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  • Move camera to fit 3D scene

    - by Burre
    Hi there. I'm looking for an algorithm to fit a bounding box inside a viewport (in my case a DirectX scene). I know about algorithms for centering a bounding sphere in a orthographic camera but would need the same for a bounding box and a perspective camera. I have most of the data: I have the up-vector for the camera I have the center point of the bounding box I have the look-at vector (direction and distance) from the camera point to the box center I have projected the points on a plane perpendicular to the camera and retrieved the coefficients describing how much the max/min X and Y coords are within or outside the viewing plane. Problems I have: Center of the bounding box isn't necessarily in the center of the viewport (that is, it's bounding rectangle after projection). Since the field of view "skew" the projection (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Perspective-foreshortening.svg) I cannot simply use the coefficients as a scale factor to move the camera because it will overshoot/undershoot the desired camera position How do I find the camera position so that it fills the viewport as pixel perfect as possible (exception being if the aspect ratio is far from 1.0, it only needs to fill one of the screen axis)? I've tried some other things: Using a bounding sphere and Tangent to find a scale factor to move the camera. This doesn't work well, because, it doesn't take into account the perspective projection, and secondly spheres are bad bounding volumes for my use because I have a lot of flat and long geometries. Iterating calls to the function to get a smaller and smaller error in the camera position. This has worked somewhat, but I can sometimes run into weird edge cases where the camera position overshoots too much and the error factor increases. Also, when doing this I didn't recenter the model based on the position of the bounding rectangle. I couldn't find a solid, robust way to do that reliably. Help please!

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  • How to make write operation idempotent?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I'm reading article about recently release Gizzard sharding framework by twitter(http://engineering.twitter.com/2010/04/introducing-gizzard-framework-for.html). It mentions that all write operations must be idempotent to make sure high reliability. According to wikipedia, "Idempotent operations are operations that can be applied multiple times without changing the result." But, IMHO, in Gazzard case, idempotent write operation should be operations that sequence doesn't matter. Now, my question is: How to make write operation idempotent? The only thing I can image is to have a version number attached to each write. For example, in blog system. Each blog must have a $blog_id and $content. In application level, we always write a blog content like this write($blog_id, $content, $version). The $version is determined to be unique in application level. So, if application first try to set one blog to "Hello world" and second want it to be "Goodbye", the write is idempotent. We have such two write operations: write($blog_id, "Hello world", 1); write($blog_id, "Goodbye", 2); These two operations are supposed to changed two different records in DB. So, no matter how many times and what sequence these two operations executed, the results are same. This is just my understanding. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

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  • Extremely CPU Intensive Alarm Clock

    - by SoulBeaver
    For some reason my program, a console alarm clock I made for laughs and practice, is extremely CPU intensive. It consumes about 2mB RAM, which is already quite a bit for such a small program, but it devastates my CPU with over 50% resources at times. Most of the time my program is doing nothing except counting down the seconds, so I guess this part of my program is the one that's causing so much strain on my CPU, though I don't know why. If it is so, could you please recommend a way of making it less, or perhaps a library to use instead if the problem can't be easily solved? /* The wait function waits exactly one second before returning to the * * called function. */ void wait( const int &seconds ) { clock_t endwait; // Type needed to compare with clock() endwait = clock() + ( seconds * CLOCKS_PER_SEC ); while( clock() < endwait ) {} // Nothing need be done here. } In case anybody browses CPlusPlus.com, this is a genuine copy/paste of the clock() function they have written as an example for clock(). Much why the comment //Nothing need be done here is so lackluster. I'm not entirely sure what exactly clock() does yet. The rest of the program calls two other functions that only activate every sixty seconds, otherwise returning to the caller and counting down another second, so I don't think that's too CPU intensive- though I wouldn't know, this is my first attempt at optimizing code. The first function is a console clear using system("cls") which, I know, is really, really slow and not a good idea. I will be changing that post-haste, but, since it only activates every 60 seconds and there is a noticeable lag-spike, I know this isn't the problem most of the time. The second function re-writes the content of the screen with the updated remaining time also only every sixty seconds. I will edit in the function that calls wait, clearScreen and display if it's clear that this function is not the problem. I already tried to reference most variables so they are not copied, as well as avoid endl as I heard that it's a little slow compared to \n.

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  • database connection OK,result not appear

    - by klox
    hi..all.for now i'm already connected to database but the result not appear at Tuner range is"+res+"this is my code: var str=data[0]; var matches=str.match(/[EE|EJU].*D/i); $.ajax({ type:"post", url:"process1.php", data:"tversion="+matches+"&action=tunermatches", cache:false, async:false, success: function(res){ $('#value').replacewith("<div id='value'><h6>Tuner range is"+res+".</h6></div>"); } }); }); and this is my process file: //connect to database $dbc=mysql_connect(_SRV,_ACCID,_PWD) or die(_ERROR15.": ".mysql_error()); $db=mysql_select_db("qdbase",$dbc) or die(_ERROR17.": ".mysql_error()); switch(postVar('action')) { case 'tunermatches' : tunermatches(postVar('tversion')); break; function tunermatches($tversion)){ $Tuner=mysql_real_escape_string($tversion); $sql= "SELECT remark FROM settingdata WHERE itemname='Tuner_range' AND itemdata='".$Tunermatches."'"; $res=mysql_query($sql) or die (_ERROR26.":".mysql_error()); $dat=mysql_fetch_array($res,MYSQL_NUM); if($dat[0]>0) { echo $dat[0]; } mysql_close($dbc); }

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  • php: autoload exception handling.

    - by YuriKolovsky
    Hello again, I'm extending my previous question (Handling exceptions within exception handle) to address my bad coding practice. I'm trying to delegate autoload errors to a exception handler. <?php function __autoload($class_name) { $file = $class_name.'.php'; try { if (file_exists($file)) { include $file; }else{ throw new loadException("File $file is missing"); } if(!class_exists($class_name,false)){ throw new loadException("Class $class_name missing in $file"); } }catch(loadException $e){ header("HTTP/1.0 500 Internal Server Error"); $e->loadErrorPage('500'); exit; } return true; } class loadException extends Exception { public function __toString() { return get_class($this) . " in {$this->file}({$this->line})".PHP_EOL ."'{$this->message}'".PHP_EOL . "{$this->getTraceAsString()}"; } public function loadErrorPage($code){ try { $page = new pageClass(); echo $page->showPage($code); }catch(Exception $e){ echo 'fatal error: ', $code; } } } $test = new testClass(); ?> the above script is supposed to load a 404 page if the testClass.php file is missing, and it works fine, UNLESS the pageClass.php file is missing as well, in which case I see a "Fatal error: Class 'pageClass' not found in D:\xampp\htdocs\Test\PHP\errorhandle\index.php on line 29" instead of the "fatal error: 500" message I do not want to add a try/catch block to each and every class autoload (object creation), so i tried this. What is the proper way of handling this?

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  • Grails - Removing an item from a hasMany association List on data bind?

    - by ecrane
    Grails offers the ability to automatically create and bind domain objects to a hasMany List, as described in the grails user guide. So, for example, if my domain object "Author" has a List of many "Book" objects, I could create and bind these using the following markup (from the user guide): <g:textField name="books[0].title" value="the Stand" /> <g:textField name="books[1].title" value="the Shining" /> <g:textField name="books[2].title" value="Red Madder" /> In this case, if any of the books specified don't already exist, Grails will create them and set their titles appropriately. If there are already books in the specified indices, their titles will be updated and they will be saved. My question is: is there some easy way to tell Grails to remove one of those books from the 'books' association on data bind? The most obvious way to do this would be to omit the form element that corresponds to the domain instance you want to delete; unfortunately, this does not work, as per the user guide: Then Grails will automatically create a new instance for you at the defined position. If you "skipped" a few elements in the middle ... Then Grails will automatically create instances in between. I realize that a specific solution could be engineered as part of a command object, or as part of a particular controller- however, the need for this functionality appears repeatedly throughout my application, across multiple domain objects and for associations of many different types of objects. A general solution, therefore, would be ideal. Does anyone know if there is something like this included in Grails?

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  • Getting response status code 0 in SmartGWT webservice call using json

    - by Girish
    I have developed application using SmartGWT, now i need to call webservice using json to another application which is deployed in another server for submitting username and password. When i make a request with url and POST method, getting the response status code as 0 and response text as blank. Here is my code, public void sendRequest() throws Exception { // Get login json data to be sent to server. String strData = createLoginReqPacket(); String url = "some url"; RequestBuilder builder = new RequestBuilder(RequestBuilder.POST, url); builder.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/json"); builder.setHeader("Content-Length", strData.length() + ""); Request response = builder.sendRequest(strData, new RequestCallback() { @Override public void onResponseReceived(Request request, Response response) { int statusCode = response.getStatusCode(); System.out.println("Response code ----"+response.getStatusCode()+""); if (statusCode == Response.SC_OK) { String responseBody = response.getText(); System.out.println("Respose :" + responseBody); // do something with the response } else { GWT.log("Response error at server side ----",null); // do in case of server error } }// end of method. @Override public void onError(Request request, Throwable exception) { GWT.log("**** Error in service call ******",null); }// end of method. }); builder.send(); }// end of send request. Please anybody knows the solution?? Give some reference code or links for this. Thanks.

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  • many to many and integrity when saving the null

    - by user369759
    I have two classes Software, Tag - they are related by ManyToMany. We CAN NOT create Software without putting the Tag to it. I want to write a test which check that: @Test public void createSoftwareWithNullTags() { List<Tag> tags = null; Software software = new Software("software1", "description1", tags); try { software.save(); fail("tags should not be null"); } catch (Exception ex) { // NEVER COME HERE !!! } } So, this test fails. I guess it is not good test for that case - because it even do not try to SAVE data to SOFTWARE_TAG table. Of course i could do validation manually but i want implement it with hibernate, using some annotation or something. Is it possible? Or how would you do this? My entities: @Entity public class Tag extends Model { public String title; public Tag(String title) { this.title = title; } @ManyToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL}, mappedBy = "tags", targetEntity = Software.class ) public List<Software> softwares; } @Entity public class Software extends Model { public String title; public String description; @ManyToOne(optional = false) public Author author; @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable( name = "SOFTWARE_TAG", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "Software_id"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "Tag_id") ) public List<Tag> tags; public Software(String title, String description, Author author, List<Tag> tags) { this.title = title; this.description = description; this.author = author; this.tags = tags; } }

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  • What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

    - by Ankit
    I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

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  • Determine target architecture of binary file in Linux (library or executable)

    - by Fernando Miguélez
    We have an issue related to a Java application running under a (rather old) FC3 on a Advantech POS board with a Via C3 processor. The java application has several compiled shared libs that are accessed via JNI. Via C3 processor is suppossed to be i686 compatible. Some time ago after installing Ubuntu 6.10 on a MiniItx board with the same processor I found out that the previous statement is not 100% true. The Ubuntu kernel hanged on startup due to the lack of some specific and optional instructions of the i686 set in the C3 processor. These instructions missing in C3 implementation of i686 set are used by default by GCC compiler when using i686 optimizations. The solution in this case was to go with a i386 compiled version of Ubuntu distribution. The base problem with the Java application is that the FC3 distribution was installed on the HD by cloning from an image of the HD of another PC, this time an Intel P4. Afterwards the distribution needed some hacking to have it running such as replacing some packages (such as the kernel one) with the i383 compiled version. The problem is that after working for a while the system completely hangs without a trace. I am afraid that some i686 code is left somewhere in the system and could be executed randomly at any time (for example after recovering from suspend mode or something like that). My question is: Is there any tool or way to find out at what specific architecture is an binary file (executable or library) aimed provided that "file" does not give so much information?

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  • How many WCF connections can a single host handle?

    - by mafutrct
    I'll try to explain this with an example. I'm writing a chat application. There are users that can join chat rooms. A user has to log in before he can join any room. Currently, there is a single service. A user logs in using this service. Then, the user sends and receives messages for all joined rooms via this single service. channel.Login("Hans Moleman", "password"); channel.JoinRoom("name of room"); channel.SendChat("name of room", "hello"); I'm thinking about changing the design so there is a new WCF connection for each joined room. In the actual app, the number of connections is likely going to be in the range of 10-100, possibly more. Is this a good idea? Or are ~100 connections per client too much? The server should be able to handle many clients (range 100-1000, later up to 10k). In case it matters, I'm using NetTcpBinding.

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  • Androids ExpandableListView - where to put the button listener for buttons that are children

    - by CommonKnowledge
    I have been playing around a lot with the ExpandableListView and I cannot figure out where to add the button listeners for the button that will be the children in the view. I did manage to get a button listener working that uses getChildView() below, but it seems to be the same listener for all the buttons. The best case scenario is that I would be able to implement the button listeners in the class that instantiates the ExpandableListAdapter class, and not have to put the listeners in the actual ExpandableListAdapter class. At this point I don't even know if that is possible I have been experimenting with this tutorial/code: HERE getChildView() @Override public View getChildView(int set_new, int child_position, boolean view, View view1, ViewGroup view_group1) { ChildHolder childHolder; if (view1 == null) { view1 = LayoutInflater.from(info_context).inflate(R.layout.list_group_item_lv, null); childHolder = new ChildHolder(); childHolder.section_btn = (Button)view1.findViewById(R.id.item_title); view1.setTag(childHolder); childHolder.section_btn.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(info_context, "button pushed", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }); }else { childHolder = (ChildHolder) view1.getTag(); } childHolder.section_btn.setText(children_collection.get(set_new).GroupItemCollection.get(child_position).section); Typeface tf = Typeface.createFromAsset(info_context.getAssets(), "fonts/AGENCYR.TTF"); childHolder.section_btn.setTypeface(tf); return view1; } Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you and I will be standing by.

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  • Passing a paramter/object to a ruby unit/test before running it using TestRunner

    - by Nahir Khan
    I'm building a tool that automates a process then runs some tests on it's own results then goes to do some other stuff. In trying to clean up my code I have created a separate file that just has the test cases class. Now before I can run these tests, I have to pass the class a couple of parameters/objects before they can be run. Now the problem is that I can't seem to find a way to pass a parameter/object to the test class. Right now I am thinking to generate a Yaml file and read it in the test class but it feels "wrong" to use a temporary file for this. If anyone has a nicer solution that would be great! *********Edit******* Example Code of what I am doing right now: #!/usr/bin/ruby require 'test/unit/ui/console/testrunner' require 'yaml' require 'TS_SampleTestSuite' automatingSomething() importantInfo = getImportantInfo() File.open('filename.yml', 'w') do |f| f.puts importantInfo.to_yaml end Test::Unit::UI::Console::TestRunner.run(TS_SampleTestSuite) Now in the example above TS_SampleTestSuite needs importantInfo, so the first "test case" is a method that just reads in the information from the Yaml file filname.yml. I hope that clears up some confusion.

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  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

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  • If I use Unicode on a ISO-8859-1 site, how will that be interpreted by a browser?

    - by grg-n-sox
    So I got a site that uses ISO-8859-1 encoding and I can't change that. I want to be sure that the content I enter into the web app on the site gets parsed correctly. The parser works on a character by character basis. I also cannot change the parser, I am just writing files for it to handle. The content in my file I am telling the app to display after parsing contains Unicode characters (or at least I assume so, even if they were produced by Windows Alt Codes mapped to CP437). Using entities is not an option due to the character by character operation of the parser. The only characters that the parser escapes upon output are markup sensitive ones like ampersand, less than, and greater than symbols. I would just go ahead and put this through to see what it looks like, but output can only be seen on a publishing, which has to spend a couple days getting approved and such, and that would be asking too much for just a test case. So, long story short, if I told a site to output ?ÇÑ¥?? on a site with a meta tag stating it is supposed to use ISO-8859-1, will a browser auto-detect the Unicode and display it or will it literally translate it as ISO-8859-1 and get a different set of characters?

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  • Where in the standard is forwarding to a base class required in these situations?

    - by pgast
    Maybe even better is: Why does the standard require forwarding to a base class in these situations? (yeah yeah yeah - Why? - Because.) class B1 { public: virtual void f()=0; }; class B2 { public: virtual void f(){} }; class D : public B1,public B2{ }; class D2 : public B1,public B2{ public: using B2::f; }; class D3 : public B1,public B2{ public: void f(){ B2::f(); } }; D d; D2 d2; D3 d3; EDG gives: sourceFile.cpp sourceFile.cpp(24) : error C2259: 'D' : cannot instantiate abstract class due to following members: 'void B1::f(void)' : is abstract sourceFile.cpp(6) : see declaration of 'B1::f' sourceFile.cpp(25) : error C2259: 'D2' : cannot instantiate abstract class due to following members: 'void B1::f(void)' : is abstract sourceFile.cpp(6) : see declaration of 'B and similarly for the MS compiler. I might buy the first case,D. But in D2 - f is unambiguously defined by the using declaration, why is that not enough for the compiler to be required to fill out the vtable? Where in the standard is this situation defined?

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  • Template compilation error in Sun Studio 12

    - by Jagannath
    We are migrating to Sun Studio 12.1 and with the new compiler [ CC: Sun C++ 5.10 SunOS_sparc 2009/06/03 ]. I am getting compilation error while compiling a code that compiled fine with earlier version of Sun Compiler [ CC: Sun WorkShop 6 update 2 C++ 5.3 2001/05/15 ]. This is the compilation error I get. "Sample.cc": Error: Could not find a match for LoopThrough(int[2]) needed in main(). 1 Error(s) detected. * Error code 1. CODE: #include <iostream> #define PRINT_TRACE(STR) \ std::cout << __FILE__ << ":" << __LINE__ << ":" << STR << "\n"; template<size_t SZ> void LoopThrough(const int(&Item)[SZ]) { PRINT_TRACE("Specialized version"); for (size_t index = 0; index < SZ; ++index) { std::cout << Item[index] << "\n"; } } /* template<typename Type, size_t SZ> void LoopThrough(const Type(&Item)[SZ]) { PRINT_TRACE("Generic version"); } */ int main() { { int arr[] = { 1, 2 }; LoopThrough(arr); } } If I uncomment the code with Generic version, the code compiles fine and the generic version is called. I don't see this problem with MSVC 2010 with extensions disabled and the same case with ideone here. The specialized version of the function is called. Now the question is, is this a bug in Sun Compiler ? If yes, how could we file a bug report ?

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  • What is the correct high level schema.org microdata itemtype for a retail brand/company homepage?

    - by kpowz
    I'd like to hear which schema.org itemtype others would recommend using or have used in the case of completing a retail brand's company homepage microdata. Take for example TOMS's shoes: Example #1 - Using /Corporation as the high-level itemtype one can include a lot of great /Organization microdata, but nothing about the retail store. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Website> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Corporation> various microdata here probably including Product microdata </body> </html> NOTE: the only schema.org property specific to /Corporation is tickerSymbol & TOMS doesn't have one. Example #2 - This code would work if TOMS started their own channel of physical retail stores & each location had it's own homepage. However, for TOMS's.com, although accurate schematically & more descriptive at the face, this is incorrect microdata markup for TOMS.com, because /ShoeStore derives from /LocalBusiness - which must represent a physical place. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/Website'> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/ShoeStore'> a whole bunch of jabber here </body> </html> NOTE: Since TOMS is virtual & thus can't be a /Store this means you lose really cool properties like 'currenciesAccepted', 'paymentAccepted' & 'priceRange'. Is this just a 'sit and wait' situation until more schemas are approved for 'virtual places' or is there a validation-passing way to get the best of both worlds?

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  • 500 internal server error at form connection

    - by klox
    hi..all..i've a problem i can't connect to database what's wrong with my code?this is my code: $("#mod").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#mod").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#mod").val(data[0]); $("#seri").val(data[1]); var str=data[0]; var matches=str.match(/(EE|[EJU]).*(D)/i); $.ajax({ type:"post", url:"process1.php", data:"value="+matches+"action=tunermatches", cache:false, async:false, success: function(res){ $('#rslt').replaceWith( "<div id='value'><h6>Tuner range is" + res + " .</h6></div>" ); } }); }); and this is my process file: switch(postVar('action')) { case 'tunermatches' : tunermatches(postVar('tuner')); break; function tunermatches($tuner)){ $Tuner=mysql_real_escape_string($tuner); $sql= "SELECT remark FROM settingdata WHERE itemname="Tuner_range" AND itemdata="$Tunermatches"; $res=mysql_query($sql); $dat=mysql_fetch_array($res,MYSQL_NUM); if($dat[0]>0) { echo $dat[0]; } mysql_close($dbc); }

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  • Java - How to find the redirected url of a url?

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am accessing web pages through java as follows: URLConnection con = url.openConnection(); But in some cases, a url redirects to another url. So I want to know the url to which the previous url redirected. Below are the header fields that I got as a response: null-->[HTTP/1.1 200 OK] Cache-control-->[public,max-age=3600] last-modified-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Transfer-Encoding-->[chunked] Date-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Vary-->[Accept-Encoding] Expires-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 14:45:35 GMT] Set-Cookie-->[cl_def_hp=copenhagen; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT, cl_def_lang=en; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT] Connection-->[close] Content-Type-->[text/html; charset=iso-8859-1;] Server-->[Apache] So at present, I am constructing the redirected url from the value of the Set-Cookie header field. In the above case, the redirected url is copenhagen.craigslist.org Is there any standard way through which I can determine which url the particular url is going to redirect. I know that when a url redirects to other url, the server sends an intermediate response containing a header field that tells the url which it is going to redirect but I am not receiving that intermediate response through the url.openConnection(); method.

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  • Single log file for multiple webapps

    - by Ashish Aggarwal
    In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

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  • Does it ever make sense to make a fundamental (non-pointer) parameter const?

    - by Scott Smith
    I recently had an exchange with another C++ developer about the following use of const: void Foo(const int bar); He felt that using const in this way was good practice. I argued that it does nothing for the caller of the function (since a copy of the argument was going to be passed, there is no additional guarantee of safety with regard to overwrite). In addition, doing this prevents the implementer of Foo from modifying their private copy of the argument. So, it both mandates and advertises an implementation detail. Not the end of the world, but certainly not something to be recommended as good practice. I'm curious as to what others think on this issue. Edit: OK, I didn't realize that const-ness of the arguments didn't factor into the signature of the function. So, it is possible to mark the arguments as const in the implementation (.cpp), and not in the header (.h) - and the compiler is fine with that. That being the case, I guess the policy should be the same for making local variables const. One could make the argument that having different looking signatures in the header and source file would confuse others (as it would have confused me). While I try to follow the Principle of Least Astonishment with whatever I write, I guess it's reasonable to expect developers to recognize this as legal and useful.

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  • Building "isolated" and "automatically updated" caches (java.util.List) in Java.

    - by Aidos
    Hi Guys, I am trying to write a framework which contains a lot of short-lived caches created from a long-living cache. These short-lived caches need to be able to return their entier contents, which is a clone from the original long-living cache. Effectively what I am trying to build is a level of transaction isolation for the short-lived caches. The user should be able to modify the contents of the short-lived cache, but changes to the long-living cache should not be propogated through (there is also a case where the changes should be pushed through, depending on the Cache type). I will do my best to try and explain: master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] temporary-cache created with state [A,B,C,D,E,F] 1) temporary-cache adds item G: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 2) temporary-cache removes item B: [A,C,D,E,F] master-cache contains: [A,B,C,D,E,F] 3) master-cache adds items [X,Y,Z]: [A,B,C,D,E,F,X,Y,Z] temporary-cache contains: [A,C,D,E,F] Things get even harder when the values in the items can change and shouldn't always be updated (so I can't even share the underlying object instances, I need to use clones). I have implemented the simple approach of just creating a new instance of the List using the standard Collection constructor on ArrayList, however when you get out to about 200,000 items the system just runs out of memory. I know the value of 200,000 is excessive to iterate, but I am trying to stress my code a bit. I had thought that it might be able to somehow "proxy" the list, so the temporary-cache uses the master-cache, and stores all of it's changes (effectively a Memento for the change), however that quickly becomes a nightmare when you want to iterate the temporary-cache, or retrieve an item at a specific index. Also given that I want some modifications to the contents of the list to come through (depending on the type of the temporary-cache, whether it is "auto-update" or not) and I get completly out of my depth. Any pointers to techniques or data-structures or just general concepts to try and research will be greatly appreciated. Cheers, Aidos

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  • Any suggestions to improve my PDO connection class?

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I am pretty new to pdo so I basically just put together a simple connection class using information out of the introductory book I was reading but is this connection efficient? If anyone has any informative suggestions, I would really appreciate it. class PDOConnectionFactory{ public $con = null; // swich database? public $dbType = "mysql"; // connection parameters public $host = "localhost"; public $user = "user"; public $senha = "password"; public $db = "database"; public $persistent = false; // new PDOConnectionFactory( true ) <--- persistent connection // new PDOConnectionFactory() <--- no persistent connection public function PDOConnectionFactory( $persistent=false ){ // it verifies the persistence of the connection if( $persistent != false){ $this->persistent = true; } } public function getConnection(){ try{ $this->con = new PDO($this->dbType.":host=".$this->host.";dbname=".$this->db, $this->user, $this->senha, array( PDO::ATTR_PERSISTENT => $this->persistent ) ); // carried through successfully, it returns connected return $this->con; // in case that an error occurs, it returns the error; }catch ( PDOException $ex ){ echo "We are currently experiencing technical difficulties. We have a bunch of monkies working really hard to fix the problem. Check back soon: ".$ex->getMessage(); } } // close connection public function Close(){ if( $this->con != null ) $this->con = null; } }

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  • When should we use Views, Temporary Tables and Direct Queries ? What are the Performance issues in a

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I want to know the performance of using Views, Temp Tables and Direct Queries Usage in a Stored Procedure. I have a table that gets created every time when a trigger gets fired. I know this trigger will be fired very rare and only once at the time of setup. Now I have to use that created table from triggers at many places for fetching data and I confirms it that no one make any changes in that table. i.e ReadOnly Table. I have to use this tables data along with multiple tables to join and fetch result for further queries say select * from triggertable By Using temp table select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on select a,b, c from #tx --do something select d,e,f from #tx ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. By Using Views create view viewname ( select ... from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on ) select a,b, c from viewname --do something select d,e,f from viewname ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. This View can be used in other places as well. So I will be creating at database rather than at sp By Using Direct Query select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something . . --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. Now I can create a view/temporary table/ directly query usage in all upcoming queries. What would be the best to use in this case.

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