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• .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

  - by 1001001

  I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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• NullReferenceException at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.LoadAssemblies(ITaskItem[] R

  - by Eugene Larchick

  Hi, I updated my Visual Studio 2010 to the version 10.0.30319.1 RTM Rel and start getting the following exception during the build: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.LoadAssemblies(ITaskItem[] ReferenceAssemblies) at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.get_GetXamlSchemaContext() at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.GenerateCode(ITaskItem item, Boolean isApplication) at Microsoft.Silverlight.Build.Tasks.CompileXaml.Execute() at Bohr.Silverlight.BuildTasks.BohrCompileXaml.Execute() The code of BohrCompileXaml.Execute is the following: public override bool Execute() { List<TaskItem> pages = new List<TaskItem>(); foreach (ITaskItem item in SilverlightPages) { string newFileName = getGeneratedName(item.ItemSpec); String content = File.ReadAllText(item.ItemSpec); String parentClassName = getParentClassName(content); if (null != parentClassName) { content = content.Replace("<UserControl", "<" + parentClassName); content = content.Replace("</UserControl>", "</" + parentClassName + ">"); content = content.Replace("bohr:ParentClass=\"" + parentClassName + "\"", ""); } File.WriteAllText(newFileName, content); pages.Add(new TaskItem(newFileName)); } if (null != SilverlightApplications) { foreach (ITaskItem item in SilverlightApplications) { Log.LogMessage(MessageImportance.High, "Application: " + item.ToString()); } } foreach (ITaskItem item in pages) { Log.LogMessage(MessageImportance.High, "newPage: " + item.ToString()); } CompileXaml xamlCompiler = new CompileXaml(); xamlCompiler.AssemblyName = AssemblyName; xamlCompiler.Language = Language; xamlCompiler.LanguageSourceExtension = LanguageSourceExtension; xamlCompiler.OutputPath = OutputPath; xamlCompiler.ProjectPath = ProjectPath; xamlCompiler.RootNamespace = RootNamespace; xamlCompiler.SilverlightApplications = SilverlightApplications; xamlCompiler.SilverlightPages = pages.ToArray(); xamlCompiler.TargetFrameworkDirectory = TargetFrameworkDirectory; xamlCompiler.TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory = TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory; xamlCompiler.BuildEngine = BuildEngine; bool result = xamlCompiler.Execute(); // HERE we got the error! And the definition of the task: <BohrCompileXaml LanguageSourceExtension="$(DefaultLanguageSourceExtension)" Language="$(Language)" SilverlightPages="@(Page)" SilverlightApplications="@(ApplicationDefinition)" ProjectPath="$(MSBuildProjectFullPath)" RootNamespace="$(RootNamespace)" AssemblyName="$(AssemblyName)" OutputPath="$(IntermediateOutputPath)" TargetFrameworkDirectory="$(TargetFrameworkDirectory)" TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory="$(TargetFrameworkSDKDirectory)" > <Output ItemName="Compile" TaskParameter="GeneratedCodeFiles" /> <!-- Add to the list list of files written. It is used in Microsoft.Common.Targets to clean up for a next clean build --> <Output ItemName="FileWrites" TaskParameter="WrittenFiles" /> <Output ItemName="_GeneratedCodeFiles" TaskParameter="GeneratedCodeFiles" /> </BohrCompileXaml> What can be the reason? And how can I get more info what's happening inside CompileXaml class?

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• Is there some way to make variables like $a and $b in regard to strict?

  - by Axeman

  In light of Michael Carman's comment, I have decided to rewrite the question. Note that 11 comments appear before this edit, and give credence to Michael's observation that I did not write the question in a way that made it clear what I was asking. Question: What is the standard--or cleanest way--to fake the special status that $a and $b have in regard to strict by simply importing a module? First of all some setup. The following works: #!/bin/perl use strict; print "\$a=$a\n"; print "\$b=$b\n"; If I add one more line: print "\$c=$c\n"; I get an error at compile time, which means that none of my dazzling print code gets to run. If I comment out use strict; it runs fine. Outside of strictures, $a and $b are mainly special in that sort passes the two values to be compared with those names. my @reverse_order = sort { $b <=> $a } @unsorted; Thus the main functional difference about $a and $b--even though Perl "knows their names"--is that you'd better know this when you sort, or use some of the functions in List::Util. It's only when you use strict, that $a and $b become special variables in a whole new way. They are the only variables that strict will pass over without complaining that they are not declared. : Now, I like strict, but it strikes me that if TIMTOWTDI (There is more than one way to do it) is Rule #1 in Perl, this is not very TIMTOWDI. It says that $a and $b are special and that's it. If you want to use variables you don't have to declare $a and $b are your guys. If you want to have three variables by adding $c, suddenly there's a whole other way to do it. Nevermind that in manipulating hashes $k and $v might make more sense: my %starts_upper_1_to_25 = skim { $k =~ m/^\p{IsUpper}/ && ( 1 <= $v && $v <= 25 ) } %my_hash ;` Now, I use and I like strict. But I just want $k and $v to be visible to skim for the most compact syntax. And I'd like it to be visible simply by use Hash::Helper qw<skim>; I'm not asking this question to know how to black-magic it. My "answer" below, should let you know that I know enough Perl to be dangerous. I'm asking if there is a way to make strict accept other variables, or what is the cleanest solution. The answer could well be no. If that's the case, it simply does not seem very TIMTOWTDI.

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• Video playback with jQuery Mobile and Phonegap

  - by aritchie

  I'm fairly new to mobile apps, so am trying to knock up a simple video player using Phonegap and jQuery Mobile. The problem is, jQuery mobile appears to be blocking the video playback for some reason. To troubleshoot I stripped it right back to the following HTML, but get the same result, ie a black rectangle where the video should be, but no video playback or controls. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width,initial-scale=1"/> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/index.css" /> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/jquery.mobile-1.2.0.min.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="cordova-2.2.0.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/index.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery-1.8.3.min.js"></script> <script src="js/jquery.mobile-1.2.0.js"></script> <title></title> </head> <body> <div> <video controls autoplay> <source src="video/video1.mp4" type="video/mp4" > </video> </div> </body> </html> If I remove the link to jquery.mobile-1.2.0.js the video shows up and plays, otherwise, just the black rectangle. I don't know jQuery mobile at all, but searching in the js for a reference to the video elements doesn't show up, so I've no idea what is blocking it. The code works fine in Chrome and Firefox. There are no console messages in Xcode. I also tried hooking up to http://debug.phonegap.com/ but this gave no error messages either. Any ideas??

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• get attributes from xml tree using linq

  - by nelsonwebs

  I'm working with an xml file that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element1 xmlns="http://namespace1/"> <element2> <element3> <element4 attr1="2009-11-09"> <element5 attr2="NAME1"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="1" attr5="5.5" attr6="3.4"/> </element6> </element5> <element5 attr2="NAME2"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="3" attr5="4" attr6="4.5"/> </element6> </element5> </element4> </element3> </element2> </element1> Where I need to loop through element5 and retrieve the attributes in an Ienumberable like this: attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 using linq to xml and c#. I can loop through the element5 and get all the attribute2 info using but I can't figure out how to get the parent or child attributes I need. UPDATE: Thanks for the feeback thus far. For clarity, I need to do a loop through attribute5. So basically, what I have right now (which isn't much) is . . . XElement xel = XElement.Load(xml); IEnumberable<XElement> cList = from el in xel.Elements(env + "element2").Element (n2 + "element3").Elements(n2 + "element4").Elements(ns + "element5") select el; foreach (XElement e in cList) Console.WriteLine(e.Attribute("attr2").Value.ToString()); This will give me the value all the attr 2 in the loop but I could be going about this all wrong for what I'm trying to acheive. I also need to collect the other attributes mentioned above in a collection (the Console reference is just me playing with this right now but the end result I need is a collection). So the end results would be a collection like attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 2009-11-09, name1, 1, 1, 5.5, 3.4 2009-11-09, name2, 1, 3, 4, 4.5 Make Sense?

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• sed multiline pygmentize

  - by dasickis

  I would like to take the html piece and pass it to pygmentize to colorize it accordingly. I'm wondering how I could use sed or some other cli tool to get that accomplished. I tried a bunch of sed one-liners and tried to use the following SO questions: Sed multiline replacement question Using or in multiline sed replacement sed or awk multiline replace I have the following log: 2012-03-26 18:04:27,385 9372 [main] ERROR web.commons.exception.ServiceInvocationException - Response from server cannot be decoded to JSON, responsePayload = <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"/> <title>Error 404 Not Found</title> </head> <body><h2>HTTP ERROR 404</h2> <p>Problem accessing jetty-url. Reason: <pre> Not Found</pre></p><hr /><i><small>Powered by Jetty://</small></i><br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> <br/> </body> </html> org.codehaus.jackson.JsonParseException: Unexpected character ('<' (code 60)): expected a valid value (number, String, array, object, 'true', 'false' or 'null') at [Source: java.io.StringReader@369133f6; line: 1, column: 2] UPDATE I'm adding this to a longer command: mvn -U test | (while read line; do echo ${line} | sed -e "s/.*ERROR.*/`echo -e '\e[91m&\e[0m'`/g" -e "s/.*\(WARN|INFO\).*/`echo -e '\e[93m&\e[0m'`/g"; done)

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• Replace text in XSL using wildcards

  - by JosephThomas

  This is similar to an earlier problem I was having which you guys solved in less than a day. I am working with XML files that are generated by a digital video camera. The camera allows the user to save all of the camera's settngs to an SD card so that the settings can be recalled or loaded into another camera. The XSL stylesheet I am writing will allow users to view the camera's settings, as saved to the SD card in a web browser. While most of the values in the XML file -- as formatted by my stylesheet -- make sense to humans, some do not. What I would like to do is have the stylesheet display text that is based on the value in the XML file but more easily understood by humans. A typical value that can be written to the XML file is "_23_970" which represents the camera's frame rate. This would be better displayed as 23.970 (or 023.970). The first underscore is a sort of place holder to make a space for values over 099.999. The second underscore, obviously represents the decimal. My previous (similar) question involved replacing predictable text, and the solution was matching templates. In this case, however, the camera can be set at any one of 119,999 frame rates (I think I did that math correctly). The approach, I would guess, is to pass a value to the displayed webpage that keeps the numeric values (each digit), replaces the second underscore with a decimal, and replaces the first underscore with either an nbsp or a zero (whichever is easier). If the first character in the string is a "1" (the camera can run at frame rates up to 120.000) then the one should be passed on to the page displayed by the stylesheet. I have read other posts here regarding wildcards, but couldn't find one that answered this question. EDIT: Sorry for leaving out important info. I fared better on my first try at asking a question! I guess I got complacent. Anyhow . . . I should have shown you the code that displays the text in the XSL file as is: <tr> <xsl:for-each select="Settings/Groups/Recording"> <tr><td class="title_column">Frame Rate</td><td><xsl:value-of select="RecOutLinkSpeed"/></td></tr> </xsl:for-each> </tr> I should also have given you the URL for the sample file I have been working with: http://josephthomas.info/Alexa/Setup_120511_140322.xml

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• Achieving C# "readonly" behavior in C++

  - by Tommy Fisk

  Hi guys, this is my first question on stack overflow, so be gentle. Let me first explain the exact behavior I would like to see. If you are familiar with C# then you know that declaring a variable as "readonly" allows a programmer to assign some value to that variable exactly once. Further attempts to modify the variable will result in an error. What I am after: I want to make sure that any and all single-ton classes I define can be predictably instantiated exactly once in my program (more details at the bottom). My approach to realizing my goal is to use extern to declare a global reference to the single-ton (which I will later instantiate at a time I choose. What I have sort of looks like this, namespace Global { extern Singleton& mainInstance; // not defined yet, but it will be later! } int main() { // now that the program has started, go ahead and create the singleton object Singleton& Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // invalid use of qualified name Global::mainInstance = Singleton::GetInstance(); // doesn't work either :( } class Singleton { /* Some details ommited */ public: Singleton& GetInstance() { static Singleton instance; // exists once for the whole program return instance; } } However this does not really work, and I don't know where to go from here. Some details about what I'm up against: I'm concerned about threading as I am working on code that will deal with game logic while communicating with several third-party processes and other processes I will create. Eventually I would have to implement some kind of synchronization so multiple threads could access the information in the Singleton class without worry. Because I don't know what kinds of optimizations I might like to do, or exactly what threading entails (never done a real project using it), I was thinking that being able to predictably control when Singletons were instantiated would be a Good Thing. Imagine if Process A creates Process B, where B contains several Singletons distributed against multiple files and/or libraries. It could be a real nightmare if I can not reliably ensure the order these singleton objects are instantiated (because they could depend on each other, and calling methods on a NULL object is generally a Bad Thing). If I were in C# I would just use the readonly keyword, but is there any way I can implement this (compiler supported) behavior in C++? Is this even a good idea? Thanks for any feedback.

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• JavaScript - Inheritance in Constructors

  - by j0ker

  For a JavaScript project we want to introduce object inheritance to decrease code duplication. However, I cannot quite get it working the way I want and need some help. We use the module pattern. Suppose there is a super element: a.namespace('a.elements.Element'); a.elements.Element = (function() { // public API -- constructor Element = function(properties) { this.id = properties.id; }; // public API -- prototype Element.prototype = { getID: function() { return this.id; } }; return Element; }()); And an element inheriting from this super element: a.namespace('a.elements.SubElement'); a.elements.SubElement = (function() { // public API -- constructor SubElement = function(properties) { // inheritance happens here // ??? this.color = properties.color; this.bogus = this.id + 1; }; // public API -- prototype SubElement.prototype = { getColor: function() { return this.color; } }; return SubElement; }()); You will notice that I'm not quite sure how to implement the inheritance itself. In the constructor I have to be able to pass the parameter to the super object constructor and create a super element that is then used to create the inherited one. I need a (comfortable) possibility to access the properties of the super object within the constructor of the new object. Ideally I could operate on the super object as if it was part of the new object. I also want to be able to create a new SubElement and call getID() on it. What I want to accomplish seems like the traditional class based inheritance. However, I'd like to do it using prototypal inheritance since that's the JavaScript way. Is that even doable? Thanks in advance! EDIT: Fixed usage of private variables as suggested in the comments. EDIT2: Another change of the code: It's important that id is accessible from the constructor of SubElement.

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• Newbie jQuery question: Need slideshow to rotate automatically, not just when clicking navigation.

  - by Justin

  Hi everyone, This is my first post, so please forgive me if this question has been asked a million times. I'm a self professed jQuery hack and I need a little guidance on taking this script I found and adapting it to my needs. Anyway, what I'm making is an image slide show with navigation. The script I found does this, but does not automatically cycle through the images. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 and would rather stick with that than using the newer library. I would also prefer to edit what is already here rather than start from scratch. Anywho, here's the html: <div id="myslide"> <div class="cover"> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/current_Denver-skyline.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/pepsi_center-IS42RF-0D111C.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/columbine-2689820469_D1104.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/ist2_10460354-RedRocks.jpg" /> </div> </div> <!-- end of div cover --> </div> <!-- end of div myslide --> And here's the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> $(document).ready(function (){ $('#button a').click(function(){ var integer = $(this).attr('rel'); $('#myslide .cover').css({left:-820*(parseInt(integer)-1)}).hide().fadeIn(); /*----- Width of div #mystuff (here 820) ------ */ $('#button a').each(function(){ $(this).removeClass('active'); if($(this).hasClass('button'+integer)){ $(this).addClass('active')} }); }); }); </script> Here's where I got the script: http://www.webdeveloperjuice.com/2010/04/07/create-lightweight-jquery-fade-manual-slideshow/ Again, if this question is too basic for this site please let me know and possibly provide a reference link or two. Thanks a ton!

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• Routing error when trying to use same view for update and create flows (Rails 3)

  - by Jamis Charles

  My overall use case: I have a Listing model that has many images. The Listing detail page lists all the fields that can be updated inline (through ajax). I want to be able to use the same view for both update listing and create new listing. My listing controller looks as follows: def detail @listing = Listing.find(params[:id]) @image = Image.new #should this link somewhere else? respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @listing } end end def create # create a new listing and save it immediately. Assign it to guest, with a status of "draft" @listing = Listing.new(:price_id => 1) # Default price id # save it to db # TODO add validation that it has to have a price ID, on record creation. So the view doesn't break. @listing.save @image = Image.new # redirect_to "/listings/detail/@listing.id" #this didn't work respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @listing } end end The PROBLEM I'm using a partial that shows the same form for the create view and the detail view. This works perfectly except for one thing: When I pull up http://0.0.0.0:3000/listings/detail/7, it works perfectly. When I pull up http://0.0.0.0:3000/listings/new, I get the following error: Showing /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/rails_testing/feedbackd/app/views/listings/_edit_form.html.erb where line #100 raised: No route matches {:action="show", :controller="images"} Extracted source (around line #100): 97: <!-- Form for new images --> 98: <div class="span-20 append-bottom"> 99: <!-- <%# form_for :image, @image, :url => image_path, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| %> --> 100: <%= form_for @image, :url => image_path, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| %> 101: <%= f.text_field :description %><br /> 102: <%= f.file_field :photo %> 103: <%= submit_tag "Upload" %> What I think the issue is: When I upload a new image (I'm using Paperclip), it requires the listing_id to create the image record. Since the listing_id isn't passed in with listings/new it can't find the listing_id. How can I pass in the id? Via a redirect? What's the best way to solve this? Thank you.

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• ASP.NET MVC Inheriting from ProfileBase

  - by Glen

  I have 2 related issues. I inherited from ProfileBase and I have a couple of properites as such public SomeType PropertyName { get { return (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; Save(); } } I also have a User class (UserId, UserName, Profile, LastActivityDate) that has 2 additional properties out of the profile that I retrieve in my View to show a list of Users (i.e. @Model.Profile.PropertyName). However, everytime I access a property (from my View) it seems to update the LastActivityDate in the aspnet_Users table because when I show the LastActivityDate as well as the profile properties on my screen the LastActivtyDate is out of sync with the database. Also there is a LastActivityDate property available in my profile which unfortunately is not available and is in fact set to null and throws an exception when accessing it saying the property UserName is null. So the static Create method provided by ProfileBase seems to retrieve the correct profile properties but does not set the base's UserName property even though you pass in a UserName parameter to the Create method. Is this a internal bug? I was kind of hoping if by accessing the property because the LastActivityDate is updated then I could store that value to update my LastActivityDate in my User class before it is rendered to the page. The only way I can think of doing it is: public SomeType PropertyName { get { SomeType result = (SomeType)base["PropertyName"]; OnLastActivityDateChanged(); return result; } set { base["PropertyName"] = value; } } then in my User class: ... public MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged += Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ~MyProfile() { Profile.LastActivityDateChanged -= Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(); } ... void Profile_LastActivityDateChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Run a query to get the latest LastActivityDate this.LastActivityDate = ... } It seems I have to make 1 call to retrieve the full list to my aspnet_Users table then another call for each row just to get the latest activity date. ARGGGGHHH!!! Am I going about this the wrong way! I put an ajax refresh hyperlink next to each User row and when I click it, immediately after loading the page, the value changes. Therefore my suspision is valid that calling a property via the inherited profilebase class updates the value. Is there a workaround? It is a bit miss leading when my page says User Smith has no activity for 4 days then I click my ajax refresh link (or refresh the whole page for that matter) and now it says Smith was active but it was just me meally showing the page that indirectly caused an activity read event.

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• An error occurred creating the form. See Exception.InnerException for details. The error is: Object

  - by Ben

  I get this error when attempting to debug my form, I cannot see where at all the error could be (also does not highlight where), anyone have any suggestions? An error occurred creating the form. See Exception.InnerException for details. The error is: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Public Class Form1 Dim dateCrap As String = "Date:" Dim IPcrap As String = "Ip:" Dim pcCrap As String = "Computer:" Dim programCrap As String = "Program:" Dim textz As String = TextBox1.Text Dim sep() As String = {vbNewLine & vbNewLine} Dim sections() As String = Text.Split(sep, StringSplitOptions.None) Dim NewArray() As String = TextBox1.Text.Split(vbNewLine) Private Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click For i = 0 To sections.Count - 1 TextBox2.Text = sections(i) Dim text2 As String = TextBox2.Text Dim sep2() As String = {vbNewLine & vbNewLine} Dim sections2() As String = Text.Split(sep, StringSplitOptions.None) Dim FTPinfo() As String = TextBox2.Text.Split(vbNewLine) Dim clsRequest As System.Net.FtpWebRequest = _ DirectCast(System.Net.WebRequest.Create(sections2(0).Replace("Url/Host:", "")), System.Net.FtpWebRequest) clsRequest.Credentials = New System.Net.NetworkCredential(sections2(1).Replace("Login:", ""), (sections2(2).Replace("Password:", ""))) clsRequest.Method = System.Net.WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile ' read in file... Dim bFile() As Byte = System.IO.File.ReadAllBytes(txtShellDir.Text) ' upload file... Dim clsStream As System.IO.Stream = clsRequest.GetRequestStream() clsStream.Write(bFile, 0, bFile.Length) clsStream.Close() clsStream.Dispose() Next End Sub Private Sub Button3_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button3.Click ListBox1.Items.Clear() Dim fdlg As OpenFileDialog = New OpenFileDialog() fdlg.Title = "Browse for the FTP List you wish to use." fdlg.InitialDirectory = Application.ExecutablePath fdlg.Filter = "All files (*.txt)|*.txt|txt files (*.txt)|*.txt" fdlg.FilterIndex = 2 fdlg.RestoreDirectory = True If fdlg.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then 'ListBox1.Items.AddRange(Split(My.Computer.FileSystem.ReadAllText(fdlg.FileName), vbNewLine)) TextBox1.Text = My.Computer.FileSystem.ReadAllText(fdlg.FileName) End If Dim tmp() As String = TextBox1.Text.Split(CChar(vbNewLine)) For Each line As String In tmp If line.Length > 1 Then TextBox1.AppendText(line & vbNewLine) End If Next TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text.Replace(" ", "") TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text.Replace("----------------------------------------------------------", vbNewLine) For Each item As String In NewArray ListBox1.Items.Add(item) Next Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(dateCrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(IPcrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(pcCrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try Try For i = 0 To ListBox1.Items.Count - 1 If ListBox1.Items(i).Contains(programCrap) Then ListBox1.Items.RemoveAt(i) End If Next Catch ex As Exception End Try TextBox1.Text = "" For Each thing As Object In ListBox1.Items TextBox1.AppendText(thing.ToString & vbNewLine) Next End Sub Private Sub Button4_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) For i = 0 To ListBox1.SelectedItems.Count - 1 TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text & ListBox1.Items.Item(i).ToString() & vbNewLine Next End Sub End Class

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• Parsing CSV: how can NSScanner recognize empty field (i.e. ,,)?

  - by Fabrizio Prosperi

  I am very new to Xcode and trying - as millions - to parse a CSV file. I have read many contributions and I am managing it but I have a problem when my NSScanner intercepts an empty field: "Field_A, Field_B,, Field_D". I guess it is because it ignores empty space by default, or in this case no space at all. String is: "Personal","2011-01-01","Personal","Cigarettes",,4.60,"Cash","", I tried to debug it using scanLocation: 2011-04-22 15:57:32.414 Spending[42015:a0f] Before while...scan location is:0 2011-04-22 15:57:32.414 Spending[42015:a0f] Account: "Personal" - scan location is:10 2011-04-22 15:57:32.415 Spending[42015:a0f] Date: "2011-01-01" - scan location is:23 2011-04-22 15:57:32.415 Spending[42015:a0f] Category: "Personal" - scan location is:34 2011-04-22 15:57:32.416 Spending[42015:a0f] Subcategory: "Cigarettes" - scan location is:47 2011-04-22 15:57:32.416 Spending[42015:a0f] Income: 4.600000 - scan location is:53 2011-04-22 15:57:32.416 Spending[42015:a0f] Expense: 0.000000 - scan location is:53 2011-04-22 15:57:32.417 Spending[42015:a0f] Payment: "Cash" - scan location is:60 2011-04-22 15:57:32.417 Spending[42015:a0f] Note: "" - scan location is:63 And as you can see after that even expense field gets no value (should be 4.60). Here is the relevant piece of code: NSScanner *scanner = [NSScanner scannerWithString:fileString]; [scanner setCharactersToBeSkipped: [NSCharacterSet characterSetWithCharactersInString:@"\n, "]]; NSString *account, *date, *category, *subcategory, *payment, *note; float income, expense; // Set up data delimiter using comma NSCharacterSet *commaSet; commaSet = [NSCharacterSet characterSetWithCharactersInString:@","]; NSLog (@"Before while...scan location is:%d\n", scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&account]; NSLog(@"Account: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",account, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&date]; NSLog(@"Date: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",date, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&category]; NSLog(@"Category: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",category, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&subcategory]; NSLog(@"Subcategory: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",subcategory, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanFloat:&income]; NSLog(@"Income: %f - scan location is:%d\n",income, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanFloat:&expense]; NSLog(@"Expense: %f - scan location is:%d\n",expense, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&payment]; NSLog(@"Payment: %@ - scan location is:%d\n",payment, scanner.scanLocation); [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:commaSet intoString:&note]; NSLog(@"Note: %@\n - scan location is:%d",note, scanner.scanLocation); I tried looking carefully through NSScanner Class Reference, but could not get an idea? Do you have any? Thanks, Fabrizio.

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• Authenticating users in iPhone app

  - by Myron

  I'm developing an HTTP api for our web application. Initially, the primary consumer of the API will be an iPhone app we're developing, but I'm designing this with future uses in mind (such as mobile apps for other platforms). I'm trying to decide on the best way to authenticate users so they can access their accounts from the iPhone. I've got a design that I think works well, but I'm no security expert, so I figured it would be good to ask for feedback here. The design of the user authentication has 3 primary goals: Good user experience: We want to allow users to enter their credentials once, and remain logged in indefinitely, until they explicitly log out. I would have considered OAuth if not for the fact that the experience from an iPhone app is pretty awful, from what I've heard (i.e. it launches the login form in Safari, then tells the user to return to the app when authentication succeeds). No need to store the user creds with the app: I always hate the idea of having the user's password stored in either plain text or symmetrically encrypted anywhere, so I don't want the app to have to store the password to pass it to the API for future API requests. Security: We definitely don't need the intense security of a banking app, but I'd obviously like this to be secure. Overall, the API is REST-inspired (i.e. treating URLs as resources, and using the HTTP methods and status codes semantically). Each request to the API must include two custom HTTP headers: an API Key (unique to each client app) and a unique device ID. The API requires all requests to be made using HTTPS, so that the headers and body are encrypted. My plan is to have an api_sessions table in my database. It has a unique constraint on the API key and unique device ID (so that a device may only be logged into a single user account through a given app) as well as a foreign key to the users table. The API will have a login endpoint, which receives the username/password and, if they match an account, logs the user in, creating an api_sessions record for the given API key and device id. Future API requests will look up the api_session using the API key and device id, and, if a record is found, treat the request as being logged in under the user account referenced by the api_session record. There will also be a logout API endpoint, which deletes the record from the api_sessions table. Does anyone see any obvious security holes in this?

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• Need simple Twitter API v1.1 example to show timeline using jQuery or C# ASP.NET

  - by Ken Palmer

  With Twitter turning off the API 1.0 faucet on 6/11/2013, we have several sites that now fail to display timelines. I've been looking for an "If you did that, now do this" example. Here was Twitter's announcement. https://dev.twitter.com/blog/api-v1-is-retired Here is what we were originally doing to show the Twitter timeline via API 1.0. <div id="twitter"> <ul id="twitter_update_list"></ul> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://twitter.com/javascripts/blogger.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.twitter.com/1/statuses/user_timeline/companytwitterhandle.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> <div style="float:left;"><a href="https://twitter.com/companytwitterhandle" target="_blank">@companytwitterhandle</a> | </div> <div class="twitterimg">&nbsp;</div> </div> Initially I tried changing the version in the JavaScript reference URL like so, which did not work. <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.twitter.com/1.1/statuses/user_timeline/companytwitterhandle.json?callback=twitterCallback2&amp;count=1"></script> Then I looked at the Twitter API documentation (https://dev.twitter.com/docs/api/1.1/overview) which lacks a clear transition example. I don't have 4 or 5 hours to delve into that, or into this disheveled FAQ (https://dev.twitter.com/docs/faq#17750). Then I found this API documentation regarding the user timeline. So I changed the URL again as shown below. https://dev.twitter.com/docs/api/1.1/get/statuses/user_timeline <script type="text/javascript" src="https://api.twitter.com/1.1/statuses/user_timeline.json?screen_name=companytwitterhandle&amp;count=1"></script> That did not work. Using jQuery or C# ASP.NET MVC, how can I transition that interface from Twitter API 1.0 to Twitter API 1.1? My first preference would be for a browser client side implementation if that is possible. Please include a code example. Thanks.

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• Java Flow Control Problem

  - by Kyle_Solo

  I am programming a simple 2d game engine. I've decided how I'd like the engine to function: it will be composed of objects containing "events" that my main game loop will trigger when appropriate. A little more about the structure: Every GameObject has an updateEvent method. objectList is a list of all the objects that will receive update events. Only objects on this list have their updateEvent method called by the game loop. I’m trying to implement this method in the GameObject class (This specification is what I’d like the method to achieve): /** * This method removes a GameObject from objectList. The GameObject * should immediately stop executing code, that is, absolutely no more * code inside update events will be executed for the removed game object. * If necessary, control should transfer to the game loop. * @param go The GameObject to be removed */ public void remove(GameObject go) So if an object tries to remove itself inside of an update event, control should transfer back to the game engine: public void updateEvent() { //object's update event remove(this); System.out.println("Should never reach here!"); } Here’s what I have so far. It works, but the more I read about using exceptions for flow control the less I like it, so I want to see if there are alternatives. Remove Method public void remove(GameObject go) { //add to removedList //flag as removed //throw an exception if removing self from inside an updateEvent } Game Loop for(GameObject go : objectList) { try { if (!go.removed) { go.updateEvent(); } else { //object is scheduled to be removed, do nothing } } catch(ObjectRemovedException e) { //control has been transferred back to the game loop //no need to do anything here } } // now remove the objects that are in removedList from objectList 2 questions: Am I correct in assuming that the only way to implement the stop-right-away part of the remove method as described above is by throwing a custom exception and catching it in the game loop? (I know, using exceptions for flow control is like goto, which is bad. I just can’t think of another way to do what I want!) For the removal from the list itself, it is possible for one object to remove one that is farther down on the list. Currently I’m checking a removed flag before executing any code, and at the end of each pass removing the objects to avoid concurrent modification. Is there a better, preferably instant/non-polling way to do this?

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• Directly Jump to another C++ function

  - by maligree

  I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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• PHP resized image functions and S3 upload functions - but how to merge the two?

  - by chocolatecoco

  I am using S3 to store images and I am resizing and compressing images before it gets uploaded using PHP. I'm using this class for storing the images to an S3 bucket - http://undesigned.org.za/2007/10/22/amazon-s3-php-class This all works fine if I'm not doing any file processing before the file is uploaded because it reads the file upload from the $_FILES array. The problem is I am resizing and compressing the image before storing to the S3 bucket. So I'm no longer able to read from the $_FILES array. The functions for resizing: public function resizeImage($newWidth, $newHeight, $option="auto") { // *** Get optimal width and height - based on $option $optionArray = $this->getDimensions($newWidth, $newHeight, $option); $optimalWidth = $optionArray['optimalWidth']; $optimalHeight = $optionArray['optimalHeight']; // *** Resample - create image canvas of x, y size $this->imageResized = imagecreatetruecolor($optimalWidth, $optimalHeight); imagecopyresampled($this->imageResized, $this->image, 0, 0, 0, 0, $optimalWidth, $optimalHeight, $this->width, $this->height); // *** if option is 'crop', then crop too if ($option == 'crop') { $this->crop($optimalWidth, $optimalHeight, $newWidth, $newHeight); } } The script I am using to store the file after resizing and compressing to a local directory: public function saveImage($savePath, $imageQuality="100") { // *** Get extension $extension = strrchr($savePath, '.'); $extension = strtolower($extension); switch($extension) { case '.jpg': case '.jpeg': if (imagetypes() & IMG_JPG) { imagejpeg($this->imageResized, $savePath, $imageQuality); } break; case '.gif': if (imagetypes() & IMG_GIF) { imagegif($this->imageResized, $savePath); } break; case '.png': // *** Scale quality from 0-100 to 0-9 $scaleQuality = round(($imageQuality/100) * 9); // *** Invert quality setting as 0 is best, not 9 $invertScaleQuality = 9 - $scaleQuality; if (imagetypes() & IMG_PNG) { imagepng($this->imageResized, $savePath, $invertScaleQuality); } break; // ... etc default: // *** No extension - No save. break; } imagedestroy($this->imageResized); } with this PHP code to invoke it: $resizeObj = new resize("$images_dir/$filename"); $resizeObj -> resizeImage($thumbnail_width, $thumbnail_height, 'crop'); $resizeObj -> saveImage($images_dir."/tb_".$filename, 90); How do I modify the code above so I can pass it through this function: $s3->putObjectFile($thefile, "s3bucket", $s3directory, S3::ACL_PUBLIC_READ)

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• Device drivers and Windows

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, I am trying to complete the picture of how the PC and the OS interacts together. And I am at point, where I am little out of guess when it comes to device drivers. Please, don´t write things like its too complicated, or you don´t need to know when using high programming laguage and winapi functions. I want to know, it´s for study purposes. So, the very basic structure of how OS and PC (by PC I mean of course HW) is how I see it is that all other than direct CPU commands, which can CPU do on itself (arithmetic operation, its registers access and memory access) must pass thru OS. Mainly becouse from ring level 3 you cannot use in and out intructions which are used for acesing other HW. I know that there is MMIO,but it must be set by port comunication first. It was not like this all the time. Even I am bit young to remember MSDOS, I know you could access HW directly, becouse there ws no limitation, no ring mode. So you could to write string to diplay use wheather DOS function, or directly acess video card memory and write it by yourself. But as OS developed, there is no longer this possibility. But it is fine, since OS now handles all the HW comunication, and frankly it more convinient and much more safe (I would say the only option) in multitasking environment. So nowdays you instead of using int instructions to use BIOS mapped function or DOS function you call dll which internally than handles everything you don´t need to know about. I understand this. I also undrstand that device drivers is the piece of code that runs in ring level 0, so it can do all the HW interactions. But what I don´t understand is connection between OS and device driver. Let´s take a example - I want to make a sound card make a sound. So I call windows API to acess sound card, but what happens than? Does windows call device drivers to do so? But if it does call device driver, does it mean, that all device drivers which can be called by winAPI function, must have routines named in some specific way? I mean, when I have new sound card, must its drivers have functions named same as the old one? So Windows can actually call the same function from its perspective? But if Windows have predefined sets of functions requored by device drivers, that it cannot use new drivers that doesent existed before last version of OS came out. Please, help me understand this mess. I am really getting mad. Thanks.

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• Performance - FunctionCall vs Event vs Action vs Delegate

  - by hwcverwe

  Currently I am using Microsoft Sync Framework to synchronize databases. I need to gather information per record which is inserted/updated/deleted by Microsoft Sync Framework and do something with this information. The sync speed can go over 50.000 records per minute. So that means my additional code need to be very lightweight otherwise it will be a huge performance penalty. Microsoft Sync Framework raises an SyncProgress event for each record. I am subscribed to that code like this: // Assembly1 SyncProvider.SyncProgress += OnSyncProgress; // .... private void OnSyncProgress(object sender, DbSyncProgressEventArgs e) { switch (args.Stage) { case DbSyncStage.ApplyingInserts: // MethodCall/Delegate/Action<>/EventHandler<> => HandleInsertedRecordInformation // Do something with inserted record info break; case DbSyncStage.ApplyingUpdates: // MethodCall/Delegate/Action<>/EventHandler<> => HandleUpdatedRecordInformation // Do something with updated record info break; case DbSyncStage.ApplyingDeletes: // MethodCall/Delegate/Action<>/EventHandler<> => HandleDeletedRecordInformation // Do something with deleted record info break; } } Somewhere else in another assembly I have three methods: // Assembly2 public class SyncInformation { public void HandleInsertedRecordInformation(...) {...} public void HandleUpdatedRecordInformation(...) {...} public void HandleInsertedRecordInformation(...) {...} } Assembly2 has a reference to Assembly1. So Assembly1 does not know anything about the existence of the SyncInformation class which need to handle the gathered information. So I have the following options to trigger this code: use events and subscribe on it in Assembly2 1.1. EventHandler< 1.2. Action< 1.3. Delegates using dependency injection: public class Assembly2.SyncInformation : Assembly1.ISyncInformation Other? I know the performance depends on: OnSyncProgress switch using a method call, delegate, Action< or EventHandler< Implementation of SyncInformation class I currently don't care about the implementation of the SyncInformation class. I am mainly focused on the OnSyncProgress method and how to call the SyncInformation methods. So my questions are: What is the most efficient approach? What is the most in-efficient approach? Is there a better way than using a switch in OnSyncProgress?

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• Accesing server control from withing app_code class

  - by OverSeven

  My question is about how to acces a server control (listbox) that is located in default.aspx. I wish to acces this control in Functions.cs (this class is located in the App_Code folder). My page structures: - 1 masterpage with 1 content holder - Default.aspx (all the controls are within the content place holder) - Functions.cs (located in App_Code) Now when i try to fill up the listbox elements i get the error "object reference not set to an instance of an object." What i have tried to gain acces to this control: (this code is located in Functions.cs in App_Code). This is basicly showing some items in the listbox that are located in the xml file private static string file = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/Questions.xml"); public static void ListItems() { XmlDocument XMLDoc = new XmlDocument(); XMLDoc.Load(file); XPathNavigator nav = XMLDoc.CreateNavigator(); XPathExpression expr; expr = nav.Compile("/root/file/naam"); XPathNodeIterator iterator = nav.Select(expr); //ATTEMPT to get acces to ServerControl(listbox) Page page = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ListBox test = (ListBox)page.FindControl("lbTest"); //control is called lbTest in Default.aspx test.Items.Clear(); while (iterator.MoveNext()) { test.Items.Add(iterator.Current.Value); } } Code from the default.apx file <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterFile.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="default.aspx.cs" Inherits="default" Debug="true" %> <%@ MasterType TypeName="Master" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="cphContent" Runat="Server" > <asp:MultiView ID="mvTest" runat="server" > <asp:View ID="vCollection" runat="server"> <asp:ListBox ID="lbTest" runat="server" CssClass="listbox" ></asp:ListBox> </asp:View> </asp:MultiView> </asp:Content> The masterfile itself just has 1 placeholder. Then i call upon the funcion ListItems in the Default.aspx.cs file protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Functions.ListItems(); } Regards.

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• When does logic belong in the Business Object/Entity, and when does it belong in a Service?

  - by Casey

  In trying to understand Domain Driven Design I keep returning to a question that I can't seem to definitively answer. How do you determine what logic belongs to a Domain entity, and what logic belongs to a Domain Service? Example: We have an Order class for an online store. This class is an entity and an aggregate root (it contains OrderItems). Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Public Order(List<IOrderItem>) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> } Public Decimal CalculateTotalItemWeight() //This logic seems to belong in the entity. { Decimal TotalWeight = 0 foreach(IOrderItem OrderItem in OrderItems) { TotalWeight += OrderItem.Weight } return TotalWeight } } I think most people would agree that CalculateTotalItemWeight belongs on the entity. However, at some point we have to ship this order to the customer. To accomplish this we need to do two things: 1) Determine the postage rate necessary to ship this order. 2) Print a shipping label after determining the postage rate. Both of these actions will require dependencies that are outside the Order entity, such as an external webservice to retrieve postage rates. How should we accomplish these two things? I see a few options: 1) Code the logic directly in the domain entity, like CalculateTotalItemWeight. We then call: Order.GetPostageRate Order.PrintLabel 2) Put the logic in a service that accepts IOrder. We then call: PostageService.GetPostageRate(Order) PrintService.PrintLabel(Order) 3) Create a class for each action that operates on an Order, and pass an instance of that class to the Order through Constructor Injection (this is a variation of option 1 but allows reuse of the RateRetriever and LabelPrinter classes): Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Private RateRetriever _Retriever Private LabelPrinter _Printer Public Order(List<IOrderItem>, RateRetriever Retriever, LabelPrinter Printer) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> _Retriever = Retriever _Printer = Printer } Public Decimal GetPostageRate { _Retriever.GetPostageRate(this) } Public void PrintLabel { _Printer.PrintLabel(this) } } Which one of these methods do you choose for this logic, if any? What is the reasoning behind your choice? Most importantly, is there a set of guidelines that led you to your choice?

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• Adding a web address to a <a href="value">

  - by Michael Robinson

  I have an upload script that write a index.html file, I modified it to mail me the results, however the point to the root, since the email isn't in the root, the image doesn't load. How do I append the code to add "http://www.home.html/uploaded" prior to the ". $value ." so that the images show up in the email. Here is portion of PHP that assigns the images to a $result: // Process value of Imagedata field, this is JPEG-files array foreach ($_FILES[Imagedata][name] as $key => $value) { $uploadfile = $destination_dir . basename($_FILES[Imagedata][name][$key]); if (move_uploaded_file($_FILES['Imagedata']['tmp_name'][$key], $uploadfile)) { $result .= "File uploaded: <a href='". $value . "'>" . $value . "</a><br>"; } } // $result .= "<br>"; Here is what I'm now receiving in the email, : <!doctype html public "-//w3c//dtd html 4.0 transitional//en"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <title>Upload results</title> </head> <body> AdditionalStringVariable: pass additional data here<br><a> href='gallery_grannylovesthis_l.jpg'><img border = '0' src='QIU_thumb_gallery_grannylovesthis_l.jpg'/></a><br><br><br>File uploaded: <a href='gallery_grannylovesthis_l.jpg'>gallery_grannylovesthis_l.jpg</a><br><br> GlobalControlData: PHOTO_VISIBILITY : 2<br> GlobalControlData: PHOTO_DESCR : Requiredtest<br> GlobalControlData: PHOTO_TITLE : Requiredtest<br><br>gallery_grannylovesthis_l.png<br> control: , value: <br> </body> </html> Thanks in advance for any guidance...I have a feeling it's something simple.

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• C#, cannot understand this error?

  - by 5YrsLaterDBA

  I am using VS2008. I have a project, SystemSoftware project, connect with a database and we are using L2E. I have a RuntimeInfo class which contains some shared information there. It looks like this: public class RuntimeInfo { public const int PWD_ExpireDays = 30; private static RuntimeInfo thisObj = new RuntimeInfo(); public static string AndeDBConnStr = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AndeDBEntities"].ConnectionString; private RuntimeInfo() { } /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <returns>Return this singleton object</returns> public static RuntimeInfo getRuntimeInfo() { return thisObj; } } Now I added a helper project, AndeDataViewer, to the solution which creates a simple UI to display data from the database for testing/verification purpose. I don't want to create another set of Entity Data Model in the helper project. I just added all related files as a link in the new helper project. In the AndeDataViewer project, I get the connection string from above RuntimeInfo class which is a class from my SystemSoftware project as a linked file. The code in AndeDataViewer is like this: public class DbAccess : IDisposable { private String connStr = String.Empty; public DbAccess() { connStr = RuntimeInfo.AndeDBConnStr; } } My SystemSoftware works fine that means the RuntimeInfo class has no problem there. But when I run my AndeDataViewer, the statement inside above constructor, connStr = RuntimeInfo.AndeDBConnStr; , throws an exception. The exception is copied here: System.TypeInitializationException was unhandled Message="The type initializer for 'MyCompany.SystemSoftware.SystemInfo.RuntimeInfo' threw an exception." Source="AndeDataViewer" TypeName="MyCompany.SystemSoftware.SystemInfo.RuntimeInfo" StackTrace: at AndeDataViewer.DbAccess..ctor() in C:\workspace\SystemSoftware\Other\AndeDataViewer\AndeDataViewer\DbAccess.cs:line 17 at AndeDataViewer.Window1.rbRawData_Checked(Object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) in C:\workspace\SystemSoftware\Other\AndeDataViewer\AndeDataViewer\Window1.xaml.cs:line 69 at System.Windows.RoutedEventHandlerInfo.InvokeHandler(Object target, RoutedEventArgs routedEventArgs) .... InnerException: System.NullReferenceException Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="AndeDataViewer" StackTrace: at MyCompany.SystemSoftware.SystemInfo.RuntimeInfo..cctor() in C:\workspace\SystemSoftware\SystemSoftware\src\systeminfo\RuntimeInfo.cs:line 24 InnerException: I cannot understand this because it looks fine to me but why there is an exception? we cannot access static variable when a class is a linked class? A linked class should be the same as the local class I think. "Linked" here means when I add file I use "Add As Link".

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