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  • Adding JavaScript to your code dependent upon conditions

    - by DavidMadden
    You might be in an environment where you code is source controlled and where you might have build options to different environments.  I recently encountered this where the same code, built on different configurations, would have the website at a different URL.  If you are working with ASP.NET as I am you will have to do something a bit crazy but worth while.  If someone has a more efficient solution please share. Here is what I came up with to make sure the client side script was placed into the HEAD element for the Google Analytics script.  GA wants to be the last in the HEAD element so if you are doing others in the Page_Load then you should do theirs last. The settings object below is an instance of a class that holds information I collection.  You could read from different sources depending on where you stored your unique ID for Google Analytics. *** This has been formatted to fit this screen. *** if (!IsPostBack) { if (settings.GoogleAnalyticsID != null || settings.GoogleAnalyticsID != string.Empty) { string str = @"//<!CDATA[ var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', '"  + settings.GoogleAnalyticsID + "']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']);  (function () {  var ga = document.createElement('script');  ga.type = 'text/javascript';  ga.async = true;  ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol  ? 'https://ssl' :  'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0];  s.parentNode.insertBefore(ga, s);})();"; System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlGenericControl si =  new System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlGenericControl(); si.TagName = "script"; si.Attributes.Add("type", @"text/javascript"); si.InnerHtml = sb.ToString(); this.Page.Header.Controls.Add(si); } } The code above will prevent the code from executing if it is a PostBack and then if the ID was not able to be read or something caused the settings to be lost by accident. If you have larger function to declare, you can use a StringBuilder to separate the lines. This is the most compact I wished to go and manage readability.

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  • Separating logic and data in browser game

    - by Tesserex
    I've been thinking this over for days and I'm still not sure what to do. I'm trying to refactor a combat system in PHP (...sorry.) Here's what exists so far: There are two (so far) types of entities that can participate in combat. Let's just call them players and NPCs. Their data is already written pretty well. When involved in combat, these entities are wrapped with another object in the DB called a Combatant, which gives them information about the particular fight. They can be involved in multiple combats at once. I'm trying to write the logic engine for combat by having combatants injected into it. I want to be able to mock everything for testing. In order to separate logic and data, I want to have two interfaces / base classes, one being ICombatantData and the other ICombatantLogic. The two implementers of data will be one for the real objects stored in the database, and the other for my mock objects. I'm now running into uncertainties with designing the logic side of things. I can have one implementer for each of players and NPCs, but then I have an issue. A combatant needs to be able to return the entity that it wraps. Should this getter method be part of logic or data? I feel strongly that it should be in data, because the logic part is used for executing combat, and won't be available if someone is just looking up information about an upcoming fight. But the data classes only separate mock from DB, not player from NPC. If I try having two child classes of the DB data implementer, one for each entity type, then how do I architect that while keeping my mocks in the loop? Do I need some third interface like IEntityProvider that I inject into the data classes? Also with some of the ideas I've been considering, I feel like I'll have to put checks in place to make sure you don't mismatch things, like making the logic for an NPC accidentally wrap the data for a player. Does that make any sense? Is that a situation that would even be possible if the architecture is correct, or would the right design prohibit that completely so I don't need to check for it? If someone could help me just layout a class diagram or something for this it would help me a lot. Thanks. edit Also useful to note, the mock data class doesn't really need the Entity, since I'll just be specifying all the parameters like combat stats directly instead. So maybe that will affect the correct design.

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  • Multi-threaded JOGL Problem

    - by moeabdol
    I'm writing a simple OpenGL application in Java that implements the Monte Carlo method for estimating the value of PI. The method is pretty easy. Simply, you draw a circle inside a unit square and then plot random points over the scene. Now, for each point that is inside the circle you increment the counter for in points. After determining for all the random points wither they are inside the circle or not you divide the number of in points over the total number of points you have plotted all multiplied by 4 to get an estimation of PI. It goes something like this PI = (inPoints / totalPoints) * 4. This is because mathematically the ratio of a circle's area to a square's area is PI/4, so when we multiply it by 4 we get PI. My problem doesn't lie in the algorithm itself; however, I'm having problems trying to plot the points as they are being generated instead of just plotting everything at once when the program finishes executing. I want to give the application a sense of real-time display where the user would see the points as they are being plotted. I'm a beginner at OpenGL and I'm pretty sure there is a multi-threading feature built into it. Non the less, I tried to manually create my own thread. Each worker thread plots one point at a time. Following is the psudo-code: /* this part of the code exists in display() method in MyCanvas.java which extends GLCanvas and implements GLEventListener */ // main loop for(int i = 0; i < number_of_points; i++){ RandomGenerator random = new RandomGenerator(); float x = random.nextFloat(); float y = random.nextFloat(); Thread pointThread = new Thread(new PointThread(x, y)); } gl.glFlush(); /* this part of the code exists in run() method in PointThread.java which implements Runnable */ void run(){ try{ gl.glPushMatrix(); gl.glBegin(GL2.GL_POINTS); if(pointIsIn) gl.glColor3f(1.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); // red point else gl.glColor3f(0.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); // blue point gl.glVertex3f(x, y, 0.0f); // coordinates gl.glEnd(); gl.glPopMatrix(); }catch(Exception e){ } } I'm not sure if my approach to solving this issue is correct. I hope you guys can help me out. Thanks.

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  • WiFi on Ubuntu 12.04 custom: downloading unbearably slow

    - by Mark
    iwconfig reports 11 Mbps, yet I've seen as low as <1 KBps. This is the latest in my laundry list of Ubuntu problems in a dual-boot machine (cyberpowerpc custom, intel i7-3820, nvidia gtx 570). I received it two days ago, Windows 7 running fine, still having problems with Ubuntu. The browsing is intermittent but unacceptable. e.g. I could get to this site last night but I couldn't post this question. The downloading is unbearably slow, I can't download anything or install any packages because the speed is so slow. e.g. I am trying to install vim which is inexplicably missing from my 12.04 install (add another one to the problems list) and my download speed reported in the terminal was 241 B/s. Yes, bytes. iwconfig reports 11 Mbps, which further adds to the confusion. User@ubuntu:~$ iwconfig lo no wireless extensions. wlan0 IEEE 802.11bgn ESSID:"linksys" Mode:Managed Frequency:2.437 GHz Access Point: 00:18:39:76:2C:A1 Bit Rate=11 Mb/s Tx-Power=20 dBm Retry long limit:7 RTS thr:off Fragment thr:off Power Management:off Link Quality=36/70 Signal level=-74 dBm Rx invalid nwid:0 Rx invalid crypt:0 Rx invalid frag:0 Tx excessive retries:54 Invalid misc:18 Missed beacon:0 eth0 no wireless extensions. Any ideas? I see this is a problem a lot of people, but none of the on line solutions have worked for me so far. e.g. one site recommends editing the ath9k.conf file in /etc/modprobe.d, yet this file isn't even in the folder: User@ubuntu:/$ cd etc/modprobe.d User@ubuntu:/etc/modprobe.d$ ls alsa-base.conf blacklist-oss.conf blacklist-ath_pci.conf blacklist-rare-network.conf blacklist.conf blacklist-watchdog.conf blacklist-firewire.conf dkms.conf blacklist-framebuffer.conf nvidia-current_hybrid.conf blacklist-modem.conf nvidia-graphics-drivers.conf I think the nvidia gpu might be mucking things up. I had the "blinking cursor" problem when installing in the first place, and then I had the monitor out of range problem as well. I have my faithful Asus laptop, which is running Ubuntu 12.04 just fine. The only difference is executing host -t SOA local in the terminal gives User@ubuntu:~$ host -t SOA local local has SOA record local. nobody.localhost. 42 86400 43200 604800 10800 in my new machine, and the command reports Host local. not found in the laptop. Help would be most welcome, as I am in danger of reverting back to Windows. I'm seriously considering it. Sorry for the length, trying to show my effort in resolving the issue and include terminal snippets that might be helpful.

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  • What are good design practices when working with Entity Framework

    - by AD
    This will apply mostly for an asp.net application where the data is not accessed via soa. Meaning that you get access to the objects loaded from the framework, not Transfer Objects, although some recommendation still apply. This is a community post, so please add to it as you see fit. Applies to: Entity Framework 1.0 shipped with Visual Studio 2008 sp1. Why pick EF in the first place? Considering it is a young technology with plenty of problems (see below), it may be a hard sell to get on the EF bandwagon for your project. However, it is the technology Microsoft is pushing (at the expense of Linq2Sql, which is a subset of EF). In addition, you may not be satisfied with NHibernate or other solutions out there. Whatever the reasons, there are people out there (including me) working with EF and life is not bad.make you think. EF and inheritance The first big subject is inheritance. EF does support mapping for inherited classes that are persisted in 2 ways: table per class and table the hierarchy. The modeling is easy and there are no programming issues with that part. (The following applies to table per class model as I don't have experience with table per hierarchy, which is, anyway, limited.) The real problem comes when you are trying to run queries that include one or many objects that are part of an inheritance tree: the generated sql is incredibly awful, takes a long time to get parsed by the EF and takes a long time to execute as well. This is a real show stopper. Enough that EF should probably not be used with inheritance or as little as possible. Here is an example of how bad it was. My EF model had ~30 classes, ~10 of which were part of an inheritance tree. On running a query to get one item from the Base class, something as simple as Base.Get(id), the generated SQL was over 50,000 characters. Then when you are trying to return some Associations, it degenerates even more, going as far as throwing SQL exceptions about not being able to query more than 256 tables at once. Ok, this is bad, EF concept is to allow you to create your object structure without (or with as little as possible) consideration on the actual database implementation of your table. It completely fails at this. So, recommendations? Avoid inheritance if you can, the performance will be so much better. Use it sparingly where you have to. In my opinion, this makes EF a glorified sql-generation tool for querying, but there are still advantages to using it. And ways to implement mechanism that are similar to inheritance. Bypassing inheritance with Interfaces First thing to know with trying to get some kind of inheritance going with EF is that you cannot assign a non-EF-modeled class a base class. Don't even try it, it will get overwritten by the modeler. So what to do? You can use interfaces to enforce that classes implement some functionality. For example here is a IEntity interface that allow you to define Associations between EF entities where you don't know at design time what the type of the entity would be. public enum EntityTypes{ Unknown = -1, Dog = 0, Cat } public interface IEntity { int EntityID { get; } string Name { get; } Type EntityType { get; } } public partial class Dog : IEntity { // implement EntityID and Name which could actually be fields // from your EF model Type EntityType{ get{ return EntityTypes.Dog; } } } Using this IEntity, you can then work with undefined associations in other classes // lets take a class that you defined in your model. // that class has a mapping to the columns: PetID, PetType public partial class Person { public IEntity GetPet() { return IEntityController.Get(PetID,PetType); } } which makes use of some extension functions: public class IEntityController { static public IEntity Get(int id, EntityTypes type) { switch (type) { case EntityTypes.Dog: return Dog.Get(id); case EntityTypes.Cat: return Cat.Get(id); default: throw new Exception("Invalid EntityType"); } } } Not as neat as having plain inheritance, particularly considering you have to store the PetType in an extra database field, but considering the performance gains, I would not look back. It also cannot model one-to-many, many-to-many relationship, but with creative uses of 'Union' it could be made to work. Finally, it creates the side effet of loading data in a property/function of the object, which you need to be careful about. Using a clear naming convention like GetXYZ() helps in that regards. Compiled Queries Entity Framework performance is not as good as direct database access with ADO (obviously) or Linq2SQL. There are ways to improve it however, one of which is compiling your queries. The performance of a compiled query is similar to Linq2Sql. What is a compiled query? It is simply a query for which you tell the framework to keep the parsed tree in memory so it doesn't need to be regenerated the next time you run it. So the next run, you will save the time it takes to parse the tree. Do not discount that as it is a very costly operation that gets even worse with more complex queries. There are 2 ways to compile a query: creating an ObjectQuery with EntitySQL and using CompiledQuery.Compile() function. (Note that by using an EntityDataSource in your page, you will in fact be using ObjectQuery with EntitySQL, so that gets compiled and cached). An aside here in case you don't know what EntitySQL is. It is a string-based way of writing queries against the EF. Here is an example: "select value dog from Entities.DogSet as dog where dog.ID = @ID". The syntax is pretty similar to SQL syntax. You can also do pretty complex object manipulation, which is well explained [here][1]. Ok, so here is how to do it using ObjectQuery< string query = "select value dog " + "from Entities.DogSet as dog " + "where dog.ID = @ID"; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>(query, EntityContext.Instance)); oQuery.Parameters.Add(new ObjectParameter("ID", id)); oQuery.EnablePlanCaching = true; return oQuery.FirstOrDefault(); The first time you run this query, the framework will generate the expression tree and keep it in memory. So the next time it gets executed, you will save on that costly step. In that example EnablePlanCaching = true, which is unnecessary since that is the default option. The other way to compile a query for later use is the CompiledQuery.Compile method. This uses a delegate: static readonly Func<Entities, int, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, Dog>((ctx, id) => ctx.DogSet.FirstOrDefault(it => it.ID == id)); or using linq static readonly Func<Entities, int, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, Dog>((ctx, id) => (from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.ID == id select dog).FirstOrDefault()); to call the query: query_GetDog.Invoke( YourContext, id ); The advantage of CompiledQuery is that the syntax of your query is checked at compile time, where as EntitySQL is not. However, there are other consideration... Includes Lets say you want to have the data for the dog owner to be returned by the query to avoid making 2 calls to the database. Easy to do, right? EntitySQL string query = "select value dog " + "from Entities.DogSet as dog " + "where dog.ID = @ID"; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>(query, EntityContext.Instance)).Include("Owner"); oQuery.Parameters.Add(new ObjectParameter("ID", id)); oQuery.EnablePlanCaching = true; return oQuery.FirstOrDefault(); CompiledQuery static readonly Func<Entities, int, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, Dog>((ctx, id) => (from dog in ctx.DogSet.Include("Owner") where dog.ID == id select dog).FirstOrDefault()); Now, what if you want to have the Include parametrized? What I mean is that you want to have a single Get() function that is called from different pages that care about different relationships for the dog. One cares about the Owner, another about his FavoriteFood, another about his FavotireToy and so on. Basicly, you want to tell the query which associations to load. It is easy to do with EntitySQL public Dog Get(int id, string include) { string query = "select value dog " + "from Entities.DogSet as dog " + "where dog.ID = @ID"; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>(query, EntityContext.Instance)) .IncludeMany(include); oQuery.Parameters.Add(new ObjectParameter("ID", id)); oQuery.EnablePlanCaching = true; return oQuery.FirstOrDefault(); } The include simply uses the passed string. Easy enough. Note that it is possible to improve on the Include(string) function (that accepts only a single path) with an IncludeMany(string) that will let you pass a string of comma-separated associations to load. Look further in the extension section for this function. If we try to do it with CompiledQuery however, we run into numerous problems: The obvious static readonly Func<Entities, int, string, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, Dog>((ctx, id, include) => (from dog in ctx.DogSet.Include(include) where dog.ID == id select dog).FirstOrDefault()); will choke when called with: query_GetDog.Invoke( YourContext, id, "Owner,FavoriteFood" ); Because, as mentionned above, Include() only wants to see a single path in the string and here we are giving it 2: "Owner" and "FavoriteFood" (which is not to be confused with "Owner.FavoriteFood"!). Then, let's use IncludeMany(), which is an extension function static readonly Func<Entities, int, string, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, Dog>((ctx, id, include) => (from dog in ctx.DogSet.IncludeMany(include) where dog.ID == id select dog).FirstOrDefault()); Wrong again, this time it is because the EF cannot parse IncludeMany because it is not part of the functions that is recognizes: it is an extension. Ok, so you want to pass an arbitrary number of paths to your function and Includes() only takes a single one. What to do? You could decide that you will never ever need more than, say 20 Includes, and pass each separated strings in a struct to CompiledQuery. But now the query looks like this: from dog in ctx.DogSet.Include(include1).Include(include2).Include(include3) .Include(include4).Include(include5).Include(include6) .[...].Include(include19).Include(include20) where dog.ID == id select dog which is awful as well. Ok, then, but wait a minute. Can't we return an ObjectQuery< with CompiledQuery? Then set the includes on that? Well, that what I would have thought so as well: static readonly Func<Entities, int, ObjectQuery<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, ObjectQuery<Dog>>((ctx, id) => (ObjectQuery<Dog>)(from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.ID == id select dog)); public Dog GetDog( int id, string include ) { ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = query_GetDog(id); oQuery = oQuery.IncludeMany(include); return oQuery.FirstOrDefault; } That should have worked, except that when you call IncludeMany (or Include, Where, OrderBy...) you invalidate the cached compiled query because it is an entirely new one now! So, the expression tree needs to be reparsed and you get that performance hit again. So what is the solution? You simply cannot use CompiledQueries with parametrized Includes. Use EntitySQL instead. This doesn't mean that there aren't uses for CompiledQueries. It is great for localized queries that will always be called in the same context. Ideally CompiledQuery should always be used because the syntax is checked at compile time, but due to limitation, that's not possible. An example of use would be: you may want to have a page that queries which two dogs have the same favorite food, which is a bit narrow for a BusinessLayer function, so you put it in your page and know exactly what type of includes are required. Passing more than 3 parameters to a CompiledQuery Func is limited to 5 parameters, of which the last one is the return type and the first one is your Entities object from the model. So that leaves you with 3 parameters. A pitance, but it can be improved on very easily. public struct MyParams { public string param1; public int param2; public DateTime param3; } static readonly Func<Entities, MyParams, IEnumerable<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, MyParams, IEnumerable<Dog>>((ctx, myParams) => from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.Age == myParams.param2 && dog.Name == myParams.param1 and dog.BirthDate > myParams.param3 select dog); public List<Dog> GetSomeDogs( int age, string Name, DateTime birthDate ) { MyParams myParams = new MyParams(); myParams.param1 = name; myParams.param2 = age; myParams.param3 = birthDate; return query_GetDog(YourContext,myParams).ToList(); } Return Types (this does not apply to EntitySQL queries as they aren't compiled at the same time during execution as the CompiledQuery method) Working with Linq, you usually don't force the execution of the query until the very last moment, in case some other functions downstream wants to change the query in some way: static readonly Func<Entities, int, string, IEnumerable<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, IEnumerable<Dog>>((ctx, age, name) => from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.Age == age && dog.Name == name select dog); public IEnumerable<Dog> GetSomeDogs( int age, string name ) { return query_GetDog(YourContext,age,name); } public void DataBindStuff() { IEnumerable<Dog> dogs = GetSomeDogs(4,"Bud"); // but I want the dogs ordered by BirthDate gridView.DataSource = dogs.OrderBy( it => it.BirthDate ); } What is going to happen here? By still playing with the original ObjectQuery (that is the actual return type of the Linq statement, which implements IEnumerable), it will invalidate the compiled query and be force to re-parse. So, the rule of thumb is to return a List< of objects instead. static readonly Func<Entities, int, string, IEnumerable<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, IEnumerable<Dog>>((ctx, age, name) => from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.Age == age && dog.Name == name select dog); public List<Dog> GetSomeDogs( int age, string name ) { return query_GetDog(YourContext,age,name).ToList(); //<== change here } public void DataBindStuff() { List<Dog> dogs = GetSomeDogs(4,"Bud"); // but I want the dogs ordered by BirthDate gridView.DataSource = dogs.OrderBy( it => it.BirthDate ); } When you call ToList(), the query gets executed as per the compiled query and then, later, the OrderBy is executed against the objects in memory. It may be a little bit slower, but I'm not even sure. One sure thing is that you have no worries about mis-handling the ObjectQuery and invalidating the compiled query plan. Once again, that is not a blanket statement. ToList() is a defensive programming trick, but if you have a valid reason not to use ToList(), go ahead. There are many cases in which you would want to refine the query before executing it. Performance What is the performance impact of compiling a query? It can actually be fairly large. A rule of thumb is that compiling and caching the query for reuse takes at least double the time of simply executing it without caching. For complex queries (read inherirante), I have seen upwards to 10 seconds. So, the first time a pre-compiled query gets called, you get a performance hit. After that first hit, performance is noticeably better than the same non-pre-compiled query. Practically the same as Linq2Sql When you load a page with pre-compiled queries the first time you will get a hit. It will load in maybe 5-15 seconds (obviously more than one pre-compiled queries will end up being called), while subsequent loads will take less than 300ms. Dramatic difference, and it is up to you to decide if it is ok for your first user to take a hit or you want a script to call your pages to force a compilation of the queries. Can this query be cached? { Dog dog = from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == id select dog; } No, ad-hoc Linq queries are not cached and you will incur the cost of generating the tree every single time you call it. Parametrized Queries Most search capabilities involve heavily parametrized queries. There are even libraries available that will let you build a parametrized query out of lamba expressions. The problem is that you cannot use pre-compiled queries with those. One way around that is to map out all the possible criteria in the query and flag which one you want to use: public struct MyParams { public string name; public bool checkName; public int age; public bool checkAge; } static readonly Func<Entities, MyParams, IEnumerable<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, MyParams, IEnumerable<Dog>>((ctx, myParams) => from dog in ctx.DogSet where (myParams.checkAge == true && dog.Age == myParams.age) && (myParams.checkName == true && dog.Name == myParams.name ) select dog); protected List<Dog> GetSomeDogs() { MyParams myParams = new MyParams(); myParams.name = "Bud"; myParams.checkName = true; myParams.age = 0; myParams.checkAge = false; return query_GetDog(YourContext,myParams).ToList(); } The advantage here is that you get all the benifits of a pre-compiled quert. The disadvantages are that you most likely will end up with a where clause that is pretty difficult to maintain, that you will incur a bigger penalty for pre-compiling the query and that each query you run is not as efficient as it could be (particularly with joins thrown in). Another way is to build an EntitySQL query piece by piece, like we all did with SQL. protected List<Dod> GetSomeDogs( string name, int age) { string query = "select value dog from Entities.DogSet where 1 = 1 "; if( !String.IsNullOrEmpty(name) ) query = query + " and dog.Name == @Name "; if( age > 0 ) query = query + " and dog.Age == @Age "; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>( query, YourContext ); if( !String.IsNullOrEmpty(name) ) oQuery.Parameters.Add( new ObjectParameter( "Name", name ) ); if( age > 0 ) oQuery.Parameters.Add( new ObjectParameter( "Age", age ) ); return oQuery.ToList(); } Here the problems are: - there is no syntax checking during compilation - each different combination of parameters generate a different query which will need to be pre-compiled when it is first run. In this case, there are only 4 different possible queries (no params, age-only, name-only and both params), but you can see that there can be way more with a normal world search. - Noone likes to concatenate strings! Another option is to query a large subset of the data and then narrow it down in memory. This is particularly useful if you are working with a definite subset of the data, like all the dogs in a city. You know there are a lot but you also know there aren't that many... so your CityDog search page can load all the dogs for the city in memory, which is a single pre-compiled query and then refine the results protected List<Dod> GetSomeDogs( string name, int age, string city) { string query = "select value dog from Entities.DogSet where dog.Owner.Address.City == @City "; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>( query, YourContext ); oQuery.Parameters.Add( new ObjectParameter( "City", city ) ); List<Dog> dogs = oQuery.ToList(); if( !String.IsNullOrEmpty(name) ) dogs = dogs.Where( it => it.Name == name ); if( age > 0 ) dogs = dogs.Where( it => it.Age == age ); return dogs; } It is particularly useful when you start displaying all the data then allow for filtering. Problems: - Could lead to serious data transfer if you are not careful about your subset. - You can only filter on the data that you returned. It means that if you don't return the Dog.Owner association, you will not be able to filter on the Dog.Owner.Name So what is the best solution? There isn't any. You need to pick the solution that works best for you and your problem: - Use lambda-based query building when you don't care about pre-compiling your queries. - Use fully-defined pre-compiled Linq query when your object structure is not too complex. - Use EntitySQL/string concatenation when the structure could be complex and when the possible number of different resulting queries are small (which means fewer pre-compilation hits). - Use in-memory filtering when you are working with a smallish subset of the data or when you had to fetch all of the data on the data at first anyway (if the performance is fine with all the data, then filtering in memory will not cause any time to be spent in the db). Singleton access The best way to deal with your context and entities accross all your pages is to use the singleton pattern: public sealed class YourContext { private const string instanceKey = "On3GoModelKey"; YourContext(){} public static YourEntities Instance { get { HttpContext context = HttpContext.Current; if( context == null ) return Nested.instance; if (context.Items[instanceKey] == null) { On3GoEntities entity = new On3GoEntities(); context.Items[instanceKey] = entity; } return (YourEntities)context.Items[instanceKey]; } } class Nested { // Explicit static constructor to tell C# compiler // not to mark type as beforefieldinit static Nested() { } internal static readonly YourEntities instance = new YourEntities(); } } NoTracking, is it worth it? When executing a query, you can tell the framework to track the objects it will return or not. What does it mean? With tracking enabled (the default option), the framework will track what is going on with the object (has it been modified? Created? Deleted?) and will also link objects together, when further queries are made from the database, which is what is of interest here. For example, lets assume that Dog with ID == 2 has an owner which ID == 10. Dog dog = (from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == 2 select dog).FirstOrDefault(); //dog.OwnerReference.IsLoaded == false; Person owner = (from o in YourContext.PersonSet where o.ID == 10 select dog).FirstOrDefault(); //dog.OwnerReference.IsLoaded == true; If we were to do the same with no tracking, the result would be different. ObjectQuery<Dog> oDogQuery = (ObjectQuery<Dog>) (from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == 2 select dog); oDogQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; Dog dog = oDogQuery.FirstOrDefault(); //dog.OwnerReference.IsLoaded == false; ObjectQuery<Person> oPersonQuery = (ObjectQuery<Person>) (from o in YourContext.PersonSet where o.ID == 10 select o); oPersonQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; Owner owner = oPersonQuery.FirstOrDefault(); //dog.OwnerReference.IsLoaded == false; Tracking is very useful and in a perfect world without performance issue, it would always be on. But in this world, there is a price for it, in terms of performance. So, should you use NoTracking to speed things up? It depends on what you are planning to use the data for. Is there any chance that the data your query with NoTracking can be used to make update/insert/delete in the database? If so, don't use NoTracking because associations are not tracked and will causes exceptions to be thrown. In a page where there are absolutly no updates to the database, you can use NoTracking. Mixing tracking and NoTracking is possible, but it requires you to be extra careful with updates/inserts/deletes. The problem is that if you mix then you risk having the framework trying to Attach() a NoTracking object to the context where another copy of the same object exist with tracking on. Basicly, what I am saying is that Dog dog1 = (from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == 2).FirstOrDefault(); ObjectQuery<Dog> oDogQuery = (ObjectQuery<Dog>) (from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == 2 select dog); oDogQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; Dog dog2 = oDogQuery.FirstOrDefault(); dog1 and dog2 are 2 different objects, one tracked and one not. Using the detached object in an update/insert will force an Attach() that will say "Wait a minute, I do already have an object here with the same database key. Fail". And when you Attach() one object, all of its hierarchy gets attached as well, causing problems everywhere. Be extra careful. How much faster is it with NoTracking It depends on the queries. Some are much more succeptible to tracking than other. I don't have a fast an easy rule for it, but it helps. So I should use NoTracking everywhere then? Not exactly. There are some advantages to tracking object. The first one is that the object is cached, so subsequent call for that object will not hit the database. That cache is only valid for the lifetime of the YourEntities object, which, if you use the singleton code above, is the same as the page lifetime. One page request == one YourEntity object. So for multiple calls for the same object, it will load only once per page request. (Other caching mechanism could extend that). What happens when you are using NoTracking and try to load the same object multiple times? The database will be queried each time, so there is an impact there. How often do/should you call for the same object during a single page request? As little as possible of course, but it does happens. Also remember the piece above about having the associations connected automatically for your? You don't have that with NoTracking, so if you load your data in multiple batches, you will not have a link to between them: ObjectQuery<Dog> oDogQuery = (ObjectQuery<Dog>)(from dog in YourContext.DogSet select dog); oDogQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; List<Dog> dogs = oDogQuery.ToList(); ObjectQuery<Person> oPersonQuery = (ObjectQuery<Person>)(from o in YourContext.PersonSet select o); oPersonQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; List<Person> owners = oPersonQuery.ToList(); In this case, no dog will have its .Owner property set. Some things to keep in mind when you are trying to optimize the performance. No lazy loading, what am I to do? This can be seen as a blessing in disguise. Of course it is annoying to load everything manually. However, it decreases the number of calls to the db and forces you to think about when you should load data. The more you can load in one database call the better. That was always true, but it is enforced now with this 'feature' of EF. Of course, you can call if( !ObjectReference.IsLoaded ) ObjectReference.Load(); if you want to, but a better practice is to force the framework to load the objects you know you will need in one shot. This is where the discussion about parametrized Includes begins to make sense. Lets say you have you Dog object public class Dog { public Dog Get(int id) { return YourContext.DogSet.FirstOrDefault(it => it.ID == id ); } } This is the type of function you work with all the time. It gets called from all over the place and once you have that Dog object, you will do very different things to it in different functions. First, it should be pre-compiled, because you will call that very often. Second, each different pages will want to have access to a different subset of the Dog data. Some will want the Owner, some the FavoriteToy, etc. Of course, you could call Load() for each reference you need anytime you need one. But that will generate a call to the database each time. Bad idea. So instead, each page will ask for the data it wants to see when it first request for the Dog object: static public Dog Get(int id) { return GetDog(entity,"");} static public Dog Get(int id, string includePath) { string query = "select value o " + " from YourEntities.DogSet as o " +

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  • Why does my PowerShell script hang when called in PSEXEC via a batch (.cmd) file?

    - by Kev
    I'm trying to remotely execute a PowerShell script using PSEXEC. The PowerShell script is called via a .cmd batch file. The reason we do this is to change the execution policy, run the powershell script then reset the execution policy again: On the remote server do-tasks.cmd looks like: powershell -command "&{ set-executionpolicy unrestricted}" powershell DoTasks.ps1 powershell -command "&{ set-executionpolicy restricted}" The PowerShell script DoTasks.ps1 just does this for now: Write-Output "Hello World!" Both of these scripts live in c:\windows\system32 (for now) just so they're on the PATH. On the originating server I do this: psexec \\web1928 -u administrator -p "adminpassword" do-tasks.cmd When this runs I get the following response at the command line: c:\Windows\system32>powershell -command "&{ set-executionpolicy unrestricted}" and the script runs no further. I can't ctrl-c to break the script and I just see ^C characters, I can type input from the keyboard and the characters are echoed to console. On the remote server I see that PowerShell.exe and CMD.exe are running in Task Manager's Process tab. If I end these processes then control returns to the command line on the originating server. I have tried this with just a simple .cmd batch file with a @echo hello world and it works just fine. Running do-tasks.cmd on the remote server via an RDP session works ok as well. Why is my remote batch file getting stuck when executing via PSEXEC?

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  • BIOS interrupts, privilege levels and paging

    - by Jack
    Hi, I was learning about Intel 8086-80486 CPUs and their interactions with HW. But I still don´t understand it quite well. Please, help me fill blank spots. First, I know that CPU communicates with HW using BIOS interrupts. But, what really happens in PC, when I call some INT instruction? I know that according the interrupt table some instructions begin to execute, but how by executing some instructions can BIOS recognize what I want to do? Becouse as far as I know, CPU has no extra communication channel with BIOS, it can only adress memory and receive data. So how can I instruct BIOS to do something, when I can only address RAM? Next thing I don't understand is about privilege levels. I know about ring model, and access rights, but how does the CPU know which privilege level has executed an instruction? I think that these privileges apply only when intruction is trying to address memory, but how does an application get its privilege level? I mean I know its level 3, but how is it set? And last thing, I know that paging is address scheme that is used to support aplication-transparent virtual memory, or swapping, but I could not find any information about how paging is tied with protected mode. Like if paging is like next mode independent of protected mode, or its somehow implemented within protected mode. And if it is implemented in protected mode, isn´t it too slow, to first address application space, then offset, and then paging folder, page and offset once again?

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  • Task Scheduler not running .bat or .vbs successfully

    - by Django Reinhardt
    Hi there, got this weird problem, which will hopefully have an obvious solution for some enlightened soul: We have several daily tasks we run via a .vbs script on our server (through the Task Scheduler), and for months it has been fine, but recently we've hit a problem. The .vbs script stopped successfully executing... but oddly it worked fine when ran manually! The error given in these circumstances was always "Timeout". We thought we try a little creative thinking, and run the .vbs another way: Via a .bat file. Again we hit weird issues, but with a little more debugging information, this time around. The .bat file is nothing more than... CScript "C:\location\script.vbs" > Log.txt But the Task Scheduler fails with the following error: 0x1: An incorrect function was called or an unknown function was called. The log.txt file says: CScript Error: Initialization of the Windows Script Host failed. (Not enough storage is available to process this command. ) But get this: The .bat file executes perfectly (vbs script and all) if it's executed with a double click! There's only a problem when it's run by Task Scheduler. What the hell? We're running Windows Server 2008 R2 (x64) and yes, the Task Sheduler's results are the same whether the user is logged in or not. Also, the user that can run the scripts successfully manually, is also the same user that runs the scripts in Task Scheduler. Thanks for any help for this weird problem!

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  • javaws not found

    - by Hunt
    I have a server which has centos installed in it. Recently I have installed jdk 1.6 into it. When I try to run java command from shell it's working perfectly fine. Java is stored into /usr/java/jdk1.6.0_25 and path is set to /usr/bin/ when I type which java. When I tried running javaws (which comes with the jdk 1.6 only) it is showing me following error: Java Web Start splash screen process exiting ... Bad installation: JAVAWS_HOME not set: No such file or directory Executing env command prints following details: HOSTNAME=XX-XXX-XXX-XX TERM=xterm SHELL=/bin/bash HISTSIZE=1000 OLDPWD=/usr/java SSH_TTY=/dev/pts/1 USER=root LS_COLORS=no=00:fi=00:di=00;34:ln=00;36:pi=40;33:so=00;35:bd=40;33;01:cd=40;33;01:or=01;05;37;41:mi=01;05;37;41:ex=00;32:*.cmd=00;32:*.exe=00;32:*.com=00;32:*.btm=00;32:*.bat=00;32:*.sh=00;32:*.csh=00;32:*.tar=00;31:*.tgz=00;31:*.arj=00;31:*.taz=00;31:*.lzh=00;31:*.zip=00;31:*.z=00;31:*.Z=00;31:*.gz=00;31:*.bz2=00;31:*.bz=00;31:*.tz=00;31:*.rpm=00;31:*.cpio=00;31:*.jpg=00;35:*.gif=00;35:*.bmp=00;35:*.xbm=00;35:*.xpm=00;35:*.png=00;35:*.tif=00;35: JAVA_PATH=/usr/java/jre1.6.0_24/jre/bin MAIL=/var/spool/mail/root PATH=/usr/kerberos/sbin:/usr/kerberos/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin:/root/bin:/usr/java/jre1.6.0_24/jre/bin INPUTRC=/etc/inputrc PWD=/usr/lib/jvm/jre-1.6.0-openjdk.x86_64/bin JAVA_HOME=/usr/java/jre1.6.0_24/jre/bin LANG=en_US.UTF-8 SSH_ASKPASS=/usr/libexec/openssh/gnome-ssh-askpass SHLVL=1 HOME=/root LOGNAME=root JAVAWS_HOME=/usr/java/jre1.6.0_24/bin SSH_CONNECTION=175.100.170.26 3387 64.150.190.94 22 LESSOPEN=|/usr/bin/lesspipe.sh %s G_BROKEN_FILENAMES=1 _=/bin/env

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  • BIOS interrupts, priviledge levels and paging

    - by Jack
    Hi, I was learning about Intel 8086-80486 CPUs and their interactions with HW. But I still don´t understand it quite well. Please, help me fill blank spots. First, I know that CPU communicates with HW using BIOS interrupts. But, what really happens in PC, when I call some INT instruction? I know that according the interrupt table some instructions begin to execute, but how by executing some instructions can BIOS recognize what I want to do? Becouse as far as I know, CPU has no extra communication channel with BIOS, it can only adress memory and receive data. So how can I instruct BIOS to do something, when I can only adress RAM? Next thing I dont understand is about priviledge levels. I know about ring model, and acess rights, but how CPU knows which priviledge level has executed instruction? I think that these priviledges apply only when intruction is trying to adress memory, but how applications gets its priviledge level? I mean I know its level 3, but how its set? And last thing, I know that paging is adress scheme that is used to support aplication-transparent virtual memory, or swaping, but I could not find any informations about how is paging tied with protected mode. Like if paging is like next mode independent of protectet mode, or its somehow implemented within protected mode. And if it is implemented in protected mode, isn´t it too slow, to first adress application space, than offset, and than paging folder, page and offset once again? Thank you for every response.

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  • Task Scheduler not able to execute .vbs scripts successfully

    - by Django Reinhardt
    Apologies if this has a really obvious answer! We have several daily tasks we run via a .vbs script on our server (through the Task Scheduler), and for months it has been fine, but recently we've hit a problem. The .vbs scripts stopped successfully executing (always timing out)... but could still be executed manually with no problems(!). Not knowing any good reason why the Task Scheduler should start having problems, we thought we'd try a little "creative thinking", and run the .vbs another way: Via a .bat file executed by the Task Scheduler. Again we hit weird issues, but with a little more debugging information, this time around. The .bat file run by Task Scheduler is nothing more than... CScript "C:\location\script.vbs" > Log.txt But after an attempt to run it, the Task Scheduler fails with the following error: 0x1: An incorrect function was called or an unknown function was called. The Log.txt (as output from the .bat file above) says: CScript Error: Initialization of the Windows Script Host failed. (Not enough storage is available to process this command. ) But get this: The .bat file executes perfectly (vbs script and all) if it's executed with a double click! There's only a problem when it's run by Task Scheduler. What the hell? We're running Windows Server 2008 R2 (x64) and yes, the Task Sheduler's results are the same whether the user is logged in or not. Also, the user that can run the scripts successfully manually, is also the same user that runs the scripts in Task Scheduler. Thanks for any help for this weird problem!

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  • PowerShell: New-PSDrive error handling

    - by mazebuhu
    Hello, I have a script where I mount with the command "New-PSDrive" a network drive. Now, since the script is running as a "cronjob" on a server I want to have some error detection. If for any reason the command New-PSDrive fails the script should stop executing and notify that something went wrong. I have the following code: Try { New-PSDrive -Name A -PSProvider FileSystem -Root \\server\share } Catch { ... handle error case ... } ... other code ... For testing reasons I specified a wrong server name and I get the following error "New-PSDrive : Drive root "\wrongserver\share" does not exist or it's not a folder". Which is OK since the server does not exists. But the script does not go into the Catch clause and stop. It happily continues to run and ends up in a mess since no drive is mounted :-) So my question, why? Is there any difference in Exception handling in PowerShell? I should also note that I'm a noob in PowerShell scripting. Bye, Martin

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  • ldap_modify: Insufficient access (50)

    - by Lynn Owens
    I am running an OpenLDAP 2.4 server that uses the SSL service for communication. It works for lookups. I am trying to add mirror mode replication. So this is the command that I'm executing: ldapmodify -D "cn=myuser,dc=mydomain,dc=com" -H ldaps://myloadbalancer -W -f /etc/ldap/ldif/server_id.ldif Where this is my server_id.ldif: dn: cn=config changetype: modify replace: olcServerID olcServerID: 1 myserver1 olcServerID: 2 myserver2 and this is my cn\=config.ldif in the slapd.d tree of text files: dn: cn=config objectClass: olcGlobal cn: config olcArgsFile: /var/run/slapd/slapd.args olcPidFile: /var/run/slapd/slapd.pid olcToolThreads: 1 structuralObjectClass: olcGlobal entryUUID: ff9689de-c61d-1031-880b-c3eb45d66183 creatorsName: cn=config createTimestamp: 20121118224947Z olcLogLevel: stats olcTLSCertificateFile: /etc/ldap/certs/ldapscert.pem olcTLSCertificateKeyFile: /etc/ldap/certs/ldapskey.pem olcTLSCACertificateFile: /etc/ldap/certs/ldapscert.pem olcTLSVerifyClient: never entryCSN: 20121119022009.770692Z#000000#000#000000 modifiersName: gidNumber=0+uidNumber=0,cn=peercred,cn=external,cn=auth modifyTimestamp: 20121119022009Z But unfortunately I'm getting this: Enter LDAP Password: modifying entry "cn=config" ldap_modify: Insufficient access (50) If I try to specify the config database I get this: ldapmodify -H 'ldaps://myloadbalancer/cn=config' -D "cn=myuser,cn=config" -W -f ./server_id.ldif Enter LDAP Password: ldap_bind: Invalid credentials (49)} Does anyone know how I can add the serverID to the config database so that I can complete the setup of mirror mode?

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  • Launching firefox on remote server causes local firefox to start instead

    - by terdon
    Right, this is strange. I am connecting from my laptop (LMDE) to a remote host (SUSE linux enterprise) using ssh -X. I want to launch a firefox instance running on the remote server so I can have access to webpages on a private network. User@RemoteMachine $ which -a firefox /usr/bin/firefox User@RemoteMachine $ /usr/bin/firefox --version Mozilla Firefox 2.0.0.2, Copyright (c) 1998 - 2007 mozilla.org User@LocalMachine $ which -a firefox /usr/bin/firefox User@LocalMachine $ /usr/bin/firefox --version Mozilla Firefox 14.0.1 Now, if firefox is not running on the local machine, everything goes as expected and executing firefox on the remote machine causes a firefox (v 2.0) window running on the remote machine to show up. However, if firefox is running on the local machine a second window of firefox 14.0.1 running on the local machine appears. I have checked top in both machines. In the 2nd case, a firefox process briefely appears on the remote machine and then disappears when the local version of firefox is launched. My questions are the following: What gives? How/why can firefox connect to its existing instance on the local machine? The remote machine appears to have access to the local machine. It, in fact, appears to have the right to execute programs on my local machine. Am I missing something or is this just weird? Is this not a security risk?

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  • Windows 7 Sysprep Default User

    - by Demonwolf
    I seem to be having a problem with implementing my sysprep. I have been playing with Windows 7, WAIK, Server 2008 R2 and various other things. I managed to create a WIM with everything I need installed and I have worked out the autounattend.xml. I now have a Windows 7 64-bit complete unattended install from a USB device. It has all my programs, setting and everything done except one thing - the default profile set up 100% correctly. I have created a mostly set up default profile. I booted into audit mode, customized the Administrator account (mostly anyway) and then used sysprep with an unattend.xml file containing the copyprofile=true command. The file was set up with the WSIM and does not contain any extra info. This all works wonderfully. I recreated the WIM and all was good. I then decided to move the default location of the visible stuff in the user profile (Documents, Music, Pictures etc.) without changing the location of Appdata or other hidden folders. This is where things went a little... wrong. I went to the user folder (generally has the User name) with all the other folders in it. I right clicked on My Documents, found the location tab and changed it to M:\Documents. Now if I run sysprep /generalize /oobe /reboot /unattend:unattend.xml it starts the generalise... then spits out a fatal error and goes no further. The setuperr.log contains the following errors: 2011-08-18 23:21:43, Error [0x0f0043] SYSPRP WinMain:The sysprep dialog box returned FALSE 2011-08-18 23:31:57, Error [0x0f0082] SYSPRP LaunchDll:Failure occurred while executing 'C:\Windows\System32\slc.dll,SLReArmWindows', returned error code -1073425657 2011-08-18 23:31:57, Error [0x0f0070] SYSPRP RunExternalDlls:An error occurred while running registry sysprep DLLs, halting sysprep execution. dwRet = -1073425657 2011-08-18 23:31:57, Error [0x0f00a8] SYSPRP WinMain:Hit failure while processing sysprep generalize internal providers; hr = 0xc004d307 Does anyone have any ideas how I can redirect My Documents and other items in a user file to a second drive in the default profile so it affects each person logging in?

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  • Why am I getting a warning that windows is logging on with a temporary profile to run a task scheduler task?

    - by Dan C
    I am having a strange problem with the Windows Server 2008 Task Scheduler. I have to run a small command-line application every few minutes. This application just executes a quick web service call on the localhost and adds an entry to a log file; so it should not need anything special in terms of permissions. First, I created a new user account "my_scheduler" just for the task. This account is a member of the Users group (not sure what other settings I should turn on/off) and set it's password to not expire. I then create a task to run the application every few minutes. I set it to "Run whether user is logged on or not" and turned on "Do not store password. The task will only have access to local resources" (I did this since it's not hitting anything on the network. I did not turn on "Run with highest privileges" since it does not seem to need them. I set the schedule to "After triggered, repeat every 30 minutes for a duration of 1 day" and "Allow task to be run on demand" (no other settings enabled). However, I notice that in the Event Log, I see a bunch of these warnings whenever the task is run: "Windows cannot find the local profile and is logging you on with a temporary profile. Changes you make to this profile will be lost when you log off." Even though I get the warning, the task is executing (I see the log entries appearing). Another (possibly related) issue is that I also see that it's starting multiple copies of the task (within a few seconds of each other) even though it should only start one. This is also a big problem. Any idea how I can fix this? Thanks in advance, Dan

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  • scp error: "Permission denied (publickey). lost connection"

    - by Winston C. Yang
    I tried to scp an svn dump to savannah, but I got the following error at the end. Permission denied (publickey). lost connection The scp command and verbose output are below. Any ideas? [wcyang@be2-wireless-pittnet-60-37 ~]$ scp -v diffcolor-dump.bz2 [email protected]:/srv/download/diffcolor/ Executing: program /usr/bin/ssh host dl.sv.gnu.org, user wcyang, command scp -v -t /srv/download/diffcolor/ OpenSSH_5.2p1, OpenSSL 0.9.7l 28 Sep 2006 debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh_config debug1: Connecting to dl.sv.gnu.org [140.186.70.73] port 22. debug1: Connection established. debug1: identity file /Users/wcyang/.ssh/identity type -1 debug1: identity file /Users/wcyang/.ssh/id_rsa type 1 debug1: identity file /Users/wcyang/.ssh/id_dsa type -1 debug1: Remote protocol version 2.0, remote software version OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-5 debug1: match: OpenSSH_5.1p1 Debian-5 pat OpenSSH* debug1: Enabling compatibility mode for protocol 2.0 debug1: Local version string SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.2 debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT received debug1: kex: server->client aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: kex: client->server aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REQUEST(1024<1024<8192) sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_INIT sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REPLY debug1: Host 'dl.sv.gnu.org' is known and matches the RSA host key. debug1: Found key in /Users/wcyang/.ssh/known_hosts:1 debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /Users/wcyang/.ssh/identity debug1: Offering public key: /Users/wcyang/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /Users/wcyang/.ssh/id_dsa debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey). lost connection

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  • How to boot Linux from a 16gb USB flash drive

    - by Chris Harris
    I'm trying to install Linux on a single partition of a USB flash drive that's larger than 4gb. The first place I went to is http://pendrivelinux.com. I can follow these instructions for installing Xubuntu 9.04 perfectly, which unfortunately break down when I try to scale it up beyond 4gb. There are several other tools to do this (unetbootin and usb-creator) which follow a very similar formula. I figured out that a big problem of mine was that all of these tools assume the USB drive is formatted in FAT32, which unfortunately cannot hold a single file larger than 4gb. This is unfortunate because I want to use just one partition, so that my persistance file, casper-rw, looks like one big partition to the OS once I've booted off of the USB drive. I then tried following a myriad of instructions involving formatting the drive as one large ext2 filesystem and using extlinux to create a single bootable ext2 file system. This doesn't work for me however, after about 20 attempts verifying and slightly tweaking the formula, I cannot seem to get a "good" bootable ext2 file system built. I'm not entirely sure what's going on, but it seems as though no matter how hard I try, I cannot get the ext2 file system to remain coherent after copying the Linux ISO contents over, copying the MBR, and executing extlinux to create the ext bootloader. Every time, after I follow these steps (in any order) and reboot, I get an unbootable USB drive. If I then mount the drive under Linux again, I see a mess of a file system (inodes have clearly been screwed up somewhere along the way). I suspected that the USB drive wasn't being fully flushed, so I tried using the "sync" and "unmount" commands before rebooting which didn't affect things at all. I guess I have several possible questions - but let's start with the obvious - is there something I'm missing to create a bootable ext2 USB flash drive that's large (e.g. 16gb)?

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  • How to register an agent with launchd

    - by Konrad Rudolph
    I’m unable to schedule a periodic launch with launchctl/launchd on OS X (Leopard). Basically, I’m unable to find a step-by-step list of instructions on the web and the intuitive approach doesn’t work. The sync.plist file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple Computer//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>Label</key> <string>net.madrat.utils.sync</string> <key>Program</key> <string>rsync</string> <key>ProgramArguments</key> <array> <string>-ar</string> <string>/path/to/folder/</string> <string>/path/to/backup/</string> </array> <key>StartInterval</key> <integer>7200</integer> </dict> </plist> I’ve put this script inside the path ~/Library/LaunchAgents. Next, I’ve registered the script using launchctl load ~/Library/LaunchAgents/sync.plist Finally, to test that it works, I started the job: launchctl start net.madrat.utils.sync – Nothing happened. Manually executing the rsync command in the terminal yields the expected result. I’m fairly sure that the job was registered correctly because if I try to start a non-existing job, I get an error message (which I didn’t get in the above command). What did I do wrong?

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  • 'pskill \\hostname winlogon' might budge a server "stuck rebooting", but why?

    - by Snoi
    Question: Executing remote (Sysinternals) command... pskill \\machine winlogon ...can budge a server that is stuck rebooting, but how/why does this work? How do you know which service to kill? To recreate (e.g.): You run Windows Update, allow a reboot, and ...NOTHING! RDP gets cut off but the server does not reboot. Just about every other service seems to stay up. Further Background: I've faced this problem on VMs hosted around the planet for some years, and used various sc.exe and shutdown commands to learn the state of and attempt remote reboot of servers in such a state, with limited success. Most datacentres don't offer any way to see the true console or power off/on such machines. They charge $$ for you to call them to do such simple things after hours, when you nearly always have to run your maint tasks. e.g. NET USE \\machine\IPC$ /USER:login password sc \\machine query RpcSs sc \\machine query TermService sc \\machine query wuauserv tasklist /s machine This occasionally works for me... shutdown /m \\machine /r /f /t: 0 ...but more often than not it fails with: A system shutdown is in progress (1115). I found this question, and the answer by @Tweek, and it worked really well, but was I just lucky? Can not RDP to Win 2003 box or initiate remote restart @Tweek said to run: pskill \\hostname winlogon ...and that got me past this situation in a new way (Server 2008 R2 in my most recent case) - really useful! I just need to understand if I got lucky or there is more science here. What I'd like to know is why the winlogon process? @Livne said to use "tasklist /s HostName" to see what is the culprit, but how do you tell from the listed output? It's just a list of running tasks etc. From that I would not know what to look for, nor could I see anything about the winlogon process that suggested to my eyes that was the one to kill.

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  • kvm works only when kvm-intel is unloaded

    - by Sathya
    I am new to kvm. I have this strange issue. But before explaining the issue, here is my set up. I try to install VM on my Host which is a Acer Laptop 5720 Has T7500 Intel processor. The cpu flags indicate that Virtualization is supported. I run Ubuntu 10.04 (lucid) on it. It comes with kvm. Now coming to the issue - I dont get any errors while executing "sudo modprobe kvm-intel". So I presume my processor does indeed support hardware virtualization. I use virt-manager and create a VM on which I install ubuntu from an *.iso file. When I start the VM it says it is running. No signs of any trouble. I can see the domain list in "virsh list". But when I try to connect to the VM thru VNC, all I get to see is a blank screen (no cursor). There is no response to any key press. I changed the video mode etc. Tried all different combinations but none work. But strangely, if I shutdown the vm an virt-manager and then unload the module by doing "sudo modprove -r kvm-intel", everything works fine. ie., I can see the screen via VNC. I am able to install the OS and so on. So what does this mean ? IS hardware virtualization not supported ? How come there is no error anywhere ? dmesg | grep kvm doesnt report anything. Can someone throw light on what excatly is happening ?

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  • SQL Server 2008 Unique Problem for bring DB Online...

    - by Nai
    This is my error I am facing TITLE: Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo Set offline failed for Database 'Go3D_Retailer ------------------------------ ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: An exception occurred while executing a Transact-SQL statement or batch. (Microsoft.SqlServer.ConnectionInfo) Unable to open the physical file "E:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.MSSQLSERVER\MSSQL\DATA\ftrow_Go3D_catalog.ndf". Operating system error 2: "2(failed to retrieve text for this error. Reason: 15105)". Database 'Go3D_Retailer' cannot be opened due to inaccessible files or insufficient memory or disk space. See the SQL Server errorlog for details. ALTER DATABASE statement failed. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 5120) Background to this error I've been trying to move my destination logshipping database to another physical server for analysis purposes. Because I do not have active directory set up, I had to hack my process by using the same username/password for both the source and destination servers to get the process to work. Following that, I used this guy's solution to move the destination database to another server. However, this error occurs when I try to bring the database back online. I don't have an E drive on my server and I have no idea why it's trying to open a file from E drive. I have over a 100gb left on my hard disk so it's definitely not a space issue. This sounds like a bug... Any ideas? I'm running SQL Server 2008 Enterprise edition on Windows Server 2008 R2 64bit

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  • Error in data view when connecting to an Oracle DB

    - by Mike Polen
    When using SharePoint Designer I found this link that stepped me through how to get it working: http://spsolution.blogspot.com/2008/12/how-to-insert-data-source-in-sharepoint.html That allowed SharePoint Designer to talk to Oracle, but when I placed a data view on a page it gave me the following error: Error while executing web part: System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException: ORA-00923: FROM keyword not found where expected at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnection.CheckError(OciErrorHandle errorHandle, Int32 rc) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleCommand.Execute(OciStatementHandle statementHandle, CommandBehavior behavior, Boolean needRowid, OciRowidDescriptor& rowidDescriptor, ArrayList& resultParameterOrdinals) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleCommand.Execute(OciStatementHandle statementHandle, CommandBehavior behavior, ArrayList& resultParameterOrdinals) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleCommand.ExecuteDbDataReader(CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbCommand.Syst... 09/14/2009 14:40:23.52* w3wp.exe (0x0FA0) 0x1A88 Windows SharePoint Services Web Parts 89a1 Monitorable ... em.Data.IDbCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, String srcTable) at System.Web.UI.WebControls.SqlDataSourceView.ExecuteSelect(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments) at System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Select(DataSourceSelectArguments arguments, DataSourceViewSelectCallback callback) at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.SingleDataSource.GetXPathNavigatorInternal() ... 09/14/2009 14:40:23.52* w3wp.exe (0x0FA0) 0x1A88 Windows SharePoint Services Web Parts 89a1 Monitorable ... at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.SingleDataSource.GetXPathNavigator() at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls.SingleDataSource.GetXPathNavigator(IDataSource datasource, Boolean originalData) at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.GetXPathNavigator(String viewPath) at Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages.DataFormWebPart.PrepareAndPerformTransform() I am mystified.

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  • Task Scheduler not able to execute .vbs successfully

    - by Django Reinhardt
    Hi there, got this weird problem, which will hopefully have an obvious solution for some enlightened soul: We have several daily tasks we run via a .vbs script on our server (through the Task Scheduler), and for months it has been fine, but recently we've hit a problem. The .vbs script stopped successfully executing... but oddly it worked fine when ran manually! The error given in these circumstances was always "Timeout". We thought we try a little creative thinking, and run the .vbs another way: Via a .bat file. Again we hit weird issues, but with a little more debugging information, this time around. The .bat file is nothing more than... CScript "C:\location\script.vbs" > Log.txt But the Task Scheduler fails with the following error: 0x1: An incorrect function was called or an unknown function was called. The log.txt file says: CScript Error: Initialization of the Windows Script Host failed. (Not enough storage is available to process this command. ) But get this: The .bat file executes perfectly (vbs script and all) if it's executed with a double click! There's only a problem when it's run by Task Scheduler. What the hell? We're running Windows Server 2008 R2 (x64) and yes, the Task Sheduler's results are the same whether the user is logged in or not. Also, the user that can run the scripts successfully manually, is also the same user that runs the scripts in Task Scheduler. Thanks for any help for this weird problem!

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  • Windows Server 2008 Create Symbolic Link, updated Security Policy still gives privilege error

    - by Matt
    Windows Server 2008, RC2. I am trying to create a symbolic/soft link using the mklink command: mklink /D LinkName TargetDir e.g. c:\temp\>mklink /D foo bar This works fine if I run the command line as Administrator. However, I need it to work for regular users as well, because ultimately I need another program (executing as a user) to be able to do this. So, I updated the Local Security Policy via secpol.msc. Under "Local Policies" "User Rights Management" "Create symbolic links", I added "Users" to the security setting. I rebooted the machine. It still didn't work. So I added "Everyone" to the policy. Rebooted. And STILL it didn't work. What on earth am I doing wrong here? I think my user is even an Administrator on this box, and running plain command line even with this updated policy in place still gives me: You do not have sufficient privilege to perform this operation.

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