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  • How to fire the action of a uibarbuttonitem programatically?

    - by Aruna Herath
    I have created an uibarbuttonitem dynamically and it works properly. I want to fire that uibarbutton item action(click) programatically for unit testing. Even though the code work properly when I log the action of the bar button item in the application code (not on testing code) it gives null. The code I have used is given below. NSLog(@"%@",NSStringFromSelector(barButton.action)); In the testing code I have created a bar button called logout and assign barbutton to that.To click the bar button item programatically I followed the following code. [logout.target performSelector:logout.action]; But it didn't work . I logged the action of logout button and it also gives null. NSLog(@"%@",logout.action); I want to know how to programatically click a uibarbutton item which created dynamically .

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  • File input javascript event, is there an event fire when someone click okay on the dialog box?

    - by Mickey Cheong
    Hi, When someone click on Browse for the input file below: <input type="file" name="blah" /> A dialog box will appear. The user will then select a file and click 'Ok'. The dialog box will close. Is there an event fire because of that? I tried onfocus and onblur, it didnt work out. The only way is, i start a timer to check the value content when it is onfocus. Not that elegant. Any solution? Cheers, Mickey

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  • Can I fire a Text Changed Event for an asp.net Text Box before it loses focus?

    - by Xaisoft
    I have an asp.net TextBox in which I want to check if the text entered into the TextBox is > 0. It works once I tab out or click out of the TextBox, but if I keep focus on the TextBox, it won't fire the Text Changed Event, so I have the following scenario, I want to enable something if and only if the TextBox.Text.Length = 0. Now, if I put my caret in the TextBox and delete all the characters and then leave the caret in the TextBox so it still has focus and take my mouse and click a button, it will not do what it was supposed to do because it never fired the Text Changed Event. How would something like this be handled?

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  • Where should I put code that is supposed to fire AFTER the view has loaded?

    - by Timbo
    I’m writing an objective-c program that does some calculations based on time and will eventually updates UILabels each second. To explain the concept here’s some simplified code, which I’ve placed into the viewDidLoad of the class that handles the view. (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // how do i make this stuff happen AFTER the view has loaded?? int a = 1; while (a < 10) { NSLog(@"doing something"); a = a + 1; sleep(1); } } My problem is that the code halts the loading of the view until the loop is all complete (in this case 10 seconds). Where should I put code that I want to fire AFTER the view has finished loading? newbie question I know =/

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  • Magento: Why do controller action predispatch events not fire if the controller is rewritten?

    - by mattalexx
    Why do controller action predispatch events not fire if the controller is rewritten? Here is a snippet of store/app/code/core/Mage/Core/Controller/Varien/Action.php: abstract class Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Action { // [...] public function preDispatch() { // [...] if ($this->_rewrite()) { return; // [What is the purpose if this?] } // [...] // [This is where my event needs to be firing, but this code never gets // executed because the controller is rewritten] Mage::dispatchEvent( 'controller_action_predispatch_'.$this->getFullActionName(), array('controller_action'=>$this) ); } // [...] } I don't know where to start fixing this problem. Anyone out there ever dealt with this before?

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  • How to fire off a asych thread in a web application, and gaurantee only 1 thread fires?

    - by Blankman
    I want to cache a object in memory. Regenerating the object when the cache expires is fairly expensive, so I want to do the following: When the cache is "about" to expire, I want to fire off a asychronous thread that will go and rebuild the object and then reset the cache. One thing I am worry about is multiple threads firing to fetch the object to cache, I only want a single thread doing this, realizing many people will be hitting the website. This might not be the best use case to do this, but I want to know how to do this sort of thing.

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  • Do validations still fire in ASP.NET even if the controls are hidden?

    - by Josh
    I have a form that uses ASP.NET validations. I am using some inline C# in the aspx to show/hide certain controls depending on a user's role. I would use the Visible property, but there are so many of them, I just decided to do inline C# to show and hide (I know, not best practice, but bear with me for a second). I am having an issue where Page.IsValid is always set to False when I submit my form (when certain fields are being hidden). Will the validations still fire off even if the controls are not even rendered on the pag? Also, if this is not the case, is there an effective way of breaking down Page.IsValid to find out what is setting it to False? Thanks.

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  • [Raise|Trigger|Fire|...] an event?!?

    - by winSharp93
    Hello, in a German programming forum we currently have a discussion about events and what you (grammatically) do with them. The MSDN talks about "Event Raising" and "to raise an event". Thus, this seems to be one possibility. Are there any other synonyms? What about "to trigger an event" and "to fire an event"? A Google search will bring results for all of the three possibilities. This, however, does not mean that they are correct, too, of course. Are they? Are there any (stylistic, ...) differences or are they used in different contexts? Many thanks in advance for ending a heated debate :-)

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  • How can I define a one-time event so that new handlers fire (once) even after the event has already occurred?

    - by harpo
    You know how this $(function() { ... }); will fire whether or not the "document ready" event has already occurred? I want to define an event like that. That event is a special case in jQuery. I'm wondering if a custom event can behave in the same way, using only the standard event mechanisms. Ideally, I'd like to be able to define handlers in the "normal" way: $(document).on("init.mything", function() { ... }); This works now if the above runs before init.mything is triggered. But if it doesn't, then the handler never runs. What makes this tricky is, I don't want to assume anything except that jQuery has loaded. Any ideas?

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  • How to uninstall a Fire fox add-on that doesn't want to be uninstalled?

    - by Fellknight
    Let's say I installed a program, called "E" . Said program requests to install a Firefox add-on. Now the add-on doesn't work due to being incompatible. Because it came with E i uninstall E planning to re-install it with out the add-on, but after the E uninstall finishes the add-on is still there in Firefox, disabled and with the buttons grayed out. Moreover, Firefox displays the "Restart Firefox to uninstall this add-on" message but no matter how many times it's restarted the loop wont end. Is there any way to uninstall E's add-on?

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  • jQuery: Targeting elements added via *non-jQuery* AJAX before any Javascript events fire? Beyond th

    - by peteorpeter
    Working on a Wicket application that adds markup to the DOM after onLoad via Wicket's built-in AJAX for an auto-complete widget. We have an IE6 glitch that means I need to reposition the markup coming in, and I am trying to avoid tampering with the Wicket javascript... blah blah blah... here's what I'm trying to do: New markup arrives in the DOM (I don't have access to a callback) Somehow I know this, so I fire my code. I tried this, hoping the new tags would trigger onLoad events: $("selectorForNewMarkup").live("onLoad", function(){ //using jQuery 1.4.1 //my code }); ...but have become educated that onLoad only fires on the initial page load. Is there another event fired when elements are added to the DOM? Or another way to sense changes to the DOM? Everything I've bumped into on similar issues with new markup additions, they have access to the callback function on .load() or similar, or they have a real javascript event to work with and live() works perfectly. Is this a pipe dream?

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  • Having some fun - what is a good way to include a secret key functionality and fire the KeyDown event?

    - by Sisyphus
    To keep myself interested, I try to put little Easter Eggs in my projects (mostly to amuse myself). I've seen some websites where you can type a series of letters "aswzaswz" and you get a "secret function" - how would I achieve this in C#? I've assigned a "secret function" in the past by using modifier keys bool showFunThing = (Control.ModifierKeys & Keys.Control) == Keys.Control; but wanted to get a bit more secretive (without the modifier keys) I just wanted the form to detect a certain word typed without any input ... I've built a method that I think should do it: private StringBuilder _pressedKeys = new StringBuilder(); protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { const string kWord = "fun"; char letter = (char)e.KeyValue; if (!char.IsLetterOrDigit(letter)) { return; } _pressedKeys.Append(letter); if (_pressedKeys.Length == kWord.Length) { if (_pressedKeys.ToString().ToLower() == kWord) { MessageBox.Show("Fun"); _pressedKeys.Clear(); } } base.OnKeyDown(e); } Now I need to wire it up but I can't figure out how I'm supposed to raise the event in the form designer ... I've tried this: this.KeyDown +=new System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventHandler(OnKeyDown); and a couple of variations on this but I'm missing something because it won't fire (or compile). It tells me that the OnKeyDown method is expecting a certain signature but I've got other methods like this where I haven't specified arguments. I fear that I may have got myself confused so I am turning to SO for help ... anyone?

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  • Why does the roll_out event fire in this code?

    - by user339681
    I have made this simple example to demonstrate some problems I'm having. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Canvas id="buttonCanvas" x="100" y="100" opaqueBackground="#000000" width="80%" height="300" creationComplete="init(event)"> <mx:Button x="5" y="5"/> <mx:Button x="5" y="50"/> </mx:Canvas> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function init(event:Event):void{ buttonCanvas.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, function(event:Event):void{ buttonCanvas.opaqueBackground=(buttonCanvas.opaqueBackground==0)? 0x666666:0; }); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> I don't understand the following: Why doesn't the percentage nor absolute dimensions affect the canvas? Why does the roll_out event fire when the mouse leaves a button (even when it is still inside the canvas). I'm going nuts trying to figure this out. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Why won't this hit test fire a second time? wpf

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a main window that contains two custom objects (AnimatedCharacter). These objects are nothing but images. These images might contain transparent portions. One of these objects slightly overlaps the other object. There is a listener attached to the main window and is as follows. private void Window_MouseLeftButtonUp_1(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point pt = e.GetPosition((UIElement)sender); //store off the mouse pt hitPointMouse = pt; //clear the result list hitResultsSubList.Clear(); EllipseGeometry m_egHitArea = new EllipseGeometry(pt, 1, 1); VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(sender as Visual, HitTestFilterFuncNew, new HitTestResultCallback(HitTestCallback), new GeometryHitTestParameters(m_egHitArea)); //Check all sub items you have now hit if (hitResultsSubList.Count > 0) { CheckSubHitItems(hitResultsSubList); } } The idea is to filter out only a select group of items (called AnimatedCharacters). The hittest and filters are as follows public HitTestResultBehavior HitTestCallback(HitTestResult htrResult) { IntersectionDetail idDetail = ((GeometryHitTestResult)htrResult).IntersectionDetail; switch (idDetail) { case IntersectionDetail.FullyContains: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.Intersects: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.FullyInside: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; default: return HitTestResultBehavior.Stop; } } public HitTestFilterBehavior HitTestFilterFuncNew(DependencyObject potentialHitTestTarget) { if (potentialHitTestTarget.GetType() == typeof(AnimatedCharacter)) { hitResultsSubList.Add(potentialHitTestTarget as AnimatedCharacter); } return HitTestFilterBehavior.Continue; } This returns me back a list (called hitResultsSubList) that I attempt to then process further. I want to take everything in the hitResultsSubList and run a hit test on it again. This time, the hit test will be checking alpha levels on the particular animatedCharacter object. private void CheckSubHitItems(List<DependencyObject> hitResultsSub) { for(int i = 0; i<hitResultsSub.Count; i++) { hitResultsList.Clear(); AnimatedCharacter ac = hitResultsSub[i] as AnimatedCharacter; try { //DEBUGGER SKIPS THIS NEXT LINE EVERY SINGLE TIME. VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(ac, null, new HitTestResultCallback(hitCallBack), new PointHitTestParameters(hitPointMouse)); } catch (Exception e) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(e.StackTrace); } if (hitResultsList.Count > 0) { //do something here } } } Here is my problem now. The hit test in the second function (CheckSubHitItems) never gets called. There are definitely items (DependencyObjects of the type AnimatedCharacter) in the hitResultSub, but no matter what, the second hit test will not fire. I can walk the for loop fine, but when that line is hit, I get the following console statement. Step into: Stepping over non-user code 'System.MulticastDelegate.CtorClosed' No exceptions are thrown. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Why does @PostConstruct callback fire every time even though bean is @ViewScoped? JSF

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I am using datatable on page and using binding attribute to bind it to my backing bean. This is my code :- <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" xmlns:p="http://primefaces.prime.com.tr/ui"> <h:head> <title>Facelet Title</title> </h:head> <h:body> <h:form prependId="false"> <h:dataTable var="item" value="#{testBean.stringCollection}" binding="#{testBean.dataTable}"> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{item}"/> </h:column> <h:column> <h:commandButton value="Click" actionListener="#{testBean.action}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:form> </h:body> </html> This is my bean :- package managedBeans; import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import javax.annotation.PostConstruct; import javax.faces.bean.ManagedBean; import javax.faces.bean.ViewScoped; import javax.faces.component.html.HtmlDataTable; @ManagedBean(name="testBean") @ViewScoped public class testBean implements Serializable { private List<String> stringCollection; public List<String> getStringCollection() { return stringCollection; } public void setStringCollection(List<String> stringCollection) { this.stringCollection = stringCollection; } private HtmlDataTable dataTable; public HtmlDataTable getDataTable() { return dataTable; } public void setDataTable(HtmlDataTable dataTable) { this.dataTable = dataTable; } @PostConstruct public void init(){ System.out.println("Post Construct fired!!"); stringCollection = new ArrayList<String>(); stringCollection.add("a"); stringCollection.add("b"); stringCollection.add("c"); } public void action(){ System.out.println("Clicked!!"); } } Please tell me why is the @PostConstruct firing each and every time i click on button? It should fire only once as long as i am on same page beacause my bean is @ViewScoped. Further, if i remove the binding attribute then everything works fine and @PostConstruct callback fires only once. Then why every time when i use binding attribute? I need binding attribute and want to perform initialisation tasks like fetching data from webservice, etc only once. What should i do? Where should i write my initialisation task?

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  • Migrating from IBM AIX/DB2 Power systems to Oracle Technologies

    - by zeynep.koch(at)oracle.com
    If you are planning to migrate from  IBM DB2 on AIX Power Systems to more open and better-performing computing environment--one that offers enhanced flexibility, clustering, availability, and security, as well as lower maintenance than download this guide that outlines migrating to Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Linux running on Oracle's Sun Fire X4800 server.This guide shows you how to:Move sample applications with an IBM DB2 on an IBM Power System to Oracle Database 11g Release 2Install Oracle Linux and Oracle Database Release 2 on the Oracle's Sun Fire X4800 serverMigrate user databases from the IBM Power System to Oracle's Sun Fire X4800 serverDownload

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  • Week in Geek: Malware for Android has Increased 472% since July

    - by Asian Angel
    This week we learned how to safely eject your USB devices from the desktop context menu, make the Kindle Fire Silk Browser *actually* fast, “disable Windows startup programs, use DNS names on your home network, & restore a vintage keyboard”, print or save a directory listing to a file, make your computer press a key every X seconds, and more. How to Make the Kindle Fire Silk Browser *Actually* Fast! Amazon’s New Kindle Fire Tablet: the How-To Geek Review HTG Explains: How Hackers Take Over Web Sites with SQL Injection / DDoS

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  • Why does this call to jQuery's $.ajax() fire an empty request in Chrome and Firefox?

    - by Martin Wiboe
    Hello, I am trying to call a WCF RESTful service from jQuery. I am using JSON to encode both request and response. The following code functions correctly in IE8: url = 'http://ipv4.fiddler:5683/WeatherWCF/NewBinding/MyService/GetValueFloat'; $.ajax({ url: url, data: '{"alias": "Udetemperatur"}', type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "text", // not "json" we'll parse success: function(res) { alert('Received response: ' + res); } }); However, in both Firefox and Chrome, res contains an empty string. After using Fiddler to monitor the request, it appears that jQuery sends an empty request to the server as shown in this screen dump: http://imgur.com/EJgwS.png This is the successful request: http://imgur.com/S77BA.png What am I doing wrong? Kind regards, Martin

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: How do I make the Ajax.Form to fire the Client Side Validation with Data Annotation?

    - by Methee
    Here is the code I have so far: <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); %> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Address", "Accounts", FormMethod.Post, new AjaxOptions(){}, new { id="dialog-form"} )){ %> <div> <label for="address">Address Name:</label> </div> <div> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(m => m.Name)%> <div> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name)%> </div> </div> <input type="submit" value="OK" /> <% } %> When I click submit, It does the validation on the server side, I kinda like it to validate on the Client instead of taking a trip to the server right away.

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  • Should Application_End fire on an automatic App Pool Recycle?

    - by Laramie
    I have read this, this, this and this plus a dozen other posts/blogs. I have an ASP.Net app in shared hosting that is frequently recycling. We use NLog and have the following code in global.asax void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION STARTING\r\n\r\n"); } protected void Application_OnEnd(Object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION_OnEnd\r\n\r\n"); } void Application_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpRuntime runtime = (HttpRuntime)typeof(System.Web.HttpRuntime).InvokeMember("_theRuntime", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Static | BindingFlags.GetField, null, null, null); if (runtime == null) return; string shutDownMessage = (string)runtime.GetType().InvokeMember("_shutDownMessage", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.GetField, null, runtime, null); string shutDownStack = (string)runtime.GetType().InvokeMember("_shutDownStack", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.GetField, null, runtime, null); ApplicationShutdownReason shutdownReason = System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.ShutdownReason; NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug(String.Format("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION END\r\n\r\n_shutDownReason = {2}\r\n\r\n _shutDownMessage = {0}\r\n\r\n_shutDownStack = {1}\r\n\r\n", shutDownMessage, shutDownStack, shutdownReason)); } void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nApplication_Error\r\n\r\n"); } Our log file is littered with "APPLICATION STARTING" entries, but neither Application_OnEnd, Application_End, nor Application_Error are ever fired during these spontaneous restarts. I know they are working because there are entries for touching the web.config or /bin files. We also ran a memory overload test and can trigger an OutOfMemoryException which is caught in Application_Error. We are trying to determine whether the virtual memory limit is causing the recycling. We have added GC.GetTotalMemory(false) throughout the code, but this is for all of .Net, not just our App´s pool, correct? We've also tried var oPerfCounter = new PerformanceCounter(); oPerfCounter.CategoryName = "Process"; oPerfCounter.CounterName = "Virtual Bytes"; oPerfCounter.InstanceName = "iisExpress"; logger.Debug("Virtual Bytes: " + oPerfCounter.RawValue + " bytes"); but don't have permission in shared hosting. I've monitored the app on a dev server with the same requests that caused the recycles in production with ANTS Memory Profiler attached and can't seem to find a culprit. We have also run it with a debugger attached in dev to check for uncaught exceptions in spawned threads that might cause the app to abort. My questions are these: How can I effectively monitor memory usage in shared hosting to tell how much my application is consuming prior to an application recycle? Why are the Application_[End/OnEnd/Error] handlers in global.asax not being called? How else can I determine what is causing these recycles? Thanks.

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  • Why does the OnDeserialization not fire for XML Deserialization?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a problem which I have been bashing my head against for the better part of three hours. I am almost certain that I've missed something blindingly obvious... I have a simple XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <WeightStore xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Records> <Record actual="150" date="2010-05-01T00:00:00" /> <Record actual="155" date="2010-05-02T00:00:00" /> </Records> </WeightStore> I have a simple class structure: [Serializable] public class Record { [XmlAttribute("actual")] public double weight { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("date")] public DateTime date { get; set; } [XmlIgnore] public double trend { get; set; } } [Serializable] [XmlRoot("WeightStore")] public class SimpleWeightStore { [XmlArrayAttribute("Records")] private List<Record> records = new List<Record>(); public List<Record> Records { get { return records; } } [OnDeserialized()] public void OnDeserialized_Method(StreamingContext context) { // This code never gets called Console.WriteLine("OnDeserialized"); } } I am using these in both calling code and in the class files: using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Runtime.Serialization; I have some calling code: SimpleWeightStore weight_store_reload = new SimpleWeightStore(); TextReader reader = new StringReader(xml); XmlSerializer deserializer = new XmlSerializer(weight_store.GetType()); weight_store_reload = (SimpleWeightStore)deserializer.Deserialize(reader); The problem is that I am expecting OnDeserialized_Method to get called, and it isn't. I suspect it might have something to do with the fact that it's XML deserialization rather than Runtime deserialization, and perhaps I am using the wrong attribute name, but I can't find out what it might be. Any ideas, folks?

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  • Why won't my anonymous function fire on grid.prerender?

    - by adam0101
    In my gridview I have fields for inserting a new record in the footer. In my objectdatasource selecting event if no records came back I bind a single mock row to force the footer to show so they can still add records. Since the row does not contain real data I hide the row. ... If result.ItemCount = 0 Then result = mockRow AddHandler mygridview.PreRender, AddressOf HideRow End If End Sub Private Sub HideRow(ByVal sender as Object, ByVal e as EventArgs) mygridview.Rows(0).Visible = False End Sub This works fine. However, I'd like to condense it like this: ... If result.ItemCount = 0 Then result = mockRow AddHandler mygridview.PreRender, Function() mygridview.Rows(0).Visible = False End If End Sub This compiles fine, but the row doesn't get hidden. Can anyone tell me why my anonymous function isn't getting hit?

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