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  • Image URL not changing in Update panel

    - by Chiefy
    Ok this is probably really simple but I have been staring at it for too long now. I have an AJAX AsyncFileUpload control that when a file is selected I want the Image next to it to change. I tried it in Javascript and it did nothing, i have since tried it server-side and still nothing. here is the client side. <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="upnlConfidential"> <ContentTemplate> <td> <asp:AsyncFileUpload ID="_flupCV" runat="server" OnUploadedComplete="AdminFileUpload" /> </td> <td> <asp:Image ID="imgCV" runat="server" Height="25px" Width="25px" ImageUrl="~/Images/Exclamation.png"/> </td> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and here is the server side protected void AdminFileUpload(object sender, AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUploadEventArgs e) { AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUpload upload = (AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUpload)sender; if (upload.PostedFile != null) { switch (upload.ID) { case "_flupCV": ImageCheckMark(imgCV); break; //etc... } } } private void ImageCheckMark(Image image) { image.Visible = true; image.ImageUrl = "~/Images/CheckMark.png"; } When the server side is called it sets the URL just fine but then nothing happens to the image, when I call the code again the URL is still the previous Exclamation image. its almost like its forgotten. Can anybody help me on this please. Thanks in advance to all who contribute!

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  • gethostbyname fails for local hostname after resuming from hibernate (Vista+7?)

    - by John
    Just wondering if anyone else has spotted this: On some user's machines running our software, occasionally the call to Win32 winsock gethostbyname fails with error code 11004. For the argument to gethostbyname, I'm passing in the result from gethostname. Now the docs say 11004 is WSANO_DATA. None of the descriptions seem to be relevant (it occurs if you pass in an IP6 address, but as I say, I'm passing in a hostname). Even more interesting is that the MSDN suggests that this combination (gethostname followed by gethostbyname) should never fail, not even if there is no IP address (in that case it would just return empty list of IPs). Here is the quote from the gethostname MSDN entry: ...it is guaranteed that the name returned will be successfully parsed by gethostbyname and WSAAsyncGetHostByName. It only ever happens after resuming from hibernate, in that short period when the network is restarting, and only on Vista/7 (well I've only seen it on Vista and 7). One theory I had was that it related to IP6. Maybe for a short period the network reports an IP6 address but not the corresponging IP4 address (I'm pretty sure that all the client machines are dual IP stack, but I could be wrong). I tried to reproduce by turning off my network card (to force no IP addresses) and couldn't reproduce. Anyone seen this before? Any ideas? John

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  • TFS How does merging work?

    - by Johannes Rudolph
    I have a release branch (RB, starting at C5) and a changeset on trunk (C10) that I now want to merge onto RB. The file has changes at C3 (common to both), one in CS 7 on RB, and one in C9 (trunk) and one in C10). So the history for my changed file looks like this: RB: C5 -> C7 Trunk: C3 -> C9 -> C10 When I merge C10 from trunk to RB, I'd expect to see a merge window showing me C10 | C3 | C7 since C3 is the common ancestor revision and C10 and C7 are the tips of my two branches respectively. However, my merge tool shows me C10 | C9 | C7. My merge tool is configured to show %1(OriginalFile)|%3(BaseFile)|%2(Modified File), so this tells me TFS chose C9 as the base revision. This is totally unexpected and completely contrary to the way I'm used to merges working in Mercurial or Git. Did I get something wrong or is TFS trying to drive me nuts with merging? Is this the default TFS Merge behavior? If so, can you provide insight into why they chose to implement it this way? I'm using TFS 2008 with VS2010 as a Client.

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  • Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

    - by Robert Cabri
    I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

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  • Is there a language with native pass-by-reference/pass-by-name semantics, which could be used in mod

    - by Bubba88
    Hi! This is a reopened question. I look for a language and supporting platform for it, where the language could have pass-by-reference or pass-by-name semantics by default. I know the history a little, that there were Algol, Fortran and there still is C++ which could make it possible; but, basically, what I look for is something more modern and where the mentioned value pass methodology is preferred and by default (implicitly assumed). I ask this question, because, to my mind, some of the advantages of pass-by-ref/name seem kind of obvious. For example when it is used in a standalone agent, where copyiong of values is not necessary (to some extent) and performance wouldn't be downgraded much in that case. So, I could employ it in e.g. rich client app or some game-style or standalone service-kind application. The main advantage to me is the clear separation between identity of a symbol, and its current value. I mean when there is no reduntant copying, you know that you're working with the exact symbol/path you have queried/received. And intristing boxing of values will not interfere with the actual logic of program. I know that there is C# ref keyword, but it's something not so intristic, though acceptable. Equally, I realize that pass-by-reference semantics could be simulated in virtually any language (Java as an instant example) and so on.. not sure about pass by name :) What would you recommend - create a something like DSL for such needs wherever it be appropriate; or use some languages that I already know? Maybe, there is something that I'm missing? Thank you!

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  • How do you reenable a validation control w/o it simultaneously perform an immediate validation?

    - by Velika2
    When I called this function to enable a validator from client javascript: `ValidatorEnable(document.getElementById('<%=valPassportOtherText.ClientID%>'), true); //enable` validation control the required validation control immediately performed it validation, found the value in the associated text box blank and set focus to the textbox (because SetFocusOnError was set to true). As a result, the side effect was that focus was shifted to the control that was associated with the Validation control, i teh example, txtSpecifyOccupation. <asp:TextBox ID="txtSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" AutoCompleteType="Disabled" CssClass="DefaultTextBox DefaultWidth" MaxLength="24" Rows="2"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtSpecifyOccupation" ErrorMessage="1.14b Please specify your &lt;b&gt;Occupation&lt;/b&gt;" SetFocusOnError="True">&nbsp;Required</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> Perhaps there is a way to enable the (required) validator without having it simultaneously perform the validation (at least until the user has tabbed off of it?) I'd like validation of the txtSpecifyOccupation textbox to occur only on a Page submit or when the user has tabbed of the required txtSpecifyoccupation textbox. How can I achieve this?

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  • How can we serialize a class that is not a custom class of our own?

    - by Doug
    I need to look at the properties of an object and I cannot instantiate this object in the proper state on my dev machine. I need my client to run some code on her machine, serialize the object in question to disk and then I can analyze the file. Here is the class I want to serialize. System.Security.AccessControl.RegistrySecurity Here is my code: Private Sub SerializeRegSecurity(ByVal regKey As RegistryKey) Try Dim regSecurity As System.Security.AccessControl.RegistrySecurity = regKey.GetAccessControl() Dim oXS As XmlSerializer = New XmlSerializer(GetType(System.Security.AccessControl.RegistrySecurity)) Dim oStmW As StreamWriter Dim regDebugFilePath As String = Path.Combine(My.Computer.FileSystem.SpecialDirectories.Desktop, "RegDebugFile.xml") 'Serialize object to XML and write it to XML file oStmW = New StreamWriter(regDebugFilePath) oXS.Serialize(oStmW, regSecurity) oStmW.Close() Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString) End Try End Sub And here's what I end up with in my XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> Any ideas on how to accomplish what I am trying to do? How can we serialize a class that is not a custom class of our own? Thanks for ANY help. Even an alternate method.

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  • Discussion on SEO best-practices for site development involving php...

    - by Bradley Herman
    Recently in our work, I've started getting some experience with SEO (finally). It's something I've put off for a long time because I've always maintained that SEO is a buzz-word b.s. pseudo-science and more about providing quality, relevant content (assuming proper header tags and the basics are covered). However, sometimes a client doesn't have stellar content yet still demands SEO and high rankings. While it's not how I design sites 100% of the time (as design dictates structure), I typically create a basic template from the design my boss gives me, then I optimize it, and then strip the top and bottom and move those to header.php and footer.php, using the following to bring in the header and footer based on AJAX versus HTML requests: <?php if($_SERVER['HTTP_X_REQUESTED_WITH']==''){ include('includes/header.php'); }?> #content here <?php if($_SERVER['HTTP_X_REQUESTED_WITH']==''){ include('includes/footer.php'); }?> Then, I use jQuery to intercept page requests and I use AJAX to fill in, for example, a #copy div with the new content. This avoids unnecessarily loading all the header and footer info everytime, but still allows users without Java to access pages without any problems. (also to think about, depending on size of content, do the extra http requests added using this method render it more of a server strain versus a single, larger file?) I don't have a really solid understanding of the meta keywords and their SEO significance, but as I recall reading, the keywords, title, and description on a page should match up to the pages content--ie. each page should have slightly different keywords/description while retaining some common ground. What I'm getting at here is trying to foster a discussion on whether my approach is flawed to begin with, if there are things I can do (within reason) that keep the site structure simple but allow for better SEO practices, or if my SEO understandings are wrong. This isn't a question, per say, but hopefully a constructive discussion here that more than just I can learn from. I appreciate any responses and hope to hear from you. Thanks!

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  • pthread condition variables on Linux, odd behaviour.

    - by janesconference
    Hi. I'm synchronizing reader and writer processes on Linux. I have 0 or more process (the readers) that need to sleep until they are woken up, read a resource, go back to sleep and so on. Please note I don't know how many reader processes are up at any moment. I have one process (the writer) that writes on a resource, wakes up the readers and does its business until another resource is ready (in detail, I developed a no starve reader-writers solution, but that's not important). To implement the sleep / wake up mechanism I use a Posix condition value, pthread_cond_t. The clients call a pthread_cond_wait() on the variable to sleep, while the server does a pthread_cond_broadcast() to wake them all up. As the manual says, I surround these two calls with a lock/unlock of the associated pthread mutex. The condition variable and the mutex are initialized in the server and shared between processes through a shared memory area (because I'm not working with threads, but with separate processes) an I'm sure my kernel / syscall support it (because I checked _POSIX_THREAD_PROCESS_SHARED). What happens is that the first client process sleeps and wakes up perfectly. When I start the second process, it blocks on its pthread_cond_wait() and never wakes up, even if I'm sure (by the logs) that pthread_cond_broadcast() is called. If I kill the first process, and launch another one, it works perfectly. In other words, the condition variable pthread_cond_broadcast() seems to wake up only one process a time. If more than one process wait on the very same shared condition variable, only the first one manages to wake up correctly, while the others just seem to ignore the broadcast. Why this behaviour? If I send a pthread_cond_broadcast(), every waiting process should wake up, not just one (and, however, not always the same one).

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  • Understanding the workflow of the messages in a generic server implementation in Erlang

    - by Chiron
    The following code is from "Programming Erlang, 2nd Edition". It is an example of how to implement a generic server in Erlang. -module(server1). -export([start/2, rpc/2]). start(Name, Mod) -> register(Name, spawn(fun() -> loop(Name, Mod, Mod:init()) end)). rpc(Name, Request) -> Name ! {self(), Request}, receive {Name, Response} -> Response end. loop(Name, Mod, State) -> receive {From, Request} -> {Response, State1} = Mod:handle(Request, State), From ! {Name, Response}, loop(Name, Mod, State1) end. -module(name_server). -export([init/0, add/2, find/1, handle/2]). -import(server1, [rpc/2]). %% client routines add(Name, Place) -> rpc(name_server, {add, Name, Place}). find(Name) -> rpc(name_server, {find, Name}). %% callback routines init() -> dict:new(). handle({add, Name, Place}, Dict) -> {ok, dict:store(Name, Place, Dict)}; handle({find, Name}, Dict) -> {dict:find(Name, Dict), Dict}. server1:start(name_server, name_server). name_server:add(joe, "at home"). name_server:find(joe). I tried so hard to understand the workflow of the messages. Would you please help me to understand the workflow of this server implementation during the executing of the functions: server1:start, name_server:add and name_server:find?

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  • Is nested synchronized block necessary?

    - by Dan
    I am writing a multithreaded program and I have a method that has a nested synchronized blocks and I was wondering if I need the inner sync or if just the outer sync is good enough. public class Tester { private BlockingQueue<Ticket> q = new LinkedBlockingQueue<>(); private ArrayList<Long> list = new ArrayList<>(); public void acceptTicket(Ticket p) { try { synchronized (q) { q.put(p); synchronized (list) { if (list.size() < 5) { list.add(p.getSize()); } else { list.remove(0); list.add(p.getSize()); } } } } catch (InterruptedException ex) { Logger.getLogger(Consumer.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } } EDIT: This isn't a complete class as I am still working on it. But essentially I am trying to emulate a ticket machine. The ticket machine maintains a list of tickets in the BlockingQueue q. Whenever a client adds a ticket to the machine, the machine also keeps track of the price of the last 5 tickets (ArrayList list)

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  • I want my logs sent to my mail with logrotate

    - by lericson
    Not strictly a question about programming as such, more of a log handling question. Anyway. My company has multiple clients, and each of these clients have a set of logs that I'd rather much want to get sent to by e-mail to me. Now, another prerequisite is that they're hilighted by simple HTML. All that is very well, I've managed to make a hilighter for the given log types. So, what I do is I use logrotate's prerotate stuff to send the logs as an e-mail message. Example: /var/log/a.log /var/log/b.log { daily missingok copytruncate prerotate /usr/bin/python /home/foo/hilight_logs /var/log/{a,b}.log | /usr/sbin/sendmail -FLog\ mailer [email protected] [email protected] endscript } The problem with this approach is basically that logrotate sucks: it'll run the command for every log file specified in the specifier, and to my knowledge there's no way to know which of the log files is being handled. (Which wouldn't really help anyway.) Short of repeating the exact same logrotate up to 10 times on different machines, the only thing I can do is just to get bogged down with log spam every night. And I grew tired of it today, so I ask.

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  • CSS Design question, I've got myself completely turned around.

    - by Matt Dawdy
    Okay, I have a couple of other questions out there, but I think I'd better just ask from the beginning how you CSS experts would do this. Client's page is split into 2 rows -- header has some info, some aligned to left of page, some to right, some in the middle. This is currently done using a table. I'm fine with leaving this alone or changing it. My real question is that I need a page layout to handle the following: 2 columns - column on left is 200px, but can be "close" down to to 10px (not a slider, it's either 200 or 10 px). The column on the right needs to be as big as it needs to be -- which might be larger than the width of the page. When left column is "closed" then the right column slides over of course. Again, this right column might be 300px or it might be 4000 pixels (it's a reporting interface). Now, to add another wrinkle, SOME pages have 3 columns. The first 2 columns are each exactly 200px, and both can be "closed" down to 10 px each. But, the user may not close both columns, maybe just 1. Or none. Or both. The third column needs to act just like I described above, being able to be larger than the page width, and sliding over to take advantage of any of the "closed" left columns. Whew! I'm pretty confused as to how to go about this, as either I get it right but I can't scroll over to the right at all (overflow: hidden) and information is lost, or the right column jumps down below the left 2 columns and just looks plain stupid. My minimum browser requirements are IE8, FF3.5, Chrome and Safari (latest versions of all). Any and all pointers are gladly accepted.

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  • Low-Hanging Fruit: Obfuscating non-critical values in JavaScript

    - by Piskvor
    I'm making an in-browser game of the type "guess what place/monument/etc. is in this satellite/aerial view", using Google Maps JS API v3. However, I need to protect against cheaters - you have to pass a google.maps.LatLng and a zoom level to the map constructor, which means a cheating user only needs to view source to get to this data. I am already unsetting every value I possibly can without breaking the map (such as center and the manipulation functions like setZoom()), and initializing the map in an anonymous function (so the object is not visible in global namespace). Now, this is of course in-browser, client-side, untrusted JavaScript; I've read much of the obfuscation tag and I'm not trying to make the script bullet-proof (it's just a game, after all). I only need to make the obfuscation reasonably hard against the 1337 Java5kryp7 haxz0rz - "kid sister encryption", as Bruce Schneier puts it. Anything harder than base64 encoding would deter most cheaters by eliminating the lowest-hanging fruit - if the cheater is smart and determined enough to use a JS debugger, he can bypass anything I can do (as I need to pass the value to Google Maps API in plaintext), but that's unlikely to happen on a mass scale (there will also be other, not-code-related ways to prevent cheating). I've tried various minimizers and obfuscators, but those will mostly deal with code - the values are still shown verbatim. TL;DR: I need to obfuscate three values in JavaScript. I'm not looking for bullet-proof armor, just a sneeze-guard. What should I use?

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  • ConcurrentLinkedQueue$Node remains in heap after remove()

    - by action8
    I have a multithreaded app writing and reading a ConcurrentLinkedQueue, which is conceptually used to back entries in a list/table. I originally used a ConcurrentHashMap for this, which worked well. A new requirement required tracking the order entries came in, so they could be removed in oldest first order, depending on some conditions. ConcurrentLinkedQueue appeared to be a good choice, and functionally it works well. A configurable amount of entries are held in memory, and when a new entry is offered when the limit is reached, the queue is searched in oldest-first order for one that can be removed. Certain entries are not to be removed by the system and wait for client interaction. What appears to be happening is I have an entry at the front of the queue that occurred, say 100K entries ago. The queue appears to have the limited number of configured entries (size() == 100), but when profiling, I found that there were ~100K ConcurrentLinkedQueue$Node objects in memory. This appears to be by design, just glancing at the source for ConcurrentLinkedQueue, a remove merely removes the reference to the object being stored but leaves the linked list in place for iteration. Finally my question: Is there a "better" lazy way to handle a collection of this nature? I love the speed of the ConcurrentLinkedQueue, I just cant afford the unbounded leak that appears to be possible in this case. If not, it seems like I'd have to create a second structure to track order and may have the same issues, plus a synchronization concern.

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  • First could access the repository next cannot

    - by Banani
    Hi! I have configured svnserve (1.6.5,plain, without apache) on Fedora 12. I could ran the following svn subcommands which access the repository after configuration. Such as, commit, update,checkout, list. But, when next time ( after stopping,ctrl-c and then starting svnserve)I tried above commands, could not access the repository. This is happening both from local and remote machine. I ran svn and svnserve as below. 'svn commit svn://127.0.0.1/myrepository/' from local client. 'svnserve -d --foregorund --listen-port=3690 -r /path-to-repository/mypository/' To understand the problem better, I created another repository and found similar behavior . Frist I could access the repository and next I could not. I tried doing strace on svnserve, but don't uderstand much of it. Below is the partial output. accept(3, {sa_family=AF_INET, sin_port=htons(54425), sin_addr=inet_addr("127.0.0 .1")}, [16]) = 4 fcntl64(4, F_GETFD) = 0 fcntl64(4, F_SETFD, FD_CLOEXEC) = 0 waitpid(-1, 0xbfcdf31c, WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = -1 ECHILD (No child processes) clone(child_stack=0, flags=CLONE_CHILD_CLEARTID|CLONE_CHILD_SETTID|SIGCHLD, chil d_tidptr=0xb7743758) = 9737 close(4) = 0 accept(3, 0xbfcdf2bc, [128]) = ? ERESTARTSYS (To be restarted) --- SIGCHLD (Child exited) @ 0 (0) --- sigreturn() = ? (mask now []) waitpid(-1, [{WIFEXITED(s) && WEXITSTATUS(s) == 0}], WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = 9737 waitpid(-1, 0xbfcdf31c, WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = -1 ECHILD (No child processes) My question: Why user are not able to access the repository anymore? What information the strace output gives about this problem? Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. Banani

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  • SQL, MVC, Entity Framework

    - by Anthony
    Hi Im using the above technologies and have ran into what I presume is a design issue I have made. I have an Artwork table in my DB and have been able to add art (I now think of these as Digital Products) to a shopping cart + CartLine table fine. The system I have that adds art to galleries and user accounts etc works fine. Now the client wants to sell T-shirts, Mugs and Pens etc, 'HardwareProducts' so I have created a 'HardwareProducts' table. Now I have two different product types in two tables. I use GUID's as the PK's in both the HardwareProducts table and Artwork table. When a customer adds an item to their cart I store the GUID in the ProductID column in the CartItems table. The issue is the database will not know which table to reference when I bring the LineItem object up through my ORM to the front end. In OOP I can see how you would have a base class of Product, and then a DigitalProduct class and HardwareProduct class drived from it, but how do you model this in SQL Server and the Entity Framework please, or is there another way?

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  • Simplest distributed persistent key/value store that supports primary key range queries

    - by StaxMan
    I am looking for a properly distributed (i.e. not just sharded) and persisted (not bounded by available memory on single node, or cluster of nodes) key/value ("nosql") store that does support range queries by primary key. So far closest such system is Cassandra, which does above. However, it adds support for other features that are not essential for me. So while I like it (and will consider using it of course), I am trying to figure out if there might be other mature projects that implement what I need. Specifically, for me the only aspect of value I need is to access it as a blob. For key, however, I need range queries (as in, access values ordered, limited by start and/or end values). While values can have structures, there is no need to use that structure for anything on server side (can do client-side data binding, flexible value/content types etc). For added bonus, Cassandra style storage (journaled, all sequential writes) seems quite optimal for my use case. To help filter out answers, I have investigated some alternatives within general domain like: Voldemort (key/value, but no ordering) and CouchDB (just sharded, more batch-oriented); and am aware of systems that are not quite distributed while otherwise qualifying (bdb variants, tokyo cabinet itself (not sure if Tyrant might qualify), redis (in-memory store only)).

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  • are projects with high developer turn over rate really a bad thing?

    - by John
    I've inherited a lot of web projects that experienced high developer turn over rates. Sometimes these web projects are a horrible patchwork of band aid solutions. Other times they can be somewhat maintainable mozaics of half-done features each built with a different architectural style. Everytime I inherit these projects, I wish the previous developers could explain to me why things got so bad. What puzzles me is the reaction of the owners (either a manager, a middle man company, or a client). They seem to think, "Well, if you leave, I'll just find another developer." Or they think, "Oh, it costs that much money to refactor the system? I know another developer who can do it at half the price. I'll hire him if I can't afford you." I'm guessing that the high developer turn over rate is related to the owner's mentality of "If you think it's a bad idea to build this, I'll just find another (possibly cheaper) developer to do what I want". For the owners, the approach seems to work because their business is thriving. Unfortunately, it's no fun for the developers that go AWOL 3-4 months after working with poor code, strict timelines, and little feedback. So my question is the following: Are the following symptoms of a project really such a bad thing for business? high developer turn over rate poorly built technology - often a patchwork of different and inappropriately used architectural styles owners without a clear roadmap for their web project, and they request features on a whim I've seen numerous businesses prosper while experiencing the symptoms above. So as a programmer, even though my instincts tell me the above points are terrible, I'm forced to take a step back and ask, "are things really that bad in the grand scheme of things?" If not, I will re-evaluate my approach to these projects.

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  • how to ignore ivy revision number?

    - by user315228
    Guys, I have certain jar files without revision number. But as rev is mandatory attribute for ivy dependency, i am providing the revision attribute. But i have something like (-[revision]) in url resolver. but its taking the module number instead of ignoring the revision attribute. I know it wont ignore the revision attribute as its not null. Following is the output that i get default-cache: no cached resolved revision for perltools#perltools;latest.integration [ivy:retrieve] tried [ivy:retrieve] listing all in [ivy:retrieve] using privateRepo to list all in [ivy:retrieve] ApacheURLLister found URL=[httP://myrepo/ivyRepository/perltools/jars/perltools.jar]. [ivy:retrieve] found 1 resources [ivy:retrieve] found revs: [perltools.jar] [ivy:retrieve] HTTP response status: 404 url=httP://myrepo/ivyRepository/perltools/jars/perltools.jar/perltools-perltools.jar.jar [ivy:retrieve] CLIENT ERROR: Not Found url=httP://myrepo/ivyRepository/perltools/jars/perltools.jar/perltools-perltools.jar.jar Can somebody please explain why its taking module.ext as revision where revision i specified is latest.integration and in myrepo, i dont have revision attribute. its just has [http://myrepo/ivyRepository/perltools/jars//perltools.jar] Can somebody please help me so that i can avoid revision attribute?

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  • Raising events and object persistence in Django

    - by Mridang Agarwalla
    Hi, I have a tricky Django problem which didn't occur to me when I was developing it. My Django application allows a user to sign up and store his login credentials for a sites. The Django application basically allows the user to search this other site (by scraping content off it) and returns the result to the user. For each query, it does a couple of queries of the other site. This seemed to work fine but sometimes, the other site slaps me with a CAPTCHA. I've written the code to get the CAPTCHA image and I need to return this to the user so he can type it in but I don't know how. My search request (the query, the username and the password) in my Django application gets passed to a view which in turn calls the backend that does the scraping/search. When a CAPTCHA is detected, I'd like to raise a client side event or something on those lines and display the CAPTCHA to the user and wait for the user's input so that I can resume my search. I would somehow need to persist my backend object between calls. I've tried pickling it but it doesn't work because I get the Can't pickle 'lock' object error. I don't know to implement this though. Any help/ideas? Thanks a ton.

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  • Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

    - by Jack
    Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

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  • Ideas on frameworks in .NET that can be used for job processing and notifications

    - by Rajat Mehta
    Scenario: We have one instance of WCF windows service which exposes contracts like: AddNewJob(Job job), GetJobs(JobQuery query) etc. This service is consumed by 70-100 instances of client which is Windows Form based .NET app. Typically the service has 50-100 inward calls/minute to add or query jobs that are stored in a table on Sql Server. The same service is also responsible for processing these jobs in real time. It queries database every 5 seconds picks up the queued jobs and starts processing them. A job has 6 states. Queued, Pre-processing, Processing, Post-processing, Completed, Failed, Locked. Another responsibility on this service is to update all clients on every state change of every job. This means almost 200+ callbacks to clients per second. Question: This whole implementation is done using WCF Duplex bindings and works perfectly fine on small number of parallel jobs. Problem arises when we scale it up to 1000 jobs at a time. The notifications don't work as expected, it leads to memory overflow etc. Is there any standard framework that can provide a clean infrastructure for handling this scenario?? Apologies for the long explanation!

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  • Monotouch threads, GC, WCF

    - by cvista
    Hi This is a question about best practices i guess but it applies directly to my current MT project. I'm using WCF services to communicate with the server. To do this i do the following: services.MethodToCall(params); and the asynch: services.OnMethodToCallCompleted += delegate{ //do stuff and ting }; This can lead to issues if you're not careful in that variables defined within the scope of the asynch callback can sometimes be cleaned up by the gc and this can cause crashes. So - I am making it a practice to declare these outside of the scope of the callback unless I am 100% sure they are not needed. Now - when doing stuff and ting implies changing the ui - i wrap it all in an InvokeOnMainThread call. I guess wrapping everything in this would slow the main thread down and rubbish the point of having multi threads. Even though I'm being careful about all this i am still getting crashes and I have no idea why! I am certain it has something to do with threads, scope and all that. Now - the only thing I can think of outside of updating the UI that may need to happen inside of InvokeOnMainThread is that I have a singleton 'Database' class. This is based on the version 5 code from this thread http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/singleton.html So now if the service method returns data that needs to be added/updated to the Database class -I also wrap this inside an InvokeOnMainThread call. Still getting random crashes. So... My question is this: I am new to thick client dev - I'm coming from a web dev perspective where we don't need to worry about threads so much :) Aside from what I have mentioned -are there any other things I should be aware of? Is the above stuff correct? Or am i miss-understanding something? Cheers w://

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  • How to pass dynamic values using MVC AJax.BeginForm

    - by Arthur
    I'm using MVC and AJax.BeginForm to do some ajax updating of my page. The BeginForm code looks something like: using (Ajax.BeginForm("HandleCrop", "Card", new { accept = true, id = Model.ImageUpload.ID, file = Model.ImageUpload.File, imageCropX = Model.CropInfo.X, imageCropY = Model.CropInfo.Y, imageCropWidth = Model.CropInfo.Width, imageCropHeight = Model.CropInfo.Height }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", OnComplete = "ConfirmCompleted", OnSuccess = "ReloadUpload", OnFailure = "Failure" }, null)) The Model.CropInfo is being put in as hidden fields like so: <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.X) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Y) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Width) %> <%=Html.HiddenFor(m => m.CropInfo.Height) %> However, these values are being dynamically modified by some client side javascript, and these values need to be posted through the Ajax call back to the server. The above code will obviously not work as the imageCrop.. parameters in the Ajax form are being filled when the page is rendered (therefore being all 0). My question is: what is the correct way to approach this situation?

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