Search Results

Search found 24201 results on 969 pages for 'andrew case'.

Page 804/969 | < Previous Page | 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808 809 810 811  | Next Page >

  • How should I properly format this code?

    - by ct2k7
    Hi, I've a small issue here. I am using an if statement with UIAlertView and I have two situations, both result in UIAlertViews. However, in one situation, I want to dismiss just the UIAlertView, the other, I want the UIAlertView to be dismissed and view to return to root view. This code describes is: if([serverOutput isEqualToString:@"login.true"]){ [Alert dismissWithClickedButtonIndex:0 animated:YES]; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; UIAlertView *success = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Success" message:@"The transaction was a success!" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Ok" otherButtonTitles:nil, nil]; [success show]; [success release]; } else { UIAlertView *failure = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Failure" message:@"The transaction failed. Contact sales operator!" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Ok" otherButtonTitles:nil, nil]; [failure show]; [failure release]; } } -(void)alertView: (UIAlertView *)success clickedButtonAtIndex: (NSInteger)buttonIndex{ switch(buttonIndex) { case 0: { [self.navigationController popToRootViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } } } So, in both cases, they follow the above action, but obviously, that's not what I want. Any ideas on what I do here?

    Read the article

  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

    Read the article

  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Java Socket Returns True

    - by ikurtz
    I hope you can help. Im fairly new to progamming and Im playing around with java Sockets. The problem is the code below. for some reason commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); is returning true even when it has not connected with the server (server not implemented yet!). Any ideas regarding this situation? For hostName Im passing my local machine IP and for port a manually selected port. public void networkConnect(String hostName, int portNumber){ try { networkConnected = false; netMessage = "Attempting Connection"; NetworkMessage networkMessage = new NetworkMessage(networkConnected, netMessage); commSocket = new Socket(hostName, portNumber); // this returns true!! System.out.println(commSocket.isConnected()); networkConnected = true; netMessage = "Connected: "; System.out.println("hellooo"); } catch (UnknownHostException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } catch (IOException e){ System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } Many thanks. EDIT: new Socket(.., ..); is blocking isnt it? i thought in that case if that was processed without exceptions then we have a true connection?

    Read the article

  • Plist data OK in iPhone simulator but disappears after installation onto device

    - by user183804
    I am testing an application on a first-generation iPod running OS 3.1.3 with a tableview populated from a plist. The application works well on the simulator. Initially after installation onto the iPod for testing, the tableview was blank (scrollable lines present, but empty rows). After searching this site, I found one issue to be a case-sensitive problem in the name of the plist file ("Data.plist in resources; "data.plist" in code). When the problem persisted, I again found on this site the advice to "Clean all Targets" prior to installation. I now have found that after performing a "Clean all Targets" operation twice, quitting XCode in between operations, the problem resolves, and the tableview appears properly populated after installation. I am wondering whether this issue signifies a corrupted plist file, prior to making the application available on the App store. Re-creating the plist file from scratch and then testing it likely would take several hours of work, so I do not want to do so unless absolutely necessary. Thanks in advance for any help.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Auto updating (to UI, Grid) binding list in C# Winform?

    - by Dhana
    I'm not even sure if i'm doing this correctly. But basically I have a list of objects that are built out of a class/interface. From there, I am binding the list to a datagrid view that is on a Windows Form (C#) Here the list is a Sync list which will auto update the UI, in this case datagridview. Every thing works fine now, but now i would like to have the List should have an dynamic object, that is the object will have by default two static property (ID, Name), and at run time user will select remaining properties. These should be bind to the data grid. Any update on the list should be auto reflected in the grid. I am aware that, we can use dynamic objects, but i would like to know , how to approach for solution, datagridview.DataSource = myData; // myData is AutoUpdateList<IPersonInfo> Now IPersonInfo is the type of object, need to add dynamic properties for this type at runtime. public class AutoUpdateList<T> : System.ComponentModel.BindingList<T> { private System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke _SyncObject; private System.Action<System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs> _FireEventAction; public AutoUpdateList() : this(null) { } public AutoUpdateList(System.ComponentModel.ISynchronizeInvoke syncObject) { _SyncObject = syncObject; _FireEventAction = FireEvent; } protected override void OnListChanged(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { try { if (_SyncObject == null) { FireEvent(args); } else { _SyncObject.Invoke(_FireEventAction, new object[] { args }); } } catch (Exception) { // TODO: Log Here } } private void FireEvent(System.ComponentModel.ListChangedEventArgs args) { base.OnListChanged(args); } } Could you help out on this?

    Read the article

  • Sequential access to asynchronous sockets

    - by Lars A. Brekken
    I have a server that has several clients C1...Cn to each of which there is a TCP connection established. There are less than 10,000 clients. The message protocol is request/response based, where the server sends a request to a client and then the client sends a response. The server has several threads, T1...Tm, and each of these may send requests to any of the clients. I want to make sure that only one of these threads can send a request to a specific client at any one time, while the other threads wanting to send a request to the same client will have to wait. I do not want to block threads from sending requests to different clients at the same time. E.g. If T1 is sending a request to C3, another thread T2 should not be able to send anything to C3 until T1 has received its response. I was thinking of using a simple lock statement on the socket: lock (c3Socket) { // Send request to C3 // Get response from C3 } I am using asynchronous sockets, so I may have to use Monitor instead: Monitor.Enter(c3Socket); // Before calling .BeginReceive() And Monitor.Exit(c3Socket); // In .EndReceive I am worried about stuff going wrong and not letting go of the monitor and therefore blocking all access to a client. I'm thinking that my heartbeat thread could use Monitor.TryEnter() with a timeout and throw out sockets that it cannot get the monitor for. Would it make sense for me to make the Begin and End calls synchronous in order to be able to use the lock() statement? I know that I would be sacrificing concurrency for simplicity in this case, but it may be worth it. Am I overlooking anything here? Any input appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What is the performance impact of CSS's universal selector?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to find some simple client-side performance tweaks in a page that receives millions of monthly pageviews. One concern that I have is the use of the CSS universal selector (*). As an example, consider a very simple HTML document like the following: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title>Example</title> <style type="text/css"> * { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </head> <body> <h1>This is a heading</h1> <p>This is a paragraph of text.</p> </body> </html> The universal selector will apply the above declaration to the body, h1 and p elements, since those are the only ones in the document. In general, would I see better performance from a rule such as: body, h1, p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } Or would this have exactly the same net effect? Essentially, what I'm asking is if these rules are effectively equivalent in this case, or if the universal selector has to perform more unnecessary work that I may not be aware of. I realize that the performance impact in this example may be very small, but I'm hoping to learn something that may lead to more significant performance improvements in real-world situations. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

    - by getit
    Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

    Read the article

  • Prove correctness of unit test

    - by Timo Willemsen
    I'm creating a graph framework for learning purposes. I'm using a TDD approach, so I'm writing a lot of unit tests. However, I'm still figuring out how to prove the correctness of my unit tests For example, I have this class (not including the implementation, and I have simplified it) public class SimpleGraph(){ //Returns true on success public boolean addEdge(Vertex v1, Vertex v2) { ... } //Returns true on sucess public boolean addVertex(Vertex v1) { ... } } I also have created this unit tests @Test public void SimpleGraph_addVertex_noSelfLoopsAllowed(){ SimpleGraph g = new SimpleGraph(); Vertex v1 = new Vertex('Vertex 1'); actual = g.addVertex(v1); boolean expected = false; boolean actual = g.addEdge(v1,v1); Assert.assertEquals(expected,actual); } Okay, awesome it works. There is only one crux here, I have proved that the functions work for this case only. However, in my graph theory courses, all I'm doing is proving theorems mathematically (induction, contradiction etc. etc.). So I was wondering is there a way I can prove my unit tests mathematically for correctness? So is there a good practice for this. So we're testing the unit for correctness, instead of testing it for one certain outcome.

    Read the article

  • Doing a POST to a Service Operation in ADO.NET data services

    - by DataServices123
    Is it possible to POST to a service operation defined in an ADO.NET data service (it is decorated with WebInvoke)? I had no problem calling the service operation as an HTTP GET. However, when I switched to doing a POST, the stack trace consistently comes back with "Parameter cannot be NULL". I am using the jQuery syntax below, and sending the POST as JSON (though I'm not including the $.ajax call, the parameter names line up exactly). It would be possible to try this with WCF, as opposed to ADO.NET data services (newly renamed as WCF data services). However, my preference would be to use this approach first. I have tried this with and without the stringify method. Most examples online only show how to use a POST to entities (i.e. for handling CRUD operations). However, in this case we are POSTing to a Service Operation. function PostToDataService() { varType = "POST"; varUrl = "http://dev-server/MyServices/MyService.svc/SampleSO"; varData = { CustomMessage: $("#TextBox1").val() }; varData = JSON.stringify(varData); varContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8"; varDataType = "json"; varProcessData = true; CallService(); }

    Read the article

  • Regarding some Update Stored procedure

    - by Serenity
    I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

    Read the article

  • memcmp,strcmp,strncmp in C

    - by el10780
    I wrote this small piece of code in C to test memcmp() strncmp() strcmp() functions in C. Here is the code that I wrote: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { char *word1="apple",*word2="atoms"; if (strncmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("strncmp result.\n"); if (memcmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("memcmp result.\n"); if (strcmp(word1,word2)==0) printf("strcmp result.\n"); } Can somebody explain me the differences because I am confused with these three functions?My main problem is that I have a file in which I tokenize its line of it,the problem is that when I tokenize the word "atoms" in the file I have to stop the process of tokenizing.I first tried strcmp() but unfortunately when it reached to the point where the word "atoms" were placed in the file it didn't stop and it continued,but when I used either the memcmp() or the strncmp() it stopped and I was happy.But then I thought,what if there will be a case in which there is one string in which the first 5 letters are a,t,o,m,s and these are being followed by other letters.Unfortunately,my thoughts were right as I tested it using the above code by initializing word1 to "atomsaaaaa" and word2 to atoms and memcmp() and strncmp() in the if statements returned 0.On the other hand strcmp() it didn't.It seems that I must use strcmp(). I have done google searches but I got more confused as I have seen sites and other forums to define these three differently.If it is possible for someone to give me correct explanations/definitions so I can use them correctly in my source code,I would be really grateful.

    Read the article

  • Elements added later All images and text loaded to function. (jQuery or Javascript)

    - by Tayatt
    #clickArea click to #contents prepend #loadingText(Loading...) and #contents append HTML-source. If append HTML-source(All images and text) Load complete to #loadingText(Loading...) is fadeOut. The code that it is the best in this case? HTML <div id="contents"> <p id="clickArea">Click</p> </div> JavaScript(jQuery) $('p#clickArea').click(function(){ $('div#contents').prepend('<p id="loadingText">Loading...</p>'); $('div#contents').append('<div><p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage01.jpg" alt="" /></p><p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage02.jpg" alt="" /></p><p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage03.jpg" alt="" /></p><p class="text">Hello, this is text.</p><p class="text">Hello, this is text.</p></div>'); $('**********').load( function(){ $('#loadingText').fadeOut(1200); } ); }); Supplement : $('div#contents').append(HTML-source) <div> <p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage01.jpg" alt="" /></p> <p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage02.jpg" alt="" /></p> <p class="image"><img src="bigSizeImage03.jpg" alt="" /></p> <p class="text">Hello, this is text.</p> <p class="text">Hello, this is text.</p> </div>

    Read the article

  • Implementation of MVC with SQLite and NSURLConnection, use cases?

    - by user324723
    I'm interested in knowing how others have implemented/designed database & web services in their iphone app and how they simplified it for the entire application. My application is dependent on these services and I can't figure out a efficient way to use them together due to the (semi)complexity of my requirements. My past attempts on combining them haven't been completely successful or at least optimal in my mind. I'm building a database driven iphone app that uses a relational database in sqlite and consumes web services based on missing content or user interaction. Like this hasn't been done before...right? Since I am using a relational database - any web services consumed requires normalization, parsing the result and persisting it to the database before it can be displayed in a table view controller. The applications UI consists of nested(nav controller) table views where a user can select a cell and be taken to the next table view where it attempts to populate the table views data source from the database. If nothing exists in the database then it will send a request via web services to download its content, thus download - parse - persist - query - display. Since the user has the ability to request a refresh of this data it still requires the same process. Quickly describing what I've implemented and tried to run with - 1st attempt - Used a singleton web service class that handled sending web service requests, parsing the result and returning it to the table view controller via delegate protocols. Once the controller received that data it would then be responsible for persisting it to the database and re-returning the result. I didn't like the idea of only preventing the case where the app delegate selector doesn't exists(released) causing the app to crash. 2nd attempt - Used NSNotificationCenter for easy access to both database and web services but later realized it was more complex due to adding and removing observers per view(which isn't advised anyways).

    Read the article

  • Google Analytics version 3 - How to apply it correctly?

    - by ephramd
    I've added google analytics to my app with the intention of obtaining information about the screens you and send custom events. I am obtained duplicate content ... Also I get different results: "com.package.app.MainScreen" - 300 views and "Main Screen" - 200 views I am interested to get only follow up with the custom name of the activity and not the package. And in any case, because both show different results? public class MainScreen extends Activity { private static final String GA_PROPERTY_ID = "UA-12345678-9"; private static final String SCREEN_LABEL = "Main Screen"; Tracker mTracker; EasyTracker easyTracker; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main_screen); mTracker = GoogleAnalytics.getInstance(this).getTracker(GA_PROPERTY_ID); mTracker.set(Fields.SCREEN_NAME, SCREEN_LABEL); // For Custom Name from activity mTracker.send(MapBuilder.createAppView().build()); easyTracker = EasyTracker.getInstance(this); // Analytics Events ... easyTracker.send(MapBuilder.createEvent("MainScreen", "Play", category.get(1), null).build()); //AnalyticsEvents ... } @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); EasyTracker.getInstance(this).activityStart(this); } @Override public void onStop() { super.onStop(); EasyTracker.getInstance(this).activityStop(this); } } And analytics.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <resources xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" tools:ignore="TypographyDashes"> <!--Replace placeholder ID with your tracking ID--> <string name="ga_trackingId">UA-12345678-9</string> <!--Enable automatic activity tracking--> <bool name="ga_autoActivityTracking">true</bool> <!--Enable automatic exception tracking--> <bool name="ga_reportUncaughtExceptions">true</bool> </resources> Google Analytics Dev Guide

    Read the article

  • How do I create an inheritable Semaphore in .NET?

    - by pauldoo
    I am trying to create a Win32 Semaphore object which is inheritable. This means that any child processes I launch may automatically have the right to act on the same Win32 object. My code currently looks as follows: Semaphore semaphore = new Semaphore(0, 10); Process process = Process.Start(pathToExecutable, arguments); But the semaphore object in this code cannot be used by the child process. The code I am writing is a port of come working C++. The old C++ code achieves this by the following: SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES security = {0}; security.nLength = sizeof(security); security.bInheritHandle = TRUE; HANDLE semaphore = CreateSemaphore(&security, 0, LONG_MAX, NULL); Then later when CreateProcess is called the bInheritHandles argument is set to TRUE. (In both the C# and C++ case I am using the same child process (which is C++). It takes the semaphore ID on command line, and uses the value directly in a call to ReleaseSemaphore.) I suspect I need to construct a special SemaphoreSecurity or ProcessStartInfo object, but I haven't figured it out yet.

    Read the article

  • OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

    - by Konrad Rudolph
    I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

    Read the article

  • SQL: How to Return One DB Row from Two That Have The Same Values In Opposite Columns Using the MAX F

    - by OneSource
    Hi, This is what I'm trying to do. I have three columns in a table - ID, Column1, Column2 - with this example data: ID Column1 Column2 1     1            2 2     2            1 3     4            3 4     3            4 Since, in the first two rows, Column1 and Column2 have the same values (but in different columns), I want my MAX query to return an ID of 2. Same thing with rows 3 and 4 .... since Columns 1 and 2 have the same values (but in different columns), I want MAX(ID) to return 4. Of course, with MAX, you use Group By, but that will not work in my case. In effect, I need a Group By to work across two columns. Is this possible? If not, what's the best way to accomplish getting the IDs of 2 and 4 given the matching values that are in different columns? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Retrieve class name hierarchy as string

    - by Jeff Wain
    Our system complexity has risen to the point that we need to make permission names tied to the client from the database more specific. In the client, permissions are referenced from a static class since a lot of client functionality is dependent on the permissions each user has and the roles have a ton of variety. I've referenced this post as an example, but I'm looking for a more specific use case. Take for instance this reference, where PermissionAlpha would be a const string: return HasPermission(PermissionNames.PermissionAlpha); Which is great, except now that things are growing more complex the classes are being structured like this: public static class PermissionNames { public static class PermissionAlpha { public const string SubPermission; } } I'm trying to find an easy way to reference PermissionAlpha in this new setup that will act similar to the first declaration above. Would the only way to do this be to resort to pulling the value of the class name like in the example below? I'm trying to keep all the names in one place that can be reference anywhere in the application. public static class PermissionAlpha { public static string Name { get { return typeof(PermissionAlpha).Name; } } }

    Read the article

  • Calculating a consecutive streak in data

    - by Jura25
    I’m trying to calculate the maximum winning and losing streak in a dataset (i.e. the highest number of consecutive positive or negative values). I’ve found a somewhat related question here on StackOverflow and even though that gave me some good suggestions, the angle of that question is different, and I’m not (yet) experienced enough to translate and apply that information to this problem. So I was hoping you could help me out, even an suggestion would be great. My data set look like this: > subRes Instrument TradeResult.Currency. 1 JPM -3 2 JPM 264 3 JPM 284 4 JPM 69 5 JPM 283 6 JPM -219 7 JPM -91 8 JPM 165 9 JPM -35 10 JPM -294 11 KFT -8 12 KFT -48 13 KFT 125 14 KFT -150 15 KFT -206 16 KFT 107 17 KFT 107 18 KFT 56 19 KFT -26 20 KFT 189 > split(subRes[,2],subRes[,1]) $JPM [1] -3 264 284 69 283 -219 -91 165 -35 -294 $KFT [1] -8 -48 125 -150 -206 107 107 56 -26 189 In this case, the maximum (winning) streak for JPM is four (namely the 264, 284, 69 and 283 consecutive positive results) and for KFT this value is 3 (107, 107, 56). My goal is to create a function which gives the maximum winning streaks per instrument (i.e. JPM: 4, KFT: 3). To achieve that: R needs to compare the current result with the previous result, and if it is higher then there is a streak of at least 2 consecutive positive results. Then R needs to look at the next value, and if this is also higher: add 1 to the already found value of 2. If this value isn’t higher, R needs to move on to the next value, while remembering 2 as the intermediate maximum. I’ve tried cumsum and cummax in accordance with conditional summing (like cumsum(c(TRUE, diff(subRes[,2]) > 0))), which didn’t work out. Also rle in accordance with lapply (like lapply(rle(subRes$TradeResult.Currency.), function(x) diff(x) > 0)) didn’t work. How can I make this work?

    Read the article

  • Retrieving ids from MySQL query

    - by Matt Maclennan
    I am having trouble accessing the "model_id" and "brand_id" from the foreach loop that I am using. They are the right field names, because I have echoed them successfully, and I have also "var_dumped" the array, and the IDs are there. It is just a case of implementing the relevant links on each list section. Below is the code I have. <? $output = mysqli_query("SELECT * FROM bikes, bikeTypes WHERE bikes.model_id = bikeTypes.model_id"); $result = array(); while($row = mysqli_fetch_array($output)) { $result[$row['model']][] = $row; } foreach ($result as $category => $values) { echo "<li><a href='test.php?id=" . $row['model_id'] . "'>".$category.'</a><ul>'; foreach ($values as $value) { echo "<li><a href='details.php?id=" . $row['brand_id'] . "'>" . $value['bikeName'] . "</a></li>"; } echo '</ul>'; echo '</li>'; } ?>

    Read the article

  • What is the best practice for including third party jar files in a Java program?

    - by ZoFreX
    I have a program that needs several third-party libraries, and at the moment it is packaged like so: zerobot.jar (my file) libs/pircbot.jar libs/mysql-connector-java-5.1.10-bin.jar libs/c3p0-0.9.1.2.jar As far as I know the "best" way to handle third-party libs is to put them on the classpath in the manifest of my jar file, which will work cross-platform, won't slow down launch (which bundling them might) and doesn't run into legal issues (which repackaging might). The problem is for users who supply the third party libraries themselves (example use case, upgrading them to fix a bug). Two of the libraries have the version number in the file, which adds hassle. My current solution is that my program has a bootstrapping process which makes a new classloader and instantiates the program proper using it. This custom classloader adds all .jar files in lib/ to its classpath. My current way works fine, but I now have two custom classloaders in my application and a recent change to the code has caused issues that are difficult to debug, so if there is a better way I'd like to remove this complexity. It also seems like over-engineering for what I'm sure is a very common situation. So my question is, how should I be doing this?

    Read the article

  • Truncating a string while storing it in an array in c

    - by Nick
    I am trying to create an array of 20 character strings with a maximum of 17 characters that are obtained from a file named "words.dat". After that the program should truncate the string only showing the first 17 characters and completely ignore the rest of that string. However My question is: I am not quite sure how to accomplish this, can anyone give me some insight on how to accomplish this task? Here is my current code as is: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #define WORDS 20 #define LENGTH 18 char function1(char[WORDS][LENGTH]); int main( void ) { char word_array [WORDS] [LENGTH]; function1(word_array); return ( 0 ) ; } char function1(char word_array[WORDS][LENGTH]) { FILE *wordsfile = fopen("words.dat", "r"); int i = 0; if (wordsfile == NULL) printf("\nwords.dat was not properly opened.\n"); else { for (i = 0; i < WORDS; i++) { fscanf(wordsfile, "%17s", word_array[i]); printf ("%s \n", word_array[i]); } fclose(wordsfile); } return (word_array[WORDS][LENGTH]); } words.dat file: Ninja DragonsFury failninja dragonsrage leagueoflegendssurfgthyjnu white black red green yellow green leagueoflegendssughjkuj dragonsfury Sword sodas tiger snakes Swords Snakes sage Sample output: blahblah@fang:~>a.out Ninja DragonsFury failninja dragonsrage leagueoflegendssu rfgthyjnu white black red green yellow green leagueoflegendssu ghjkuj dragonsfury Sword sodas tiger snakes Swords blahblah@fang:~> What will be accomplished afterwards with this program is: After function1 works properly I will then create a second function name "function2" that will look throughout the array for matching pairs of words that match "EXACTLY" including case . After I will create a third function that displays the 20 character strings from the words.dat file that I previously created and the matching words.

    Read the article

  • How to mock a String using mockito?

    - by Alceu Costa
    I need to simulate a test scenario in which I call the getBytes() method of a String object and I get an UnsupportedEncodingException. I have tried to achieve that using the following code: String nonEncodedString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); The problem is that when I run my test case I get a MockitoException that says that I can't mock a java.lang.String class. Is there a way to mock a String object using mockito or, alternatively, a way to make my String object throw an UnsupportedEncodingException when I call the getBytes method? Here are more details to illustrate the problem: This is the class that I want to test: public final class A{ public static String f(String str){ try{ return new String(str.getBytes("UTF-8")); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { // This is the catch block that I want to exercise. ... } } } This is my testing class (I'm using JUnit 4 and mockito): public class TestA { @Test(expected=UnsupportedEncodingException.class) public void test(){ String aString = mock(String.class); when(nonEncodedString.getBytes(anyString())).thenThrow(new UnsupportedEncodingException("Parsing error.")); A.f(aString); } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 800 801 802 803 804 805 806 807 808 809 810 811  | Next Page >