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• Enabling all buttons in a repeater except for the clicked one

  - by NewAmbition

  I have a Repeater Control with various buttons in it. When the button gets clicked, it needs to disable itself so it cant be clicked again. Working. However, when I click that button, it needs to enable any other button but it. So, When I click on it, it needs to disable. When I click on another one, the previous button must enable, and that one must disable. So for I've tried: Button btnLoad = (Button)e.Item.FindControl("btnLoad"); foreach (Button b in e.Item.Controls.OfType<Button>().Select(c => c).Where(b => b != btnLoad)) { b.Enabled = true; } btnLoad.Text = "Currently Viewing"; btnLoad.Enabled = false; But it isnt working. Depending on where I put it, its either leaving all the buttons enabled (But still changing its text), or not doing anything at all. What do I need to do to make this work?

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• Asynchronously get user data in facebook tab?

  - by Kristoffer Nolgren

  Using the php sdk, I check if a user inside a tab likes the corresponding page. If i put the following code inside index.php and use that page as my page-tab-url, <?php require_once("facebook/facebook.php"); // Create our application instance // (replace this with your appId and secret). $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '1399475990283166', 'secret' => 'mysercret', 'cookie' => true )); $signed_request = $facebook->getSignedRequest(); echo $signed_request['page']['liked']; ?> it outputs '1'. I would like to achieve this asynchronously instead, so I put the php in a separate file and try to access it using ajax instead $http.post('/facebook/likes.php'). success(function(data){ console.log(data); }).error(function(data){ console.log(data); } ); This sample is using angular, but what javascript library i'm using probably doesn't matter. When I access the info with javascript Facebook doesn't seem to get the info that I liked the page. Adding a print_r($facebook); on the page I'm retreiving the same values as if i'm not in a facebook-tab: ( [sharedSessionID:protected] => [appId:protected] => 1399475990283166 [appSecret:protected] => 679fb0ab947c2b98e818f9240bc793da [user:protected] => [signedRequest:protected] => [state:protected] => [accessToken:protected] => [fileUploadSupport:protected] => [trustForwarded:protected] => ) Can I access theese values asynchronosly somehow?

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• What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

  - by priehl

  I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

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• jQuery logic firing twice from a Usercontrol when used in a jQueryUI modal dialog

  - by AaronS

  I have an asp.net usercontrol that I'm using to put a bunch of HTML and Jquery logic into to be shared on several pages. This usercontrol has some dropdown boxes loaded from json calls and has no added codebehind logic. When I use this usercontrol on a normal page it works perfectly fine, and no issues at all. However, when I wrap the usercontrol in a div, and use a jqueryUI modal dialog, everything in the usercontrol fires twice. Not only code in the initial $(document).ready(function() {});, but also every function is also fired twice when called. Debugging this in Visual Studio, I see that everything is first being called from the external JS file, and then again from a "script block" file that is somehow getting generated on the fly. This script block file isn't getting generated on a page that doesn't wrap the user control in a modal. The same happens if I use IISExpress or IIS7. The question is, why is this script block file getting created, and why is all my jQuery logic firing twice? --edit-- Here is the div: <div id="divMyDiv" title="MyDiv"> <uc1:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="MyUsercontrol" /> </div> Here is the modal logic that uses it: $("#divMyDiv").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 400, width: 400, modal: true, open: function (type, data) { $(this).parent().appendTo("form"); } }); Note: The problm still occurs, even if I remove the "open:" function. But, it does not occur if I remove the entire dialog block, so it is specific to this dialog call.

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• Ways to make (relatively) safe assumptions about the type of concrete subclasses?

  - by Kylotan

  I have an interface (defined as a abstract base class) that looks like this: class AbstractInterface { public: bool IsRelatedTo(const AbstractInterface& other) const = 0; } And I have an implementation of this (constructors etc omitted): class ConcreteThing { public: bool IsRelatedTo(const AbstractInterface& other) const { return m_ImplObject.has_relationship_to(other.m_ImplObject); } private: ImplementationObject m_ImplObject; } The AbstractInterface forms an interface in Project A, and the ConcreteThing lives in Project B as an implementation of that interface. This is so that code in Project A can access data from Project B without having a direct dependency on it - Project B just has to implement the correct interface. Obviously the line in the body of the IsRelatedTo function cannot compile - that instance of ConcreteThing has an m_ImplObject member, but it can't assume that all AbstractInterfaces do, including the other argument. In my system, I can actually assume that all implementations of AbstractInterface are instances of ConcreteThing (or subclasses thereof), but I'd prefer not to be casting the object to the concrete type in order to get at the private member, or encoding that assumption in a way that will crash without a diagnostic later if this assumption ceases to hold true. I cannot modify ImplementationObject, but I can modify AbstractInterface and ConcreteThing. I also cannot use the standard RTTI mechanism for checking a type prior to casting, or use dynamic_cast for a similar purpose. I have a feeling that I might be able to overload IsRelatedTo with a ConcreteThing argument, but I'm not sure how to call it via the base IsRelatedTo(AbstractInterface) method. It wouldn't get called automatically as it's not a strict reimplementation of that method. Is there a pattern for doing what I want here, allowing me to implement the IsRelatedTo function via ImplementationObject::has_relationship_to(ImplementationObject), without risky casts? (Also, I couldn't think of a good question title - please change it if you have a better one.)

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• Trouble with jQuery Form Validation

  - by Sennheiser

  I'm making a form that has the following validation rules: no fields are "required", but if you enter an email, it must be valid, and if you enter a password, it must be at least 6 characters and match the confirm password field value. The form works flawlessly with no validation so I know it's not a PHP or HTML problem. Here's the jQuery code handling the form: $('#success').hide(); $('#pwerror').hide(); $('#emailError').hide(); $('#subSet').live('click',function() { //if any of the fields have a value if($("#chfn").val() != "" || $("#chln").val() != "" || $("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "" || $("#chem").val() != "") { $ev = 1; $pv = 1; //validates an email if there is one, trips the valid variable flag if($("#chem").val() != "") { $("#profSet").validate({ rules: { chem: { email: true }, chpw: { required: false, minlength: 6 }, chpw2: { required: false, minlength: 6, equalTo: $("#chpw").val() } }, messages:{ chpw2: { equalTo: "Passwords must be the same." }, chpw: { minlength: "Password must be at least 6 characters." } } }); if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $ev = 0; } } //if either password field is filled, start trying to validate it if($("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "") { if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $pv = 0; } } //if those two were valid if($pv == 1 && $ev == 1) { $.post('php/profSet.php', $('#profSet').serialize(), function(){ $('#profSet').hide(); $('#success').show(); }); } //if either was invalid, the error was already tripped, and this code exits here } }); The problem I'm having now is that the "passwords must be the same" error keeps getting triggered even if both fields are blank, or if they actually are the same. Therefore, the form cannot submit. Any help?

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• problems piping in node.js

  - by alvaizq

  We have the following example in node.js var http = require('http'); http.createServer(function(request, response) { var proxy = http.createClient(8083, '127.0.0.1') var proxy_request = proxy.request(request.method, request.url, request.headers); proxy_request.on('response', function (proxy_response) { proxy_response.pipe(response); response.writeHead(proxy_response.statusCode, proxy_response.headers); }); setTimeout(function(){ request.pipe(proxy_request); },3000); }).listen(8081, '127.0.0.1'); The example listen to a request in 127.0.0.1:8081 and sends it to a dummy server (always return 200 OK status code) in 127.0.0.1:8083. The problem is in the pipe among the input stream (readable) and output stream (writable) when we have a async module before (in this case the setTimeOut timing). The pipe doesn't work and nothing is sent to dummy server in 8083 port. Maybe, when we have a async call (in this case the setTimeOut) before the pipe call, the inputstream change to a state "not readable", and after the async call the pipe doesn't send anything. This is just an example...we test it with more async modules from node.js community with the same result (ldapjs, etc)... We try to fix it with: - request.readable =true; //before pipe call - request.pipe(proxy_request, {end : false}); with the same result (the pipe doesn't work). Can anybody help us? Many thanks in advanced and best regards,

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• What is the Rule of Thumb on Exposing Encapsulated Class Methods

  - by javamonkey79

  Consider the following analogy: If we have a class: "Car" we might expect it to have an instance of "Engine" in it. As in: "The car HAS-A engine". Similarly, in the "Engine" class we would expect an instance of "Starting System" or "Cooling System" which each have their appropriate sub-components. By the nature of encapsulation, is it not true that the car "HAS-A" "radiator hose" in it as well as the engine? Therefore, is it appropriate OO to do something like this: public class Car { private Engine _engine; public Engine getEngine() { return _engine; } // is it ok to use 'convenience' methods of inner classes? // are the following 2 methods "wrong" from an OO point of view? public RadiatorHose getRadiatorHose() { return getCoolingSystem().getRadiatorHose(); } public CoolingSystem getCoolingSystem() { return _engine.getCoolingSystem(); } } public class Engine { private CoolingSystem _coolingSystem; public CoolingSystem getCoolingSystem() { return _coolingSystem; } } public class CoolingSystem { private RadiatorHose _radiatorHose; public RadiatorHose getRadiatorHose() { return _radiatorHose; } } public class RadiatorHose {//... }

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• one click, two 'click' event fired

  - by Toni Michel Caubet

  I just want to toggle some elements when a link is clicked: This is how i am trying (But i don't really think that it matters much for this question what's inside the event function callback): /* mostrar exceso de comentarios a peticion del usuario*/ $('.toggleComments').click(function(){ console.log('.toggleComments'); if($(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble:visible').length > 0){ $(this).text('+ <?=get_texto_clave('show_old_comments')?>').removeClass('toggleCommentsActive').append(' ('+$(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble:not:visible').length+'+)'); }else{ $(this).text('- <?=get_texto_clave('hide_old_comments')?>').addClass('toggleCommentsActive'); } $(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble').slideToggle(100); }); I even tried a boolean but gave me same result /* mostrar exceso de comentarios a peticion del usuario*/ var ctoggle = false; $('.toggleComments').click(function(){ if(ctoggle == false){ ctoggle = true; console.log('.toggleComments'); if($(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble:visible').length > 0){ $(this).text('+ <?=get_texto_clave('show_old_comments')?>').removeClass('toggleCommentsActive').append(' ('+$(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble:not:visible').length+'+)'); }else{ $(this).text('- <?=get_texto_clave('hide_old_comments')?>').addClass('toggleCommentsActive'); } $(this).parents('.helpContent').find('.commentHideble').slideToggle(100); ctoggle = false; } }); Why the log is being fired twice by click?

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• Make form redirect users after posting

  - by Liso22

  I need to change a form so that instead of reloading the page after submitting it, it redirects the user to another page, this is the form: <form class="questionform" name="questionform-0" id="questionform-0"> <textarea class="question-box" cols="12" rows="5" id="question-box-' . $questionformid . '" name="title" type="text" maxlength="200" size="28"></textarea> <input type="text" class="ubicacion" value="" name="question"> <input type="button" name="ask" value="Publicar" onclick="askquestion('questionform-0'); window.location.reload(true);"> I want to remove the window.location.reload and change it for a redirect that sends users to the page their comment will appear. Which is: www.chusmix.com/s?= (the content of the second field) The problem is that the content of the second field is part of the url I want to redirect, it's not simply always the same URL. So I have no idea how to do it. How do I do it? Anyway thanks for any info or whatever that points me on the right direction. Thanks

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• using a href (html)tag along with PHP

  - by dexter

  i have tried: <?php include("delete.php") ?> <?php .... .... .... if($result=mysql_query($sql)) { echo "<table><th>Id</th><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Unit Price</th>"; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "<tr><td>".$row['Id']."</td><td>".$row['Name']."</td><td>".$row['Description']."</td><td>".$row['UnitPrice']."</td> <td><a href='delproduct($row[Id])' onclick = 'return MsgOkCancel()'>Delete</a></td></tr>"; echo "<br/>"; } } ?> following javascript is in the same page: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function MsgOkCancel() { if (confirm("Are You Sure You Want to Delete?")) { return true } else {return false} } </script> where delproduct is a javascript function in delete.php written like: <script type="javascript"> function delproduct(Id) { alert('Id '+ Id); } <script> ** after ** clicking Delete a okcancel message-box appear asking conformation ** but ** after clicking 'ok' it should execute statements inside delproduct function but it doesn't it gives error like: Object Not Found :The requested URL was not found on this server. what would be the problem? pls help, thanks

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• do functions in sql server have different permissions rules?

  - by jcollum

  Here's the situation. I'm writing an automated test that walks the list of dependencies for a proc and determines if an acct has rights for all of the dependent objects. My code looks like this: exec sp_depends 'the_proc_name' -- run this query on the results of sp_depends: select case when exists ( select * from sys.database_permissions dp where grantee_principal_id=USER_ID('TheAccount') and major_id=object_id('dbo.theDependentObject') and minor_id=0 and state_desc = 'GRANT') then 'true' else 'false' end; It all seems to be working fine, but there's a hiccup when it encounters a function. I have one case where TheAccount doesn't have rights to a function (the query above returns false). However the proc that calls the function in question runs fine when running under TheAccount. So there's either something wrong with my test code or functions have special permission behavior in SQL-Server that I'm not aware of. Should I change the code to only search for 'DENY' instead of 'GRANT'? Do functions that are called in procs inherit the permissions of the calling proc except when the execute rights are explicitly denied? Does my code suck?

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• IIS7 URL Rewriting: How not to drop HTTPS protocol from rewritten URL?

  - by Scott Mitchell

  I'm working on a website that's using IIS 7's URL rewriting feature to do a permanent redirect from example.com to www.example.com, as well as rewrites from similar domain names to the "main" one, such as from www.examples.com to www.example.com. This rewrite rule - shown below - has worked well for sometime now. However, we recently added HTTPS support and noticed that if users visit one of the URLs to be rewritten to www.example.com then HTTPS is dropped. For instance, if a user visits https://example.com they get redirected to http://www.example.com, whereas we would like them to be sent to https://www.example.com. Here is the rewrite rule of interest (in Web.config): <rule name="Canonical Host Name" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions logicalGrouping="MatchAny"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^example\.com$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.net$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.info$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?examples\.com$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.example.com/{R:1}" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> As you can see, the action element's url attribute points directly to http://, so I get why https://example.com is redirected to http://www.example.com. My question is, how do I fix this? I tried (naively) to just drop the http:// part from the url attribute, but that didn't work. Thanks!

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• jQuery: Preventing an event from being attached more than once?

  - by Evan Carroll

  Essentially, I have an element FOO that I want when clicked to attach a click event to a completely separate set of elements BAR, so that when they're clicked they can revert FOO to its previous content. I only want this event attached once. When FOO is clicked, its content is cached away in $back_up, and a trigger is added on the BAR set so that when clicked they can revert FOO back to its previous state. Is there a clever way to do this? Like to only .bind() if the event doesn't already exist? $('<div class="noprint little check" />').click( function () { var $warranty_explaination = $(this).closest('.page').children('.warranty_explaination'); var $back_up = $warranty_explaination.clone(true); $(this).closest('.page').find('.warranties .check:not(.noprint)').click( function () { /* This is the code I don't want to fire more than once */ /*, I just want it to be set to whatever is in the $back_up */ alert('reset'); $warranty_explaination.replaceWith( $back_up ) } ); $warranty_explaination.html('asdf') } ) Currently, the best way I can think to do this is to attach a class, and select where that class doesn't exist.

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• direction line color google map v2

  - by user1328645

  I'm using this code to change direction line color in google map v2, but still it won't work even after using getpolyine? How can I change it? ` function direction() { var txtAddress = document.getElementById("<%=txtAddress.ClientID %>"); var address = txtAddress.value; var TextBox1 = document.getElementById("<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>"); var address1 = TextBox1.value; directions = new GDirections(map, directionsPanel); directions.load("from: " + address1 + " to: " + address + "", { getPolyline: true }); setTimeout(handle, 1000); // var address =txtAddress.value + " " + TextBox3.value; } function handle() { var points = []; var poly = direction.getPolyline(); for (var i = o; i < poly.getVertexCount(); i++) { points[i] = poly.getVertex(i); } var mypoly = new GPolyline(point, "#ff627", 3, 1) map.addOverlay(mypoly); } `

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• question about permutation problem

  - by davit-datuashvili

  i have posted similar problem here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2920315/permutation-of-array but i want following we know that with length n there is n! possible permutation from which one such that all element are in order they are in sorted variant so i want break permutation when array is in order and print result but something is wrong i think that problem is repeated of permutation here is my code import java.util.*; public class permut{ public static Random r=new Random(); public static void display(int a[],int n){ for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ System.out.println(a[i]); } } public static void Permut(int a[],int n){ int j=0; int k=0; while (j<fact(n)){ int s=r.nextInt(n); for (int i=0;i<n;i++){ k=a[i]; a[i]=a[s]; a[s]=k; } j++; if (sorted(a,n)) display(a,n); break; } } public static void main(String[]args){ int a[]=new int[]{3,4,1,2}; int n=a.length; Permut(a,n); } public static int fact(int n){ if (n==0 || (n==1) ) return 1; return n*fact(n-1); } public static boolean sorted(int a[],int n ){ boolean flag=false; for (int i=0;i<n-1;i++){ if (a[i]<a[i+1]){ flag=true; } else{ flag=false; } } return flag; } } can anybody help me? result is nothing

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• How should I map an abstract class with simple xml in Java?

  - by spderosso

  Hi, I want to achieve the following xml using simple xml framework (http://simple.sourceforge.net/): <events> <course-added date="01/01/2010"> ... </course-added> <course-removed date="01/02/2010"> .... </course-removed> <student-enrolled date="01/02/2010"> ... </student-enrolled> </events> I have the following (but it doesn't achieve the desired xml): @Root(name="events") class XMLEvents { @ElementList(inline=true) ArrayList<XMLEvent> events = Lists.newArrayList(); ... } abstract class XMLEvent { @Attribute(name="date") String dateOfEventFormatted; ... } And different type of XMLNodes that have different information (but are all different types of events) @Root(name="course-added") class XMLCourseAdded extends XMLEvent{ @Element(name="course") XMLCourseLongFormat course; .... } @Root(name="course-removed") class XMLCourseRemoved extends XMLEvent { @Element(name="course-id") String courseId; ... } How should I do the mapping or what should I change in order to be able to achieve de desired xml? Thanks!

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• How to dynamic adding rows into asp.net table ?

  - by user359706

  How can I add rows in a table from server-side? if (!Page.IsPostBack) { Session["table"] = TableId; }else TableId = (Table)Session["table"]; } protected void btnAddinRow_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { num_row = (TableId.Rows).Count; TableRow r = new TableRow(); TableCell c1 = new TableCell(); TableCell c2 = new TableCell(); TextBox t = new TextBox(); t.ID = "textID" + num_row; t.EnableViewState = true; r.ID = "newRow" + num_row; c1.ID = "newC1" + num_row; c2.ID = "newC2" + num_row; c1.Text = "New Cell - " + num_row; c2.Controls.Add(t); r.Cells.Add(c1); r.Cells.Add(c2); TableId.Rows.Add(r); Session["table"] = TableId; } in debug I found out the number in the "TableID", but the rows are not drawn. Have you got an idea about this issue? Thanks

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• Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

  - by jeffl8n

  Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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• How can I have a Label change dynamically based on a Slider Value?

  - by duney

  I'm writing a grade calculator and I currently have a slider with a textbox beside it which displays the current value of the slider: <Slider Name="gradeSlider" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="2" VerticalAlignment="Center" Minimum="40" Maximum="100" IsSnapToTickEnabled="True" TickFrequency="5" TickPlacement="BottomRight"/> <TextBox Name="targetGrade" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="3" Width="30" Height="23" Text="{Binding ElementName=gradeSlider, Path=Value}" TextAlignment="Center"/> However I'm struggling to include a label which will show display a different grade classification based on the slider's value range. I'd have thought that I could create the label: <Label Name="gradeClass" Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="2" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Bottom"/> And then use code: string gradeText; if (gradeSlider.Value >= 40 && gradeSlider.Value < 50) { gradeText = "Pass"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else if (gradeSlider.Value >= 50 && gradeSlider.Value < 60) { gradeText = "2:2"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else { gradeText = "so on..."; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } But the label just stays as "Pass" whatever the slider value. Could somebody please advise me as to where I'm going wrong? I tried using Content = "{Binding Source = gradeText}" on the Label xaml and removing the gradeClass.Content's in the code but it complained that gradeText was declared but never used. Many thanks to anyone who can help.

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• Rails dealing with blank params at controller level

  - by stephenmurdoch

  I have a User model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_secure_password # validation lets users update accounts without entering password validates :password, presence: { on: :create }, allow_blank: { on: :update } validates :password_confirmation, presence: { if: :password_digest_changed? } end I also have a password_reset_controller: def update # this is emailed to the user by the create action - not shown @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) # user is signed in if password and confirmation pass validations sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Can you see the problem here? A user can submit a blank a password/confirmation and rails will sign them in, because the User model allows blank on update. It's not a security concern, since an attacker would still need access to a user's email account before they could get anywhere near this action, but my problem is that a user submitting 6 blank chars would be signed in, and their password would not be changed for them, which could lead to confusion later on. So, I've come up with the following solution, and I'd like to check if there's a better way of doing it, before I push to production: def update @user=User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) # if user submits blank password, add an error, and render edit action if params[:user][:password].blank? @user.errors.add(:password_digest, "can't be blank.") render :edit elsif @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) sign_in @user redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Password has been reset." else flash.now[:error] = "Something went wrong, please try again." render :edit end end Should I be checking for nil as well as blank? Are there any rails patterns or idiomatic ruby techniques for solving this? [Fwiw, I've got required: true on the html inputs, but want this handled server side too.]

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• can't create partial objects with accepts_nested_attributes_for

  - by Isaac Cambron

  I'm trying to build a form that allows users to update some records. They can't update every field, though, so I'm going to do some explicit processing (in the controller for now) to update the model vis-a-vis the form. Here's how I'm trying to do it: Family model: class Family < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :people, dependent: :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :people, allow_destroy: true, reject_if: ->(p){p[:name].blank?} end In the controller def check edited_family = Family.new(params[:family]) #compare to the one we have in the db #update each person as needed/allowed #save it end Form: = form_for current_family, url: check_rsvp_path, method: :post do |f| = f.fields_for :people do |person_fields| - if person_fields.object.user_editable = person_fields.text_field :name, class: "person-label" - else %p.person-label= person_fields.object.name The problem is, I guess, that Family.new(params[:family]) tries to pull the people out of the database, and I get this: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in RsvpsController#check Couldn't find Person with ID=7 for Family with ID= That's, I guess, because I'm not adding a field for family id to the nested form, which I suppose I could do, but I don't actually need it to load anything from the database for this anyway, so I'd rather not. I could also hack around this by just digging through the params hash myself for the data I need, but that doesn't feel a slick. It seems nicest to just create an object out of the params hash and then work with it. Is there a better way? How can I just create the nested object?

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• Context.Items.Add on an XML return type?

  - by Scott Schluer

  So I have the following code contained within an HttpModule in an application I've been asked to support: app.Context.Response.ContentType = "text/xml"; app.Context.Items.Add("IpixRoomId", ipixRoomId); app.Context.Items.Add("IpixId", ipixId); app.Context.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); app.Context.RewritePath(rewriteUrl, true); What's the purpose of adding data to Context.Items when the content type is XML? EDIT: For clarification, I'm calling up this URL: http://website.com/virtualtour/1971/6284/panorama2flash.swf I assume the SWF file (I know very little about Flash) makes another call to http://website.com/virtualtour/config.xml. The code I pasted above only executes on calls to config.xml. So since it's only the SWF file and config.xml being requested from the server, I'm a little confused. Can the .SWF file have access to HttpContext.Current.Items? Other than the HttpModule, there is no .NET involved in the code, it's a straight request to the SWF file which triggers a call to config.xml but it seems that those Context.Items contain the data needed to make the SWF file display the right virtual tour. I'm just missing where that link happens. It can't happen in the XML, so maybe in Flash?

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• Fluent NHibernate no data being returned

  - by czuroski

  Hello, I have been successfully using NHibernate, but now I am trying to move to Fluent NHibernate. I have created all of my mapping files and set up my session manager to use a Fluent Configuration. I then run my application and it runs successfully, but no data is returned. There are no errors or any indication that there is a problem, but nothing runs. when using NHibernate, if I don't set my hbm xml files as an embedded resource, this same thing happens. This makes me wonder what I have to set my Map classes to. Right now, they are just set to Compile, and they are compiled into the dll, which I can see by disassembling it. Does anyone have any thoughts as to what may be happening here? Thanks private ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return Fluently.Configure() .Database( IfxOdbcConfiguration .Informix1000 .ConnectionString("Provider=Ifxoledbc.2;Password=mypass;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=myuser;Data Source=mysource") .Dialect<InformixDialect1000>() .ProxyFactoryFactory<ProxyFactoryFactory>() .Driver<OleDbDriver>() .ShowSql() ) .Mappings( m => m.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<cmCase>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<attorney>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<creditor>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<party>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<person>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<sardbk>() .AddFromAssemblyOf<schedule>() //x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssembly(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()) //.ExportTo("C:\\mappings") ) .BuildSessionFactory(); }

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• Cross domain iframe content load detection

  - by fpb

  I have a rather interesting problem. I have a parent page that will create a modal jquery dialog with an iframe contained within the dialog. The iframe will be populated with content from a 3rd party domain. My issue is that I need to create some dialog level javascript that can detect if the content of the iframe loaded successfully and if it hasn't within a 5 second time frame, then to close the dialog and return the user to the parent page. I have researched numerous solutions and only two are of any true value. Get the remote site to include a javascript line of document.domain = 'our-domain.com'. Use a URL Fragment hack, but again I would need the request that the remote site able to modify the URL by appending '#some_value' to the end of the URL and my dialog window would have to poll the URL until it either sees it or times out. Are these honestly the only options I have to work with? Is there not a simpler way to just detect this? I have been researching if there's a way to poll for http response errors, but this still remains confined to the same restrictions. Any help would be immensely appreciated. Thanks

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