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  • Convert rank-per-candidate format to OpenSTV BLT format

    - by kibibu
    I recently gathered, using a questionnaire, a set of opinions on the importance of various software components. Figuring that some form of Condorcet voting method would be the best way to obtain an overall rank, I opted to use OpenSTV to analyze it. My data is in tabular format, space delimited, and looks more or less like: A B C D E F G # Candidates 5 2 4 3 7 6 1 # First ballot. G is ranked first, and E is ranked 7th 4 2 6 5 1 7 3 # Second ballot etc In this format, the number indicates the rank and the sequence order indicates the candidate. Each "candidate" has a rank (required) from 1 to 7, where a 1 means most important and a 7 means least important. No duplicates are allowed. This format struck me as the most natural way to represent the output, being a direct representation of the ballot format. The OpenSTV/BLT format uses a different method of representing the same info, conceptually as follows: G B D C A F E # Again, G is ranked first and E is ranked 7th E B G A D C F # etc The actual numeric file format uses the (1-based) index of the candidate, rather than the label, and so is more like: 7 2 4 3 1 6 5 # Same ballots as before. 5 2 7 1 4 3 6 # A -> 1, G -> 7 In this format, the number indicates the candidate, and the sequence order indicates the rank. The actual, real, BLT format also includes a leading weight and a following zero to indicate the end of each ballot, which I don't care too much about for this. My question is, what is the most elegant way to convert from the first format to the (numeric) second?

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  • Changing the system time zone succeeds once and then no longer changes

    - by Adam Driscoll
    I'm using the WinAPI to set the time zone on a Windows XP SP3 box. I'm reading the time zone information from the HKLM\Software\Microsoft\WindowsNT\Time Zones\<time zone name> key and then setting the time zone to the specified time zone. I enumerate the keys under the Time Zones key, grab the TZI value and stuff it into a TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct to be passed to SetTimeZoneInformation. All seems to work on the first pass. The time zone changes, no error is returned. The second time I perform this operation (same user, new session, on login before userinit) the call succeeds but the system does not reflect the time zone change. Neither the clock nor time stamps on files are updated to the new time zone. When I navigate to: HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Control\TimeZoneInformation my new time zone information is present. A couple strange things are happening when I'm setting my time zone: Also when I parse the TZI binary value from the registry to store in my TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct I'm noticing the struct has the DaylightDate.wDay and StandardDate.wDay field always set to 0 I tried to call GetTimeZoneInformation right after I call SetTimeZoneInformation but the call fails with a 1300 error (Not all privileges or groups referenced are assigned to the caller. ) I'm also making sure to send a WM_BROADCAST message so Explorer knows whats going on. Think it's the parsing of the byte array to the TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct? Or am I missing some thing else important? EDIT: Found a document stating why this is happening: here. Privilege was introduced in Vista...thanks MSDN docs... Per the Microsoft documentation I'm enabling the SE_TIME_ZONE_NAME privilege for the current processes token. But when I attempt to call LookupPriviledgeValue for SE_TIME_ZONE_NAME I get a 1313 error (A specified privilege does not exist. ).

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  • Neural Network Always Produces Same/Similar Outputs for Any Input

    - by l33tnerd
    I have a problem where I am trying to create a neural network for Tic-Tac-Toe. However, for some reason, training the neural network causes it to produce nearly the same output for any given input. I did take a look at Artificial neural networks benchmark, but my network implementation is built for neurons with the same activation function for each neuron, i.e. no constant neurons. To make sure the problem wasn't just due to my choice of training set (1218 board states and moves generated by a genetic algorithm), I tried to train the network to reproduce XOR. The logistic activation function was used. Instead of using the derivative, I multiplied the error by output*(1-output) as some sources suggested that this was equivalent to using the derivative. I can put the Haskell source on HPaste, but it's a little embarrassing to look at. The network has 3 layers: the first layer has 2 inputs and 4 outputs, the second has 4 inputs and 1 output, and the third has 1 output. Increasing to 4 neurons in the second layer didn't help, and neither did increasing to 8 outputs in the first layer. I then calculated errors, network output, bias updates, and the weight updates by hand based on http://hebb.mit.edu/courses/9.641/2002/lectures/lecture04.pdf to make sure there wasn't an error in those parts of the code (there wasn't, but I will probably do it again just to make sure). Because I am using batch training, I did not multiply by x in equation (4) there. I am adding the weight change, though http://www.faqs.org/faqs/ai-faq/neural-nets/part2/section-2.html suggests to subtract it instead. The problem persisted, even in this simplified network. For example, these are the results after 500 epochs of batch training and of incremental training. Input |Target|Output (Batch) |Output(Incremental) [1.0,1.0]|[0.0] |[0.5003781562785173]|[0.5009731800870864] [1.0,0.0]|[1.0] |[0.5003740346965251]|[0.5006347214672715] [0.0,1.0]|[1.0] |[0.5003734471544522]|[0.500589332376345] [0.0,0.0]|[0.0] |[0.5003674110937019]|[0.500095157458231] Subtracting instead of adding produces the same problem, except everything is 0.99 something instead of 0.50 something. 5000 epochs produces the same result, except the batch-trained network returns exactly 0.5 for each case. (Heck, even 10,000 epochs didn't work for batch training.) Is there anything in general that could produce this behavior? Also, I looked at the intermediate errors for incremental training, and the although the inputs of the hidden/input layers varied, the error for the output neuron was always +/-0.12. For batch training, the errors were increasing, but extremely slowly and the errors were all extremely small (x10^-7). Different initial random weights and biases made no difference, either. Note that this is a school project, so hints/guides would be more helpful. Although reinventing the wheel and making my own network (in a language I don't know well!) was a horrible idea, I felt it would be more appropriate for a school project (so I know what's going on...in theory, at least. There doesn't seem to be a computer science teacher at my school). EDIT: Two layers, an input layer of 2 inputs to 8 outputs, and an output layer of 8 inputs to 1 output, produces much the same results: 0.5+/-0.2 (or so) for each training case. I'm also playing around with pyBrain, seeing if any network structure there will work. Edit 2: I am using a learning rate of 0.1. Sorry for forgetting about that. Edit 3: Pybrain's "trainUntilConvergence" doesn't get me a fully trained network, either, but 20000 epochs does, with 16 neurons in the hidden layer. 10000 epochs and 4 neurons, not so much, but close. So, in Haskell, with the input layer having 2 inputs & 2 outputs, hidden layer with 2 inputs and 8 outputs, and output layer with 8 inputs and 1 output...I get the same problem with 10000 epochs. And with 20000 epochs. Edit 4: I ran the network by hand again based on the MIT PDF above, and the values match, so the code should be correct unless I am misunderstanding those equations. Some of my source code is at http://hpaste.org/42453/neural_network__not_working; I'm working on cleaning my code somewhat and putting it in a Github (rather than a private Bitbucket) repository. All of the relevant source code is now at https://github.com/l33tnerd/hsann.

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  • Synchronizing files between Linux servers, through FTP

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I have the following configuration of servers: 1 central linux server, a VPS 8 satellite linux servers, "crappy shared hostings" I have a bunch of files that I need to have in all servers. Right now i'm copying them everywhere manually, but I want to be able to copy them to the central server, and then have a scheduled process that runs every now and then and synchronizes them (only outwardly, no need to try to find "new" files in the satellite servers). There are a couple of catches though: I can't have any custom software in the satellite servers, or do strange command line things that'll auto connect to them and send the files directly. I know this is the way these kinds of things are normally done, but the satellite servers are crappy shared hosting ones where I have absolutely no control over anything. I need to send the files over FTP I also need to have, in my central server, a list of the files that are available in each of the satellite servers, to make sure they are ready before I send traffic to them. If I were to do this manually, the steps would be: get the list of files in a satellite server compare to my own, and send the files that are missing get the list of files again, and store it in my central database. I'd like to know what tools are out there that can alleviate as much of this as possible, first the syncing, and then the "getting the list of files available in the other server". I'm going to be doing everything from PHP, not sure if there are good tools to "use FTP from PHP", which i'm pretty sure i'll have to do for step 3 at least. Thanks in advance for any ideas! Daniel

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  • Problem with GWT behind a reverse proxy - either nginx or apache

    - by Don Branson
    I'm having this problem with GWT when it's behind a reverse proxy. The backend app is deployed within a context - let's call it /context. The GWT app works fine when I hit it directly: http://host:8080/context/ I can configure a reverse proxy in front it it. Here's my nginx example: upstream backend { server 127.0.0.1:8080; } ... location / { proxy_pass http://backend/context/; } But, when I run through the reverse proxy, GWT gets confused, saying: 2009-10-04 14:05:41.140:/:WARN: Login: ERROR: The serialization policy file '/C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E.gwt.rpc' was not found; did you forget to include it in this deployment? 2009-10-04 14:05:41.140:/:WARN: Login: WARNING: Failed to get the SerializationPolicy 'C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E' for module 'https://hostname:444/'; a legacy, 1.3.3 compatible, serialization policy will be used. You may experience SerializationExceptions as a result. 2009-10-04 14:05:41.292:/:WARN: StoryService: ERROR: The serialization policy file '/0445C2D48AEF2FB8CB70C4D4A7849D88.gwt.rpc' was not found; did you forget to include it in this deployment? 2009-10-04 14:05:41.292:/:WARN: StoryService: WARNING: Failed to get the SerializationPolicy '0445C2D48AEF2FB8CB70C4D4A7849D88' for module 'https://hostname:444/'; a legacy, 1.3.3 compatible, serialization policy will be used. You may experience SerializationExceptions as a result. In other words, GWT isn't getting the word that it needs to prepend /context/ hen look for C7F5ECA5E3C10B453290DE47D3BE0F0E.gwt.rpc, but only when the request comes throught proxy. A workaround is to add the context to the url for the web site: location /context/ { proxy_pass http://backend/context/; } but that means the context is now part of the url that the user sees, and that's ugly. Anybody know how to make GWT happy in this case? Software versions: GWT - 1.7.0 (same problem with 1.7.1) Jetty - 6.1.21 (but the same problem existed under tomcat) nginx - 0.7.62 (same problem under apache 2.x) I've looked at the traffic between the proxy and the backend using DonsProxy, but there's nothing noteworthy there.

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  • Need variable width negative lookbehind replacement

    - by Technoh
    I have looked at many questions here (and many more websites) and some provided hints but none gave me a definitive answer. I know regular expressions but I am far from being a guru. This particular question deals with regex in PHP. I need to locate words in a text that are not surrounded by a hyperlink of a given class. For example, I might have This <a href="blabblah" class="no_check">elephant</a> is green and this elephant is blue while this <a href="blahblah">elephant</a> is red. I would need to match against the second and third elephants but not the first (identified by test class "no_check"). Note that there could more attributes than just href and class within hyperlinks. I came up with ((?<!<a .*class="no_check".*>)\belephant\b) which works beautifully in regex test software but not in PHP. Any help is greatly appreciated. If you cannot provide a regular expression but can find some sort of PHP code logic that would circumvent the need for it, I would be equally grateful.

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  • unable to implement HTTP Tunneling correctly in order to enable Java rmi calls over internet(and und

    - by Lokesh Kumar
    in my previous question :-How to Setup RMI Server under(NAT/ISP) Now,i m able to start my RMI server by Installing apache Tomcat 6.0 server. i have also installed servlet programs into apache Tomcat server in order to enable HTTP tunneling. my servlet codes:- (1) [SimplifiedServletHandler.java][2] (2) [ServletForwardCommand.java][3] these servlets resides inside :- C:\Program Files\Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps\examples\WEB-INF\classes\ one more thing that i hv added to my CalcultorClient.java program:- try { RMISocketFactory. setSocketFactory(new sun.rmi.transport.proxy .RMIHttpToCGISocketFactory( )); }catch (IOException ignored) { System.out.println("Error :- ignored.getMessage()"); } But,when i try to make client connect with server(under ISP/NAT) i get the following Exception :- RemoteException java.rmi.UnmarshalException: Error unmarshaling return header; nested exception is: java.io.IOException: HTTP request failed i don't know the correct reason behind this Exception.. but,i think that i haven't installed or invoke my servlet programs properly on server side. so,can anybody tell me the correct reason behind this error/Exception????? and if u think that it is servlet problem then tell me the correct procedure to run my serlvet program inside tomcat server.

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  • How to deploy RSWebParts.cab manually?

    - by denni
    I'm using the SSRS 2005 Web parts to display my reports in a MOSS 2007 SP1 Portal. I have successfully installed the Web parts in my development, testing, and UAT servers using the following command: stsadm -o addwppack -filename path/to/RSWebParts.cab. But when I tried running the same command in the production server, it will give me the following error: This solution contains no resources scoped for a Web application and cannot be deployed to a particular Web application. I know I usually will get this kind of error message when I tried to deploy my custom solutions having no Web application resources (such as web.config entries) to a specific Web application. But this is not my custom solution, it is an out-of-the-box SSRS Web part and it does have resources scoped to a Web application. I tried to even use different combination of the command by providing the -url, -globalinstall, and -force switches but it still give the same error. The configuration of the 4 servers are exactly the same, both from software and hardware perspectives. All other features are working properly on the production server. I even tried to extract the cab file manually to the bin folder of my Web application, then modify the Web.config manually to include the SafeControl element (copied from the manifest.xml inside the cab file). But it gave me an error saying it couldn't find the resources file. Even though, I extracted the whole file, including the resource files in the bin folder. Is there anyone who can help me resolve the problem? Thanks a lot.

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  • Broken ssl, what to do

    - by TIT
    I have a site and i implemented ssl there. but when i browse it, the security seals dont come. i asked to godaddy, they replaid: Thank you for contacting online support. I cannot replicate the issue you have described. The error you described is caused by the way your site has been designed. If you receive this error, you have a combination of secure and non-secure objects on the page. For example, if your secure website was https://www.domain.tld and you added an object (an image, script, flash file, etc.) to that page that was located at http://www.domain.tld/image.jpg, you would break the seal. You will need to change your design to link to objects using https (ie https://www.domain.tld/image.jpg) or modify your site design to use relative paths (/image.jpg). This error can only be corrected by modifying your site design. Please contact your web designer or the manufacturer of your web design software if you require additional assistance modifying your site design. but the problem is i made everything,all my images javascripts are unders https, but the seal still not coming, saying: some content insecure. what is the problem.

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  • Assigning Javascript click callbacks to Flash elements?

    - by Wes
    Bear in mind I'm a web developer but not a Flash developer and know little about Flash. I work with people who are the opposite and know very little about web development. Maybe someone who is good with both can answer this question? I work for an Advertisement software company and we are having fits with our Ad click-throughs opening tabs vs popups in different browsers. Tabs are preferred becaus pop-ups are subject to blockers. I read that tabs will always be opened if it is a callback triggered by a user click. This is fine with me. Problem is the Flash developers, using their external interface, are trying to open the new window when the Flash ad gets clicked themselves. So even though it's user initiated Flash behooves upon itself to open the website. I think this may be why they end up being popups instead of new tabs. Is there a way external to Flash using Javascript to assign the click events to Flash elements so that only new tabs will ever be opened by clicking the Flash element? Or a way through Flash can assign Javascript callbacks to its elements? Thanks!

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  • Best way to replace mass emails sent from Entourage with a proper mailing list solution?

    - by aaandre
    I am helping a Los Angeles choreographer to transition away from sending her announcements via Entourage. Here's the situation: She has multiple conact groups, and sends classes and performance announcements several times a month, to different groups. She manages the contact groups manually. The group size is between 1500 and 2500 people. Recently verizon blocked her outgoing port 25, presumably for spam activity. Again, her contacts are interested in the content. She is aware of mailchimp, constantcontact etc. but would like to be able to send the email via her email software and not have to create a newsletter for every single mailing. Also, she's very short on $$. So, what would be the best way to set up a system allowing her to send announcements from Entourage, with attached images, to her lists, without having Entourage send every single email? I am thinking of setting up a set of mailing lists, each corresponding to one of her groups. I have never set up a mailing list before and am wondering if it's possible to have a list accept emails from only one person (Admin) and distribute them to the group? Recipients should be able to unsubscribe easily, and by default reply to her but not the list. She should be the only one able to use the list for distribution, and should be able to send messages (with attachments) directly from her email client without modification. Is this possible? Where can I find step-by-step instructions? What are best practices to avoid her domain being blacklisted? What's the easiest way to convert her contact groups to mailing list subscribers? I am helping her for free, so the simpler the better :) Thank you! UPDATE: She has a standard linux hosting account allowing her to run php etc. And, ideally, the emails would come from her personally or at least from her domain name.

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  • Are licenses relevant for small code snippets?

    - by Martin
    When I'm about to write a short algorithm, I first check in the base class library I'm using whether the algorithm is implemented in it. If not, I often do a quick google search to see if someone has done it before (which is the case, 19 times out of 20). Most of the time, I find the exact code I need. Sometimes it's clear what license applies to the source code, sometimes not. It may be GPL, LGPL, BSD or whatever. Sometimes people have posted a code snippet on some random forum which solves my problem. It's clear to me that I can't reuse the code (copy/paste it into my code) without caring about the license if the code is in some way substantial. What is not clear to me is whether I can copy a code snippet containing 5 lines or so without doing a license violation. Can I copy/paste a 5-line code snippet without caring about the license? What about one-liner? What about 10 lines? Where do I draw the line (no pun intended)? My second problem is that if I have found a 10-line code snippet which does exactly what I need, but feel that I cannot copy it because it's GPL-licensed and my software isn't, I have already memorized how to implement it so when I go around implementing the same functionality, my code is almost identical to the GPL licensed code I saw a few minutes ago. (In other words, the code was copied to my brain and my brain after that copied it into my source code).

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  • How to detect if an application has UI elements in it from C# in Windows 7?

    - by Santhosh
    I have a c# application in Windows 7 that runs in Session 0. This application is basically a framework for software patches installation that will install patches in the background (in session 0). So this app will download patches from the server and start installing them on the client machines. The way it installs the patches is by calling CreateProcess("Patch.exe"). Now mostly, Patch.exe will be a non-ui silent installation and henceforth, installing the patch from session 0 goes through successfully. However, sometimes this Patch.exe happens to have some UI elements in it such as prompting the user for some details (like installation location, etc..) and let us say that these UI elements cannot be avoided. So is it possible for my installation framework (that runs in Session 0 written in C#), to know that the process Patch.exe which was created by my framework has any UI elements in it? The reason I ask is, if I determine that the application has any UI elements in it, then I do not want to continue with the installation (a crude way of doing this would be to kill the installer process Patch.exe, but that is a different story and not of concern here).

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  • Problem implementing Blinn–Phong shading model

    - by Joe Hopfgartner
    I did this very simple, perfectly working, implementation of Phong Relflection Model (There is no ambience implemented yet, but that doesn't bother me for now). The functions should be self explaining. /** * Implements the classic Phong illumination Model using a reflected light * vector. */ public class PhongIllumination implements IlluminationModel { @RGBParam(r = 0, g = 0, b = 0) public Vec3 ambient; @RGBParam(r = 1, g = 1, b = 1) public Vec3 diffuse; @RGBParam(r = 1, g = 1, b = 1) public Vec3 specular; @FloatParam(value = 20, min = 1, max = 200.0f) public float shininess; /* * Calculate the intensity of light reflected to the viewer . * * @param P = The surface position expressed in world coordinates. * * @param V = Normalized viewing vector from surface to eye in world * coordinates. * * @param N = Normalized normal vector at surface point in world * coordinates. * * @param surfaceColor = surfaceColor Color of the surface at the current * position. * * @param lights = The active light sources in the scene. * * @return Reflected light intensity I. */ public Vec3 shade(Vec3 P, Vec3 V, Vec3 N, Vec3 surfaceColor, Light lights[]) { Vec3 surfaceColordiffused = Vec3.mul(surfaceColor, diffuse); Vec3 totalintensity = new Vec3(0, 0, 0); for (int i = 0; i < lights.length; i++) { Vec3 L = lights[i].calcDirection(P); N = N.normalize(); V = V.normalize(); Vec3 R = Vec3.reflect(L, N); // reflection vector float diffuseLight = Vec3.dot(N, L); float specularLight = Vec3.dot(V, R); if (diffuseLight > 0) { totalintensity = Vec3.add(Vec3.mul(Vec3.mul( surfaceColordiffused, lights[i].calcIntensity(P)), diffuseLight), totalintensity); if (specularLight > 0) { Vec3 Il = lights[i].calcIntensity(P); Vec3 Ilincident = Vec3.mul(Il, Math.max(0.0f, Vec3 .dot(N, L))); Vec3 intensity = Vec3.mul(Vec3.mul(specular, Ilincident), (float) Math.pow(specularLight, shininess)); totalintensity = Vec3.add(totalintensity, intensity); } } } return totalintensity; } } Now i need to adapt it to become a Blinn-Phong illumination model I used the formulas from hearn and baker, followed pseudocodes and tried to implement it multiple times according to wikipedia articles in several languages but it never worked. I just get no specular reflections or they are so weak and/or are at the wrong place and/or have the wrong color. From the numerous wrong implementations I post some little code that already seems to be wrong. So I calculate my Half Way vector and my new specular light like so: Vec3 H = Vec3.mul(Vec3.add(L.normalize(), V), Vec3.add(L.normalize(), V).length()); float specularLight = Vec3.dot(H, N); With theese little changes it should already work (maby not with correct intensity but basically it should be correct). But the result is wrong. Here are two images. Left how it should render correctly and right how it renders. If i lower the shininess factor you can see a little specular light at the top right: Altough I understand the concept of Phong illumination and also the simplified more performant adaptaion of blinn phong I am trying around for days and just cant get it to work. Any help is appriciated. Edit: I was made aware of an error by this answer, that i am mutiplying by |L+V| instead of dividing by it when calculating H. I changed to deviding doing so: Vec3 H = Vec3.mul(Vec3.add(L.normalize(), V), 1/Vec3.add(L.normalize(), V).length()); Unfortunately this doesnt change much. The results look like this: and if I rise the specular constant and lower the shininess You can see the effects more clearly in a smilar wrong way: However this division just the normalisation. I think I am missing one step. Because the formulas like this just dont make sense to me. If you look at this picture: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Blinn-Phong_vectors.svg The projection of H to N is far less than V to R. And if you imagine changing the vector V in the picture the angle is the same when the viewing vector is "on the left side". and becomes more and more different when going to the right. I pesonally would multiply the whole projection by two to become something similiar (and the hole point is to avoid the calculation of R). Altough I didnt read anythinga bout that anywehre i am gonna try this out... Result: The intension of the specular light is far too much (white areas) and the position is still wrong. I think I am messing something else up because teh reflection are just at the wrong place. But what? Edit: Now I read on wikipedia in the notes that the angle of N/H is in fact approximalty half or V/R. To compensate that i should multiply my shineness exponent by 4 rather than my projection. If i do that I end up with this: Far to intense but still one thing. The projection is at the wrong place. Where could i mess up my vectors?

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  • How to scan an array for certain information

    - by Andrew Martin
    I've been doing an MSc Software Development conversion course, the main language of which is Java, since the end of September. We have our first assessed practical coming and I was hoping for some guidance. We have to create an array that will store 100 integers (all of which are between 1 and 10), which are generated by a random number generator, and then print out ten numbers of this array per line. For the second part, we need to scan these integers, count up how often each number appears and store the results in a second array. I've done the first bit okay, but I'm confused about how to do the second. I have been looking through the scanner class to see if it has any methods which I could use, but I don't see any. Could anyone point me in the right direction - not the answer, but perhaps which library it comes from? Code so far: import java.util.Random; public class Practical4_Assessed { public static void main(String[] args) { Random numberGenerator = new Random (); int[] arrayOfGenerator = new int[100]; for (int countOfGenerator = 0; countOfGenerator < 100; countOfGenerator++) arrayOfGenerator[countOfGenerator] = numberGenerator.nextInt(10); int countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; for (int countOfOutput = 0; countOfOutput < 100; countOfOutput++) { if (countOfNumbersOnLine == 10) { System.out.println(""); countOfNumbersOnLine = 0; countOfOutput--; } else { System.out.print(arrayOfGenerator[countOfOutput] + " "); countOfNumbersOnLine++; } } } } Thanks, Andrew

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  • Need a less frustrating alternative to SVN

    - by hatingSVN
    It seems to me that whenever I try to do something in SVN, something messes up: Something as simple as renaming a directory would often cause an error of some sort when checking in the commit. Reverting changes to files, which was probably exactly what SVN was designed for, is incredibly error prone. Checking in a previous version is bound to blow up with some inconsistency error, and a series of unintuitive steps are required to correctly do it. Problems occur often and are usually extremely frustrating to fix. Fixing SVN problems for me involves countless attempts to commit a version of the code, getting an error, deleting the project, checking in the project, and repeat. It should be easy for multiple people to work on the project and commit changes. It is not. When you try to commit a file after someone else committed the same file, SVN is guaranteed to blow up. I haven't even mentioned branching and merging. No surprises here, merging is very prone to errors and the errors are difficult to correct. /rant What version control software best minimizes my frustrations?

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  • Will rel=canonical break site: queries ?

    - by Justin Grant
    Our company publishes our software product's documentation using a custom-built content management system using a dynamic URL namespace like this: http://ourproduct.com/documentation/version/pageid Where "version" is the version number to which the documentation applies, and "pageid" is a unique string which identifies that page in our back-end content management system. For example, if content (e.g. a page about configuration best practices) is unchanged from version 3.0 and 4.0 of our product, it'd be reachable by two different URLs: http://ourproduct.com/documentation/3.0/configuration-best-practices http://ourproduct.com/documentation/4.0/configuration-best-practices This URL scheme allows us to scope Google search results to see only documentaiton for a particular product version, like this: configuration site:ourproduct.com/documentation/4.0 But when the user is searching across all versions, we don't want Google to arbitrarily choose one of the URLs to show in results. Instead, we always want the latest version to show up. Hence our planned use of rel=canonical so we can proscriptively tell Google which URL we want to show up if multiple versions are being searched. (Users who do oddball things like searching 2 versions but not all of them are a corner case, so we don't care which version(s) show up in that case-- the primary use-cases we care about is searching one version or searching all versions) But what will happen to scoped searches if we do this? If my rel=canonical URL points to version 4.0, but my search is scoped to 3.0, will Google return a result? Even if you don't know the answer offhand, do you know a site which uses rel=canonical to redirect across folders in a URL namespace. If so, I could run a few Google searches and figure out the answer.

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  • Cache consistency & spawning a thread

    - by Dave Keck
    Background I've been reading through various books and articles to learn about processor caches, cache consistency, and memory barriers in the context of concurrent execution. So far though, I have been unable to determine whether a common coding practice of mine is safe in the strictest sense. Assumptions The following pseudo-code is executed on a two-processor machine: int sharedVar = 0; myThread() { print(sharedVar); } main() { sharedVar = 1; spawnThread(myThread); sleep(-1); } main() executes on processor 1 (P1), while myThread() executes on P2. Initially, sharedVar exists in the caches of both P1 and P2 with the initial value of 0 (due to some "warm-up code" that isn't shown above.) Question Strictly speaking – preferably without assuming any particular CPU – is myThread() guaranteed to print 1? With my newfound knowledge of processor caches, it seems entirely possible that at the time of the print() statement, P2 may not have received the invalidation request for sharedVar caused by P1's assignment in main(). Therefore, it seems possible that myThread() could print 0. References These are the related articles and books I've been reading. (It wouldn't allow me to format these as links because I'm a new user - sorry.) Shared Memory Consistency Models: A Tutorial hpl.hp.com/techreports/Compaq-DEC/WRL-95-7.pdf Memory Barriers: a Hardware View for Software Hackers rdrop.com/users/paulmck/scalability/paper/whymb.2009.04.05a.pdf Linux Kernel Memory Barriers kernel.org/doc/Documentation/memory-barriers.txt Computer Architecture: A Quantitative Approach amazon.com/Computer-Architecture-Quantitative-Approach-4th/dp/0123704901/ref=dp_ob_title_bk

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  • Maven Release Plugin with JAXB issues

    - by Wysawyg
    Hiya, We've got a project set up to use the Maven Release Plugin which includes a phase that unpacks a JAR of XML schemas pulled from Artifactory and a phase that generates XJC classes. We're on maven release 2.2.1. Unfortunately the latter phase is executing before the former which means that it isn't generating the XJC classes for the schema. A partial POM.XML looks like: <plugins> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> </configuration> </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-dependency-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <id>unpack</id> <!-- phase>generate-sources</phase --> <goals> <goal>unpack</goal> <goal>copy</goal> </goals> <configuration> <artifactItems> <artifactItem> <groupId>ourgroupid</groupId> <artifactId>ourschemas</artifactId> <version>5.1</version> <outputDirectory>${project.basedir}/src/main/webapp/xsd</outputDirectory> <excludes>META-INF/</excludes> <overWrite>true</overWrite> </artifactItem> </artifactItems> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>maven-buildnumber-plugin</artifactId> <version>0.9.6</version> <executions> <execution> <phase>validate</phase> <goals> <goal>create</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> <configuration> <doCheck>true</doCheck> <doUpdate>true</doUpdate> </configuration> </plugin> <plugin> <groupId>org.jvnet.jaxb2.maven2</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jaxb2-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <schemaDirectory>${project.basedir}/src/main/webapp/xsd</schemaDirectory> <schemaIncludes> <include>*.xsd</include> <include>*/*.xsd</include> </schemaIncludes> <verbose>true</verbose> <!-- args> <arg>-Djavax.xml.validation.SchemaFactory:http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema=org.apache.xerces.jaxp.validation.XMLSchemaFactory</arg> </args--> </configuration> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>generate</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> I've tried googling for it, unfortunately I ended up with a case of thousands of links none of which were actually relevant so I'd be very grateful if someone knew how to configure the order of the release plugin steps to ensure a was fully executed before it did b. Thanks

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  • Is there the equivalent of cloud computing for modems?

    - by morpheous
    I asked this question on SF, and someone recommended that I ask it here - (I don't think I have enough points to move a question from SF to SO - and in any case, I don't know how to do it - so here is the question again): I am interested in the concept of PAAS (platform as a service). However, all talk about SAAS/PAAS seems to focus on only the computer itself - not its peripherals. Is it possible to 'outsource' modems as a resource - so that an app running remotely can pump data to a modem in the cloud? As a bit of background to the question, a group of us are thinking of starting a company that offers similar services to companies like twilio etc - but I want to 'outsource' both the computing hardware (thats PAAS - the easy bit) and the modems (thats what I cant seem to find any info on). Does anyone know if modems can be bundled as part of a PAAS service? - alternatively, is there a way that an application running on one computer can communicate (i.e. pump data) to a remote modem residing on another machine?. I assume I can come up with some protocol over UDP or TCP - but there is no point reinventing the wheel - if such a protocol like that already exists (or if it some open source software allows one to do this). Any suggestions on how to solve this problem?

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  • Update a PDF to include an encrypted, hidden, unique identifier?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background The idea is this: Person provides contact information for online book purchase Book, as a PDF, is marked with a unique hash Person downloads book PDF passwords are annoying and extremely easy to circumvent. The ideal process would be something like: Generate hash based on contact information Store contact information and hash in database Acquire book lock Update an "include" file with hash text Generate book as PDF (using pdflatex) Apply hash to book Release book lock Send email with book download link Technologies The following technologies can be used (other programming languages are possible, but libraries will likely be limited to those supplied by the host): C, Java, PHP LaTeX files PDF files Linux Question What programming techniques (or open source software) should I investigate to: Embed a unique hash (or other mark) to a PDF Create a collusion-attack resistant mark Develop a non-fragile (e.g., PDF -> EPS -> PDF still contains the mark) solution Research I have looked at the following possibilities: Steganography Natural Language Processing (NLP) Convert blank pages in PDF to images; mark those images; reassemble PDF LaTeX watermark package ImageMagick Steganograhy requires keeping a master copy of the images, and I'm not sure if the watermark would survive PDF -> EPS -> PDF, or other types of conversion. LaTeX creates an image cache, so any steganographic process would have to intercept that process somehow. NLP introduces grammatical errors. Inserting blank pages as images is immediately suspect; it is easy to replace suspicious blank pages. The LaTeX watermark package draws visible marks. ImageMagick draws visible marks. What other solutions are possible? Related Links http://www.tcpdf.org/ invisible watermarks in images Thank you!

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  • Alternative to MS Project 2007 for production scheduling?

    - by john c
    OK... Im coming to grips with the fact that MS Project 2007 may not be the correct tool for my production scheduling. We serve 120 to 150 projects a year with durations from 6 weeks to 12 months. The task are simple (6 to 8 per project) and the resource pool is stable (15 to 20 people). It's really an assembly line product but with extremely varied durations. I need to be able to prioritize the projects for production and run projects concurrently to fully utilize my resources. What are the feelings of the stackoverflow community. Am I using the wrong program? I was really hoping to make this simple for non-programer types to input project data into a form and have the schedule software automated enough to make most of the decisions. Is there a better solution available commercially? I'd like to hold on writing a custom spreadsheet as a last resort but if that's the best route then so be it. Thank you so much for your input.

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  • QUnit Unit Testing: Test Mouse Click

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    I have the following HTML code: <div id="main"> <form Id="search-form" action="/ViewRecord/AllRecord" method="post"> <div> <fieldset> <legend>Search</legend> <p> <label for="username">Staff name</label> <input id="username" name="username" type="text" value="" /> <label for="softype"> software type</label> <input type="submit" value="Search" /> </p> </fieldset> </div> </form> </div> And the following Javascript code ( with JQuery as the library): $(function() { $("#username").click(function() { $.getJSON("ViewRecord/GetSoftwareChoice", {}, function(data) { // use data to manipulate other controls }); }); }); Now, how to test $("#username").click so that for a given input, it calls the correct url ( in this case, its ViewRecord/GetSoftwareChoice) And, the output is expected (in this case, function(data)) behaves correctly? Any idea how to do this with QUnit? Edit: I read the QUnit examples, but they seem to be dealing with a simple scenario with no AJAX interaction. And although there are ASP.NET MVC examples, but I think they are really testing the output of the server to an AJAX call, i.e., it's still testing the server response, not the AJAX response. What I want is how to test the client side response.

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  • URL "fragment identifier" semantics for HTML documents

    - by Pointy
    I've been working with a new installation of the "MoinMoin" wiki software. As I was playing with it, typing in mostly random test pages, I created a link with a fragment blah blah see also [[SomeStuff#whatever|some other stuff about whatever]] Then I needed to figure out how to create the anchor for that "whatever" fragment identifier. I don't recall having to do that with MediaWiki, so I had to dig around, but finally I found that MoinMoin has an "Anchor" macro: == Whatever == <<Anchor(whatever)>> Looking at the generated HTML, I was surprised to see an empty <span> tag with an "id" value of "whatever". I expected that it'd be an <a> tag with a "name" attribute of "whatever". I dug around and found the source, and there's a comment that says they changed it from an <a> tag in order to avoid some IE problem with <pre> sections. This confused me — not because of the IE thing, but because it looked to me as if their "fix" had left the whole anchor mechanism completely broken. Much to my surprise, however, further testing indicated that it worked fine. I wrote a test page with 300 <span> tags all with "id" values, and I further shocked myself when Firefox behaved exactly as I would have expected it to had I used <a> tags. It also worked when I changed all the <span> tags to <em>. So by this time, you're either as surprised as I was, or else you're thinking "how can somebody that dumb have so many reputation points?" If you're in the second category, is it really the case that I've been typing in HTML for about 15 years now — a lot of HTML — and it's somehow escaped my notice that browsers use the HTML fragment to find any sort of element with a matching "id"? mind status: blown

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  • How do I disable the network connection from .Net without needing admin priveledges?

    - by Brad Mathews
    I may be SOL on this but I thought I would give throw it out for possible solutions. I am writing a computer access control service to help me control my kids' computer use. Plan on open sourcing it when I have it working. It is written in VB.Net and needs to work on XP through 7. I am running into all sorts of security and desktop access issues on Windows 7. The service needs to run as admin to execute the NetSh command to disable the network. But I cannot interact with the desktop from the service so I IPC to a UI to handle other stuff, but I still cannot detect from the service if the desktop is locked. Argghh! I could get it all working from a hidden windows form app if I could just lick the one piece that needs admin permissions: disabling the network. It does no good if a kid logs on and denies the popup asking if the program should run as administrator and he says no. Also windows 7 will not start a program set to run as admin using HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Anyone know how to get this working? Or have an outside the box solution? Thanks! Brad

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