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  • What is the Rule of Thumb on Exposing Encapsulated Class Methods

    - by javamonkey79
    Consider the following analogy: If we have a class: "Car" we might expect it to have an instance of "Engine" in it. As in: "The car HAS-A engine". Similarly, in the "Engine" class we would expect an instance of "Starting System" or "Cooling System" which each have their appropriate sub-components. By the nature of encapsulation, is it not true that the car "HAS-A" "radiator hose" in it as well as the engine? Therefore, is it appropriate OO to do something like this: public class Car { private Engine _engine; public Engine getEngine() { return _engine; } // is it ok to use 'convenience' methods of inner classes? // are the following 2 methods "wrong" from an OO point of view? public RadiatorHose getRadiatorHose() { return getCoolingSystem().getRadiatorHose(); } public CoolingSystem getCoolingSystem() { return _engine.getCoolingSystem(); } } public class Engine { private CoolingSystem _coolingSystem; public CoolingSystem getCoolingSystem() { return _coolingSystem; } } public class CoolingSystem { private RadiatorHose _radiatorHose; public RadiatorHose getRadiatorHose() { return _radiatorHose; } } public class RadiatorHose {//... }

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  • Executing sc.exe from .NET Process unable to start and stop service.

    - by Jason
    I'm trying to restart the service from a remote machine. Here is my code. The problem is that I need to enter startinfo.filename = "sc.exe" since I'm putting "start /wait sc" this is causing an error. Here is my code, any thoughts. Also if anyone has any idea how to keep the cmd window open after this is ran so I could see the code that was ran that would be awesome. string strCommandStop1; string strCommandStop2; string strCommandStart1; string strCommandStart2; string strServer = "\\" + txtServerName.Text; string strDb1 = "SqlAgent$" + txtInsName.Text; string strDb2 = "MSSQL$" + txtInsName.Text; strCommandStop1 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Stop " + strDb1; strCommandStop2 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Stop " + strDb2; strCommandStart1 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Start " + strDb2; strCommandStart2 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Start " + strDb1; try { ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStop1; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStop2; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStart1; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStart2; startInfo .FileName = "sc.exe"; Process.Start(startInfo); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.Message); }

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  • How can I have a Label change dynamically based on a Slider Value?

    - by duney
    I'm writing a grade calculator and I currently have a slider with a textbox beside it which displays the current value of the slider: <Slider Name="gradeSlider" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="2" VerticalAlignment="Center" Minimum="40" Maximum="100" IsSnapToTickEnabled="True" TickFrequency="5" TickPlacement="BottomRight"/> <TextBox Name="targetGrade" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="3" Width="30" Height="23" Text="{Binding ElementName=gradeSlider, Path=Value}" TextAlignment="Center"/> However I'm struggling to include a label which will show display a different grade classification based on the slider's value range. I'd have thought that I could create the label: <Label Name="gradeClass" Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="2" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Bottom"/> And then use code: string gradeText; if (gradeSlider.Value >= 40 && gradeSlider.Value < 50) { gradeText = "Pass"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else if (gradeSlider.Value >= 50 && gradeSlider.Value < 60) { gradeText = "2:2"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else { gradeText = "so on..."; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } But the label just stays as "Pass" whatever the slider value. Could somebody please advise me as to where I'm going wrong? I tried using Content = "{Binding Source = gradeText}" on the Label xaml and removing the gradeClass.Content's in the code but it complained that gradeText was declared but never used. Many thanks to anyone who can help.

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  • splice() not working on correctly

    - by adardesign
    I am setting a cookie for each navigation container that is clicked on. It sets an array that is joined and set the cookie value. if its clicked again then its removed from the array. It somehow buggy. It only splices after clicking on other elements. and then it behaves weird. It might be that splice is not the correct method Thanks much. var navLinkToOpen; var setNavCookie = function(value){ var isSet = false; var checkCookies = checkNavCookie() setCookieHelper = checkCookies? checkCookies.split(","): []; for(i in setCookieHelper){ if(value == setCookieHelper[i]){ setCookieHelper.splice(value,1); isSet = true; } } if(!isSet){setCookieHelper.push(value)} setCookieHelper.join(",") document.cookie = "navLinkToOpen"+"="+setCookieHelper; } var checkNavCookie = function(){ var allCookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); for (i = 0; i < allCookies.length; i++ ){ temp = allCookies[i].split("=") if(temp[0].match("navLinkToOpen")){ var getValue = temp[1] } } return getValue || false } $(document).ready(function() { $("#LeftNav li").has("b").addClass("navHeader").not(":first").siblings("li").hide() $(".navHeader").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil("li:has('b')").slideToggle(300); setNavCookie($('.navHeader').index($(this))) return false }) var testCookies = checkNavCookie(); if(testCookies){ finalArrayValue = testCookies.split(",") for(i in finalArrayValue){ $(".navHeader").eq(finalArrayValue[i]).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil(".navHeader").slideToggle (0); } } });

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  • csharp get value datatemplate element

    - by To-me
    Hello, Here is my code <ListBox x:Name="myList" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" SelectionChanged="editElement"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Name="ElementItemTemplate"> <StackPanel Name="stackPanelElementItem" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label Name="SelectedItemlabel" Content="{Binding}" /> <Button Name="buttonDelElement" Click="btnDelElement">Delete</Button> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> private void btnDelElement(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ListBoxItem lbi2 = (ListBoxItem)(lstCursus.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(myList.Items.CurrentItem)); String selectedItem = lbi2.Content.ToString(); MessageBox.Show("Selected Item " + selectedItem + " ."); private void editCursus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Selected Item " + selectedItem + " ."); /* some code to edit selected item using linq */ } My issue, SelectionChange doesn't work anymore and when I click on buttonDelElement, Selected Item doesn't change immediately. Please, any ideas?

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  • Is there a Visual Studio (or freeware) equivalent for Expression Blend's "Edit Template" feature?

    - by DanM
    In Expression Blend, you can view and edit the control template of objects in the "Objects and Timeline" panel. I'm wondering if there's an equivalent feature in Visual Studio or if there's something free (or very inexpensive) I can download that will allow me to do this. Here's a screen cap from Expression Blend that shows what I'm talking about: Doing this for DataGrid results in the following: <Style x:Key="DataGridStyle1" TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="False"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> (The ... is of course replaced with setters and the contents of the control template.) This is a very useful starting point if you want to create a custom style and template for a control. It seems like you can do pretty much anything you can do in Blend in Studio, but this one is eluding me. Any ideas? Edit I'm also curious if this feature will be in Visual Studio 2010. Anyone know?

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  • PHP error T_object_operator

    - by kwek-kwek
    I am getting this error : Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_OBJECT_OPERATOR in wp-content/themes/phil/page.php on line 104 This is my code: <?php $todaysDate = date ('M d'); $event_query = new WP_Query('showposts=5&category_name=events&meta_key=Date&meta_compare=>=&meta_value='.$todaysDate.'&orderby=meta_value=order=ASC'); ?> <?php if (event_query->have_post()) : while ($event_query->have_post()) : $event_query->the_post(); $eventMeta = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Date', true); $eventDate = strtotime($eventMeta); $displayDate = date ('M d', $eventDate); ?> <li> <span class="date"><?php echo $displayDate ; ?></span> <span><a href="<?php the_permalink();?>" title="<?php the_title(); ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a></span></li> <?php endwhile; else:?> <li>No Upcoming events</li> <?php endif;?> I am pretty new to this PHP stuff and WOrdpress so let me know what am I doing wrong. or paste the code to replace. Thank you

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  • Make form redirect users after posting

    - by Liso22
    I need to change a form so that instead of reloading the page after submitting it, it redirects the user to another page, this is the form: <form class="questionform" name="questionform-0" id="questionform-0"> <textarea class="question-box" cols="12" rows="5" id="question-box-' . $questionformid . '" name="title" type="text" maxlength="200" size="28"></textarea> <input type="text" class="ubicacion" value="" name="question"> <input type="button" name="ask" value="Publicar" onclick="askquestion('questionform-0'); window.location.reload(true);"> I want to remove the window.location.reload and change it for a redirect that sends users to the page their comment will appear. Which is: www.chusmix.com/s?= (the content of the second field) The problem is that the content of the second field is part of the url I want to redirect, it's not simply always the same URL. So I have no idea how to do it. How do I do it? Anyway thanks for any info or whatever that points me on the right direction. Thanks

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  • How to stop calling the Activity again when device orientation is changed??

    - by user1460323
    My app uses Barcode Scanner. I want to launch the scanner when I open the app so I have it in the onCreate method. The problem is that if I have it like that, when I turn the device it calls again onCreate and calls another scanner. Also I have the first activity that calls the scanner. it has a menu so if he user presses back, it goes to that menu. If I turn the screen on that menu, it goes to barcode scanner again. To solve it I have a flag that indicates if it is the first time I call the scanner, if it's not I don't call it again. Now the problem is that if I go out of the app and go in again it doesn't go to the scanner, it goes to the menu, becasuse is not the first time I call it. Any ideas?? Is there a way to change the flag when I go out of my main activity or any other solution?? My code. private static boolean first = true; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); integrator = new IntentIntegrator(this); if (first) { first = false; integrator.initiateScan(); } }

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  • Java servlet's request parameter's name set to entire json object

    - by Geren White
    I'm sending a json object through ajax to a java servlet. The json object is key-value type with three keys that point to arrays and a key that points to a single string. I build it in javascript like this: var jsonObject = {"arrayOne": arrayOne, "arrayTwo": arrayTwo, "arrayThree": arrThree, "string": stringVar}; I then send it to a java servlet using ajax as follows: httpRequest.open('POST', url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); var jsonString = jsonObject.toJSONString(); httpRequest.send(jsonString); This will send the string to my servlet, but It isn't showing as I expect it to. The whole json string gets set to the name of one of my request's parameters. So in my servlet if I do request.getParameterNames(); It will return an enumeration with one of the table entries' key's to be the entire object contents. I may be mistaken, but my thought was that it should set each key to a different parameter name. So I should have 4 parameters, arrayOne, arrayTwo, arrayThree, and string. Am I doing something wrong or is my thinking off here? Any help is appreciated. Thanks

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  • Optimizing C++ Tree Generation

    - by cam
    Hi, I'm generating a Tic-Tac-Toe game tree (9 seconds after the first move), and I'm told it should take only a few milliseconds. So I'm trying to optimize it, I ran it through CodeAnalyst and these are the top 5 calls being made (I used bitsets to represent the Tic-Tac-Toe board): std::_Iterator_base::_Orphan_me std::bitset<9::test std::_Iterator_base::_Adopt std::bitset<9::reference::operator bool std::_Iterator_base::~_Iterator_base void BuildTreeToDepth(Node &nNode, const int& nextPlayer, int depth) { if (depth > 0) { //Calculate gameboard states int evalBoard = nNode.m_board.CalculateBoardState(); bool isFinished = nNode.m_board.isFinished(); if (isFinished || (nNode.m_board.isWinner() > 0)) { nNode.m_winCount = evalBoard; } else { Ticboard tBoard = nNode.m_board; do { int validMove = tBoard.FirstValidMove(); if (validMove != -1) { Node f; Ticboard tempBoard = nNode.m_board; tempBoard.Move(validMove, nextPlayer); tBoard.Move(validMove, nextPlayer); f.m_board = tempBoard; f.m_winCount = 0; f.m_Move = validMove; int currPlay = (nextPlayer == 1 ? 2 : 1); BuildTreeToDepth(f,currPlay, depth - 1); nNode.m_winCount += f.m_board.CalculateBoardState(); nNode.m_branches.push_back(f); } else { break; } }while(true); } } } Where should I be looking to optimize it? How should I optimize these 5 calls (I don't recognize them=.

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  • GTK+: How do I process RadioMenuItem choice without marking it chosen? And vise versa

    - by eugene.shatsky
    In my program, I've got a menu with a group of RadioMenuItem entries. Choosing one of them should trigger a function which can either succeed or fail. If it fails, this RadioMenuItem shouldn't be marked chosen (the previous one should persist). Besides, sometimes I want to set marked item without running the choice processing function. Here is my current code: # Update seat menu list def update_seat_menu(self, seats, selected_seat=None): seat_menu = self.builder.get_object('seat_menu') # Delete seat menu items for menu_item in seat_menu: # TODO: is it a good way? does remove() delete obsolete menu_item from memory? if menu_item.__class__.__name__ == 'RadioMenuItem': seat_menu.remove(menu_item) # Fill menu with new items group = [] for seat in seats: menu_item = Gtk.RadioMenuItem.new_with_label(group, str(seat[0])) group = menu_item.get_group() seat_menu.append(menu_item) if str(seat[0]) == selected_seat: menu_item.activate() menu_item.connect("activate", self.choose_seat, str(seat[0])) menu_item.show() # Process item choice def choose_seat(self, entry, seat_name): # Looks like this is called when item is deselected, too; must check if active if entry.get_active(): # This can either succeed or fail self.logind.AttachDevice(seat_name, '/sys'+self.device_syspath, True) Chosen RadioMenuItem gets marked irrespective of the choose_seat() execution result; and the only way to set marked item without triggering choose_seat() is to re-run update_seat_menu() with selected_seat argument, which is an overkill. I tried to connect choose_seat() with 'button-release-event' instead of 'activate' and call entry.activate() in choose_seat() if AttachDevice() succeeds, but this resulted in whole X desktop lockup until AttachDevice() timed out, and chosen item still got marked.

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  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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  • Rails dealing with blank params at controller level

    - by stephenmurdoch
    I have a User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_secure_password # validation lets users update accounts without entering password validates :password, presence: { on: :create }, allow_blank: { on: :update } validates :password_confirmation, presence: { if: :password_digest_changed? } end I also have a password_reset_controller: def update # this is emailed to the user by the create action - not shown @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) # user is signed in if password and confirmation pass validations sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Can you see the problem here? A user can submit a blank a password/confirmation and rails will sign them in, because the User model allows blank on update. It's not a security concern, since an attacker would still need access to a user's email account before they could get anywhere near this action, but my problem is that a user submitting 6 blank chars would be signed in, and their password would not be changed for them, which could lead to confusion later on. So, I've come up with the following solution, and I'd like to check if there's a better way of doing it, before I push to production: def update @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) # if user submits blank password, add an error, and render edit action if params[:user][:password].blank? @user.errors.add(:password_digest, "can't be blank.") render :edit elsif @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Should I be checking for nil as well as blank? Are there any rails patterns or idiomatic ruby techniques for solving this? [Fwiw, I've got required: true on the html inputs, but want this handled server side too.]

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  • How should I map an abstract class with simple xml in Java?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I want to achieve the following xml using simple xml framework (http://simple.sourceforge.net/): <events> <course-added date="01/01/2010"> ... </course-added> <course-removed date="01/02/2010"> .... </course-removed> <student-enrolled date="01/02/2010"> ... </student-enrolled> </events> I have the following (but it doesn't achieve the desired xml): @Root(name="events") class XMLEvents { @ElementList(inline=true) ArrayList<XMLEvent> events = Lists.newArrayList(); ... } abstract class XMLEvent { @Attribute(name="date") String dateOfEventFormatted; ... } And different type of XMLNodes that have different information (but are all different types of events) @Root(name="course-added") class XMLCourseAdded extends XMLEvent{ @Element(name="course") XMLCourseLongFormat course; .... } @Root(name="course-removed") class XMLCourseRemoved extends XMLEvent { @Element(name="course-id") String courseId; ... } How should I do the mapping or what should I change in order to be able to achieve de desired xml? Thanks!

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  • PHP - Calling function inside another class -> function

    - by Kolind
    I'm trying to do this: class database { function editProvider($post) { $sql = "UPDATE tbl SET "; foreach($post as $key => $val): if($key != "providerId") { $val = formValidate($val); $sqlE[] = "`$key`='$val'"; } endforeach; $sqlE = implode(",", $sqlE); $where = ' WHERE `id` = \''.$post['id'].'\''; $sql = $sql . $sqlE . $where; $query = mysql_query($sql); if($query){ return true; } } // }//end class And then use this function * INSIDE of another class *: function formValidate($string){ $string = trim($string); $string = mysql_real_escape_string($string); return $string; } // .. on $val. Why doesn't this work? if I write in a field of the form, it's not escaping anything at all. How can that be? * UPDATE * handler.php: if(isset($_GET['do'])){ if($_GET['do'] == "addLogin") { $addLogin = $db->addLogin($_POST); } if($_GET['do'] == "addProvider") { $addProvider = $db->addProvider($_POST); } if($_GET['do'] == "editProfile") { $editProfile = $db->editProfile($_POST); } if($_GET['do'] == "editProvider") { $editProvider = $db->editProvider($_POST); } } //end if isset get do ** The editProvider function works fine except for this :-) **

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  • Is it possible to get multiple forms to work with one ajax post function

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a system where there is one form for each friend you have and I used to have an ajax post function for each form, but I want to save code and was wondering if it was possible to get multiple forms to work with just one post function. If anyone has any advice on how to achieve this I would appreciate it. For example <div id="message"> <form id='submit' class='message-form' method='POST' > <input type='hidden' id='to' value='friend1' maxlength='255' > Subject<br><input type='text' id='subject' maxlength='50'><br> Message<br><textarea id='message2' cols='50' rows='15'></textarea> <input type='submit' id='submitmessage' class='responsebutton' value='Send'> </form> </div> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".message-form").submit(function() { $("#submitmessage").attr({ disabled:true, value:\"Sending...\" }); var to = $('#to').attr('value'); var subject = $('#subject').attr('value'); var message = $('#message2').attr('value'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "messageprocess.php", data: 'to='+ to + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message, success: function(response) { if(response == "OK") { $('.message-form').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h2>Email has been sent!</h2>") .append("<p>Please wait...</p>") .hide() .fadeIn(1500, function() { $('#message').append(\"<img id='checkmark' src='images/check.png' />\"); });

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  • Safe json parsing with jquery?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I am using jquery with json. My client pages generate json, which I store on my server. The clients can then fetch the json back out later, parse, and show it. Since my clients are generating the json, it may not be safe. I think jquery uses eval() internally. Is that true? Is there a way to use the native json parsers from the browsers where available, otherwise fall back to manual parsing if not? I'm new to jquery so I don't know where I'd insert my own parsing code. I'm doing something like: $.ajax({ url: 'myservlet', type: 'GET', dataType: 'json', timeout: 1000, error: function(){ alert('Error loading JSON'); }, success: function(json){ alert("It worked!: " + json.name + ", " + json.grade); } }); so in the success() method, the json object is already parsed for me. Is there a way to catch it as a raw string first? Then I can decide whether to use the native parsers or manual parsing (hoping there's a jquery plugin for that..). The articles I'm reading are all from different years, so I don't know if jquery has already abandoned eval() already for json, Thank you

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  • Java: Cleaing up connection reset (but not by peer).

    - by Zombies
    There seems to be some confusion as well contradicting statements on various SO answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/585599/whats-causing-my-java-net-socketexception-connection-reset . You can see here that the accepted answer states that the connecteion was closed by other side. But this is not true, closing a connection doesn't cause a connection reset. It is cauesed by "an underlying TCP/IP error." What I want to know is if a SocketException: Connection reset means really besides "unerlying TCP/IP Error." What really causes this? As I doubt it has anything to do with the connection being closed (since closing a connection isn't an exception worthy flag, and reading from a closed connection is, but that isn't an "underlying TCP/IP error." My hypothesis is this Connection reset is caused from a server's failure to acknowledge an ACK packet (either wholly or just improperly as per TCP/IP). And that a SocketTimeoutException is generated only when no data is generated to be read (since this is thrown during a read after a certain duration, and read is waiting for data, but is not concerned with ACK packets). In other words, read() throws SocketTimeoutException if it didn't read any bytes of actual data (DATA LAYER) in its allotted time.

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  • Asynchronously get user data in facebook tab?

    - by Kristoffer Nolgren
    Using the php sdk, I check if a user inside a tab likes the corresponding page. If i put the following code inside index.php and use that page as my page-tab-url, <?php require_once("facebook/facebook.php"); // Create our application instance // (replace this with your appId and secret). $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '1399475990283166', 'secret' => 'mysercret', 'cookie' => true )); $signed_request = $facebook->getSignedRequest(); echo $signed_request['page']['liked']; ?> it outputs '1'. I would like to achieve this asynchronously instead, so I put the php in a separate file and try to access it using ajax instead $http.post('/facebook/likes.php'). success(function(data){ console.log(data); }).error(function(data){ console.log(data); } ); This sample is using angular, but what javascript library i'm using probably doesn't matter. When I access the info with javascript Facebook doesn't seem to get the info that I liked the page. Adding a print_r($facebook); on the page I'm retreiving the same values as if i'm not in a facebook-tab: ( [sharedSessionID:protected] => [appId:protected] => 1399475990283166 [appSecret:protected] => 679fb0ab947c2b98e818f9240bc793da [user:protected] => [signedRequest:protected] => [state:protected] => [accessToken:protected] => [fileUploadSupport:protected] => [trustForwarded:protected] => ) Can I access theese values asynchronosly somehow?

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  • BlackBerry 5.0 causing full menu to show on navigationClick

    - by jwadsack
    I have a BlackBerry app that is built for 4.5.x SDK. The first page of the app shows a list of fields and each field can be highlighted and clicked. The click action shows a new view with additional information about the field. This all works fine in 4.5, 4.6 and 4.7 and on the sim with 5.0. On a real 9000 running 5.0, when clicking the trackball on an item in the list, the full menu is showing rather than the click event getting consumed (or even fired) for the field. The view is derived from MainScreen and looks something like this: public class ListView extends MainScreen { public ItemCollection list = new ItemCollection; protected void sublayout( int maxWidth, int maxHeight ) { int i = 1; while(( item == (Item)list.nextElement()) != null) { ItemField field = new ItemField(item, i++); add(field); } } } This class does not consume navigationClick, but shouldn't need to, right? The field class does consume navigationClick event: public class ItemField extends Field { protected boolean navigationClick(int status, int time) { controller.showDeal(item.id, Session.current); return true; } } Is there something that changed in 5.0 that I need to add to have this app work the same for all platforms?

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  • do functions in sql server have different permissions rules?

    - by jcollum
    Here's the situation. I'm writing an automated test that walks the list of dependencies for a proc and determines if an acct has rights for all of the dependent objects. My code looks like this: exec sp_depends 'the_proc_name' -- run this query on the results of sp_depends: select case when exists ( select * from sys.database_permissions dp where grantee_principal_id=USER_ID('TheAccount') and major_id=object_id('dbo.theDependentObject') and minor_id=0 and state_desc = 'GRANT') then 'true' else 'false' end; It all seems to be working fine, but there's a hiccup when it encounters a function. I have one case where TheAccount doesn't have rights to a function (the query above returns false). However the proc that calls the function in question runs fine when running under TheAccount. So there's either something wrong with my test code or functions have special permission behavior in SQL-Server that I'm not aware of. Should I change the code to only search for 'DENY' instead of 'GRANT'? Do functions that are called in procs inherit the permissions of the calling proc except when the execute rights are explicitly denied? Does my code suck?

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  • EUpdateError exception not recognized when raised in TDatasetProvider.OnUpdateError. Why?

    - by max
    When I re-throw a EUpdateError exception in the TDatasetProvider.OnUpdateError event, it is not recognized as EUpdateError exception in the catch block. It's only recognized as base Excption. try ... //calls the TDatasetPorvider.OnUpdateError event. myClientDataSet.ApplyUpdates(0); ... except on ex: EUpdateError do begin //never goes here //Evaluate ex.ErrorCode end; on ex: Exception do begin //always goes here //the expression (ex is EUpdateError) returns false; end; end; Hiere is the corresponding .OnUpdateError implementaion: procedure MyDataModule.MyDatasetProviderOnUpdateError(..;E: EUpdateError;...); beign //Here, the expression (E is EUpdateException) returns true; raise E; end; The exception is re-thrown, but as it seems the EUpdateError is transformed into a plain base Execption. Does anybody know, why the class type get lost? I would need that type in order to check the .ErrorCode to know what went wrong and to prepare the proper user message.

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  • problems piping in node.js

    - by alvaizq
    We have the following example in node.js var http = require('http'); http.createServer(function(request, response) { var proxy = http.createClient(8083, '127.0.0.1') var proxy_request = proxy.request(request.method, request.url, request.headers); proxy_request.on('response', function (proxy_response) { proxy_response.pipe(response); response.writeHead(proxy_response.statusCode, proxy_response.headers); }); setTimeout(function(){ request.pipe(proxy_request); },3000); }).listen(8081, '127.0.0.1'); The example listen to a request in 127.0.0.1:8081 and sends it to a dummy server (always return 200 OK status code) in 127.0.0.1:8083. The problem is in the pipe among the input stream (readable) and output stream (writable) when we have a async module before (in this case the setTimeOut timing). The pipe doesn't work and nothing is sent to dummy server in 8083 port. Maybe, when we have a async call (in this case the setTimeOut) before the pipe call, the inputstream change to a state "not readable", and after the async call the pipe doesn't send anything. This is just an example...we test it with more async modules from node.js community with the same result (ldapjs, etc)... We try to fix it with: - request.readable =true; //before pipe call - request.pipe(proxy_request, {end : false}); with the same result (the pipe doesn't work). Can anybody help us? Many thanks in advanced and best regards,

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  • Generics Java and Shadowing of type parameters

    - by rubixibuc
    This code seems to work fine class Rule<T> { public <T>Rule(T t) { } public <T> void Foo(T t) { } } Does the method type parameter shadow the class type parameter? Also when you create an object does it use the type parameter of the class? example Rule<String> r = new Rule<String>(); Does this normally apply to the type parameter of the class, in the situation where they do not conflict? I mean when only the class has a type parameter, not the constructor, or does this look for a type parameter in the constructor? If they do conflict how does this change? SEE DISCUSSION BELOW if I have a function call x = <Type Parameter>method(); // this is a syntax error even inside the function or class ; I must place a this before it, why is this, and does everything still hold true. Why don't I need to prefix anything for the constructor call. Shouldn't Oracle fix this.

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