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  • csharp get value datatemplate element

    - by To-me
    Hello, Here is my code <ListBox x:Name="myList" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" SelectionChanged="editElement"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Name="ElementItemTemplate"> <StackPanel Name="stackPanelElementItem" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label Name="SelectedItemlabel" Content="{Binding}" /> <Button Name="buttonDelElement" Click="btnDelElement">Delete</Button> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> private void btnDelElement(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ListBoxItem lbi2 = (ListBoxItem)(lstCursus.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(myList.Items.CurrentItem)); String selectedItem = lbi2.Content.ToString(); MessageBox.Show("Selected Item " + selectedItem + " ."); private void editCursus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Selected Item " + selectedItem + " ."); /* some code to edit selected item using linq */ } My issue, SelectionChange doesn't work anymore and when I click on buttonDelElement, Selected Item doesn't change immediately. Please, any ideas?

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  • GTK+: How do I process RadioMenuItem choice without marking it chosen? And vise versa

    - by eugene.shatsky
    In my program, I've got a menu with a group of RadioMenuItem entries. Choosing one of them should trigger a function which can either succeed or fail. If it fails, this RadioMenuItem shouldn't be marked chosen (the previous one should persist). Besides, sometimes I want to set marked item without running the choice processing function. Here is my current code: # Update seat menu list def update_seat_menu(self, seats, selected_seat=None): seat_menu = self.builder.get_object('seat_menu') # Delete seat menu items for menu_item in seat_menu: # TODO: is it a good way? does remove() delete obsolete menu_item from memory? if menu_item.__class__.__name__ == 'RadioMenuItem': seat_menu.remove(menu_item) # Fill menu with new items group = [] for seat in seats: menu_item = Gtk.RadioMenuItem.new_with_label(group, str(seat[0])) group = menu_item.get_group() seat_menu.append(menu_item) if str(seat[0]) == selected_seat: menu_item.activate() menu_item.connect("activate", self.choose_seat, str(seat[0])) menu_item.show() # Process item choice def choose_seat(self, entry, seat_name): # Looks like this is called when item is deselected, too; must check if active if entry.get_active(): # This can either succeed or fail self.logind.AttachDevice(seat_name, '/sys'+self.device_syspath, True) Chosen RadioMenuItem gets marked irrespective of the choose_seat() execution result; and the only way to set marked item without triggering choose_seat() is to re-run update_seat_menu() with selected_seat argument, which is an overkill. I tried to connect choose_seat() with 'button-release-event' instead of 'activate' and call entry.activate() in choose_seat() if AttachDevice() succeeds, but this resulted in whole X desktop lockup until AttachDevice() timed out, and chosen item still got marked.

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  • splice() not working on correctly

    - by adardesign
    I am setting a cookie for each navigation container that is clicked on. It sets an array that is joined and set the cookie value. if its clicked again then its removed from the array. It somehow buggy. It only splices after clicking on other elements. and then it behaves weird. It might be that splice is not the correct method Thanks much. var navLinkToOpen; var setNavCookie = function(value){ var isSet = false; var checkCookies = checkNavCookie() setCookieHelper = checkCookies? checkCookies.split(","): []; for(i in setCookieHelper){ if(value == setCookieHelper[i]){ setCookieHelper.splice(value,1); isSet = true; } } if(!isSet){setCookieHelper.push(value)} setCookieHelper.join(",") document.cookie = "navLinkToOpen"+"="+setCookieHelper; } var checkNavCookie = function(){ var allCookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); for (i = 0; i < allCookies.length; i++ ){ temp = allCookies[i].split("=") if(temp[0].match("navLinkToOpen")){ var getValue = temp[1] } } return getValue || false } $(document).ready(function() { $("#LeftNav li").has("b").addClass("navHeader").not(":first").siblings("li").hide() $(".navHeader").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil("li:has('b')").slideToggle(300); setNavCookie($('.navHeader').index($(this))) return false }) var testCookies = checkNavCookie(); if(testCookies){ finalArrayValue = testCookies.split(",") for(i in finalArrayValue){ $(".navHeader").eq(finalArrayValue[i]).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil(".navHeader").slideToggle (0); } } });

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  • Textbox extends outside of the grid cell in .Net 4.0 (but not in 3.5)

    - by Bryant
    There seems to be a change in behaviour between .Net 3.5 and .Net 4.0. If I define a window as: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="500" > <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition MinWidth="300" /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBox Grid.Column="1" ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll="True" ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" Text="abc abc abc abc abc abc abc abc abcabc abc abcabc abc abc abc abc abc" /> </Grid> </Window> In .Net 3.5 the textbox correctly contains itself within the grid cell but in .Net 4.0 it extends beyond the cell and so gets clipped. This only happens if the MinWidth of the first column is greater than 50% of the overall width. Does anyone know how to get 4.0 to exhibit the same behavior as 3.5?

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  • Asynchronously get user data in facebook tab?

    - by Kristoffer Nolgren
    Using the php sdk, I check if a user inside a tab likes the corresponding page. If i put the following code inside index.php and use that page as my page-tab-url, <?php require_once("facebook/facebook.php"); // Create our application instance // (replace this with your appId and secret). $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '1399475990283166', 'secret' => 'mysercret', 'cookie' => true )); $signed_request = $facebook->getSignedRequest(); echo $signed_request['page']['liked']; ?> it outputs '1'. I would like to achieve this asynchronously instead, so I put the php in a separate file and try to access it using ajax instead $http.post('/facebook/likes.php'). success(function(data){ console.log(data); }).error(function(data){ console.log(data); } ); This sample is using angular, but what javascript library i'm using probably doesn't matter. When I access the info with javascript Facebook doesn't seem to get the info that I liked the page. Adding a print_r($facebook); on the page I'm retreiving the same values as if i'm not in a facebook-tab: ( [sharedSessionID:protected] => [appId:protected] => 1399475990283166 [appSecret:protected] => 679fb0ab947c2b98e818f9240bc793da [user:protected] => [signedRequest:protected] => [state:protected] => [accessToken:protected] => [fileUploadSupport:protected] => [trustForwarded:protected] => ) Can I access theese values asynchronosly somehow?

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  • android nested lists

    - by Raogrimm
    i'm new to programming android and i have found some useful things for my app, but i can't seem to find how to make a list filled with an string array display a new list that is going to be populated with a string array. i would like to have the user choose an item from the top_menu list and from there go to the desired area and have that array appear. this is what i have so far: public class HelloListActivity extends ListActivity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); String[] top_menu = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.top_menu); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.list_item, top_menu)); ListView lv = getListView(); lv.setTextFilterEnabled(true); lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { ??? } }); } all my arrays are working fine, i just don't know how to repopulate a new list with the other array depending on the choice the user made. any help is greatly appreciated

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  • can't create partial objects with accepts_nested_attributes_for

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I'm trying to build a form that allows users to update some records. They can't update every field, though, so I'm going to do some explicit processing (in the controller for now) to update the model vis-a-vis the form. Here's how I'm trying to do it: Family model: class Family < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :people, dependent: :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :people, allow_destroy: true, reject_if: ->(p){p[:name].blank?} end In the controller def check edited_family = Family.new(params[:family]) #compare to the one we have in the db #update each person as needed/allowed #save it end Form: = form_for current_family, url: check_rsvp_path, method: :post do |f| = f.fields_for :people do |person_fields| - if person_fields.object.user_editable = person_fields.text_field :name, class: "person-label" - else %p.person-label= person_fields.object.name The problem is, I guess, that Family.new(params[:family]) tries to pull the people out of the database, and I get this: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in RsvpsController#check Couldn't find Person with ID=7 for Family with ID= That's, I guess, because I'm not adding a field for family id to the nested form, which I suppose I could do, but I don't actually need it to load anything from the database for this anyway, so I'd rather not. I could also hack around this by just digging through the params hash myself for the data I need, but that doesn't feel a slick. It seems nicest to just create an object out of the params hash and then work with it. Is there a better way? How can I just create the nested object?

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  • Trouble with jQuery Form Validation

    - by Sennheiser
    I'm making a form that has the following validation rules: no fields are "required", but if you enter an email, it must be valid, and if you enter a password, it must be at least 6 characters and match the confirm password field value. The form works flawlessly with no validation so I know it's not a PHP or HTML problem. Here's the jQuery code handling the form: $('#success').hide(); $('#pwerror').hide(); $('#emailError').hide(); $('#subSet').live('click',function() { //if any of the fields have a value if($("#chfn").val() != "" || $("#chln").val() != "" || $("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "" || $("#chem").val() != "") { $ev = 1; $pv = 1; //validates an email if there is one, trips the valid variable flag if($("#chem").val() != "") { $("#profSet").validate({ rules: { chem: { email: true }, chpw: { required: false, minlength: 6 }, chpw2: { required: false, minlength: 6, equalTo: $("#chpw").val() } }, messages:{ chpw2: { equalTo: "Passwords must be the same." }, chpw: { minlength: "Password must be at least 6 characters." } } }); if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $ev = 0; } } //if either password field is filled, start trying to validate it if($("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "") { if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $pv = 0; } } //if those two were valid if($pv == 1 && $ev == 1) { $.post('php/profSet.php', $('#profSet').serialize(), function(){ $('#profSet').hide(); $('#success').show(); }); } //if either was invalid, the error was already tripped, and this code exits here } }); The problem I'm having now is that the "passwords must be the same" error keeps getting triggered even if both fields are blank, or if they actually are the same. Therefore, the form cannot submit. Any help?

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  • Safe json parsing with jquery?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I am using jquery with json. My client pages generate json, which I store on my server. The clients can then fetch the json back out later, parse, and show it. Since my clients are generating the json, it may not be safe. I think jquery uses eval() internally. Is that true? Is there a way to use the native json parsers from the browsers where available, otherwise fall back to manual parsing if not? I'm new to jquery so I don't know where I'd insert my own parsing code. I'm doing something like: $.ajax({ url: 'myservlet', type: 'GET', dataType: 'json', timeout: 1000, error: function(){ alert('Error loading JSON'); }, success: function(json){ alert("It worked!: " + json.name + ", " + json.grade); } }); so in the success() method, the json object is already parsed for me. Is there a way to catch it as a raw string first? Then I can decide whether to use the native parsers or manual parsing (hoping there's a jquery plugin for that..). The articles I'm reading are all from different years, so I don't know if jquery has already abandoned eval() already for json, Thank you

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  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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  • Java: Cleaing up connection reset (but not by peer).

    - by Zombies
    There seems to be some confusion as well contradicting statements on various SO answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/585599/whats-causing-my-java-net-socketexception-connection-reset . You can see here that the accepted answer states that the connecteion was closed by other side. But this is not true, closing a connection doesn't cause a connection reset. It is cauesed by "an underlying TCP/IP error." What I want to know is if a SocketException: Connection reset means really besides "unerlying TCP/IP Error." What really causes this? As I doubt it has anything to do with the connection being closed (since closing a connection isn't an exception worthy flag, and reading from a closed connection is, but that isn't an "underlying TCP/IP error." My hypothesis is this Connection reset is caused from a server's failure to acknowledge an ACK packet (either wholly or just improperly as per TCP/IP). And that a SocketTimeoutException is generated only when no data is generated to be read (since this is thrown during a read after a certain duration, and read is waiting for data, but is not concerned with ACK packets). In other words, read() throws SocketTimeoutException if it didn't read any bytes of actual data (DATA LAYER) in its allotted time.

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  • Make form redirect users after posting

    - by Liso22
    I need to change a form so that instead of reloading the page after submitting it, it redirects the user to another page, this is the form: <form class="questionform" name="questionform-0" id="questionform-0"> <textarea class="question-box" cols="12" rows="5" id="question-box-' . $questionformid . '" name="title" type="text" maxlength="200" size="28"></textarea> <input type="text" class="ubicacion" value="" name="question"> <input type="button" name="ask" value="Publicar" onclick="askquestion('questionform-0'); window.location.reload(true);"> I want to remove the window.location.reload and change it for a redirect that sends users to the page their comment will appear. Which is: www.chusmix.com/s?= (the content of the second field) The problem is that the content of the second field is part of the url I want to redirect, it's not simply always the same URL. So I have no idea how to do it. How do I do it? Anyway thanks for any info or whatever that points me on the right direction. Thanks

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  • What is the Rule of Thumb on Exposing Encapsulated Class Methods

    - by javamonkey79
    Consider the following analogy: If we have a class: "Car" we might expect it to have an instance of "Engine" in it. As in: "The car HAS-A engine". Similarly, in the "Engine" class we would expect an instance of "Starting System" or "Cooling System" which each have their appropriate sub-components. By the nature of encapsulation, is it not true that the car "HAS-A" "radiator hose" in it as well as the engine? Therefore, is it appropriate OO to do something like this: public class Car { private Engine _engine; public Engine getEngine() { return _engine; } // is it ok to use 'convenience' methods of inner classes? // are the following 2 methods "wrong" from an OO point of view? public RadiatorHose getRadiatorHose() { return getCoolingSystem().getRadiatorHose(); } public CoolingSystem getCoolingSystem() { return _engine.getCoolingSystem(); } } public class Engine { private CoolingSystem _coolingSystem; public CoolingSystem getCoolingSystem() { return _coolingSystem; } } public class CoolingSystem { private RadiatorHose _radiatorHose; public RadiatorHose getRadiatorHose() { return _radiatorHose; } } public class RadiatorHose {//... }

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  • BlackBerry 5.0 causing full menu to show on navigationClick

    - by jwadsack
    I have a BlackBerry app that is built for 4.5.x SDK. The first page of the app shows a list of fields and each field can be highlighted and clicked. The click action shows a new view with additional information about the field. This all works fine in 4.5, 4.6 and 4.7 and on the sim with 5.0. On a real 9000 running 5.0, when clicking the trackball on an item in the list, the full menu is showing rather than the click event getting consumed (or even fired) for the field. The view is derived from MainScreen and looks something like this: public class ListView extends MainScreen { public ItemCollection list = new ItemCollection; protected void sublayout( int maxWidth, int maxHeight ) { int i = 1; while(( item == (Item)list.nextElement()) != null) { ItemField field = new ItemField(item, i++); add(field); } } } This class does not consume navigationClick, but shouldn't need to, right? The field class does consume navigationClick event: public class ItemField extends Field { protected boolean navigationClick(int status, int time) { controller.showDeal(item.id, Session.current); return true; } } Is there something that changed in 5.0 that I need to add to have this app work the same for all platforms?

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  • do functions in sql server have different permissions rules?

    - by jcollum
    Here's the situation. I'm writing an automated test that walks the list of dependencies for a proc and determines if an acct has rights for all of the dependent objects. My code looks like this: exec sp_depends 'the_proc_name' -- run this query on the results of sp_depends: select case when exists ( select * from sys.database_permissions dp where grantee_principal_id=USER_ID('TheAccount') and major_id=object_id('dbo.theDependentObject') and minor_id=0 and state_desc = 'GRANT') then 'true' else 'false' end; It all seems to be working fine, but there's a hiccup when it encounters a function. I have one case where TheAccount doesn't have rights to a function (the query above returns false). However the proc that calls the function in question runs fine when running under TheAccount. So there's either something wrong with my test code or functions have special permission behavior in SQL-Server that I'm not aware of. Should I change the code to only search for 'DENY' instead of 'GRANT'? Do functions that are called in procs inherit the permissions of the calling proc except when the execute rights are explicitly denied? Does my code suck?

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  • EUpdateError exception not recognized when raised in TDatasetProvider.OnUpdateError. Why?

    - by max
    When I re-throw a EUpdateError exception in the TDatasetProvider.OnUpdateError event, it is not recognized as EUpdateError exception in the catch block. It's only recognized as base Excption. try ... //calls the TDatasetPorvider.OnUpdateError event. myClientDataSet.ApplyUpdates(0); ... except on ex: EUpdateError do begin //never goes here //Evaluate ex.ErrorCode end; on ex: Exception do begin //always goes here //the expression (ex is EUpdateError) returns false; end; end; Hiere is the corresponding .OnUpdateError implementaion: procedure MyDataModule.MyDatasetProviderOnUpdateError(..;E: EUpdateError;...); beign //Here, the expression (E is EUpdateException) returns true; raise E; end; The exception is re-thrown, but as it seems the EUpdateError is transformed into a plain base Execption. Does anybody know, why the class type get lost? I would need that type in order to check the .ErrorCode to know what went wrong and to prepare the proper user message.

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  • How to stop calling the Activity again when device orientation is changed??

    - by user1460323
    My app uses Barcode Scanner. I want to launch the scanner when I open the app so I have it in the onCreate method. The problem is that if I have it like that, when I turn the device it calls again onCreate and calls another scanner. Also I have the first activity that calls the scanner. it has a menu so if he user presses back, it goes to that menu. If I turn the screen on that menu, it goes to barcode scanner again. To solve it I have a flag that indicates if it is the first time I call the scanner, if it's not I don't call it again. Now the problem is that if I go out of the app and go in again it doesn't go to the scanner, it goes to the menu, becasuse is not the first time I call it. Any ideas?? Is there a way to change the flag when I go out of my main activity or any other solution?? My code. private static boolean first = true; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); integrator = new IntentIntegrator(this); if (first) { first = false; integrator.initiateScan(); } }

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  • problems piping in node.js

    - by alvaizq
    We have the following example in node.js var http = require('http'); http.createServer(function(request, response) { var proxy = http.createClient(8083, '127.0.0.1') var proxy_request = proxy.request(request.method, request.url, request.headers); proxy_request.on('response', function (proxy_response) { proxy_response.pipe(response); response.writeHead(proxy_response.statusCode, proxy_response.headers); }); setTimeout(function(){ request.pipe(proxy_request); },3000); }).listen(8081, '127.0.0.1'); The example listen to a request in 127.0.0.1:8081 and sends it to a dummy server (always return 200 OK status code) in 127.0.0.1:8083. The problem is in the pipe among the input stream (readable) and output stream (writable) when we have a async module before (in this case the setTimeOut timing). The pipe doesn't work and nothing is sent to dummy server in 8083 port. Maybe, when we have a async call (in this case the setTimeOut) before the pipe call, the inputstream change to a state "not readable", and after the async call the pipe doesn't send anything. This is just an example...we test it with more async modules from node.js community with the same result (ldapjs, etc)... We try to fix it with: - request.readable =true; //before pipe call - request.pipe(proxy_request, {end : false}); with the same result (the pipe doesn't work). Can anybody help us? Many thanks in advanced and best regards,

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  • Java servlet's request parameter's name set to entire json object

    - by Geren White
    I'm sending a json object through ajax to a java servlet. The json object is key-value type with three keys that point to arrays and a key that points to a single string. I build it in javascript like this: var jsonObject = {"arrayOne": arrayOne, "arrayTwo": arrayTwo, "arrayThree": arrThree, "string": stringVar}; I then send it to a java servlet using ajax as follows: httpRequest.open('POST', url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); var jsonString = jsonObject.toJSONString(); httpRequest.send(jsonString); This will send the string to my servlet, but It isn't showing as I expect it to. The whole json string gets set to the name of one of my request's parameters. So in my servlet if I do request.getParameterNames(); It will return an enumeration with one of the table entries' key's to be the entire object contents. I may be mistaken, but my thought was that it should set each key to a different parameter name. So I should have 4 parameters, arrayOne, arrayTwo, arrayThree, and string. Am I doing something wrong or is my thinking off here? Any help is appreciated. Thanks

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  • How to determine number of function arguments dynamically

    - by Kam
    I have the following code: #include <iostream> #include <functional> class test { public: typedef std::function<bool(int)> Handler; void handler(Handler h){h(5);} }; class test2 { public: template< typename Ret2, typename Ret, typename Class, typename Param> inline Ret2 MemFn(Ret (Class::*f)(Param), int arg_num) { if (arg_num == 1) return std::bind(f, this, std::placeholders::_1); } bool f(int x){ std::cout << x << std::endl; return true;} }; int main() { test t; test2 t2; t.handler(t2.MemFn<test::Handler>(&test2::f, 1)); return 0; } It works as expected. I would like to be able to call this: t.handler(t2.MemFn<test::Handler>(&test2::f)); instead of t.handler(t2.MemFn<test::Handler>(&test2::f, 1)); Basically I need MemFn to determine in runtime what Handler expects as the number of arguments. Is that even possible?

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  • question about permutation problem

    - by davit-datuashvili
    i have posted similar problem here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2920315/permutation-of-array but i want following we know that with length n there is n! possible permutation from which one such that all element are in order they are in sorted variant so i want break permutation when array is in order and print result but something is wrong i think that problem is repeated of permutation here is my code import java.util.*; public class permut{ public static Random r=new Random(); public static void display(int a[],int n){ for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ System.out.println(a[i]); } } public static void Permut(int a[],int n){ int j=0; int k=0; while (j<fact(n)){ int s=r.nextInt(n); for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ k=a[i]; a[i]=a[s]; a[s]=k; } j++; if (sorted(a,n)) display(a,n); break; } } public static void main(String[]args){ int a[]=new int[]{3,4,1,2}; int n=a.length; Permut(a,n); } public static int fact(int n){ if (n==0 || (n==1) ) return 1; return n*fact(n-1); } public static boolean sorted(int a[],int n ){ boolean flag=false; for (int i=0;i<n-1;i++){ if (a[i]<a[i+1]){ flag=true; } else{ flag=false; } } return flag; } } can anybody help me? result is nothing

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  • How to dynamic adding rows into asp.net table ?

    - by user359706
    How can I add rows in a table from server-side? if (!Page.IsPostBack) { Session["table"] = TableId; }else TableId = (Table)Session["table"]; } protected void btnAddinRow_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { num_row = (TableId.Rows).Count; TableRow r = new TableRow(); TableCell c1 = new TableCell(); TableCell c2 = new TableCell(); TextBox t = new TextBox(); t.ID = "textID" + num_row; t.EnableViewState = true; r.ID = "newRow" + num_row; c1.ID = "newC1" + num_row; c2.ID = "newC2" + num_row; c1.Text = "New Cell - " + num_row; c2.Controls.Add(t); r.Cells.Add(c1); r.Cells.Add(c2); TableId.Rows.Add(r); Session["table"] = TableId; } in debug I found out the number in the "TableID", but the rows are not drawn. Have you got an idea about this issue? Thanks

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  • How should I map an abstract class with simple xml in Java?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I want to achieve the following xml using simple xml framework (http://simple.sourceforge.net/): <events> <course-added date="01/01/2010"> ... </course-added> <course-removed date="01/02/2010"> .... </course-removed> <student-enrolled date="01/02/2010"> ... </student-enrolled> </events> I have the following (but it doesn't achieve the desired xml): @Root(name="events") class XMLEvents { @ElementList(inline=true) ArrayList<XMLEvent> events = Lists.newArrayList(); ... } abstract class XMLEvent { @Attribute(name="date") String dateOfEventFormatted; ... } And different type of XMLNodes that have different information (but are all different types of events) @Root(name="course-added") class XMLCourseAdded extends XMLEvent{ @Element(name="course") XMLCourseLongFormat course; .... } @Root(name="course-removed") class XMLCourseRemoved extends XMLEvent { @Element(name="course-id") String courseId; ... } How should I do the mapping or what should I change in order to be able to achieve de desired xml? Thanks!

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  • What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

    - by priehl
    I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • using a href (html)tag along with PHP

    - by dexter
    i have tried: <?php include("delete.php") ?> <?php .... .... .... if($result=mysql_query($sql)) { echo "<table><th>Id</th><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Unit Price</th>"; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "<tr><td>".$row['Id']."</td><td>".$row['Name']."</td><td>".$row['Description']."</td><td>".$row['UnitPrice']."</td> <td><a href='delproduct($row[Id])' onclick = 'return MsgOkCancel()'>Delete</a></td></tr>"; echo "<br/>"; } } ?> following javascript is in the same page: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function MsgOkCancel() { if (confirm("Are You Sure You Want to Delete?")) { return true } else {return false} } </script> where delproduct is a javascript function in delete.php written like: <script type="javascript"> function delproduct(Id) { alert('Id '+ Id); } <script> ** after ** clicking Delete a okcancel message-box appear asking conformation ** but ** after clicking 'ok' it should execute statements inside delproduct function but it doesn't it gives error like: Object Not Found :The requested URL was not found on this server. what would be the problem? pls help, thanks

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