pressed?

  - by Camilo Martin

  Hi all; My problem seems to be quite simple, but it's not working the intuitive way. I'm designing a Windows Forms Application, and there is a dialog that should NOT exit when the enter key is pressed, instead it has to validate data first, in case enter was pressed after changing the text of a ComboBox. I've tried by telling it what to do on KeyPress event of the ComboBox if e is the Enter key: Private Sub ComboBoxSizeChoose_KeyPress(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyPressEventArgs) Handles ComboBoxSizeChoose.KeyPress If e.KeyChar = Convert.ToChar(Keys.Enter) Then Try TamanhoDaNovaFonte = Single.Parse(ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text) Catch ex As Exception Dim Dialogo2 As New Dialog2 Dialog2.ShowDialog() ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text = TamanhoDaNovaFonte End Try End If End Sub But no success so far. When the Enter key is pressed, even with the ComboBox on focus, the whole dialog is closed, returning to the previous form. The validation is NOT done at all, and it has to be done before exiting. In fact, I don't even want to exit on the form's enter KeyPress, the only purpose of the enter key on the whole dialog is to validate the ComboBox (but only when in focus, for the sake of an intuitive UI). I've also tried appending the validation to the KeyPress event of the whole dialog's form, if the key is Enter. NO SUCCESS! It's like my code wasn't there at all. What should I do? (Visual Studio 2008, VB.NET)

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• Single log file for multiple webapps

  - by Ashish Aggarwal

  In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

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• Protecting Content with AuthLogic

  - by Rob Wilkerson

  I know this sounds like a really, really simple use case and I'm hoping that it is, but I swear I've looked all over the place and haven't found any mention of any way - not even the best way - of doing this. I'm brand-spanking new to Ruby, Rails and everything surrounding either (which may explain a lot). The dummy app that I'm using as my learning tool requires authentication in order to do almost anything meaningful, so I chose to start by solving that problem. I've installed the AuthLogic gem and have it working nicely to the extent that is covered by the intro documentation and Railscast, but now that I can register, login and logout...I need to do something with it. As an example, I need to create a page where users can upload images. I'm planning to have an ImagesController with an upload action method, but I want that only accessible to logged in users. I suppose that in every restricted action I could add code to redirect if there's no current_user, but that seems really verbose. Is there a better way of doing this that allows me to define or identify restricted areas and handle the authentication check in one place?

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• Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

  - by bryan

  Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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• LINQ to Entities question about orderby and null collections.

  - by Chevex

  I am currently developing a forum. I am new to LINQ and EF. In my forum I have a display that shows a list of topics with the most recent topics first. The problem is that "most recent" is relative to the topic's replies. So I don't want to order the list by the topic's posted date, rather I want to order the list by the topic's last reply's posted date. So that topics with newer replies pop back to the top of the list. This is rather simple if I knew that every topic had at least one reply; I would just do this: var topicsQuery = from x in board.Topics orderby x.Replies.Last().PostedDate descending select x; However, in many cases the topic has no replies. In which case I would like to use the topic's posted date instead. Is there a way within my linq query to order by x.PostedDate in the event that the topic has no replies? I'm getting confused by this and any help would be appreciated. With the above query, it breaks on topics with no replies because of the x.Replies.Last() which assumes there are replies. LastOrDefault() doesn't work because I need to access the PostedDate property which also assumes a reply exists. Thanks in advance for any insight.

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• jboss cache as hibernate 2nd level - cluster node doesn't persist replicated data

  - by Sergey Grashchenko

  I'm trying to build an architecture basically described in user guide http://www.jboss.org/file-access/default/members/jbosscache/freezone/docs/3.2.1.GA/userguide_en/html/cache_loaders.html#d0e3090 (Replicated caches with each cache having its own store.) but having jboss cache configured as hibernate second level cache. I've read manual for several days and played with the settings but could not achieve the result - the data in memory (jboss cache) gets replicated across the hosts, but it's not persisted in the datasource/database of the target (not original) cluster host. I had a hope that a node might become persistent at eviction, so I've got a cache listener and attached it to @NoveEvicted event. I found that though I could adjust eviction policy to fully control it, no any persistence takes place. Then I had a though that I could try to modify CacheLoader to set "passivate" to true, but I found that in my case (hibernate 2nd level cache) I don't have a way to access a loader. I wonder if replicated data persistence is possible at all by configuration tuning ? If not, will it work for me to create some manual peristence in CacheListener (I could check whether the eviction event is local, and if not - persist it to hibernate datasource somehow) ? I've used mvcc-entity configuration with the modification of cacheMode - set to REPL_ASYNC. I've also played with the eviction policy configuration. Last thing to mention is that I've tested entty persistence and replication in project that has been generated with Seam. I guess it's not important though.

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• How to implement a 'safe' periodical executer without using the Rails helpers?

  - by Robbie

  I am very new to Ruby on Rails and was never really big on writing JavaScript, so the built in helpers were like a tiny silce of heaven. However I have recently learned that using the helper methods creates "obtrusive javascript" so I am doing a tiny bit of refactoring to get all this messy code out of my view. I'm also using the Prototype API to figure out what all these functions do. Right now, I have: <%= periodically_call_remote(:url => {:action => "tablerefresh", :id => 1 }, :frequency => '5', :complete => "load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)")%> Which produces: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ new PeriodicalExecuter(function() {new Ajax.Request('/qrpsdrail/grids/tablerefresh/1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){load('26', 'table1', request.responseText)}, parameters:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('dfG7wWyVYEpelfdZvBWk7MlhzZoK7VvtT/HDi3w7gPM=')})}, 5) //]]> </script> My concern is that the "encodeURIComponent" and the presence of "authenticity_token" are generated by Rails. I'm assuming these are used to assure the validity of a request. (Ensuring a request comes from a currently active session?) If that is the case, how can I implement this in application.js 'safely'? It seems that the built in method, although obtrusive, does add some beneficial security. Thanks, in advance, to all who answer.

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• How to send Event signal through Processes - C

  - by Jamie Keeling

  Hello all! I have an application consisting of two windows, one communicates to the other and sends it a struct constaining two integers (In this case two rolls of a dice). I will be using events for the following circumstances: Process a sends data to process b, process b displays data Process a closes, in turn closing process b Process b closes a, in turn closing process a I have noticed that if the second process is constantly waiting for the first process to send data then the program will be just sat waiting, which is where the idea of implementing threads on each process occurred and I have started to implement this already. The problem i'm having is that I don't exactly have a lot of experience with threads and events so I'm not sure of the best way to actually implement what I want to do. I'm trying to work out how the other process will know of the event being fired so it can do the tasks it needs to do, I don't understand how one process that is separate from another can tell what the states the events are in especially as it needs to act as soon as the event has changed state. Thanks for any help Edit: I can only use the Create/Set/Open methods for events, sorry for not mentioning it earlier.

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• Is it possible to have asynchronous processing

  - by prashant2361

  Hi, I have a requirement where I need to send continuous updates to my clients. Client is browser in this case. We have some data which updates every sec, so once client connects to our server, we maintain a persistent connection and keep pushing data to the client. I am looking for suggestions of this implementation at the server end. Basically what I need is this: 1. client connects to server. I maintain the socket and metadata about the socket. metadata contains what updates need to be send to this client 2. server process now waits for new client connections 3. One other process will have the list of all the sockets opened and will go through each of them and send the updates if required. Can we do something like this in Apache module: 1. Apache process gets the new connection. It maintains the state for the connection. It keeps the state in some global memory and returns back to root process to signify that it is done so that it can accept the new connection 2. the Apache process though has returned the status to root process but it is also executing in parallel where it going through its global store and sending updates to the client, if any. So can a Apache process do these things: 1. Have more than one connection associated with it 2. Asynchronously waiting for new connection and at the same time processing the previous connections? Regards Prashant

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• Does unboxing just return a pointer to the value within the boxed object on the heap?

  - by Charles

  I this MSDN Magazine article, the author states (emphasis mine): Note that boxing always creates a new object and copies the unboxed value's bits to the object. On the other hand, unboxing simply returns a pointer to the data within a boxed object: no memory copy occurs. However, it is commonly the case that your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway. I'm confused by the sentence I've bolded and the sentence that follows it. From everything else I've read, including this MSDN page, I've never before heard that unboxing just returns a pointer to the value on the heap. I was under the impression that unboxing would result in you having a variable containing a copy of the value on the stack, just as you began with. After all, if my variable contains "a pointer to the value on the heap", then I haven't got a value type, I've got a pointer. Can someone explain what this means? Was the author on crack? (There is at least one other glaring error in the article). And if this is true, what are the cases where "your code will cause the data pointed to by the unboxed reference to be copied anyway"? I just noticed that the article is nearly 10 years old, so maybe this is something that changed very early on in the life of .Net.

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• Thread Safety of C# List<T> for readers

  - by ILIA BROUDNO

  I am planning to create the list once in a static constructor and then have multiple instances of that class read it (and enumerate through it) concurrently without doing any locking. In this article http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/6sh2ey19.aspx MS describes the issue of thread safety as follows: Public static (Shared in Visual Basic) members of this type are thread safe. Any instance members are not guaranteed to be thread safe. A List can support multiple readers concurrently, as long as the collection is not modified. Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure. In the rare case where an enumeration contends with one or more write accesses, the only way to ensure thread safety is to lock the collection during the entire enumeration. To allow the collection to be accessed by multiple threads for reading and writing, you must implement your own synchronization. The "Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure." Statement is what worries me. Does this mean that it is thread safe for readers only scenario, but as long as you do not use enumeration? Or is it safe for my scenario?

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• java servlet:response.sendRedirect() not giving illegal state exception if called after commit of re

  - by sahil garg

  after commit of response as here redirect statement should give exception but it is not doing so if this redirect statemnet is in if block.but it does give exception in case it is out of if block.i have shown same statement(with marked stars ) at two places below.can u please tell me reason for it. protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { // TODO Auto-generated method stub synchronized (noOfRequests) { noOfRequests++; } PrintWriter pw=null; response.setContentType("text/html"); response.setHeader("foo","bar"); //response is commited because of above statement pw=response.getWriter(); pw.print("hello : "+noOfRequests); //if i remove below statement this same statement is present in if block.so statement in if block should also give exception as this one do, but its not doing so.why? ***response.sendRedirect("http://localhost:8625/ServletPrc/login% 20page.html"); if(true) { //same statement as above ***response.sendRedirect("http://localhost:8625/ServletPrc/login%20page.html"); } else{ request.setAttribute("noOfReq", noOfRequests); request.setAttribute("name", new Name().getName()); request.setAttribute("GmailId",this.getServletConfig().getInitParameter("GmailId") ); request.setAttribute("YahooId",this.getServletConfig().getInitParameter("YahooId") ); RequestDispatcher view1=request.getRequestDispatcher("HomePage.jsp"); view1.forward(request, response); } }

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• What if a large number of objects are passed to my SwingWorker.process() method?

  - by Trejkaz

  I just found an interesting situation. Suppose you have some SwingWorker (I've made this one vaguely reminiscent of my own): public class AddressTreeBuildingWorker extends SwingWorker<Void, NodePair> { private DefaultTreeModel model; public AddressTreeBuildingWorker(DefaultTreeModel model) { } @Override protected Void doInBackground() { // Omitted; performs variable processing to build a tree of address nodes. } @Override protected void process(List<NodePair> chunks) { for (NodePair pair : chunks) { // Actually the real thing inserts in order. model.insertNodeInto(parent, child, parent.getChildCount()); } } private static class NodePair { private final DefaultMutableTreeNode parent; private final DefaultMutableTreeNode child; private NodePair(DefaultMutableTreeNode parent, DefaultMutableTreeNode child) { this.parent = parent; this.child = child; } } } If the work done in the background is significant then things work well - process() is called with relatively small lists of objects and everything is happy. Problem is, if the work done in the background is suddenly insignificant for whatever reason, process() receives a huge list of objects (I have seen 1,000,000, for instance) and by the time you process each object, you have spent 20 seconds on the Event Dispatch Thread, exactly what SwingWorker was designed to avoid. In case it isn't clear, both of these occur on the same SwingWorker class for me - it depends on the input data, and the type of processing the caller wanted. Is there a proper way to handle this? Obviously I can intentionally delay or yield the background processing thread so that a smaller number might arrive each time, but this doesn't feel like the right solution to me.

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• Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

  - by Brann

  I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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• Strange Sql Server 2005 behavior

  - by Justin C

  Background: I have a site built in ASP.NET with Sql Server 2005 as it's database. The site is the only site on a Windows Server 2003 box sitting in my clients server room. The client is a local school district, so for data security reasons there is no remote desktop access and no remote Sql Server connection, so if I have to service the database I have to be at the terminal. I do have FTP access to update ASP code. Problem: I was contacted yesterday about an issue with the system. When I looked in to it, it seems a bug that I had solved nearly a year ago had returned. I have a stored procedure that used to take an int as a parameter but a year ago we changed the structure of the system and updated the stored procedure to take an nvarchar(10). The stored procedure somehow changed back to taking an int instead of an nvarchar. There is an external hard drive connected to the server that copies data periodically and has the ability to restore the server in case of failure. I would have assumed that somehow an older version of the database had been restored, but data that I know was inserted 7 days and 1 day before the bug occurred is still in the database. Question: Is there anyway that the structure of a Sql Server 2005 database can revert to a previous version or be restored to a previous version without touching the actual data? No one else should have access to the server so I'm going a little insane trying to figure out how this even happened. Any ideas?

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• OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

  - by Pace

  I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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• What limits scaling in this simple OpenMP program?

  - by Douglas B. Staple

  I'm trying to understand limits to parallelization on a 48-core system (4xAMD Opteron 6348, 2.8 Ghz, 12 cores per CPU). I wrote this tiny OpenMP code to test the speedup in what I thought would be the best possible situation (the task is embarrassingly parallel): // Compile with: gcc scaling.c -std=c99 -fopenmp -O3 #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> int main(){ const uint64_t umin=1; const uint64_t umax=10000000000LL; double sum=0.; #pragma omp parallel for reduction(+:sum) for(uint64_t u=umin; u<umax; u++) sum+=1./u/u; printf("%e\n", sum); } I was surprised to find that the scaling is highly nonlinear. It takes about 2.9s for the code to run with 48 threads, 3.1s with 36 threads, 3.7s with 24 threads, 4.9s with 12 threads, and 57s for the code to run with 1 thread. Unfortunately I have to say that there is one process running on the computer using 100% of one core, so that might be affecting it. It's not my process, so I can't end it to test the difference, but somehow I doubt that's making the difference between a 19~20x speedup and the ideal 48x speedup. To make sure it wasn't an OpenMP issue, I ran two copies of the program at the same time with 24 threads each (one with umin=1, umax=5000000000, and the other with umin=5000000000, umax=10000000000). In that case both copies of the program finish after 2.9s, so it's exactly the same as running 48 threads with a single instance of the program. What's preventing linear scaling with this simple program?

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• How to handle management trying to interfere with the project (including architecture decision)

  - by Zwei Steinen

  I feel this is not a very good question to post on SO, but I need some advice from experienced developers... (I'm a second year developer) I guess this is a problem to many, many projects, but in our case, it is getting intense. There were so much interference from people that don't know a bit about software development, that our development came to an almost complete stop. We had to literary escape to another location to get any useful job done. Now we were happily producing results, but then I get a request for a "meeting" and it's them again. I have a friendly relationship with them, but I feel very daunted at the thought of talking about non-sense all over again. Should I be firm and tell them to shut up and wait for our results? Or should I be diplomatic and create an illusion they are making a positive contribution or something?? My current urge is to be unfriendly and murmur some stuff so they will give up or something. What would you do if you were in this situation?

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• javascript error handeling

  - by pankaj

  I have a javascript function for checking errors which i am callin on OnClicentClick event of a button. Once it catch a error i want to stop execution of click event . But in my case it always it always executes the onclick event. Following is my function: function DisplayError() { if (document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length < 6 || document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length > 12) { document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Password length must be between 6 to 12 characters"; return false; } var str = <%=PhoneNumber()%>; if(str.length <10) { alert('<%=phoneNum%>'.length); document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Phone Number not in correct format"; return false; } } button html code: <asp:Button runat="server" Text="Submit" ID="btnSubmit" ValidationGroup="submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="DisplayError()"/> It should not execute the button click event once it satisfies any of the IF condition in javascript function.

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• Fading out everything but (this) - while honoring a click()

  - by Kasper Lewau

  I'm trying to achieve a fading navigation system, where everything in the nav but the element being hovered will fade out to say, 0.3 opacity. At the same time, I want clicks to have a greater "value", so as to not fade out a clicked element (or in this case, the active subpage).. That didn't make much sense to me either, I'll just post the code I have. <nav id="main"> <ul> <li> <a>work</a> </li> <li> <a>about me</a> </li> <li> <a>contact</a> </li> </ul> </nav> And the script that makes it sparkle: var nava = "nav#main ul li a"; $(nava).hover(function(){ $(nava).not(this).removeClass().addClass("inactive"); $(this).addClass("active"); }); $(nava).click(function(){ $(this).removeClass().addClass("active"); }); }); And the classes / css(less): .inactive{color:@color2; border-bottom:0 solid #000;} .active{color:@color1; border-bottom:1px solid #000;} nav#main ul li a{color:@color1;} Basically the hover states take priority over the click, which I do not want to happen. Ideally I'd like for all of the anchor elements to revert to its original state whenever you hover out from the unordered list holding it all. If anyone has some pointers on this it'd be greatly appreciated. Cheers!

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• Change nhibernate config with nant xmlpoke

  - by isuruceanu

  Hi All How can I change the connection string from nhibernate.config file using nant the problem is that all examples are about changing attribute value, but nhibernate has inner text eq: <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.connection_string">Data Source.\server;Database=UnitTestDb;UID=user;pwd=pass;</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2008Dialect</property> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="connection.release_mode">auto</property> <property name="adonet.batch_size">500</property> .... I need to change property connection.connection_string <xmlpoke file="${nhibernate.file}" xpath="/hibernate-configuration/session-factory/add[@key='connection.connection_string']/@value" value="${connection.string}"> </xmlpoke> this does not work in this case. Thanks

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• How do I remove implementing types from GWT’s Serialization Policy?

  - by Bluu

  The opposite of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138099/how-do-i-add-a-type-to-gwts-serialization-policy-whitelist GWT is adding undesired types to the serialization policy and bloating my JS. How do I trim my GWT whitelist by hand? Or should I at all? For example, if I put the interface List on a GWT RPC service class, GWT has to generate Javascript that handles ArrayList, LinkedList, Stack, Vector, ... even though my team knows we're only ever going to return an ArrayList. I could just make the method's return type ArrayList, but I like relying on an interface rather than a specific implementation. After all, maybe one day we will switch it up and return e.g. a LinkedList. In that case, I'd like to force the GWT serialization policy to compile for only ArrayList and LinkedList. No Stacks or Vectors. These implicit restrictions have one huge downside I can think of: a new member of the team starts returning Vectors, which will be a runtime error. So besides the question in the title, what is your experience designing around this?

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