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  • problem to create session of facebook

    - by khoyendra
    try { HttpClient http = new HttpClient(); http.setParams(new HttpClientParams()); //http.getHostConfiguration().setHost("http://www.facebook.com/"); http.setState(new HttpState()); String api_key = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; String secret = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; // String appId=124812364218050; //http://www.facebook.com/developers/editapp.php?app_id=124812364218050 FacebookRestClient client = new FacebookRestClient(api_key, secret); client.setIsDesktop(true); // String sessionKey = request.getParameter(FacebookParam.SESSION_KEY.toString()); // boolean b = client.users_setStatus("This is a test..."); // System.out.println("User Status RESULT : " + b); String token = client.auth_createToken(); final String loginId = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php"; GetMethod get = new GetMethod(loginId + "?api_key=" + api_key + "&v=1.0&auth_token=" +token); System.out.println("Get="+get); http.executeMethod(get); PostMethod post = new PostMethod(loginId); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("api_key", api_key)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("v", "1.0")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("auth_token", token)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("fbconnect","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("return_session","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("session_key_only","true")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("req_perms","read_stream,publish_stream")); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("email", email)); post.addParameter(new NameValuePair("pass", password)); System.out.println("Token ="+token); int postStatus = http.executeMethod(post); System.out.println("Response : " + postStatus); session = client.auth_getSession(token); // Here I am getting error System.out.println("Session string: " + session); long userid = client.users_getLoggedInUser(); System.out.println("User Id is : " + userid); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } please solve my problem i cannot create session of facebook.

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  • How to populate GridView if Internet not available but images already cached to SD Card

    - by Sophie
    Hello I am writing an Application in which i am parsing JSON Images and then caching into SD Card. What I want to do ? I want to load images into GridView from JSON (by caching images into SD Card), and wanna populate GridView (no matter Internet available or not) once images already downloaded into SD Card. What I am getting ? I am able to cache images into SD Card, also to populate GridView, but not able to show images into GridView (if Internet not available) but images cached into SD Card @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { myGridView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.fragment_church_grid, container, false); if (isNetworkAvailable()) { new DownloadJSON().execute(); } else { Toast.makeText(getActivity(), "Internet not available !", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } return myGridView ; } private boolean isNetworkAvailable() { ConnectivityManager cm = (ConnectivityManager) getActivity().getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); NetworkInfo info = cm.getActiveNetworkInfo(); return (info != null); } // DownloadJSON AsyncTask private class DownloadJSON extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { @Override protected void onPreExecute() { super.onPreExecute(); // Create a progressdialog mProgressDialog = new ProgressDialog(getActivity()); // Set progressdialog title mProgressDialog.setTitle("Church Application"); // Set progressdialog message mProgressDialog.setMessage("Loading Images..."); mProgressDialog.setIndeterminate(false); // Show progressdialog mProgressDialog.show(); } @Override protected Void doInBackground(Void... params) { // Create an array arraylist = new ArrayList<HashMap<String, String>>(); // Retrieve JSON Objects from the given URL address jsonobject = JSONfunctions .getJSONfromURL("http://snapoodle.com/APIS/android/feed.php"); try { // Locate the array name in JSON jsonarray = jsonobject.getJSONArray("print"); for (int i = 0; i < jsonarray.length(); i++) { HashMap<String, String> map = new HashMap<String, String>(); jsonobject = jsonarray.getJSONObject(i); // Retrive JSON Objects map.put("saved_location", jsonobject.getString("saved_location")); // Set the JSON Objects into the array arraylist.add(map); } } catch (JSONException e) { Log.e("Error", e.getMessage()); e.printStackTrace(); } return null; } @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void args) { // Locate the listview in listview_main.xml listview = (GridView) shriRamView.findViewById(R.id.listview); // Pass the results into ListViewAdapter.java adapter = new ChurchImagesAdapter(getActivity(), arraylist); // Set the adapter to the ListView listview.setAdapter(adapter); // Close the progressdialog mProgressDialog.dismiss(); } } }

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  • How to change the JSON output format and how to support chinese character?

    - by sky
    Currently I using the following code to get my JSON output from MySQL. <?php $session = mysql_connect('localhost','name','pass'); mysql_select_db('dbname', $session); $result= mysql_query('SELECT message FROM posts', $session); $somethings = array(); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $somethings[] = $row; } ?> <script type="text/javascript"> var somethings= <?php echo json_encode($somethings); ?>; </script> And the output is: <script type="text/javascript"> var somethings= [{"message":"Welcome to Yo~ :)"},{"message":"Try iPhone post!"},{"message":"????"}]; </script> Here is the question, how can I change my output into format like : <script type="text/javascript"> userAge = new Array('21','36','20'), userMid = new Array('liuple','anhu','jacksen'); </script> Which I'll be using later with following code : var html = ' <table class="map-overlay"> <tr> <td class="user">' + '<a class="username" href="/' + **userMid[index]** + '" target="_blank"><img alt="" src="' + getAvatar(signImgList[index], '72x72') + '"></a><br> <a class="username" href="/' + **userMid[index]** + '" target="_blank">' + userNameList[index] + '</a><br> <span class="info">' + **userSex[index]** + ' ' + **userAge[index]** + '?<br> ' + cityList[index] + '</span>' + '</td> <td class="content">' + picString + somethings[index] + '<br> <span class="time">' + timeList[index] + picTips + '</span></td> </tr> </table> '; Thanks for helping and reading!

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  • writing XML with Xerces 3.0.1 and C++ on windows

    - by Jon
    Hi, i have the following function i wrote to create an XML file using Xerces 3.0.1, if i call this function with a filePath of "foo.xml" or "../foo.xml" it works great, but if i pass in "c:/foo.xml" then i get an exception on this line XMLFormatTarget *formatTarget = new LocalFileFormatTarget(targetPath); can someone explain why my code works for relative paths, but not absolute paths please? many thanks. const int ABSOLUTE_PATH_FILENAME_PREFIX_SIZE = 9; void OutputXML(xercesc::DOMDocument* pmyDOMDocument, std::string filePath) { //Return the first registered implementation that has the desired features. In this case, we are after a DOM implementation that has the LS feature... or Load/Save. DOMImplementation *implementation = DOMImplementationRegistry::getDOMImplementation(L"LS"); // Create a DOMLSSerializer which is used to serialize a DOM tree into an XML document. DOMLSSerializer *serializer = ((DOMImplementationLS*)implementation)->createLSSerializer(); // Make the output more human readable by inserting line feeds. if (serializer->getDomConfig()->canSetParameter(XMLUni::fgDOMWRTFormatPrettyPrint, true)) serializer->getDomConfig()->setParameter(XMLUni::fgDOMWRTFormatPrettyPrint, true); // The end-of-line sequence of characters to be used in the XML being written out. serializer->setNewLine(XMLString::transcode("\r\n")); // Convert the path into Xerces compatible XMLCh*. XMLCh *tempFilePath = XMLString::transcode(filePath.c_str()); // Calculate the length of the string. const int pathLen = XMLString::stringLen(tempFilePath); // Allocate memory for a Xerces string sufficent to hold the path. XMLCh *targetPath = (XMLCh*)XMLPlatformUtils::fgMemoryManager->allocate((pathLen + ABSOLUTE_PATH_FILENAME_PREFIX_SIZE) * sizeof(XMLCh)); // Fixes a platform dependent absolute path filename to standard URI form. XMLString::fixURI(tempFilePath, targetPath); // Specify the target for the XML output. XMLFormatTarget *formatTarget = new LocalFileFormatTarget(targetPath); //XMLFormatTarget *myFormTarget = new StdOutFormatTarget(); // Create a new empty output destination object. DOMLSOutput *output = ((DOMImplementationLS*)implementation)->createLSOutput(); // Set the stream to our target. output->setByteStream(formatTarget); // Write the serialized output to the destination. serializer->write(pmyDOMDocument, output); // Cleanup. serializer->release(); XMLString::release(&tempFilePath); delete formatTarget; output->release(); }

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  • How do I create a thread-safe write-once read-many value in Java?

    - by Software Monkey
    This is a problem I encounter frequently in working with more complex systems and which I have never figured out a good way to solve. It usually involves variations on the theme of a shared object whose construction and initialization are necessarily two distinct steps. This is generally because of architectural requirements, similar to applets, so answers that suggest I consolidate construction and initialization are not useful. By way of example, let's say I have a class that is structured to fit into an application framework like so: public class MyClass { private /*ideally-final*/ SomeObject someObject; MyClass() { someObject=null; } public void startup() { someObject=new SomeObject(...arguments from environment which are not available until startup is called...); } public void shutdown() { someObject=null; // this is not necessary, I am just expressing the intended scope of someObject explicitly } } I can't make someObject final since it can't be set until startup() is invoked. But I would really like it to reflect it's write-once semantics and be able to directly access it from multiple threads, preferably avoiding synchronization. The idea being to express and enforce a degree of finalness, I conjecture that I could create a generic container, like so: public class WoRmObject<T> { private T object; WoRmObject() { object=null; } public WoRmObject set(T val) { object=val; return this; } public T get() { return object; } } and then in MyClass, above, do: private final WoRmObject<SomeObject> someObject; MyClass() { someObject=new WoRmObject<SomeObject>(); } public void startup() { someObject.set(SomeObject(...arguments from environment which are not available until startup is called...)); } Which raises some questions for me: Is there a better way, or existing Java object (would have to be available in Java 4)? Is this thread-safe provided that no other thread accesses someObject.get() until after it's set() has been called. The other threads will only invoke methods on MyClass between startup() and shutdown() - the framework guarantees this. Given the completely unsynchronized WoRmObject container, it is ever possible under either JMM to see a value of object which is neither null nor a reference to a SomeObject? In other words, does has the JMM always guaranteed that no thread can observe the memory of an object to be whatever values happened to be on the heap when the object was allocated.

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  • SQL Native Client 10 Performance miserable (due to server-side cursors)

    - by namezero
    we have an application that uses ODBC via CDatabase/CRecordset in MFC (VS2010). We have two backends implemented. MSSQL and MySQL. Now, when we use MSSQL (with the Native Client 10.0), retrieving records with SELECT is dramatically slow via slow links (VPN, for example). The MySQL ODBC driver does not exhibit this nasty behavior. For example: CRecordset r(&m_db); r.Open(CRecordset::snapshot, L"SELECT a.something, b.sthelse FROM TableA AS a LEFT JOIN TableB AS b ON a.ID=b.Ref"); r.MoveFirst(); while(!r.IsEOF()) { // Retrieve CString strData; crs.GetFieldValue(L"a.something", strData); crs.MoveNext(); } Now, with the MySQL driver, everything runs as it should. The query is returned, and everything is lightning fast. However, with the MSSQL Native Client, things slow down, because on every MoveNext(), the driver communicates with the server. I think it is due to server-side cursors, but I didn't find a way to disable them. I have tried using: ::SQLSetConnectAttr(m_db.m_hdbc, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_CURSORS, SQL_CUR_USE_ODBC, SQL_IS_INTEGER); But this didn't help either. There are still long-running exec's to sp_cursorfetch() et al in SQL Profiler. I have also tried a small reference project with SQLAPI and bulk fetch, but that hangs in FetchNext() for a long time, too (even if there is only one record in the resultset). This however only happens on queries with LEFT JOINS, table-valued functions, etc. Note that the query doesn't take that long - executing the same SQL via SQL Studio over the same connection returns in a reasonable time. Question1: Is is possible to somehow get the native client to "cache" all results locally use local cursors in a similar fashion as the MySQL driver seems to do it? Maybe this is the wrong approach altogether, but I'm not sure how else to do this. All we want is to retrieve all data at once from a SELECT, then never talk the server again until the next query. We don't care about recordset updates, deletes, etc or any of that nonsense. We only want to retrieve data. We take that recordset, get all the data, and delete it. Question2: Is there a more efficient way to just retrieve data in MFC with ODBC?

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  • initializing a vector of custom class in c++

    - by Flamewires
    Hey basically Im trying to store a "solution" and create a vector of these. The problem I'm having is with initialization. Heres my class for reference class Solution { private: // boost::thread m_Thread; int itt_found; int dim; pfn_fitness f; double value; std::vector<double> x; public: Solution(size_t size, int funcNo) : itt_found(0), x(size, 0.0), value(0.0), dim(30), f(Eval_Functions[funcNo]) { for (int i = 1; i < (int) size; i++) { x[i] = ((double)rand()/((double)RAND_MAX))*maxs[funcNo]; } } Solution() : itt_found(0), x(31, 0.0), value(0.0), dim(30), f(Eval_Functions[1]) { for (int i = 1; i < 31; i++) { x[i] = ((double)rand()/((double)RAND_MAX))*maxs[1]; } } Solution operator= (Solution S) { x = S.GetX(); itt_found = S.GetIttFound(); dim = S.GetDim(); f = S.GetFunc(); value = S.GetValue(); return *this; } void start() { value = f (dim, x); } /* plus additional getter/setter methods*/ } Solution S(30, 1) or Solution(2, 5) work and initalizes everything, but I need X of these solution objects. std::vector<Solution> Parents(X) will create X solutions with the default constructor and i want to construct using the (int, int) constructor. Is there any easy(one liner?) way to do this? Or would i have to do something like: size_t numparents = 10; vector<Solution> Parents; Parents.reserve(numparents); for (int i = 0; i<(int)numparents; i++) { Solution S(31, 0); Parents.push_back(S); }

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  • PHP - error when insert date into MySQL

    - by Michael Mao
    Hello everyone: I've got a typical problem when trying to insert a date into MySQL. The column defined in MySQL is of type DATE. My PHP version is 5.3.0 Apart from this date-related issue, the rest of my code works just fine. And this is my PHP script to do this: $tablename = BOOKS_TABLE; $insert = mysql_query("INSERT INTO $tablename (barcode, book_name, volume_num,". " author, publisher, item_type, buy_price, buy_date) VALUES ". "(". "'" . $barcode . "', ". "'" . $bookname . "', ". "'" . $volumenum . "', ". "'" . $author . "', ". "'" . $publisher . "', ". "'" . $itemtype . "', ". "'" . $buyprice . "', ". "'" . getMySQLDateString($buydate). //"'STR_TO_DATE('".$buydate ."', '%d/%m/%Y'))'". //nothing changes in MySQL ")"); And this is the faulty function : function getMySQLDateString($buydate) //typical buydate : 04/21/2009 { $mysqlDateString = date('Y-m-d H:i:s', $strtotime($buydate)); return $mysqlDateString; } The first commented out line wouldn't do anything, the script is executed with no error, however, there is nothing changed in datebase after this. The current approach will cause a Fatal error saying function name must be a string in this line. Actually I followed this thread on SO, but just cannot pass the date into MySQL... Can anyone help me figure out which part is not right? How would you do it, in this case, to get it right? Sorry about such a journeyman-like question, thanks a lot in advance.

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  • Emacs, C++ code completion for vectors

    - by Caglar Toklu
    Hi, I am new to Emacs, and I have the following code as a sample. I have installed GNU Emacs 23.1.1 (i386-mingw-nt6.1.7600), installed cedet-1.0pre7.tar.gz. , installed ELPA, and company. You can find my simple Emacs configuration at the bottom. The problem is, when I type q[0] in main() and press . (dot), I see the 37 members of the vector, not Person although first_name and last_name are expected. The completion works as expected in the function greet() but it has nothing to do with vector. My question is, how can I accomplish code completion for vector elements too? #include <iostream> #include <vector> using namespace std; class Person { public: string first_name; string last_name; }; void greet(Person a_person) { // a_person.first_name is completed as expected! cout << a_person.first_name << "|"; cout << a_person.last_name << endl; }; int main() { vector<Person> q(2); Person guy1; guy1.first_name = "foo"; guy1.last_name = "bar"; Person guy2; guy2.first_name = "stack"; guy2.last_name = "overflow"; q[0] = guy1; q[1] = guy2; greet(guy1); greet(guy2); // cout q[0]. I want to see first_name or last_name here! } My Emacs configuration: ;;; This was installed by package-install.el. ;;; This provides support for the package system and ;;; interfacing with ELPA, the package archive. ;;; Move this code earlier if you want to reference ;;; packages in your .emacs. (when (load (expand-file-name "~/.emacs.d/elpa/package.el")) (package-initialize)) (load-file "~/.emacs.d/cedet/common/cedet.el") (semantic-load-enable-excessive-code-helpers) (require 'semantic-ia) (global-srecode-minor-mode 1) (semantic-add-system-include "/gcc/include/c++/4.4.2" 'c++-mode) (semantic-add-system-include "/gcc/i386-pc-mingw32/include" 'c++-mode) (semantic-add-system-include "/gcc/include" 'c++-mode) (defun my-semantic-hook () (imenu-add-to-menubar "TAGS")) (add-hook 'semantic-init-hooks 'my-semantic-hook)

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  • Cannot work for 2nd iteration because of writing delay.

    - by karikari
    My code's IF-THEN does not work for 2nd iteration. This is due to, the jar processing take some time to write it result inside the output.txt. Since the writing is a bit late, my code's 2nd iteration will always read the previous written value inside the output.txt in order to pass it to the IF-THEN. For example, in 1st iteration: output.txt -- 0.9888 twrite.txt -- msg: ok 2nd iteration: output.txt -- 0.5555 twrite.txt -- msg: ok //the IF-THEN still gives this result which is based on previous iteration. it should be msg: not ok . since it is < 0.7 I need help, how to solve this 'delay' problem? HRESULT CButtonDemoBHO::onDocumentComplete(IDispatch *pDisp, VARIANT *vUrl){ ATLTRACE("CButtonDemoBHO::onDocumentComplete %S\n", vUrl->bstrVal); WinHttpClient client(vUrl->bstrVal); client.SendHttpRequest(); wstring httpResponseHeader = client.GetHttpResponseHeader(); wstring httpResponse = client.GetHttpResponse(); writeToLog(httpResponse.c_str()); if (isMainFrame(pDisp)){ m_normalPageLoad=false; FILE *child = _popen("javaw -jar c:\\simmetrics.jar c:\\chtml.txt c:\\thtml.txt > c:\\output.txt", "r"); fclose(child); char readnumber[10]; float f = 0; FILE *file11 = fopen("c:\\output.txt","r"); char* p = fgets(readnumber,10,file11); std::istringstream iss(p); iss >> f; if (f > 0.7) { wfstream file12 ("c:\\twrite.txt", ios_base::out); file12 << "Msg: ok"; file12.close(); } else { wfstream file12 ("c:\\twrite.txt", ios_base::out); file12 << "Msg: not ok"; file12.close(); } iss.clear(); fclose(file11); return S_OK; } return S_OK; }

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  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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  • CTE Join query issues

    - by Lee_McIntosh
    Hi everyone, this problem has me head going round in circles at the moment and i wondering if anyone could give any pointers as to where im going wrong. Im trying to produce a SPROC that produces a dataset to be called by SSRS for graphs spanning the last 6 months. The data for example purposes uses three tables (theres more but the it wont change the issue at hand) and are as follows: tbl_ReportList: Report Site ---------------- North abc North def East bbb East ccc East ddd South poa South pob South poc South pod West xyz tbl_TicketsRaisedThisMonth: Date Site Type NoOfTickets --------------------------------------------------------- 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 abc Support 101 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 abc Complaint 21 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 def Support 6 ... 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 abc Support 93 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 xyz Support 5 tbl_FeedBackRequests: Date Site NoOfFeedBackR ---------------------------------------------------------------- 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 abc 101 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 def 11 ... 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 abc 63 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 xyz 4 I'm using CTE's to simplify the code, which is as follows: DECLARE @ReportName VarChar(200) SET @ReportName = 'North'; WITH TicketsRaisedThisMonth AS ( SELECT [Date], Site, SUM(NoOfTickets) AS NoOfTickets FROM tbl_TicketsRaisedThisMonth WHERE [Date] >= DATEADD(mm, DATEDIFF(m,0,GETDATE())-6,0) GROUP BY [Date], Site ), FeedBackRequests AS ( SELECT [Date], Site, SUM(NoOfFeedBackR) AS NoOfFeedBackR FROM tbl_FeedBackRequests WHERE [Date] >= DATEADD(mm, DATEDIFF(m,0,GETDATE())-6,0) GROUP BY [Date], Site ), SELECT trtm.[Date] SUM(trtm.NoOfTickets) AS NoOfTickets, SUM(fbr.NoOfFeedBackR) AS NoOfFeedBackR, FROM Reports rpts LEFT OUTER JOIN TotalIncidentsDuringMonth trtm ON rpts.Site = trtm.Site LEFT OUTER JOIN LoggedComplaints fbr ON rpts.Site = fbr.Site WHERE rpts.report = @ReportName GROUP BY trtm.[Date] And the output when the sproc is pass a parameter such as 'North' to be as follows: Date NoOfTickets NoOfFeedBackR ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2010-07-01 00:00:00.000 128 112 2010-08-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-09-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-10-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-11-01 00:00:00.000 <data for that month> <data for that month> 2010-12-01 00:00:00.000 122 63 The issue I'm having is that when i execute the query I'm given a repeated list of values of each month, such as 128 will repeat 6 times then another value for the next months value repeated 6 times, etc. argh!

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  • Need Google Map InfoWindow Hyperlink to Open Content in Overlay (Fusion Table Usage)

    - by McKev
    I have the following code established to render the map in my site. When the map is clicked, the info window pops up with a bunch of content including a hyperlink to open up a website with a form in it. I would like to utilize a function like fancybox to open up this link "form" in an overlay. I have read that fancybox doesn't support calling the function from within an iframe, and was wondering if there was a way to pass the link data to the DOM and trigger the fancybox (or another overlay option) in another way? Maybe a callback trick - any tips would be much appreciated! <style> #map-canvas { width:850px; height:600px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script src="http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/src/fusiontips.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var tableid = "1nDFsxuYxr54viD_fuH7fGm1QRZRdcxFKbSwwRjk"; var layer; var initialLocation; var browserSupportFlag = new Boolean(); var uscenter = new google.maps.LatLng(37.6970, -91.8096); function initialize() { map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map-canvas'), { zoom: 4, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }); layer = new google.maps.FusionTablesLayer({ query: { select: "'Geometry'", from: tableid }, map: map }); //http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/docs/reference.html layer.enableMapTips({ select: "'Contact Name','Contact Title','Contact Location','Contact Phone'", from: tableid, geometryColumn: 'Geometry', suppressMapTips: false, delay: 500, tolerance: 8 }); ; // Try W3C Geolocation (Preferred) if(navigator.geolocation) { browserSupportFlag = true; navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); map.setCenter(initialLocation); //Custom Marker var pinColor = "A83C0A"; var pinImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_letter&chld=%E2%80%A2|" + pinColor, new google.maps.Size(21, 34), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(10, 34)); var pinShadow = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_shadow", new google.maps.Size(40, 37), new google.maps.Point(0, 0), new google.maps.Point(12, 35)); new google.maps.Marker({ position: initialLocation, map: map, icon: pinImage, shadow: pinShadow }); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); } // Browser doesn't support Geolocation else { browserSupportFlag = false; handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); } function handleNoGeolocation(errorFlag) { if (errorFlag == true) { //Geolocation service failed initialLocation = uscenter; } else { //Browser doesn't support geolocation initialLocation = uscenter; } map.setCenter(initialLocation); } } google.maps.event.addDomListener(window, 'load', initialize); </script>

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  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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  • using dictionaries with WebServices

    - by umit-alba
    Hi! I tried to pass a dictionary via WebServices. However it is not serializeable. So i wrote an Own Class that makes it serializeable: using System; using System.Net; using System.Windows; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Schema; namespace Platform { public class SaDictionary<TKey, TValue> : Dictionary<TKey, TValue>, IXmlSerializable { #region Constructors public SaDictionary() : base() { } public SaDictionary(IDictionary<TKey, TValue> dictionary) : base(dictionary) { } public SaDictionary(IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(comparer) { } public SaDictionary(int capacity) : base(capacity) { } public SaDictionary(IDictionary<TKey, TValue> dictionary, IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(dictionary, comparer) { } public SaDictionary(int capacity, IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(capacity, comparer) { } //protected SaDictionary(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) // : base(info, context) //{ //} #endregion public XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); bool wasEmpty = reader.IsEmptyElement; reader.Read(); if (wasEmpty) return; while (reader.NodeType != XmlNodeType.EndElement) { reader.ReadStartElement("item"); reader.ReadStartElement("key"); TKey key = (TKey)keySerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); //key reader.ReadStartElement("value"); TValue value = (TValue)valueSerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); //value this.Add(key, value); reader.ReadEndElement(); //item // reader.MoveToContent(); } reader.ReadEndElement(); } public void WriteXml(XmlWriter writer) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); foreach (TKey key in this.Keys) { writer.WriteStartElement("item"); writer.WriteStartElement("key"); keySerializer.Serialize(writer, key); writer.WriteEndElement(); //key writer.WriteStartElement("value"); TValue value = this[key]; valueSerializer.Serialize(writer, value); writer.WriteEndElement(); //value writer.WriteEndElement(); //item } } } } However i get an ArrayOfXElement back. Is there a way to cast it back to a Dictionary? greets

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  • Nested attributes form for model which belongs_to few models

    - by ExiRe
    I have few models - User, Teacher and TeacherLeader. class User < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible ..., :teacher_attributes has_one :teacher has_one :teacher_leader accepts_nested_attributes_for :teacher_leader end class Teacher < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_one :teacher_leader end class TeacherLeader < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :teacher end I would like to fill TeacherLeader via nested attributes. So, i do such things in controller: class TeacherLeadersController < ApplicationController ... def new @user = User.new @teacher_leader = @user.build_teacher_leader @teachers_collection = Teacher.all.collect do |t| [ "#{t.teacher_last_name} #{t.teacher_first_name} #{t.teacher_middle_name}", t.id ] end @choosen_teacher = @teachers_collection.first.last unless @teachers_collection.empty? end end And also have such view (new.html.erb): <%= form_for @user, :url => teacher_leaders_url, :html => {:class => "form-horizontal"} do |f| %> <%= field_set_tag do %> <% f.fields_for :teacher_leader do |tl| %> <div class="control-group"> <%= tl.label :teacher_id, "Teacher names", :class => "control-label" %> <div class="controls"> <%= select_tag( :teacher_id, options_for_select( @teachers_collection, @choosen_teacher )) %> </div> </div> <% end %> <div class="control-group"> <%= f.label :user_login, "Login", :class => "control-label" %> <div class="controls"> <%= f.text_field :user_login, :placeholder => @everpresent_field_placeholder %> </div> </div> <div class="control-group"> <%= f.label :password, "Pass", :class => "control-label" %> <div class="controls"> <%= f.text_field :password, :placeholder => @everpresent_field_placeholder %> </div> </div> <% end %> <%= f.submit "Create", :class => "btn btn-large btn-success" %> <% end %> Problem is that select form here does NOT appear. Why? Do i do something wrong?

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • Why I can't draw in a loop? (Using UIView in iPhone)

    - by Tattat
    I can draw many things using this : NSString *imagePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"dummy2.png" ofType:nil]; UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:imagePath]; image = CGImageRetain(img.CGImage); CGRect imageRect; double x = 0; double y = 0; for (int k=0; k<someValue; k++) { x += k; y += k; imageRect.origin = CGPointMake(x, y); imageRect.size = CGSizeMake(25, 25); CGContextDrawImage(UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(), imageRect, image); } } CGImageRelease(img.CGImage); So, it works, so, I put it into a command object's execute method. Then, I want to do similar thing, but this time, my execute method only do this: NSString *imagePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"dummy2.png" ofType:nil]; UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:imagePath]; image = CGImageRetain(img.CGImage); CGRect imageRect; double x = inComingX; double y = inComingY; imageRect.origin = CGPointMake(x, y); imageRect.size = CGSizeMake(25, 25); CGContextDrawImage(UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(), imageRect, image); CGImageRelease(img.CGImage); This time, this is also a Command, and it is the execute method. But I take the for loop away. I will have another method that pass the inComingX , and inComingY into my Command object. My Drawing method is simply execute the Cmd that passed in my drawingEngine: -(void)drawInContext:(CGContextRef)context { [self.cmdToBeExecuted execute]; } I also have the assign method to assign the command,: -(void)assignCmd:(Command* )cmd{ self.cmdToBeExecuted = cmd; } And this is the way I called the drawingEngine for(int k=0; k<5; k++){ [self.drawingEngine assignCmd:[DrawingCmd setDrawingInformation:(10*k):0:@"dummy.png"]]; [self.drawingEngine setNeedsDisplay]; } It can draw, but the sad thing is it only draw the last one. Why? and how to fix it? I can draw all the things in my First code, but after I take the loop outside, and use the loop in last code, it just only draw the last one. Plz help

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  • Spring's JdbcDaoSupport (using MySQL Connector/J) fails after executing sql that adds FK

    - by John
    I am using Spring's JdbcDaoSupport class with a DriverManagerDataSource using the MySQL Connector/J 5.0 driver (driverClassName=com.mysql.jdbc.driver). allowMultiQueries is set to true in the url. My application is an in-house tool we recently developed that executes sql scripts in a directory one-by-one (allows us to re-create our schema and reference table data for a given date, etc, but I digress). The sql scripts sometime contain multiple statements (hence allowMultiQueries), so one script can create a table, add indexes for that table, etc. The problem happens when including a statement to add a foreign key constraint in one of these files. If I have a file that looks like... --(column/constraint names are examples) CREATE TABLE myTable ( fk1 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, fk2 BIGINT(19) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (fk1, fk2) ); ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk1 FOREIGN KEY (fk1) REFERENCES myOtherTable (id) ; ALTER TABLE myTable ADD CONSTRAINT myTable_fk2 FOREIGN KEY (fk2) REFERENCES myOtherOtherTable (id) ; then JdbcTemplate.execute throws an UncategorizedSqlException with the following error message and stack trace: Exception in thread "main" org.springframework.jdbc.UncategorizedSQLException: StatementCallback; uncategorized SQLException for SQL [ THE SQL YOU SEE ABOVE LISTED HERE ]; SQL state [HY000]; error code [1005]; Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150); nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: Can't create table 'myDatabase.myTable' (errno: 150) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:83) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) at org.springframework.jdbc.support.AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.translate(AbstractFallbackSQLExceptionTranslator.java:80) and the table and foreign keys are not inserted. Also, especially weird: if I take the foreign key statements out of the script I showed above and then place them in their own script that executes after (so I now have 1 script with just the create table statement, and 1 script with the add foreign key statements that executes after that) then what happens is: tool executes create table script, works fine, table is created tool executes add fk script, throws the same exception as seen above (except errno=121 this time), but the FKs actually get added (!!!) In other words, when the create table/FK statements are in the same script then the exception is thrown and nothing is created, but when they are different scripts a nearly identical exception is thrown but both things get created. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if you'd like me to clarify anything more.

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  • manipulate content inserted by ajax, without using the callback

    - by Cody
    I am using ajax to insert a series of informational blocks via a loop. The blocks each have a title, and long description in them that is hidden by default. They function like an accordion, only showing one description at a time amongst all of the blocks. The problem is opening the description on the first block. I would REALLY like to do it with javascript right after the loop that is creating them is done. Is it possible to manipulate elements created ofter an ajax call without using the callback? <!-- example code--> <style> .placeholder, .long_description{ display:none;} </style> </head><body> <script> /* yes, this script is in the body, dont know if it matters */ $(document).ready(function() { $(".placeholder").each(function(){ // Use the divs to get the blocks var blockname = $(this).html(); // the contents if the div is the ID for the ajax POST $.post("/service_app/dyn_block",'form='+blockname, function(data){ var divname = '#div_' + blockname; $(divname).after(data); $(this).setupAccrdFnctly(); //not the actual code }); }); /* THIS LINE IS THE PROBLEM LINE, is it possible to reference the code ajax inserted */ /* Display the long description in the first dyn_block */ $(".dyn_block").first().find(".long_description").addClass('active').slideDown('fast'); }); </script> <!-- These lines are generated by PHP --> <!-- It is POSSIBLE to display the dyn_blocks --> <!-- here but I would really rather not --> <div id="div_servicetype" class="placeholder">servicetype</div> <div id="div_custtype" class="placeholder">custtype</div> <div id="div_custinfo" class="placeholder">custinfo</div> <div id="div_businfo" class="placeholder">businfo</div> </body>

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • How to compute a unicode string which bidirectional representation is specified?

    - by valdo
    Hello, fellows. I have a rather pervert question. Please forgive me :) There's an official algorithm that describes how bidirectional unicode text should be presented. http://www.unicode.org/reports/tr9/tr9-15.html I receive a string (from some 3rd-party source), which contains latin/hebrew characters, as well as digits, white-spaces, punctuation symbols and etc. The problem is that the string that I receive is already in the representation form. I.e. - the sequence of characters that I receive should just be presented from left to right. Now, my goal is to find the unicode string which representation is exactly the same. Means - I need to pass that string to another entity; it would then render this string according to the official algorithm, and the result should be the same. Assuming the following: The default text direction (of the rendering entity) is RTL. I don't want to inject "special unicode characters" that explicitly override the text direction (such as RLO, RLE, etc.) I suspect there may exist several solutions. If so - I'd like to preserve the RTL-looking of the string as much as possible. The string usually consists of hebrew words mostly. I'd like to preserve the correct order of those words, and characters inside those words. Whereas other character sequences may (and should) be transposed. One naive way to solve this is just to swap the whole string (this takes care of the hebrew words), and then swap inside it sequences of non-hebrew characters. This however doesn't always produce correct results, because actual rules of representation are rather complex. The only comprehensive algorithm that I see so far is brute-force check. The string can be divided into sequences of same-class characters. Those sequences may be joined in random order, plus any of them may be reversed. I can check all those combinations to obtain the correct result. Plus this technique may be optimized. For instance the order of hebrew words is known, so we only have to check different combinations of their "joining" sequences. Any better ideas? If you have an idea, not necessarily the whole solution - it's ok. I'll appreciate any idea. Thanks in advance.

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  • C# Serialization Surrogate - Cannot access a disposed object

    - by crushhawk
    I have an image class (VisionImage) that is a black box to me. I'm attempting to serialize the image object to file using Serialization Surrogates as explained on this page. Below is my surrogate code. sealed class VisionImageSerializationSurrogate : ISerializationSurrogate { public void GetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; byte[,] temp = image.ImageToArray().U8; info.AddValue("width", image.Width); info.AddValue("height", image.Height); info.AddValue("pixelvalues", temp, temp.GetType()); } public Object SetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context, ISurrogateSelector selector) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; Int32 width = info.GetInt32("width"); Int32 height = info.GetInt32("height"); byte[,] temp = new byte[height, width]; temp = (byte[,])info.GetValue("pixelvalues", temp.GetType()); PixelValue2D tempPixels = new PixelValue2D(temp); image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); return image; } } I've stepped through it to write to binary. It seems to be working fine (file is getting bigger as the images are captured). I tried to test it read the file back in. The values read back in are correct as far as the "info" object is concerned. When I get to the line image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); It throws the "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. Upon further inspection, the object and the resulting image are both marked as disposed. My code behind the form spawns an "acquisitionWorker" and runs the following code. void acquisitionWorker_LoadImages(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // This is the main function of the acquisition background worker thread. // Perform image processing here instead of the UI thread to avoid a // sluggish or unresponsive UI. BackgroundWorker worker = (BackgroundWorker)sender; try { uint bufferNumber = 0; // Loop until we tell the thread to cancel or we get an error. When this // function completes the acquisitionWorker_RunWorkerCompleted method will // be called. while (!worker.CancellationPending) { VisionImage savedImage = (VisionImage) formatter.Deserialize(fs); CommonAlgorithms.Copy(savedImage, imageViewer.Image); // Update the UI by calling ReportProgress on the background worker. // This will call the acquisition_ProgressChanged method in the UI // thread, where it is safe to update UI elements. Do not update UI // elements directly in this thread as doing so could result in a // deadlock. worker.ReportProgress(0, bufferNumber); bufferNumber++; } } catch (ImaqException ex) { // If an error occurs and the background worker thread is not being // cancelled, then pass the exception along in the result so that // it can be handled in the acquisition_RunWorkerCompleted method. if (!worker.CancellationPending) e.Result = ex; } } What am I missing here? Why would the object be immediately disposed?

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  • .NET datetime issue with SQL stored procedure

    - by DanO
    I am getting the below error when executing my application on a Windows XP machine with .NET 2.0 installed. On my computer Windows 7 .NET 2.0 - 3.5 I am not having any issues. The target SQL server version is 2005. This error started occurring when I added the datetime to the stored procedure. I have been reading alot about using .NET datetime with SQL datetime and I still have not figured this out. If someone can point me in the right direction I would appreciate it. Here is the where I believe the error is coming from. private static void InsertRecon(string computerName, int EncryptState, TimeSpan FindTime, Int64 EncryptSize, DateTime timeWritten) { SqlConnection DBC = new SqlConnection("server=server;UID=InventoryServer;Password=pass;database=Inventory;connection timeout=30"); SqlCommand CMD = new SqlCommand(); try { CMD.Connection = DBC; CMD.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; CMD.CommandText = "InsertReconData"; CMD.Parameters.Add("@CNAME", SqlDbType.NVarChar); CMD.Parameters.Add("@ENCRYPTEXIST", SqlDbType.Int); CMD.Parameters.Add("@RUNTIME", SqlDbType.Time); CMD.Parameters.Add("@ENCRYPTSIZE", SqlDbType.BigInt); CMD.Parameters.Add("@TIMEWRITTEN", SqlDbType.DateTime); CMD.Parameters["@CNAME"].Value = computerName; CMD.Parameters["@ENCRYPTEXIST"].Value = EncryptState; CMD.Parameters["@RUNTIME"].Value = FindTime; CMD.Parameters["@ENCRYPTSIZE"].Value = EncryptSize; CMD.Parameters["@TIMEWRITTEN"].Value = timeWritten; DBC.Open(); CMD.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException e) { PostMessage(e.Message); } finally { DBC.Close(); CMD.Dispose(); DBC.Dispose(); } } Unhandled Exception: System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: The SqlDbType enumeration value, 32, is invalid. Parameter name: SqlDbType at System.Data.SqlClient.MetaType.GetMetaTypeFromSqlDbType(SqlDbType target) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlParameter.set_SqlDbType(SqlDbType value) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlParameter..ctor(String parameterName, SqlDbType dbType) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlParameterCollection.Add(String parameterName, SqlDbType sqlDbType) at ReconHelper.getFilesInfo.InsertRecon(String computerName, Int32 EncryptState, TimeSpan FindTime, Int64 EncryptSize, DateTime timeWritten) at ReconHelper.getFilesInfo.Main(String[] args)

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  • What is the best practice to segment c#.net projects based on a single base project

    - by Anthony
    Honestly, I can't word my question any better without describing it. I have a base project (with all its glory, dlls, resources etc) which is a CMS. I need to use this project as a base for othe custom bake projects. This base project is to be maintained and updated among all custom bake projects. I use subversion (Collabnet and Tortise SVN) I have two questions: 1 - Can I use subversion to share the base project among other projects What I mean here is can I "Checkout" the base project into another "Checked Out" project and have both update and commit seperatley. So, to paint a picture, let's say I am working on a custom project and I modify the core/base prject in some way (which I know will suit the others) can I then commit those changes and upon doing so when I update the base project in the other "Checked out" resources will it pull the changes? In short, I would like not to have to manually deploy updated core files whenever I make changes into each seperate project. 2 - If I create a custom file (let's say an webcontrol or aspx page etc) can I have it compile seperatley from the base project Another tricky one to explain. When I publish my web application it creates DLLs based on the namespaces of projects attached to it. So I may have a number of DLLs including the "Website's" namespace DLL, which could simply be website. I want to be able to make a seperate, custom, control which does not compile into those DLLs as the custom files should not rely on those DLLS to run. Is it as simple to set a seperate namespace for those files like CustomFiles.ProjectName for example? Think of the whole idea as adding modules to the .NET project, I don't want the module's code in any of the core DLLs but I do need for module to be able to access the core dlls. (There is no need for the core project to access the module code as it should be one way only in theory, though I reckon it woould not be possible anyway without using JSON/SOAP or something like that, maybe I am wrong.) I want to create a pluggable environment much like that of Joomla/Wordpress as since PHP generally doesn't have to be compiled first I see this is the reason why all this is possible/easy. The idea is to allow pluggable themes, modules etc etc. (I haven't tried simply adding .NET themes after compile/publish but I am assuming this is possible anyway? OR does the compiler need to reference items in the files?)

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