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  • Replace text in XSL using wildcards

    - by JosephThomas
    This is similar to an earlier problem I was having which you guys solved in less than a day. I am working with XML files that are generated by a digital video camera. The camera allows the user to save all of the camera's settngs to an SD card so that the settings can be recalled or loaded into another camera. The XSL stylesheet I am writing will allow users to view the camera's settings, as saved to the SD card in a web browser. While most of the values in the XML file -- as formatted by my stylesheet -- make sense to humans, some do not. What I would like to do is have the stylesheet display text that is based on the value in the XML file but more easily understood by humans. A typical value that can be written to the XML file is "_23_970" which represents the camera's frame rate. This would be better displayed as 23.970 (or 023.970). The first underscore is a sort of place holder to make a space for values over 099.999. The second underscore, obviously represents the decimal. My previous (similar) question involved replacing predictable text, and the solution was matching templates. In this case, however, the camera can be set at any one of 119,999 frame rates (I think I did that math correctly). The approach, I would guess, is to pass a value to the displayed webpage that keeps the numeric values (each digit), replaces the second underscore with a decimal, and replaces the first underscore with either an nbsp or a zero (whichever is easier). If the first character in the string is a "1" (the camera can run at frame rates up to 120.000) then the one should be passed on to the page displayed by the stylesheet. I have read other posts here regarding wildcards, but couldn't find one that answered this question. EDIT: Sorry for leaving out important info. I fared better on my first try at asking a question! I guess I got complacent. Anyhow . . . I should have shown you the code that displays the text in the XSL file as is: <tr> <xsl:for-each select="Settings/Groups/Recording"> <tr><td class="title_column">Frame Rate</td><td><xsl:value-of select="RecOutLinkSpeed"/></td></tr> </xsl:for-each> </tr> I should also have given you the URL for the sample file I have been working with: http://josephthomas.info/Alexa/Setup_120511_140322.xml

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  • Achieving C# "readonly" behavior in C++

    - by Tommy Fisk
    Hi guys, this is my first question on stack overflow, so be gentle. Let me first explain the exact behavior I would like to see. If you are familiar with C# then you know that declaring a variable as "readonly" allows a programmer to assign some value to that variable exactly once. Further attempts to modify the variable will result in an error. What I am after: I want to make sure that any and all single-ton classes I define can be predictably instantiated exactly once in my program (more details at the bottom). My approach to realizing my goal is to use extern to declare a global reference to the single-ton (which I will later instantiate at a time I choose. What I have sort of looks like this, namespace Global { extern Singleton& mainInstance; // not defined yet, but it will be later! } int main() { // now that the program has started, go ahead and create the singleton object Singleton& Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // invalid use of qualified name Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // doesn't work either :( } class Singleton { /* Some details ommited */ public: Singleton& GetInstance() { static Singleton instance; // exists once for the whole program return instance; } } However this does not really work, and I don't know where to go from here. Some details about what I'm up against: I'm concerned about threading as I am working on code that will deal with game logic while communicating with several third-party processes and other processes I will create. Eventually I would have to implement some kind of synchronization so multiple threads could access the information in the Singleton class without worry. Because I don't know what kinds of optimizations I might like to do, or exactly what threading entails (never done a real project using it), I was thinking that being able to predictably control when Singletons were instantiated would be a Good Thing. Imagine if Process A creates Process B, where B contains several Singletons distributed against multiple files and/or libraries. It could be a real nightmare if I can not reliably ensure the order these singleton objects are instantiated (because they could depend on each other, and calling methods on a NULL object is generally a Bad Thing). If I were in C# I would just use the readonly keyword, but is there any way I can implement this (compiler supported) behavior in C++? Is this even a good idea? Thanks for any feedback.

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  • Video playback with jQuery Mobile and Phonegap

    - by aritchie
    I'm fairly new to mobile apps, so am trying to knock up a simple video player using Phonegap and jQuery Mobile. The problem is, jQuery mobile appears to be blocking the video playback for some reason. To troubleshoot I stripped it right back to the following HTML, but get the same result, ie a black rectangle where the video should be, but no video playback or controls. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width,initial-scale=1"/> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/index.css" /> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/jquery.mobile-1.2.0.min.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="cordova-2.2.0.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/index.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery-1.8.3.min.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery.mobile-1.2.0.js"></script> <title></title> </head> <body> <div> <video controls autoplay> <source src="video/video1.mp4" type="video/mp4" > </video> </div> </body> </html> If I remove the link to jquery.mobile-1.2.0.js the video shows up and plays, otherwise, just the black rectangle. I don't know jQuery mobile at all, but searching in the js for a reference to the video elements doesn't show up, so I've no idea what is blocking it. The code works fine in Chrome and Firefox. There are no console messages in Xcode. I also tried hooking up to http://debug.phonegap.com/ but this gave no error messages either. Any ideas??

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  • ASP.NET MVC Inheriting from ProfileBase

    - by Glen
    I have 2 related issues. I inherited from ProfileBase and I have a couple of properites as such public SomeType PropertyName { get { return (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; Save(); } } I also have a User class (UserId, UserName, Profile, LastActivityDate) that has 2 additional properties out of the profile that I retrieve in my View to show a list of Users (i.e. @Model.Profile.PropertyName). However, everytime I access a property (from my View) it seems to update the LastActivityDate in the aspnet_Users table because when I show the LastActivityDate as well as the profile properties on my screen the LastActivtyDate is out of sync with the database. Also there is a LastActivityDate property available in my profile which unfortunately is not available and is in fact set to null and throws an exception when accessing it saying the property UserName is null. So the static Create method provided by ProfileBase seems to retrieve the correct profile properties but does not set the base's UserName property even though you pass in a UserName parameter to the Create method. Is this a internal bug? I was kind of hoping if by accessing the property because the LastActivityDate is updated then I could store that value to update my LastActivityDate in my User class before it is rendered to the page. The only way I can think of doing it is: public SomeType PropertyName { get { SomeType result = (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; OnLastActivityDateChanged(); return result; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; } } then in my User class: ... public MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged += Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ~MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged -= Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ... void Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Run a query to get the latest LastActivityDate this.LastActivityDate = ... } It seems I have to make 1 call to retrieve the full list to my aspnet_Users table then another call for each row just to get the latest activity date. ARGGGGHHH!!! Am I going about this the wrong way! I put an ajax refresh hyperlink next to each User row and when I click it, immediately after loading the page, the value changes. Therefore my suspision is valid that calling a property via the inherited profilebase class updates the value. Is there a workaround? It is a bit miss leading when my page says User Smith has no activity for 4 days then I click my ajax refresh link (or refresh the whole page for that matter) and now it says Smith was active but it was just me meally showing the page that indirectly caused an activity read event.

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  • Routing error when trying to use same view for update and create flows (Rails 3)

    - by Jamis Charles
    My overall use case: I have a Listing model that has many images. The Listing detail page lists all the fields that can be updated inline (through ajax). I want to be able to use the same view for both update listing and create new listing. My listing controller looks as follows: def detail @listing = Listing.find(params[:id]) @image = Image.new #should this link somewhere else? respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @listing } end end def create # create a new listing and save it immediately. Assign it to guest, with a status of "draft" @listing = Listing.new(:price_id => 1) # Default price id # save it to db # TODO add validation that it has to have a price ID, on record creation. So the view doesn't break. @listing.save @image = Image.new # redirect_to "/listings/detail/@listing.id" #this didn't work respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @listing } end end The PROBLEM I'm using a partial that shows the same form for the create view and the detail view. This works perfectly except for one thing: When I pull up http://0.0.0.0:3000/listings/detail/7, it works perfectly. When I pull up http://0.0.0.0:3000/listings/new, I get the following error: Showing /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/rails_testing/feedbackd/app/views/listings/_edit_form.html.erb where line #100 raised: No route matches {:action="show", :controller="images"} Extracted source (around line #100): 97: <!-- Form for new images --> 98: <div class="span-20 append-bottom"> 99: <!-- <%# form_for :image, @image, :url => image_path, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| %> --> 100: <%= form_for @image, :url => image_path, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| %> 101: <%= f.text_field :description %><br /> 102: <%= f.file_field :photo %> 103: <%= submit_tag "Upload" %> What I think the issue is: When I upload a new image (I'm using Paperclip), it requires the listing_id to create the image record. Since the listing_id isn't passed in with listings/new it can't find the listing_id. How can I pass in the id? Via a redirect? What's the best way to solve this? Thank you.

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  • PHP resized image functions and S3 upload functions - but how to merge the two?

    - by chocolatecoco
    I am using S3 to store images and I am resizing and compressing images before it gets uploaded using PHP. I'm using this class for storing the images to an S3 bucket - http://undesigned.org.za/2007/10/22/amazon-s3-php-class This all works fine if I'm not doing any file processing before the file is uploaded because it reads the file upload from the $_FILES array. The problem is I am resizing and compressing the image before storing to the S3 bucket. So I'm no longer able to read from the $_FILES array. The functions for resizing: public function resizeImage($newWidth, $newHeight, $option="auto") { // *** Get optimal width and height - based on $option $optionArray = $this->getDimensions($newWidth, $newHeight, $option); $optimalWidth = $optionArray['optimalWidth']; $optimalHeight = $optionArray['optimalHeight']; // *** Resample - create image canvas of x, y size $this->imageResized = imagecreatetruecolor($optimalWidth, $optimalHeight); imagecopyresampled($this->imageResized, $this->image, 0, 0, 0, 0, $optimalWidth, $optimalHeight, $this->width, $this->height); // *** if option is 'crop', then crop too if ($option == 'crop') { $this->crop($optimalWidth, $optimalHeight, $newWidth, $newHeight); } } The script I am using to store the file after resizing and compressing to a local directory: public function saveImage($savePath, $imageQuality="100") { // *** Get extension $extension = strrchr($savePath, '.'); $extension = strtolower($extension); switch($extension) { case '.jpg': case '.jpeg': if (imagetypes() & IMG_JPG) { imagejpeg($this->imageResized, $savePath, $imageQuality); } break; case '.gif': if (imagetypes() & IMG_GIF) { imagegif($this->imageResized, $savePath); } break; case '.png': // *** Scale quality from 0-100 to 0-9 $scaleQuality = round(($imageQuality/100) * 9); // *** Invert quality setting as 0 is best, not 9 $invertScaleQuality = 9 - $scaleQuality; if (imagetypes() & IMG_PNG) { imagepng($this->imageResized, $savePath, $invertScaleQuality); } break; // ... etc default: // *** No extension - No save. break; } imagedestroy($this->imageResized); } with this PHP code to invoke it: $resizeObj = new resize("$images_dir/$filename"); $resizeObj -> resizeImage($thumbnail_width, $thumbnail_height, 'crop'); $resizeObj -> saveImage($images_dir."/tb_".$filename, 90); How do I modify the code above so I can pass it through this function: $s3->putObjectFile($thefile, "s3bucket", $s3directory, S3::ACL_PUBLIC_READ)

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  • making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

    - by user3081123
    I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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  • Secure WS client with UsernameToken(SOAP security header)

    - by user79163
    Hi, I'm trying to secure my WS client to be able to call the WS. My code looks like this: SendSmsService smsService = new SendSmsService(); SendSms sendSMS = smsService.getSendSms(); BindingProvider stub = (BindingProvider)sendSMS; //Override endpoint with local copy of wsdl. String URL ="";//here is the wsdl url Map<String,Object> requestContext = stub.getRequestContext(); requestContext.put(BindingProvider.ENDPOINT_ADDRESS_PROPERTY, URL); //Set usernametoken URL fileURL = loader.getResource("client-config.xml"); File file = new File(fileURL.getFile()); FileInputStream clientConfig = null; try { clientConfig = new FileInputStream(file); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } XWSSecurityConfiguration config = null; try { config = SecurityConfigurationFactory.newXWSSecurityConfiguration(clientConfig); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); log.warn("Exception: "+e.getMessage()); } requestContext.put(XWSSecurityConfiguration.MESSAGE_SECURITY_CONFIGURATION, config); //Invoke the web service String requestId = null; try { requestId = sendSMS.sendSms(addresses, senderName, charging, message, receiptRequest); } catch (PolicyException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (ServiceException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } and the config file looks like this: <xwss:JAXRPCSecurity xmlns:xwss="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/xwss/config" optimize="true"> <xwss:Service> <xwss:SecurityConfiguration dumpMessages="true" xmlns:xwss="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/xwss/config"> <xwss:UsernameToken name="username" password="password> </xwss:SecurityConfiguration> </xwss:Service> <xwss:SecurityEnvironmentHandler> util.SecurityEnvironmentHandler </xwss:SecurityEnvironmentHandler> </xwss:JAXRPCSecurity> The SecurityEnviromentHandler is a dummy class that implements javax.security.auth.callback.CallbackHandler. Authentication must be in compliance with Oasis Web Services Security Username Token Profile 1.0. But I'm constantly getting "Security header not valid" error. Where am I going wrong, can anyone tell me. I used wsimport(JAX_WS 2.1 to generate classes for my client) Note:Only thing I know about this WS is WSDL URL and user&pass for authentication

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  • Parsing CSV: how can NSScanner recognize empty field (i.e. ,,)?

    - by Fabrizio Prosperi
    I am very new to Xcode and trying - as millions - to parse a CSV file. I have read many contributions and I am managing it but I have a problem when my NSScanner intercepts an empty field: "Field_A, Field_B,, Field_D". I guess it is because it ignores empty space by default, or in this case no space at all. String is: "Personal","2011-01-01","Personal","Cigarettes",,4.60,"Cash","", I tried to debug it using scanLocation: 2011-04-22 15:57:32.414 Spending[42015:a0f] Before while...scan location is:0 2011-04-22 15:57:32.414 Spending[42015:a0f] Account: "Personal" - scan location is:10 2011-04-22 15:57:32.415 Spending[42015:a0f] Date: "2011-01-01" - scan location is:23 2011-04-22 15:57:32.415 Spending[42015:a0f] Category: "Personal" - scan location is:34 2011-04-22 15:57:32.416 Spending[42015:a0f] Subcategory: "Cigarettes" - scan location is:47 2011-04-22 15:57:32.416 Spending[42015:a0f] Income: 4.600000 - scan location is:53 2011-04-22 15:57:32.416 Spending[42015:a0f] Expense: 0.000000 - scan location is:53 2011-04-22 15:57:32.417 Spending[42015:a0f] Payment: "Cash" - scan location is:60 2011-04-22 15:57:32.417 Spending[42015:a0f] Note: "" - scan location is:63 And as you can see after that even expense field gets no value (should be 4.60). Here is the relevant piece of code: NSScanner *scanner = [NSScanner scannerWithString:fileString]; [scanner setCharactersToBeSkipped: [NSCharacterSet characterSetWithCharactersInString:@"\n, "]]; NSString *account, *date, *category, *subcategory, *payment, *note; float income, expense; // Set up data delimiter using comma NSCharacterSet *commaSet; commaSet = [NSCharacterSet characterSetWithCharactersInString:@","]; NSLog (@"Before while...scan location is:%d\n", scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&account]; NSLog(@"Account: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",account, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&date]; NSLog(@"Date: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",date, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&category]; NSLog(@"Category: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",category, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&subcategory]; NSLog(@"Subcategory: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",subcategory, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanFloat:&income]; NSLog(@"Income: %f - scan location is:%d\n",income, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanFloat:&expense]; NSLog(@"Expense: %f - scan location is:%d\n",expense, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&payment]; NSLog(@"Payment: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",payment, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&note]; NSLog(@"Note: %@\n - scan location is:%d",note, scanner.scanLocation); I tried looking carefully through NSScanner Class Reference, but could not get an idea? Do you have any? Thanks, Fabrizio.

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  • get attributes from xml tree using linq

    - by nelsonwebs
    I'm working with an xml file that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element1 xmlns="http://namespace1/"> <element2> <element3> <element4 attr1="2009-11-09"> <element5 attr2="NAME1"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="1" attr5="5.5" attr6="3.4"/> </element6> </element5> <element5 attr2="NAME2"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="3" attr5="4" attr6="4.5"/> </element6> </element5> </element4> </element3> </element2> </element1> Where I need to loop through element5 and retrieve the attributes in an Ienumberable like this: attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 using linq to xml and c#. I can loop through the element5 and get all the attribute2 info using but I can't figure out how to get the parent or child attributes I need. UPDATE: Thanks for the feeback thus far. For clarity, I need to do a loop through attribute5. So basically, what I have right now (which isn't much) is . . . XElement xel = XElement.Load(xml); IEnumberable<XElement> cList = from el in xel.Elements(env + "element2").Element (n2 + "element3").Elements(n2 + "element4").Elements(ns + "element5") select el; foreach (XElement e in cList) Console.WriteLine(e.Attribute("attr2").Value.ToString()); This will give me the value all the attr 2 in the loop but I could be going about this all wrong for what I'm trying to acheive. I also need to collect the other attributes mentioned above in a collection (the Console reference is just me playing with this right now but the end result I need is a collection). So the end results would be a collection like attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 2009-11-09, name1, 1, 1, 5.5, 3.4 2009-11-09, name2, 1, 3, 4, 4.5 Make Sense?

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  • An error occurred creating the form. See Exception.InnerException for details. The error is: Object

    - by Ben
    I get this error when attempting to debug my form, I cannot see where at all the error could be (also does not highlight where), anyone have any suggestions? An error occurred creating the form. See Exception.InnerException for details. The error is: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Public Class Form1 Dim dateCrap As String = "Date:" Dim IPcrap As String = "Ip:" Dim pcCrap As String = "Computer:" Dim programCrap As String = "Program:" Dim textz As String = TextBox1.Text Dim sep() As String = {vbNewLine & vbNewLine} Dim sections() As String = Text.Split(sep, StringSplitOptions.None) Dim NewArray() As String = TextBox1.Text.Split(vbNewLine) Private Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click For i = 0 To sections.Count - 1 TextBox2.Text = sections(i) Dim text2 As String = TextBox2.Text Dim sep2() As String = {vbNewLine & vbNewLine} Dim sections2() As String = Text.Split(sep, StringSplitOptions.None) Dim FTPinfo() As String = TextBox2.Text.Split(vbNewLine) Dim clsRequest As System.Net.FtpWebRequest = _ DirectCast(System.Net.WebRequest.Create(sections2(0).Replace("Url/Host:", "")), System.Net.FtpWebRequest) clsRequest.Credentials = New System.Net.NetworkCredential(sections2(1).Replace("Login:", ""), (sections2(2).Replace("Password:", ""))) clsRequest.Method = System.Net.WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile ' read in file... Dim bFile() As Byte = System.IO.File.ReadAllBytes(txtShellDir.Text) ' upload file... Dim clsStream As System.IO.Stream = clsRequest.GetRequestStream() clsStream.Write(bFile, 0, bFile.Length) clsStream.Close() clsStream.Dispose() Next End Sub Private Sub Button3_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button3.Click ListBox1.Items.Clear() Dim fdlg As OpenFileDialog = New OpenFileDialog() fdlg.Title = "Browse for the FTP List you wish to use." fdlg.InitialDirectory = Application.ExecutablePath fdlg.Filter = "All files (*.txt)|*.txt|txt files (*.txt)|*.txt" fdlg.FilterIndex = 2 fdlg.RestoreDirectory = True If fdlg.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then 'ListBox1.Items.AddRange(Split(My.Computer.FileSystem.ReadAllText(fdlg.FileName), vbNewLine)) TextBox1.Text = My.Computer.FileSystem.ReadAllText(fdlg.FileName) End If Dim tmp() As String = TextBox1.Text.Split(CChar(vbNewLine)) For Each line As String In tmp If line.Length > 1 Then TextBox1.AppendText(line & vbNewLine) End If Next TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text.Replace(" ", "") TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text.Replace("----------------------------------------------------------", vbNewLine) For Each item As String In NewArray ListBox1.Items.Add(item) Next Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(dateCrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(IPcrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(pcCrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(programCrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try TextBox1.Text = "" For Each thing As Object In ListBox1.Items TextBox1.AppendText(thing.ToString & vbNewLine) Next End Sub Private Sub Button4_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) For i = 0 To ListBox1.SelectedItems.Count - 1 TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text & ListBox1.Items.Item(i).ToString() & vbNewLine Next End Sub End Class

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  • Device drivers and Windows

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, I am trying to complete the picture of how the PC and the OS interacts together. And I am at point, where I am little out of guess when it comes to device drivers. Please, don´t write things like its too complicated, or you don´t need to know when using high programming laguage and winapi functions. I want to know, it´s for study purposes. So, the very basic structure of how OS and PC (by PC I mean of course HW) is how I see it is that all other than direct CPU commands, which can CPU do on itself (arithmetic operation, its registers access and memory access) must pass thru OS. Mainly becouse from ring level 3 you cannot use in and out intructions which are used for acesing other HW. I know that there is MMIO,but it must be set by port comunication first. It was not like this all the time. Even I am bit young to remember MSDOS, I know you could access HW directly, becouse there ws no limitation, no ring mode. So you could to write string to diplay use wheather DOS function, or directly acess video card memory and write it by yourself. But as OS developed, there is no longer this possibility. But it is fine, since OS now handles all the HW comunication, and frankly it more convinient and much more safe (I would say the only option) in multitasking environment. So nowdays you instead of using int instructions to use BIOS mapped function or DOS function you call dll which internally than handles everything you don´t need to know about. I understand this. I also undrstand that device drivers is the piece of code that runs in ring level 0, so it can do all the HW interactions. But what I don´t understand is connection between OS and device driver. Let´s take a example - I want to make a sound card make a sound. So I call windows API to acess sound card, but what happens than? Does windows call device drivers to do so? But if it does call device driver, does it mean, that all device drivers which can be called by winAPI function, must have routines named in some specific way? I mean, when I have new sound card, must its drivers have functions named same as the old one? So Windows can actually call the same function from its perspective? But if Windows have predefined sets of functions requored by device drivers, that it cannot use new drivers that doesent existed before last version of OS came out. Please, help me understand this mess. I am really getting mad. Thanks.

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  • .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

    - by 1001001
    I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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  • JavaScript - Inheritance in Constructors

    - by j0ker
    For a JavaScript project we want to introduce object inheritance to decrease code duplication. However, I cannot quite get it working the way I want and need some help. We use the module pattern. Suppose there is a super element: a.namespace('a.elements.Element'); a.elements.Element = (function() { // public API -- constructor Element = function(properties) { this.id = properties.id; }; // public API -- prototype Element.prototype = { getID: function() { return this.id; } }; return Element; }()); And an element inheriting from this super element: a.namespace('a.elements.SubElement'); a.elements.SubElement = (function() { // public API -- constructor SubElement = function(properties) { // inheritance happens here // ??? this.color = properties.color; this.bogus = this.id + 1; }; // public API -- prototype SubElement.prototype = { getColor: function() { return this.color; } }; return SubElement; }()); You will notice that I'm not quite sure how to implement the inheritance itself. In the constructor I have to be able to pass the parameter to the super object constructor and create a super element that is then used to create the inherited one. I need a (comfortable) possibility to access the properties of the super object within the constructor of the new object. Ideally I could operate on the super object as if it was part of the new object. I also want to be able to create a new SubElement and call getID() on it. What I want to accomplish seems like the traditional class based inheritance. However, I'd like to do it using prototypal inheritance since that's the JavaScript way. Is that even doable? Thanks in advance! EDIT: Fixed usage of private variables as suggested in the comments. EDIT2: Another change of the code: It's important that id is accessible from the constructor of SubElement.

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  • Need simple Twitter API v1.1 example to show timeline using jQuery or C# ASP.NET

    - by Ken Palmer
    With Twitter turning off the API 1.0 faucet on 6/11/2013, we have several sites that now fail to display timelines. I've been looking for an "If you did that, now do this" example. Here was Twitter's announcement. https://dev.twitter.com/blog/api-v1-is-retired Here is what we were originally doing to show the Twitter timeline via API 1.0. <div id="twitter"> <ul id="twitter_update_list"></ul> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/javascripts/blogger.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.twitter.com/1/statuses/user_timeline/companytwitterhandle.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> <div style="float:left;"><a href="https://twitter.com/companytwitterhandle" target="_blank">@companytwitterhandle</a> | </div> <div class="twitterimg">&nbsp;</div> </div> Initially I tried changing the version in the JavaScript reference URL like so, which did not work. <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.twitter.com/1.1/statuses/user_timeline/companytwitterhandle.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> Then I looked at the Twitter API documentation (https://dev.twitter.com/docs/api/1.1/overview) which lacks a clear transition example. I don't have 4 or 5 hours to delve into that, or into this disheveled FAQ (https://dev.twitter.com/docs/faq#17750). Then I found this API documentation regarding the user timeline. So I changed the URL again as shown below. https://dev.twitter.com/docs/api/1.1/get/statuses/user_timeline <script type="text/javascript" src="https://api.twitter.com/1.1/statuses/user_timeline.json?screen_name=companytwitterhandle&amp;count=1"></script> That did not work. Using jQuery or C# ASP.NET MVC, how can I transition that interface from Twitter API 1.0 to Twitter API 1.1? My first preference would be for a browser client side implementation if that is possible. Please include a code example. Thanks.

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  • Authenticating users in iPhone app

    - by Myron
    I'm developing an HTTP api for our web application. Initially, the primary consumer of the API will be an iPhone app we're developing, but I'm designing this with future uses in mind (such as mobile apps for other platforms). I'm trying to decide on the best way to authenticate users so they can access their accounts from the iPhone. I've got a design that I think works well, but I'm no security expert, so I figured it would be good to ask for feedback here. The design of the user authentication has 3 primary goals: Good user experience: We want to allow users to enter their credentials once, and remain logged in indefinitely, until they explicitly log out. I would have considered OAuth if not for the fact that the experience from an iPhone app is pretty awful, from what I've heard (i.e. it launches the login form in Safari, then tells the user to return to the app when authentication succeeds). No need to store the user creds with the app: I always hate the idea of having the user's password stored in either plain text or symmetrically encrypted anywhere, so I don't want the app to have to store the password to pass it to the API for future API requests. Security: We definitely don't need the intense security of a banking app, but I'd obviously like this to be secure. Overall, the API is REST-inspired (i.e. treating URLs as resources, and using the HTTP methods and status codes semantically). Each request to the API must include two custom HTTP headers: an API Key (unique to each client app) and a unique device ID. The API requires all requests to be made using HTTPS, so that the headers and body are encrypted. My plan is to have an api_sessions table in my database. It has a unique constraint on the API key and unique device ID (so that a device may only be logged into a single user account through a given app) as well as a foreign key to the users table. The API will have a login endpoint, which receives the username/password and, if they match an account, logs the user in, creating an api_sessions record for the given API key and device id. Future API requests will look up the api_session using the API key and device id, and, if a record is found, treat the request as being logged in under the user account referenced by the api_session record. There will also be a logout API endpoint, which deletes the record from the api_sessions table. Does anyone see any obvious security holes in this?

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  • Is it a good or bad practice to call instance methods from a java constructor?

    - by Steve
    There are several different ways I can initialize complex objects (with injected dependencies and required set-up of injected members), are all seem reasonable, but have various advantages and disadvantages. I'll give a concrete example: final class MyClass { private final Dependency dependency; @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { this.dependency = dependency; dependency.addHandler(new Handler() { @Override void handle(int foo) { MyClass.this.doSomething(foo); } }); doSomething(0); } private void doSomething(int foo) { dependency.doSomethingElse(foo+1); } } As you can see, the constructor does 3 things, including calling an instance method. I've been told that calling instance methods from a constructor is unsafe because it circumvents the compiler's checks for uninitialized members. I.e. I could have called doSomething(0) before setting this.dependency, which would have compiled but not worked. What is the best way to refactor this? Make doSomething static and pass in the dependency explicitly? In my actual case I have three instance methods and three member fields that all depend on one another, so this seems like a lot of extra boilerplate to make all three of these static. Move the addHandler and doSomething into an @Inject public void init() method. While use with Guice will be transparent, it requires any manual construction to be sure to call init() or else the object won't be fully-functional if someone forgets. Also, this exposes more of the API, both of which seem like bad ideas. Wrap a nested class to keep the dependency to make sure it behaves properly without exposing additional API:class DependencyManager { private final Dependency dependency; public DependecyManager(Dependency dependency) { ... } public doSomething(int foo) { ... } } @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { DependencyManager manager = new DependencyManager(dependency); manager.doSomething(0); } This pulls instance methods out of all constructors, but generates an extra layer of classes, and when I already had inner and anonymous classes (e.g. that handler) it can become confusing - when I tried this I was told to move the DependencyManager to a separate file, which is also distasteful because it's now multiple files to do a single thing. So what is the preferred way to deal with this sort of situation?

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  • Architectural Design for a Data-Driven Silverlight WP7 app

    - by Rosarch
    I have a Silverlight Windows Phone 7 app that pulls data from a public API. I find myself doing much of the same thing over and over again: In the UI, set a loading message or loading progress bar in place of where the content is Get the content, which may be already in memory, cached in isolated file storage, or require an HTTP request If the content can not be acquired (no network connection, etc), display an error message If the content is acquired, display it in the UI Keep the content in main memory for subsequent queries The content that is displayed to the user can be taken directly from a data source, such as an ObservableCollection, or it may be a query on a data source. I would like to factor out this repetitive process into a framework where ideally only the following needs to be specified: Where to display the content in the UI The UI elements to show while loading, on failure, and on success The URI of the HTTP request How to parse the HTTP response into the data structure that will kept in memory The location of the file in isolated storage, if it exists How to parse the file contents into the data structure that will be kept in memory It may sound like a lot, but two strings, three FrameworkElements, and two methods is less than the overhead that I currently have. Also, this needs to work for however the data is maintained in memory, and needs to work for direct collections and queries on those collections. My questions are: Has something like this already been implemented? Are my thoughts about the topic above fundamentally wrong in some way? Here is a design I'm thinking of: There are two components, a View and a Model. The View is given the FrameworkElements for loading, failure, and success. It is also given a reference to the corresponding Model. The View is a UserControl that is placed somewhere in the UI. The Model a class that is given the URI for the data, a method of how to parse the data, and optionally a filename and how to parse the file. It is responsible for retrieving the data and notifying the View whenever the current status (loading/fail/success) changes. If the data downloaded from the network is different from the cache, the network data takes precedence. When the app closes or is tombstoned, the model writes the data to the cache. How does that sound?

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  • Performance - FunctionCall vs Event vs Action vs Delegate

    - by hwcverwe
    Currently I am using Microsoft Sync Framework to synchronize databases. I need to gather information per record which is inserted/updated/deleted by Microsoft Sync Framework and do something with this information. The sync speed can go over 50.000 records per minute. So that means my additional code need to be very lightweight otherwise it will be a huge performance penalty. Microsoft Sync Framework raises an SyncProgress event for each record. I am subscribed to that code like this: // Assembly1 SyncProvider.SyncProgress += OnSyncProgress; // .... private void OnSyncProgress(object sender, DbSyncProgressEventArgs e) { switch (args.Stage) { case DbSyncStage.ApplyingInserts: // MethodCall/Delegate/Action<>/EventHandler<> => HandleInsertedRecordInformation // Do something with inserted record info break; case DbSyncStage.ApplyingUpdates: // MethodCall/Delegate/Action<>/EventHandler<> => HandleUpdatedRecordInformation // Do something with updated record info break; case DbSyncStage.ApplyingDeletes: // MethodCall/Delegate/Action<>/EventHandler<> => HandleDeletedRecordInformation // Do something with deleted record info break; } } Somewhere else in another assembly I have three methods: // Assembly2 public class SyncInformation { public void HandleInsertedRecordInformation(...) {...} public void HandleUpdatedRecordInformation(...) {...} public void HandleInsertedRecordInformation(...) {...} } Assembly2 has a reference to Assembly1. So Assembly1 does not know anything about the existence of the SyncInformation class which need to handle the gathered information. So I have the following options to trigger this code: use events and subscribe on it in Assembly2 1.1. EventHandler< 1.2. Action< 1.3. Delegates using dependency injection: public class Assembly2.SyncInformation : Assembly1.ISyncInformation Other? I know the performance depends on: OnSyncProgress switch using a method call, delegate, Action< or EventHandler< Implementation of SyncInformation class I currently don't care about the implementation of the SyncInformation class. I am mainly focused on the OnSyncProgress method and how to call the SyncInformation methods. So my questions are: What is the most efficient approach? What is the most in-efficient approach? Is there a better way than using a switch in OnSyncProgress?

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  • iOs receivedData from NSURLConnection is nil

    - by yhl
    I was wondering if anyone could point out why I'm not able to capture a web reply. My NSLog shows that my [NSMutableData receivedData] has a length of 0 the entire run of the connection. The script that I hit when I click my login button returns a string. My NSLog result is pasted below, and after that I've pasted both the .h and .m files that I have. NSLog Result 2012-11-28 23:35:22.083 [12548:c07] Clicked on button_login 2012-11-28 23:35:22.090 [12548:c07] theConnection is succesful 2012-11-28 23:35:22.289 [12548:c07] didReceiveResponse 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] didReceiveData 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] 0 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] connectionDidFinishLoading 2012-11-28 23:35:22.290 [12548:c07] 0 ViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ViewController : UIViewController // Create an Action for the button. - (IBAction)button_login:(id)sender; // Add property declaration. @property (nonatomic,assign) NSMutableData *receivedData; @end ViewController.m #import ViewController.h @interface ViewController () @end @implementation ViewController @synthesize receivedData; - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { NSLog(@"didReceiveResponse"); [receivedData setLength:0]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { NSLog(@"didReceiveData"); [receivedData appendData:data]; NSLog(@"%d",[receivedData length]); } - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { NSLog(@"connectionDidFinishLoading"); NSLog(@"%d",[receivedData length]); } - (IBAction)button_login:(id)sender { NSLog(@"Clicked on button_login"); NSString *loginScriptURL = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.website.com/app/scripts/login.php?"]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:loginScriptURL]]; NSString *postString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"&paramUsername=user&paramPassword=pass"]; NSData *postData = [postString dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:postData]; // Create the actual connection using the request. NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; // Capture the response if (theConnection) { NSLog(@"theConnection is succesful"); } else { NSLog(@"theConnection failed"); } } @end

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  • Learning C, would appreciate input on why this solution works.

    - by Keifer
    This is literally the first thing I've ever written in C, so please feel free to point out all it's flaws. :) My issue, however is this: if I write the program the way I feel is cleanest, I get a broken program: #include <sys/queue.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> /* Removed prototypes and non related code for brevity */ int main() { char *cmd = NULL; unsigned int acct = 0; int amount = 0; int done = 0; while (done==0) { scanf ("%s %u %i", cmd, &acct, &amount); if (strcmp (cmd, "exit") == 0) done = 1; else if ((strcmp (cmd, "dep") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "deb") == 0)) debit (acct, amount); else if ((strcmp (cmd, "wd") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "cred") == 0)) credit (acct, amount); else if (strcmp (cmd, "fee") == 0) service_fee(acct, amount); else printf("Invalid input!\n"); } return(0); } void credit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void debit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void service_fee(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } As it stands, the above generates no errors at compile, but gives me a segfault when ran. I can fix this by changing the program to pass cmd by reference when calling scanf and strcmp. The segfault goes away and is replaced by warnings for each use of strcmp at compile time. Despite the warnings, the affected code works. warning: passing arg 1 of 'strcmp' from incompatible pointer type As an added bonus, modifying the scanf and strcmp calls allows the program to progress far enough to execute return(0), at which point the thing crashes with an Abort trap. If I swap out return(0) for exit(0) then everything works as expected. This leaves me with two questions: why was the original program wrong? How can I fix it better than I have? The bit about needing to use exit instead of return has me especially baffled.

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  • Newbie jQuery question: Need slideshow to rotate automatically, not just when clicking navigation.

    - by Justin
    Hi everyone, This is my first post, so please forgive me if this question has been asked a million times. I'm a self professed jQuery hack and I need a little guidance on taking this script I found and adapting it to my needs. Anyway, what I'm making is an image slide show with navigation. The script I found does this, but does not automatically cycle through the images. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 and would rather stick with that than using the newer library. I would also prefer to edit what is already here rather than start from scratch. Anywho, here's the html: <div id="myslide"> <div class="cover"> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/current_Denver-skyline.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/pepsi_center-IS42RF-0D111C.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/columbine-2689820469_D1104.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/ist2_10460354-RedRocks.jpg" /> </div> </div> <!-- end of div cover --> </div> <!-- end of div myslide --> And here's the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> $(document).ready(function (){ $('#button a').click(function(){ var integer = $(this).attr('rel'); $('#myslide .cover').css({left:-820*(parseInt(integer)-1)}).hide().fadeIn(); /*----- Width of div #mystuff (here 820) ------ */ $('#button a').each(function(){ $(this).removeClass('active'); if($(this).hasClass('button'+integer)){ $(this).addClass('active')} }); }); }); </script> Here's where I got the script: http://www.webdeveloperjuice.com/2010/04/07/create-lightweight-jquery-fade-manual-slideshow/ Again, if this question is too basic for this site please let me know and possibly provide a reference link or two. Thanks a ton!

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  • sed multiline pygmentize

    - by dasickis
    I would like to take the html piece and pass it to pygmentize to colorize it accordingly. I'm wondering how I could use sed or some other cli tool to get that accomplished. I tried a bunch of sed one-liners and tried to use the following SO questions: Sed multiline replacement question Using or in multiline sed replacement sed or awk multiline replace I have the following log: 2012-03-26 18:04:27,385 9372 [main] ERROR web.commons.exception.ServiceInvocationException - Response from server cannot be decoded to JSON, responsePayload = <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"/> <title>Error 404 Not Found</title> </head> <body><h2>HTTP ERROR 404</h2> <p>Problem accessing jetty-url. Reason: <pre> Not Found</pre></p><hr /><i><small>Powered by Jetty://</small></i><br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> </body> </html> org.codehaus.jackson.JsonParseException: Unexpected character ('<' (code 60)): expected a valid value (number, String, array, object, 'true', 'false' or 'null') at [Source: java.io.StringReader@369133f6; line: 1, column: 2] UPDATE I'm adding this to a longer command: mvn -U test | (while read line; do echo ${line} | sed -e "s/.*ERROR.*/`echo -e '\e[91m&\e[0m'`/g" -e "s/.*\(WARN|INFO\).*/`echo -e '\e[93m&\e[0m'`/g"; done)

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  • Refactor the following two C++ methods to move out duplicate code

    - by ossandcad
    I have the following two methods that (as you can see) are similar in most of its statements except for one (see below for details) unsigned int CSWX::getLineParameters(const SURFACE & surface, vector<double> & params) { VARIANT varParams; surface->getPlaneParams(varParams); // this is the line of code that is different SafeDoubleArray sdParams(varParams); for( int i = 0 ; i < sdParams.getSize() ; ++i ) { params.push_back(sdParams[i]); } if( params.size() > 0 ) return 0; return 1; } unsigned int CSWX::getPlaneParameters(const CURVE & curve, vector<double> & params) { VARIANT varParams; curve->get_LineParams(varParams); // this is the line of code that is different SafeDoubleArray sdParams(varParams); for( int i = 0 ; i < sdParams.getSize() ; ++i ) { params.push_back(sdParams[i]); } if( params.size() > 0 ) return 0; return 1; } Is there any technique that I can use to move the common lines of code of the two methods out to a separate method, that could be called from the two variations - OR - possibly combine the two methods to a single method? The following are the restrictions: The classes SURFACE and CURVE are from 3rd party libraries and hence unmodifiable. (If it helps they are both derived from IDispatch) There are even more similar classes (e.g. FACE) that could fit into this "template" (not C++ template, just the flow of lines of code) I know the following could (possibly?) be implemented as solutions but am really hoping there is a better solution: I could add a 3rd parameter to the 2 methods - e.g. an enum - that identifies the 1st parameter (e.g. enum::input_type_surface, enum::input_type_curve) I could pass in an IDispatch and try dynamic_cast< and test which cast is NON_NULL and do an if-else to call the right method (e.g. getPlaneParams() vs. get_LineParams()) The following is not a restriction but would be a requirement because of my teammates resistance: Not implement a new class that inherits from SURFACE/CURVE etc. (They would much prefer to solve it using the enum solution I stated above)

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  • Java Flow Control Problem

    - by Kyle_Solo
    I am programming a simple 2d game engine. I've decided how I'd like the engine to function: it will be composed of objects containing "events" that my main game loop will trigger when appropriate. A little more about the structure: Every GameObject has an updateEvent method. objectList is a list of all the objects that will receive update events. Only objects on this list have their updateEvent method called by the game loop. I’m trying to implement this method in the GameObject class (This specification is what I’d like the method to achieve): /** * This method removes a GameObject from objectList. The GameObject * should immediately stop executing code, that is, absolutely no more * code inside update events will be executed for the removed game object. * If necessary, control should transfer to the game loop. * @param go The GameObject to be removed */ public void remove(GameObject go) So if an object tries to remove itself inside of an update event, control should transfer back to the game engine: public void updateEvent() { //object's update event remove(this); System.out.println("Should never reach here!"); } Here’s what I have so far. It works, but the more I read about using exceptions for flow control the less I like it, so I want to see if there are alternatives. Remove Method public void remove(GameObject go) { //add to removedList //flag as removed //throw an exception if removing self from inside an updateEvent } Game Loop for(GameObject go : objectList) { try { if (!go.removed) { go.updateEvent(); } else { //object is scheduled to be removed, do nothing } } catch(ObjectRemovedException e) { //control has been transferred back to the game loop //no need to do anything here } } // now remove the objects that are in removedList from objectList 2 questions: Am I correct in assuming that the only way to implement the stop-right-away part of the remove method as described above is by throwing a custom exception and catching it in the game loop? (I know, using exceptions for flow control is like goto, which is bad. I just can’t think of another way to do what I want!) For the removal from the list itself, it is possible for one object to remove one that is farther down on the list. Currently I’m checking a removed flag before executing any code, and at the end of each pass removing the objects to avoid concurrent modification. Is there a better, preferably instant/non-polling way to do this?

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