Search Results

Search found 93603 results on 3745 pages for 'one to many'.

Page 81/3745 | < Previous Page | 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88  | Next Page >

  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

    Read the article

  • Packing an exe + dll into one executable (not .NET)

    - by Bluebird75
    Hi, Is anybody aware of a program that can pack several DLL and a .EXE into one executable. I am not talking about .NET case here, I am talking about general DLLs, some of which I generate in C++, some of others are external DLL I have no control over. My specific case is a python program packaged with py2exe, where I would like to "hide" the other DLL by packing them. The question is general enough though. The things that had a look at: ILMerge: specific to .NET NETZ: specific to .NET UPX: does DLL compression but not multiple DLL + EXE packing FileJoiner: Almost got it. It can pack executable + anything into one exe but when opened, it will launch the default opener for every file that was packed. So, if the user user dlldepend installed, it will launch it (becaues that's the default dll opener). Maybe that's not possible ? Summary of the answers: DLL opening is managed by the OS, so packing DLL into executable means that at some point, they need to be extracted to a place where the OS can find them. No magic bullet. So, what I want is not possible. Unless... We change something in the OS. Thanks Conrad for pointing me to ThinInstall, which virtualise the application and the OS loading mechanism. With ThinInstall, it is possible to pack everything in one exe (DLL, registry settings, ...).

    Read the article

  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

    Read the article

  • Incrementing value by one over a lot of rows

    - by Andy Gee
    Edit: I think the answer to my question lies in the ability to set user defined variables in MySQL through PHP - the answer by Multifarious has pointed me in this direction Currently I have a script to cycle over 10M records, it's very slow and it goes like this: I first get a block of 1000 results in an array similar to this: $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>46732, 'db_id'=>5532); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>12324, 'db_id'=>1234); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>45235, 'db_id'=>8345); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>75543, 'db_id'=>2562); I then cycle through them one by one and update the record $mult = count($matches)*2; foreach($matches as $m) { $rank++; $score = (($m[quality_rank] + $rank)/($mult))*100; $s = "UPDATE `packages_sorted` SET `price_rank` = '".$rank."', `deal_score` = '".$score."' WHERE `db_id` = '".$m[db_id]."' LIMIT 1"; } It seems like this is a very slow way of doing it but I can't find another way to increment the field price_rank by one each time. Can anyone suggest a better method. Note: Although I wouldn't usually store this kind of value in a database I really do need on this occasion for comparison search queries later on in the project. Any help would be kindly appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • .net printing multiple reports in one document (architecture question)

    - by LawsonM
    I understand how to print a single document via the PrintDocument class. However, I want to print multiple reports in one document. Each "report" will consist of charts, tables, etc. I want to have two reports per page. I've studied the few examples I can find on how to combine multiple documents into one; however, they always seem to work by creating a collection of objects (e.g. customer or order) that are then iterated over and drawn in the OnPrintPage method. My problem and hence the "architecture" question is that I don't want to cache the objects required to produce the report since they are very large and memory intensive. I'd simply like the resulting "report". One thought I had was to print the report to a metafile, cache that instead in a "MultiplePrintDocument" class and then position those images appropriately two to a page in the OnPrintPage method. I think this would be a lot more efficient and scalable in my case. But I'm not a professional programmer and can't figure out if I'm barking up the wrong tree here. I think the Graphics.BeginContainer and Graphics.Save methods might be relevant, but can't figure out how to implement or if there is a better way. Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • In MySql Stored Procedure updating more than one time

    - by Both FM
    In MySql UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=92 AND `ItemID`=28; It successfully update only one row , where inventoryID = 92 and itemID=28 , the following message displayed. 1 row(s) affected when I put this on stored procedure, as follow CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `Sample`(IN itemId INT, IN itemQnty DOUBLE, IN invID INT) BEGIN DECLARE crntQnty DOUBLE; DECLARE nwQnty DOUBLE; SET crntQnty=(SELECT `QuantityOnHand` FROM `item` WHERE id=itemId); SET nwQnty=itemQnty+crntQnty; UPDATE `item` SET `QuantityOnHand`=nwQnty WHERE `Id`=itemId; UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=invID AND `ItemID`=itemId; END$$ calling stored procedures CALL Sample(28,10,92) It update all the status = 1 in inventoryentry against InventoryID (i.e. 92) ignoring ItemID, instead of updating only one row. The following message displayed! 5 row(s) affected Why Stored procedure ignoring itemID in update statement ? or Why Stored procedure updating more than one time? But without Stored procedure it working fine.

    Read the article

  • Modeling many-to-one with constraints?

    - by Greg Beech
    I'm attempting to create a database model for movie classifications, where each movie could have a single classification from each of one of multiple rating systems (e.g. BBFC, MPAA). This is the current design, with all implied PKs and FKs: TABLE Movie ( MovieId INT ) TABLE ClassificationSystem ( ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE Classification ( ClassificationId INT, ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE MovieClassification ( MovieId INT, ClassificationId INT, Advice NVARCHAR(250) -- description of why the classification was given ) The problem is with the MovieClassification table whose constraints would allow multiple classifications from the same system, whereas it should ideally only permit either zero or one classifications from a given system. Is there any reasonable way to restructure this so that a movie having exactly zero or one classifications from any given system is enforced by database constraints, given the following requirements? Do not duplicate information that could be looked up (i.e. duplicating ClassificationSystemId in the MovieClassification table is not a good solution because this could get out of sync with the value in the Classification table) Remain extensible to multiple classification systems (i.e. a new classification system does not require any changes to the table structure)? Note also the Advice column - each mapping of a movie to a classification needs to have a textual description of why that classification was given to that movie. Any design would need to support this.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid notice in php when one of the conditions is not true

    - by user225269
    I've notice that when one of the two conditions in a php if statement is not true. You get an undefined index notice for the statement that is not true. And the result in my case is a distorted web page. For example, this code: <?php session_start(); if (!isset($_SESSION['loginAdmin']) && ($_SESSION['loginAdmin'] != '')) { header ("Location: loginam.php"); } else { include('head2.php'); } if (!isset($_SESSION['login']) && ($_SESSION['login'] != '')) { header ("Location: login.php"); } else { include('head3.php'); } ?> If one of the if statements is not true. The one that is not true will give you a notice that it is undefined. In my case it says that the session 'login' is not defined. If session 'LoginAdmin' is used. What can you recommend that I would do in order to avoid these undefined index notice.

    Read the article

  • Data confusion - Selecting data in one DataGridView based on selection in another

    - by Logan Young
    This probably isn't the best way to do what I want, but I can't think of anything else to try... NB: I'm using Visual Basic.NET My form has 2 DataGridView controls. One of these is bound to a DataSet, the other isn't visible - at least not until the user selects a uniqueidentifier cell in the 1st grid. When the user makes this selection, the 2nd grid will become visible and display the row from another with the same id as the one selected in the 1st grid. So, basically, I want to dynamically display data in one grid based on user selection in another grid. My code looks like this so far... Private Sub RulesGrid_CellClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles RulesGrid.CellClick Try FlagsGrid.Visible = True ''// MsgBox(RulesGrid.CurrentCell.Value.ToString()) Dim sql As String = "SELECT * FROM ctblMKA_Status_Flags " + _ "WHERE intStatusID = '" & RulesGrid.CurrentCell.Value & "'" DSFlags = GetDS(sql) DSFlags.DataSetName = "FlagsDataSet" FlagsGrid.DataSource = DSFlags ProgressBar.Visible = False Catch ex As Exception MsgBox(ex.ToString) End Try End Sub I feel like I'm missing something here... Any ideas anyone?

    Read the article

  • Overlaying one div over another, but not knowing the size of the div

    - by andyuk
    I'm trying to lay one div over another. This is really simple if you know the dimensions of the div. Solved here: How to overlay one div over another div So, here is my HTML: <div class="container"> <div class="overlay"></div> <div class="content"></div> </div> In my case, I don't know the exact dimensions of the "content" or "container" div. This is because I don't have control over any of the content in the div (we are making our app extensible for 3rd party developers). See my example on jsFiddle The overlay should cover the content entirely. Width 100% and Height 100%. However, this does not work because in my example I positioned the overlay absolutely. One solution is to use JavaScript to get the size of the content div and then set the size of the overlay. I don't like this solution much since if image sizes are not specified, you need to wait until images are loaded and recalculate the size of the div. Is there any way of solving this problem in CSS? 

    Read the article

  • Multiple Foreign keys to a single table and single key pointing to more than one table

    - by user1216775
    I need some suggestions from the database design experts here. I have around six foreign keys into a single table (defect) which all point to primary key in user table. It is like: defect (.....,assigned_to,created_by,updated_by,closed_by...) If I want to get information about the defect I can make six joins. Do we have any better way to do it? Another one is I have a states table which can store one of the user-defined set of values. I have defect table and task table and I want both of these tables to share the common state table (New, In Progress etc.). So I created: task (.....,state_id,type_id,.....) defect(.....,state_id,type_id,...) state(state_id,state_name,...) importance(imp_id,imp_name,...) There are many such common attributes along with state like importance(normal, urgent etc), priority etc. And for all of them I want to use same table. I am keeping one flag in each of the tables to differentiate task and defect. What is the best solution in such a case? If somebody is using this application in health domain, they would like to assign different types, states, importances for their defect or tasks. Moreover when a user selects any project I want to display all the types,states etc under configuration parameters section.

    Read the article

  • "Find all tiles connected to this one" project

    - by Omega
    Remember MS Paint? The bucket tool? If you used it and clicked on a pixel, all pixels connected to this pixel that are the same are affected. The theory is, I suppose, to check if there is any pixel adjacent to the selected one. If such pixel is the same type as the selected one, check for more adjacent pixels in this one, and so on. I want to implement something similar in VB.NET. Basically I have a 2D array map which represents the map. Let's assume there are only two types of tile: 0 and 1. Now, I got pretty much everything ready: I got my 2d map and I can tell which tile is clicked and tell what array indexes are the ones that represent such tile. Now for the "painting" process. Whenever I think about it, I can't figure a convenient way to execute such iteration. Can someone help me choosing a correct design/way/tip to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • On counting pairs of words that differ by one letter

    - by Quintofron
    Let us consider n words, each of length k. Those words consist of letters over an alphabet (whose cardinality is n) with defined order. The task is to derive an O(nk) algorithm to count the number of pairs of words that differ by one position (no matter which one exactly, as long as it's only a single position). For instance, in the following set of words (n = 5, k = 4): abcd, abdd, adcb, adcd, aecd there are 5 such pairs: (abcd, abdd), (abcd, adcd), (abcd, aecd), (adcb, adcd), (adcd, aecd). So far I've managed to find an algorithm that solves a slightly easier problem: counting the number of pairs of words that differ by one GIVEN position (i-th). In order to do this I swap the letter at the ith position with the last letter within each word, perform a Radix sort (ignoring the last position in each word - formerly the ith position), linearly detect words whose letters at the first 1 to k-1 positions are the same, eventually count the number of occurrences of each letter at the last (originally ith) position within each set of duplicates and calculate the desired pairs (the last part is simple). However, the algorithm above doesn't seem to be applicable to the main problem (under the O(nk) constraint) - at least not without some modifications. Any idea how to solve this?

    Read the article

  • binding list variable one after another

    - by prince23
    hi, this is my class public class Users { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } public string Gender { get; set; } public string Country { get; set; } } i am defing an list variable List<Users> myList = new List<Users> i have four functions each one returing a string array {of data content like, names, age, gender, country} **functions names** FunNames(); FunAge(); Fungender(); Funcountry(); now i need to bind these these return values of all these functions into list one by one like. myList =FunNames(); myList =FunAge(); myList Fungender(); ..... hope my Question is clear. any help would be great thank you.

    Read the article

  • Update all but one result?

    - by Jack M.
    I'm trying to update a table to remove all but the first instance of a group. Basically, I have a table with vehicle data related to an insurance policy. Each policy should only have one power_unit. Everything else should be a towed unit. Unfortunately, a bug has been duplicating power units, and now I need to clean this up. There are ~10k records in the database, and ~4k of them have doubled up power units. The important bits of my table (call it test1 for now) are: +------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(10) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | policy_id | int(10) | NO | | NULL | | | power_unit | int(1) | NO | | 0 | | +------------+---------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ And some sample data: +----+-----------+------------+ | id | policy_id | power_unit | +----+-----------+------------+ | 1 | 1 | 1 | | 2 | 1 | 1 | | 3 | 1 | 1 | | 4 | 2 | 1 | | 5 | 2 | 1 | | 6 | 2 | 1 | | 7 | 4 | 1 | | 8 | 4 | 1 | | 9 | 4 | 1 | | 10 | 5 | 1 | | 11 | 5 | 1 | | 12 | 6 | 1 | +----+-----------+------------+ Basically I'd like to end up where policy_id 1 has only one power_unit=1. Same for policy_id 2, 3, 4, etc. For policy_id 6, nothing should change (there is only one entry, and it is a power_unit already). I don't know if this is possible, but it was an intriguing problem for me, so I thought you guys might find it the same.

    Read the article

  • Manage the scrolling of just one element in a ScrollView

    - by morgan1189
    So, I have a ScrollView which has cards on it. ScrollView must be paging enabled. The goal is that the user must be able to scroll it, even if it has only one card. Since i am having the frame of ScrollView of exactly the same width and height as a picture of a card, i decided to increase the width of a ScrollView.contentSize and add one point to it. It turns out to be working fine, but it glitches a bit - when i drag the card to the left, and then grab it again it moves to right a little bit (i guess, for the value of that one point). If i increase the contentSize, the shift increases too (for example, if the content size is increased by ten, the shift value is ten points too). It really irritates me a lot and I want to get rid of it. Any advice on how to do that? Help is much appreciated. UPD: I tried to manually re-center the card in the scrollViewDidEndDecelerating but that didn't help. My guess for now is that the problem can be solved by setting the content offset to the right value (because now it's (0,0)), but I can't figure out how to do it.

    Read the article

  • fluent nhibernate one to many mapping

    - by Sammy
    I am trying to figure out what I thought was just a simple one to many mapping using fluent Nhibernate. I hoping someone can point me to the right directory to achieve this one to many relations I have an articles table and a categories table Many Articles can only belong to one Category Now my Categores table has 4 Categories and Articles has one article associated with cateory1 here is my setup. using FluentNHibernate.Mapping; using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; namespace FluentMapping { public class Article { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Category Category{get;set;} } public class Category { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual IList<Article> Articles { get; set; } public Category() { Articles=new List<Article>(); } public virtual void AddArticle(Article article) { article.Category = this; Articles.Add(article); } public virtual void RemoveArticle(Article article) { Articles.Remove(article); } } public class ArticleMap:ClassMap<Article> { public ArticleMap() { Table("Articles"); Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.Title); References(x => x.Category).Column("CategoryId").LazyLoad(); } public class CategoryMap:ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Table("Categories"); Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.Description); HasMany(x => x.Articles).KeyColumn("CategoryId").Fetch.Join(); } } } } if I run this test [Fact] public void Can_Get_Categories() { using (var session = SessionManager.Instance.Current) { using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { var categories = session.CreateCriteria(typeof(Category)) //.CreateCriteria("Articles").Add(NHibernate.Criterion.Restrictions.EqProperty("Category", "Id")) .AddOrder(Order.Asc("Description")) .List<Category>(); } } } I am getting 7 Categories due to Left outer join used by Nhibernate any idea what I am doing wrong in here? Thanks [Solution] After a couple of hours reading nhibernate docs I here is what I came up with var criteria = session.CreateCriteria(typeof (Category)); criteria.AddOrder(Order.Asc("Description")); criteria.SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var cats1 = criteria.List<Category>(); Using Nhibernate linq provider var linq = session.Linq<Category>(); linq.QueryOptions.RegisterCustomAction(c => c.SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer())); var cats2 = linq.ToList();

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validate - require at least one field in a group to be filled

    - by Nathan Long
    I'm using the excellent jQuery Validate Plugin to validate some forms. On one form, I need to ensure that the user fills in at least one of a group of fields. I think I've got a pretty good solution, and wanted to share it. Please suggest any improvements you can think of. Finding no built-in way to do this, I searched and found Rebecca Murphey's custom validation method, which was very helpful. I improved this in three ways: To let you pass in a selector for the group of fields To let you specify how many of that group must be filled for validation to pass To show all inputs in the group as passing validation as soon as one of them passes validation. So you can say "at least X inputs that match selector Y must be filled." The end result is a rule like this: partnumber: { require_from_group: [2,".productinfo"] } //The partnumber input will validate if //at least 2 `.productinfo` inputs are filled For best results, put this rule AFTER any formatting rules for that field (like "must contain only numbers", etc). This way, if the user gets an error from this rule and starts filling out one of the fields, they will get immediate feedback about the formatting required without having to fill another field first. Item #3 assumes that you're adding a class of .checked to your error messages upon successful validation. You can do this as follows, as demonstrated here. success: function(label) { label.html(" ").addClass("checked"); } As in the demo linked above, I use CSS to give each span.error an X image as its background, unless it has the class .checked, in which case it gets a check mark image. Here's my code so far: jQuery.validator.addMethod("require_from_group", function(value, element, options) { // From the options array, find out what selector matches // our group of inputs and how many of them should be filled. numberRequired = options[0]; selector = options[1]; var commonParent = $(element).parents('form'); var numberFilled = 0; commonParent.find(selector).each(function(){ // Look through fields matching our selector and total up // how many of them have been filled if ($(this).val()) { numberFilled++; } }); if (numberFilled >= numberRequired) { // This part is a bit of a hack - we make these // fields look like they've passed validation by // hiding their error messages, etc. Strictly speaking, // they haven't been re-validated, though, so it's possible // that we're hiding another validation problem. But there's // no way (that I know of) to trigger actual re-validation, // and in any case, any other errors will pop back up when // the user tries to submit the form. // If anyone knows a way to re-validate, please comment. // // For imputs matching our selector, remove error class // from their text. commonParent.find(selector).removeClass('error'); // Also look for inserted error messages and mark them // with class 'checked' var remainingErrors = commonParent.find(selector) .next('label.error').not('.checked'); remainingErrors.text("").addClass('checked'); // Tell the Validate plugin that this test passed return true; } // The {0} in the next line is the 0th item in the options array }, jQuery.format("Please fill out at least {0} of these fields.")); Questions? Comments?

    Read the article

  • Eager/Lazy loaded member always empty with JPA one-to-many relationship

    - by Kaleb Pederson
    I have two entities, a User and Role with a one-to-many relationship from user to role. Here's what the tables look like: mysql> select * from User; +----+-------+----------+ | id | name | password | +----+-------+----------+ | 1 | admin | admin | +----+-------+----------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> select * from Role; +----+----------------------+---------------+----------------+ | id | description | name | summary | +----+----------------------+---------------+----------------+ | 1 | administrator's role | administrator | Administration | | 2 | editor's role | editor | Editing | +----+----------------------+---------------+----------------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) And here's the join table that was created: mysql> select * from User_Role; +---------+----------+ | User_id | roles_id | +---------+----------+ | 1 | 1 | | 1 | 2 | +---------+----------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) And here's the subset of orm.xml that defines the tables and relationships: <entity class="User" name="User"> <table name="User" /> <attributes> <id name="id"> <generated-value strategy="AUTO" /> </id> <basic name="name"> <column name="name" length="100" unique="true" nullable="false"/> </basic> <basic name="password"> <column length="255" nullable="false" /> </basic> <one-to-many name="roles" fetch="EAGER" target-entity="Role" /> </attributes> </entity> <entity class="Role" name="Role"> <table name="Role" /> <attributes> <id name="id"> <generated-value strategy="AUTO"/> </id> <basic name="name"> <column name="name" length="40" unique="true" nullable="false"/> </basic> <basic name="summary"> <column name="summary" length="100" nullable="false"/> </basic> <basic name="description"> <column name="description" length="255"/> </basic> </attributes> </entity> Yet, despite that, when I retrieve the admin user, I get back an empty collection. I'm using Hibernate as my JPA provider and it shows the following debug SQL: select user0_.id as id8_, user0_.name as name8_, user0_.password as password8_ from User user0_ where user0_.name=? limit ? When the one-to-many mapping is lazy loaded, that's the only query that's made. This correctly retrieves the one admin user. I changed the relationship to use eager loading and then the following query is made in addition to the above: select roles0_.User_id as User1_1_, roles0_.roles_id as roles2_1_, role1_.id as id9_0_, role1_.description as descript2_9_0_, role1_.name as name9_0_, role1_.summary as summary9_0_ from User_Role roles0_ left outer join Role role1_ on roles0_.roles_id=role1_.id where roles0_.User_id=? Which results in the following results: +----------+-----------+--------+----------------------+---------------+----------------+ | User1_1_ | roles2_1_ | id9_0_ | descript2_9_0_ | name9_0_ | summary9_0_ | +----------+-----------+--------+----------------------+---------------+----------------+ | 1 | 1 | 1 | administrator's role | administrator | Administration | | 1 | 2 | 2 | editor's role | editor | Editing | +----------+-----------+--------+----------------------+---------------+----------------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) Hibernate obviously knows about the roles, yet getRoles() still returns an empty collection. Hibernate also recognized the relationship sufficiently to put the data in the first place. What problems can cause these symptoms?

    Read the article

  • One letter game problem?

    - by Alex K
    Recently at a job interview I was given the following problem: Write a script capable of running on the command line as python It should take in two words on the command line (or optionally if you'd prefer it can query the user to supply the two words via the console). Given those two words: a. Ensure they are of equal length b. Ensure they are both words present in the dictionary of valid words in the English language that you downloaded. If so compute whether you can reach the second word from the first by a series of steps as follows a. You can change one letter at a time b. Each time you change a letter the resulting word must also exist in the dictionary c. You cannot add or remove letters If the two words are reachable, the script should print out the path which leads as a single, shortest path from one word to the other. You can /usr/share/dict/words for your dictionary of words. My solution consisted of using breadth first search to find a shortest path between two words. But apparently that wasn't good enough to get the job :( Would you guys know what I could have done wrong? Thank you so much. import collections import functools import re def time_func(func): import time def wrapper(*args, **kwargs): start = time.time() res = func(*args, **kwargs) timed = time.time() - start setattr(wrapper, 'time_taken', timed) return res functools.update_wrapper(wrapper, func) return wrapper class OneLetterGame: def __init__(self, dict_path): self.dict_path = dict_path self.words = set() def run(self, start_word, end_word): '''Runs the one letter game with the given start and end words. ''' assert len(start_word) == len(end_word), \ 'Start word and end word must of the same length.' self.read_dict(len(start_word)) path = self.shortest_path(start_word, end_word) if not path: print 'There is no path between %s and %s (took %.2f sec.)' % ( start_word, end_word, find_shortest_path.time_taken) else: print 'The shortest path (found in %.2f sec.) is:\n=> %s' % ( self.shortest_path.time_taken, ' -- '.join(path)) def _bfs(self, start): '''Implementation of breadth first search as a generator. The portion of the graph to explore is given on demand using get_neighboors. Care was taken so that a vertex / node is explored only once. ''' queue = collections.deque([(None, start)]) inqueue = set([start]) while queue: parent, node = queue.popleft() yield parent, node new = set(self.get_neighbours(node)) - inqueue inqueue = inqueue | new queue.extend([(node, child) for child in new]) @time_func def shortest_path(self, start, end): '''Returns the shortest path from start to end using bfs. ''' assert start in self.words, 'Start word not in dictionnary.' assert end in self.words, 'End word not in dictionnary.' paths = {None: []} for parent, child in self._bfs(start): paths[child] = paths[parent] + [child] if child == end: return paths[child] return None def get_neighbours(self, word): '''Gets every word one letter away from the a given word. We do not keep these words in memory because bfs accesses a given vertex only once. ''' neighbours = [] p_word = ['^' + word[0:i] + '\w' + word[i+1:] + '$' for i, w in enumerate(word)] p_word = '|'.join(p_word) for w in self.words: if w != word and re.match(p_word, w, re.I|re.U): neighbours += [w] return neighbours def read_dict(self, size): '''Loads every word of a specific size from the dictionnary into memory. ''' for l in open(self.dict_path): l = l.decode('latin-1').strip().lower() if len(l) == size: self.words.add(l) if __name__ == '__main__': import sys if len(sys.argv) not in [3, 4]: print 'Usage: python one_letter_game.py start_word end_word' else: g = OneLetterGame(dict_path = '/usr/share/dict/words') try: g.run(*sys.argv[1:]) except AssertionError, e: print e

    Read the article

  • How to pass object from one activity to another in android

    - by kaibuki
    Hi I am trying to work on sending an object of my "Customer" class from one activity and display on other activity. the code for the customer class : `package com.kaibuki; public class Customer { private String firstName, lastName, Address; int Age; public Customer(String fname, String lname, int age, String address) { firstName = fname; lastName = lname; Age = age; Address = address; } public String printValues() { String data = null; data = "First Name :" + firstName + " Last Name :" + lastName + " Age : " + Age + " Address : " + Address; return data; } } I want to send its object from one activity to another and then display the data on the other activity. Please need urgent help. Thanks alot Kai`

    Read the article

  • Cannot connect to one of my WCF services, not even with telnet

    - by Ecyrb
    I have six wcf services that I'm hosting in a windows service. Everything works great on my machine (Windows 7) but when I try it in production (Windows Server 2003) I cannot connect to one of my six services, ReportsService. I figured I must have a typo, but everything looks right. I've even rewritten that section of the config file just to be sure. I've turned on WCF tracing, but it never shows the call to my service; nothing helpful in there. I tried connecting to the port (9005) with telnet, but it failed. I can connect to all other services (ports 9001-4 and 9006) just fine. I thought that maybe there was a problem with port 9005, so I changed it to 9007 and still couldn't connect. I had one of my working services host on 9005 and it actually worked fine. So I'm pretty sure there's nothing wrong with the port or any firewall settings. Whatever port I tell ReportsService to use fails. Now I'm out of ideas. It seems like it's not hosting that one service, but I cannot get any information about why or what's wrong. Any ideas on what I could try to get that information? Or what might be wrong? The unhandled System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException I get when running my client is: Could not connect to net.tcp://localhost:9005/ReportsService. The connection attempt lasted for a time span of 00:00:01.0937430. TCP error code 10061: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 172.0.0.1:9005. . My host's config file contains: <!-- Snipped other services to simplify for you. --> <endpoint binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="customTcpBinding" contract="ServiceContracts.IReportsService" /> <endpoint binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="customTcpBinding" contract="ServiceContracts.IUpdateData" /> IReportService is the one I'm having trouble with. I get a proxy to IReportsService with the following code, where Server is the name of the hosting machine: return new ChannelFactory<IReportsService>("").CreateChannel(new EndpointAddress(string.Format("net.tcp://{0}:9005/ReportsService", Server))); My client config file contains: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="customTcpBinding" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647"/> <security mode="None"/> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentCalls="30" maxConcurrentInstances="30" maxConcurrentSessions="1000" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <!-- Snipped other services to simplify for you. --> <service behaviorConfiguration="ServiceBehavior" name="WcfService.ReportsService"> <endpoint address="ReportsService" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="customTcpBinding" contract="ServiceContracts.IReportsService" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:9005" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> <service behaviorConfiguration="ServiceBehavior" name="WcfService.UpdateData"> <endpoint address="UpdateData" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="customTcpBinding" contract="ServiceContracts.IUpdateData" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:9006" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> I've tried to keep things simple with the code snippets above, but if you would like to see more just ask and I'd be happy to provide anything that'll help.

    Read the article

  • Overwriting the content from one MOSS content database to another

    - by 78lro
    We have a content database on our live moss server. It contains one site collection with several sub-sites. I'm using the stsadm export command to produce a cmp file, then moving this to our test server in a different farm. I then want to import this content into the content database on our test farm, using the import stsadm command results in me being left with all the existing test data as well as the live data. I tried detaching the existing content database from test in central admin and creating a new empty one,to the then run the import against that but the import failed as obviously there's not root site in the empty db. The aim is to have the data on test look like live, clearing out all the test data. Can anyone suggest a good approach to this type of problem?

    Read the article

  • NSFetchedResultsController Crashes When Navigating from One UITableViewController to Another

    - by wgpubs
    In my core data model I have a Person entity that has a "to many" relationship a Course entity (I also have an inverse "to one" relationship from Course to Person). Now I have a subclassed UITableViewController that uses a NSFetchedResultsController to display Person objects which works fine. I have this set up so that when you click on a Person it publishes another subclassed UITableViewController that uses a NSFetchedController as well to display the Courses associated to the person. PROBLEM: I get this exception whenever I click on the Person and attempt to display the Course UITableViewController ... "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'keypath name not found in entity <NSSQLEntity Course id=2>'" Any ideas on how to resolve or troubleshoot? The code between the two ViewControllers is almost identical except for the NSFetchedResultsController being configured for "Person" entities in one and "Course" entities in another

    Read the article

  • Combine multiple dataset columns to one dataset

    - by Matt
    I have multiple datasets that I would like to combine into one. There is a common ID field that can be associated to each row. Calling Merge on the dataset will add additional rows to the dataset, but I would like to combine the additional columns. There are too many fields to do this in one query and therefore would make it unmanageable. Each individual query would be able to handle ordering to ensure the data is placed in the correct row. For Example lets say I have two queries resulting in two datasets: SELECT ID, colA, colB SELECT colC, colD The resulting dataset would look like ID colA colB colC colD 1 a b c d 2 e f g h Any ideas on ways to accomplish this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88  | Next Page >