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• OracleGlobalization.SetThreadInfo() ORA-12705 Error

  - by michele

  Hi guys! I'm stuck in a problem, i cannot workaround! I have a Oracle client 11, with registry key set to AMERICAN_AMERICA.WE8ISO8859P1. I cannot edit this key, but my application must get data from Oracle in Italian culture format. So I want to edit culture info form my application only. I'm trying to using OracleGlobalization class in ODP.NET library before my Application.Run(), to set culture for my thread: OracleGlobalization og = OracleGlobalization.GetThreadInfo(); //OracleGlobalization.SetThreadInfo(OracleGlobalization.GetThreadInfo()); og.Calendar = "GREGORIAN"; og.Comparison = "BINARY"; og.Currency = "€"; og.DateFormat = "DD-MON-RR"; og.DateLanguage = "ITALIAN"; og.DualCurrency = "€"; og.ISOCurrency = "ITALY"; og.Language = "ITALIAN"; og.LengthSemantics = "BYTE"; og.NCharConversionException = false; og.NumericCharacters = ",."; og.Sort = "WEST_EUROPEAN"; og.Territory = "ITALY"; OracleGlobalization.SetThreadInfo(og); I get always the same error: ORA-12705: Cannot access NLS data files or invalid environment specified. I really don't know ho to solve this problem! Any hint? I'm working on a Win7 pc with VisualStudio 2008. Thank you in advance!

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• Trying to find a PHP5 API-based embeddable CMS

  - by StrangeElement

  I've been making the rounds for a CMS that I can use as an API, in a sort of "embedded" mode. I mean by this that I don't want the CMS to do any logic or presentation. I want it to be used as an API, which I can then use within an existing site. I don't want to be tied to the architecture of the CMS. A good example of this is NC-CMS (http://www.nconsulting.ca/nc-cms/). All it needs is an include at the top, then wherever editable content is desired it's only a function call with a unique label. It's also perfect in the sense that it allows to differentiate between small strings (like titles, labels) and texts (which require a rich-text editor). It's the only CMS I found that fits this description, but it is a little too light as it does not handle site structure. I need to be able to allow my client to add pages, choosing an existing template for the layout. A minimal back-end is required. Wordpress also fits some requirements in that it handles only content editing and allows freedom for the themes by letting them call the content where and how they want it. But it is article-based and backwards, in that it embeds sites (as themes) within its structure, rather than being embeddable in sites like NC. It's funny how checking out all the CMS out there, almost all of them claim that most CMS are not self-sufficient, that they do not handle application logic, while (almost) every single on I found with only one exception do so. Many are mostly article-based blog engines, which does not fit my need. I would appreciate any CMS that fits the general description.

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• Why does System.Net.Mail work in one part of my c#.net web app, but not in another?

  - by Marc

  I have a web application that is running on IIS within my company's domain, and is being accessed via intranet. I have this application sending out email based on some user actions. For example, its a scheduling application in part, so if a task is completed, an email is sent out notifying other users of that. The problem is, the email works flawlessly in some cases, and not at all in others. I have a login.aspx page which sends out report emails when the page is loaded (its loaded once a day via windows task scheduler) - this always seems to work perfectly. I have an update page which is supposed to send email when text is entered and the "Update" button is clicked - this operation will fail most of the time. Both of these tasks use the same static overloaded method I wrote to send email using System.Net.Mail. I have tried using gmail as my smtp server (instead of our internal one), and get the same results. I investigated whether having the local SMTP Service running makes any difference, and it doesn't seem to. Besides, since C# is server-side code, shouldn't it only matter whats running on the server, and not the client? Please help me figure out whats wrong! Where should I look? What can I try?

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• SIP UAS asks for OPTIONS

  - by TacB0sS

  Hey, I have UAC that registers to a UAS, after registration the UAS sends me an OPTIONS request, what should I answer it? only the audio media streams? Update I: Allow me to explain myself better... if I want to invite someone to a session I USE the INVITE method and negotiate the media then, for that specific session. But once I register to the server, and it asks me for OPTIONS, then what should I supply, everything my client supports? once I answer it would it deduce that every INVITE I would request from now on would use these medias? or would I need to supply new media with every request? Update II: Hi Wiz, I was in the process of building a negotiation system, so i tried it out and replied the UAS here is the sort dialog we had: OPTIONS sip:[email protected] SIP/2.0 Via: SIP/2.0/UDP xx.xx.xx.xx:5060;branch=z9hG4bK45b197cb;rport=5060;received=xx.xx.xx.xx From: "Unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=as66cf26df To: <sip:[email protected]> Contact: <sip:[email protected]> Call-ID: [email protected] CSeq: 102 OPTIONS User-Agent: Freeswitch 1.2.3 Max-Forwards: 70 Date: Sat, 05 Jun 2010 12:06:43 GMT Allow: INVITE,ACK,CANCEL,OPTIONS,BYE,REFER,SUBSCRIBE,NOTIFY,INFO Supported: replaces Content-Length: 0 OPTIONS In Response To 102: SIP/2.0 200 OK Via: SIP/2.0/UDP xx.xx.xx.xx:5060;branch=z9hG4bK45b197cb;rport=5060;received=xx.xx.xx.xx From: "Unknown" <sip:[email protected]>;tag=as66cf26df To: <sip:[email protected]> CSeq: 102 OPTIONS Call-ID: [email protected] Allow: INVITE,CANCEL,ACK,BYE,OPTIONS Content-Type: application/sdp Content-Length: 248 v=0 o=310 4515233118481497946 4515233118481497946 IN IP4 10.0.0.1 s=- i=Nu-Art Software - TacB0sS VoIP information c=IN IP4 10.0.0.1 m=audio 40000 RTP/AVP 0 8 101 a=rtpmap:0 PCMU/8000 a=rtpmap:8 PCMA/8000 a=rtpmap:101 telephone-event/8000 This response caused the server to stop sending me the options request, does this means I can only use these parameters with the server now? or as you said, it does not matter? Thanks, Adam.

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• Why is my code slower using #import "progid:typelib" than using "MFC Class From TypeLib"?

  - by Pakman

  I am writing an automation client in Visual C++ with MFC. If I right-click on my solution » Add » Class, I have the option to select MFC Class From TypeLib. Selecting this option generates source/header files for all interfaces. This allows me to write code such as: #include "CApplication.h" #include "CDocument.h" // ... connect to automation server ... CApplication *myApp = new CApplication(pDisp); CDocument myDoc = myApp->get_ActiveDocument(); Using this method, my benchmarking function that makes about 12000 automation calls takes 1 second. Meanwhile, the following code: #import "progid:Library.Application" Library::IApplicationPtr myApp; // ... connect to automation server ... Library::IDocumentPtr myDoc = myApp->GetActiveDocument(); takes about 2.4 seconds for the same benchmark. I assume the smart-pointer implementation is slowing me down, but I don't know why. Even worse, I'm not sure how to use #import construct to achieve the speeds that the first method yields. Is this possible? How or why not? Thanks for your time!

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• EF 4 Self Tracking Entities does not work as expected.

  - by ashraf

  I am using EF4 Self Tracking Entities (VS2010 Beta 2 CTP 2 plus new T4 generator). But when I try to update entity information it does not update to database as expected. I setup 2 service calls. one for GetResource(int id) which return a resource object. the second call is SaveResource(Resource res); here is the code. public Resource GetResource(int id) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { return dc.Resources.Where(d => d.ResourceId == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } public void SaveResource(Resource res) { using (var dc = new MyEntities()) { dc.Resources.ApplyChanges(res); dc.SaveChanges(); // Nothing save to database. } } //Windows Console Client Calls var res = service.GetResource(1); res.Description = "New Change"; // Not updating... service.SaveResource(res); // does not change anything. It seems to me that ChangeTracker.State is always show as "Unchanged". anything wrong in this code?

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• Crash generated during destruction of hash_map

  - by Alien01

  I am using hash_map in application as typedef hash_map<DWORD,CComPtr<IInterfaceXX>> MapDword2Interface; In main application I am using static instance of this map static MapDword2Interface m_mapDword2Interface; I have got one crash dump from one of the client machines which point to the crash in clearing this map I opened that crash dump and here is assembly during debugging > call std::list<std::pair<unsigned long const ,ATL::CComPtr<IInterfaceXX> >,std::allocator<std::pair<unsigned long const ,ATL::CComPtr<IInterfaceXX> > > >::clear > mov eax,dword ptr [CMainApp::m_mapDword2Interface+8 (49XXXXX)] Here is code where crash dump is pointing. Below code is from stl:list file void clear() { // erase all #if _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING this->_Orphan_ptr(*this, 0); #endif /* _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING */ _Nodeptr _Pnext; _Nodeptr _Pnode = _Nextnode(_Myhead); _Nextnode(_Myhead) = _Myhead; _Prevnode(_Myhead) = _Myhead; _Mysize = 0; for (; _Pnode != _Myhead; _Pnode = _Pnext) { // delete an element _Pnext = _Nextnode(_Pnode); this->_Alnod.destroy(_Pnode); this->_Alnod.deallocate(_Pnode, 1); } } Crash is pointing to the this->_Alnod.destroy(_Pnode); statement in above code. I am not able to guess it, what could be reason. Any ideas??? How can I make sure, even is there is something wrong with the map , it should not crash?

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• Loading .dll/.exe from file into temporary AppDomain throws Exception

  Hi Gang, I am trying to make a Visual Studio AddIn that removes unused references from the projects in the current solution (I know this can be done, Resharper does it, but my client doesn't want to pay for 300 licences). Anyhoo, I use DTE to loop through the projects, compile their assemblies, then reflect over those assemblies to get their referenced assemblies and cross-examine the .csproj file. Problem: since the .dll/.exe I loaded up with Reflection doesn't unload until the app domian unloads, it is now locked and the projects can't be built again because VS tries to re-create the files (all standard stuff). I have tried creating temporary files, then reflecting over them...no worky, still have locked original files (I totally don’t understand that BTW). Now I am now going down the path of creating a temporary AppDomain to load the files into and then destroy. I am having problems loading the files though: The way I understand AddDomain.Load is that I should create and send a byte array of the assembly to it. I do that: FileStream fs = new FileStream(assemblyFile, FileMode.Open); byte[] assemblyFileBuffer = new byte[(int)fs.Length]; fs.Read(assemblyFileBuffer, 0, assemblyFileBuffer.Length); fs.Close(); AppDomainSetup domainSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); domainSetup.ApplicationBase = assemblyFileInfo.Directory.FullName; AppDomain tempAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("TempAppDomain", null, domainSetup); Assembly projectAssembly = tempAppDomain.Load(assemblyFileBuffer); The last line throws an exception: "Could not load file or assembly 'WindowsFormsApplication1, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified.":"WindowsFormsApplication3, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"}" Any help or thoughts would be greatly appreciated. My head is lopsided from beating it against the wall... Thanks, Dan

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• In .NET, how do I prevent, or handle, tampering with form data of disabled fields before submission?

  - by David

  Hi, If a disabled drop-down list is dynamically rendered to the page, it is still possible to use Firebug, or another tool, to tamper with the submitted value, and to remove the "disabled" HTML attribute. This code: protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { var ddlTest = new DropDownList() {ID="ddlTest", Enabled = false}; ddlTest.Items.AddRange(new [] { new ListItem("Please select", ""), new ListItem("test 1", "1"), new ListItem("test 2", "2") }); Controls.Add(ddlTest); } results in this HTML being rendered: <select disabled="disabled" id="Properties_ddlTest" name="Properties$ddlTest"> <option value="" selected="selected">Please select</option> <option value="1">test 1</option> <option value="2">test 2</option> </select> The problem occurs when I use Firebug to remove the "disabled" attribute, and to change the selected option. On submission of the form, and re-creation of the field, the newly generated control has the correct value by the end of OnLoad, but by OnPreRender, it has assumed the identity of the submitted control and has been given the submitted form value. .NET seems to have no way of detecting the fact that the field was originally created in a disabled state and that the submitted value was faked. This is understandable, as there could be legitimate, client-side functionality that would allow the disabled attribute to be removed. Is there some way, other than a brute force approach, of detecting that this field's value should not have been changed? I see the brute force approach as being something crap, like saving the correct value somewhere while still in OnLoad, and restoring the value in the OnPreRender. As some fields have dependencies on others, that would be unacceptable to me.

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• [grails] setting cookies when render type is "contentType: text/json"

  - by Robin Jamieson

  Is it possible to set cookies on response when the return render type is set as json? I can set cookies on the response object when returning with a standard render type and later on, I'm able to get it back on the subsequent request. However, if I were to set the cookies while rendering the return values as json, I can't seem to get back the cookie on the next request object. What's happening here? These two actions work as expected with 'basicForm' performing a regular form post to the action, 'withRegularSubmit', when the user clicks submit. // first action set the cookie and second action yields the originally set cookie def regularAction = { // using cookie plugin response.setCookie("username-regular", "regularCookieUser123",604800); return render(view: "basicForm"); } // called by form post def withRegularSubmit = { def myCookie = request.getCookie("username-regular"); // returns the value 'regularCookieUser123' return render(view: "resultView"); } When I switch to setting the cookie just before returning from the response with json, I don't get the cookie back with the post. The request starts by getting an html document that contains a form and when doc load event is fired, the following request is invoked via javascript with jQuery like this: var someUrl = "http://localhost/jsonAction"; $.get(someUrl, function(jsonData) { // do some work with javascript} The controller work: // this action is called initially and returns an html doc with a form. def loadJsonForm = { return render(view: "jsonForm"); } // called via javascript when the document load event is fired def jsonAction = { response.setCookie("username-json", "jsonCookieUser456",604800); // using cookie plugin return render(contentType:'text/json') { 'pair'('myKey': "someValue") }; } // called by form post def withJsonSubmit = { def myCookie = request.getCookie("username-json"); // got null value, expecting: jsonCookieUser456 return render(view: "resultView"); } The data is returned to the server as a result of the user pressing the 'submit' button and not through a script. Prior to the submit of both 'withRegularSubmit' and 'withJsonSubmit', I see the cookies stored in the browser (Firefox) so I know they reached the client.

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• Why is a NullReferenceException thrown when a ToolStrip button is clicked twice with code in the `Click` event handler?

  - by Patrick

  I created a clean WindowsFormsApplication solution, added a ToolStrip to the main form, and placed one button on it. I've added also an OpenFileDialog, so that the Click event of the ToolStripButton looks like the following: private void toolStripButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { openFileDialog1.ShowDialog(); } I didn't change any other properties or events. The funny thing is that when I double-click the ToolStripButton (the second click must be quite fast, before the dialog opens), then cancel both dialogs (or choose a file, it doesn't really matter) and then click in the client area of main form, a NullReferenceException crashes the application (error details attached at the end of the post). Please note that the Click event is implemented while DoubleClick is not. What's even more strange that when the OpenFileDialog is replaced by any user-implemented form, the ToolStripButton blocks from being clicked twice. I'm using VS2008 with .NET3.5. I didn't change many options in VS (only fontsize, workspace folder and line numbering). Does anyone know how to solve this? It is 100% replicable on my machine, is it on others too? One solution that I can think of is disabling the button before calling OpenFileDialog.ShowDialog() and then enabling the button back (but it's not nice). Any other ideas? And now the promised error details: System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="System.Windows.Forms" StackTrace: at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.WindowClass.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.PeekMessage(MSG& msg, HandleRef hwnd, Int32 msgMin, Int32 msgMax, Int32 remove) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run(Form mainForm) at WindowsFormsApplication1.Program.Main() w C:\Users\Marchewek\Desktop\Workspaces\VisualStudio\WindowsFormsApplication1\Program.cs:line 20 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

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• JqueryUI dialog box causes button to lose styling

  - by superexsl

  Hey everyone, I'm using JQueryUI dialog boxes and, while it works, it seems to remove any CSS styling on the button that opens the dialog. I have to manually refresh the page to get the styling back. An example button which launches the dialog: (button_submit is my CSS theme and launc_popup is used to detect the button click in JQuery. <asp:Button ID="btnLaunch" CssClass="button_sub launch_popup" runat="server" Text="Dialog..." CausesValidation="false" OnClientClick="return false;" /> My jquery: $('.launch_popup').click(function() { $("#dialog-form").dialog("open"); }); My dialog-form: $("#dialog-form").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 300, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { 'Close': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); This happens to all the buttons that open dialogs. Is there a way to 'restyle' the button without refreshing the page? (It's in an updatepanel if that makes a difference, although this bit's client-side so not sure if that should affect it). Thanks for any help

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• Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

  - by Jack

  Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

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• Using Hibernate with MS ACCESS 2007 Database (Free JDBC Driver)

  - by Quentin T.

  1. I want to do a reverse engineering action with the Hibernate plugin of Eclipse on a MS Access 2007 Database. I'm forced to use a existing MS Access 2007 db. A easy solution is to buy the HXTT. But I want to use a free driver to do my work. So I tried to apply this post : http://www.programmingforfuture.com/2011/06/how-to-use-ms-access-with-hibernate.html (That uses the SQL Server dialect and the driver sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver) Unfortunately I have an error that nobody seems to have been on the internet: Exception while generating code Reason : org.hibernate.exception.GenericJDBCException: Error while reading primary key meta data for `c:/myaccessdb.mdb`.TableTest1 I have try to change the primary key on my MS Access DB (deleting all primary key) or to try the reverse engineering on a MS ACCESS with only one table without primary key, but I got all times the problems. 2. The purpose of my job is to transfer daily (weekly) an Oracle 11g database with data from an existing database MS ACCESS 2007. And I thought to use a procedure (Hibernate EJB) Java to be launched automatically every week to do the data transfer. Is this is the best solution ? Configuration : sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver v??? Hibernate v3.4 Eclipse ps: If you are a HXTT developer or seller please be indulgent with my post ;). Making money by making people believe that you help, it's bad ! A solution is to use Derby Client driver, as the solution in the post: Does anyone know if Hibernate and java will work effectively with Access? But a clarification of the answer of Rich Seller is required. Could you explain your answer and explain your configuration (hibernate.cfg.xml, persistence.xml and what URL you use in the property name="hibernate.connection.url") without using paying HXTT driver but with the free Derby driver.

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• confused about how to use JSON in C#

  - by Josh

  The answer to just about every single question about using C# with json seems to be "use JSON.NET" but that's not the answer I'm looking for. the reason I say that is, from everything I've been able to read in the documentation, JSON.NET is basically just a better performing version of the DataContractSerializer built into the .net framework... Which means if I want to deserialize a JSON string, I have to define the full, strongly-typed class for EVERY request I might have. so if I have a need to get categories, posts, authors, tags, etc, I have to define a new class for every one of these things. This is fine if I built the client and know exactly what the fields are, but I'm using someone else's api, so I have no idea what the contract is unless I download a sample response string and create the class manually from the JSON string. Is that the only way it's done? Is there not a way to have it create a kind of hashtable that can be read with json["propertyname"]? Finally, if I do have to build the classes myself, what happens when the API changes and they don't tell me (as twitter seems to be notorious for doing)? I'm guessing my entire project will break until I go in and update the object properties... So what exactly is the general workflow when working with JSON? And by general I mean library-agnostic. I want to know how it's done in general, not specifically to a target library... I hope that made sense, this has been a very confusing area to get into... thanks!

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• How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

  - by Randy

  So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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• AjaxFileUpload return download panel when data is json

  - by Tr.Crab

  I use AjaxFileUpload (http://www.phpletter.com/Our-Projects/AjaxFileUpload/ ) to upload a file and get json result type response in struts2 ( code.google.struts2jsonresult.JSONResult ) but browser always pop-up download pane, plz give me some suggestions, thanks in advance Here is my config in struts.xml : ...... <result-type name="json" class="code.google.struts2jsonresult.JSONResult"> ............ <action name="doGetList" method="doGetList" class="main.java.GetListAction"> <result type="json"> <param name="target">jsonObject</param> <param name="deepSerialize">true</param> <param name="patterns"> -*.class</param> </result> </action> and js client : function ajaxFileUpload(){ $("#loading").ajaxStart(function(){ $(this).show(); }).ajaxComplete(function(){ $(this).hide(); }); $.ajaxFileUpload ( { url:'doGetList.do', secureuri:false, fileElementId:'uploadfile', dataType: 'json', success: function (data, status) { if(typeof(data.error) != 'undefined') { if(data.error != '') { alert(data.error); } else { alert(data.msg); } } }, error: function (data, status, e) { alert(e); alert(data.records); } } ) return false; }

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• Language Translation API

  - by kandarp

  How can i convert language in my Java? Is there any API exist, which convert any language to any other language? I am using Google Translate API, but it giving me below exception. java.lang.Exception: [google-api-translate-java] Error retrieving translation. at com.google.api.GoogleAPI.retrieveJSON(GoogleAPI.java:123) at com.google.api.translate.Translate.execute(Translate.java:69) at com.nextenders.client.beans.ruleengine.RuleEngineTest.main(RuleEngineTest.java:27) Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection timed out: connect at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.Socket.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.Socket.connect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.connect(Unknown Source) null at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getOutputStream(Unknown Source) at com.google.api.GoogleAPI.retrieveJSON(GoogleAPI.java:107) ... 2 more If anybody knows any API for translation, please tell me.

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• Java equivalent of the VB Request.InputStream

  - by Android Addict

  I have a web service that I am re-writing from VB to a Java servlet. In the web service, I want to extract the body entity set on the client-side as such: StringEntity stringEntity = new StringEntity(xml, HTTP.UTF_8); stringEntity.setContentType("application/xml"); httppost.setEntity(stringEntity); In the VB web service, I get this data by using: Dim objReader As System.IO.StreamReader objReader = New System.IO.StreamReader(Request.InputStream) Dim strXML As String = objReader.ReadToEnd and this works great. But I am looking for the equivalent in Java. I have tried this: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); byte[] data = new byte[dataStream.toString().length()]; dataStream.read(data); but all it gets me is an unintelligible string: data = [B@68514fec Please advise. Edit Per the answers, I have tried: ServletInputStream dataStream = req.getInputStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream buffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); int r; byte[] data = new byte[1024*1024]; while ((r = dataStream.read(data, 0, data.length)) != -1) { buffer.write(data, 0, r); } buffer.flush(); byte[] data2 = buffer.toByteArray(); System.out.println("DATA = "+Arrays.toString(data2)); whichs yields: DATA = [] and when I try: System.out.println("DATA = "+data2.toString()); I get: DATA = [B@15282c7f So what am I doing wrong? As stated earlier, the same call to my VB service gives me the xml that I pass in.

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• Questions about serving static files from a servlet

  - by Geo

  I'm very new to servlets. I'd like to serve some static files, some css and some javascript. Here's what I got so far: in web.xml: <servlet> <description></description> <display-name>StaticServlet</display-name> <servlet-name>StaticServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>StaticServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>StaticServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/static/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> I'm assuming in the StaticServlet I'd have to work with request.getPathInfo to see what was requested, get a mime type, read the file & write it to the client. If this is not the way to go, or is not a viable way of doing things, please suggest a better way. I'm not really sure where to place the static directory, because if I try to print new File(".") it gives me the directory of my Eclipse installation. Is there a way to find out the project's directory?

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• What is a good automated data import method for SQL Server?

  - by Joel Potter

  I'm in the process of porting some SQL Server 2005 databases to SQL Server 2008. One of these databases has an associated import application (Windows task) which uses SSIS with a DTS package to import a large dataset from an MS Access database nightly. In upgrading to SQL Server 2008, I discovered that I can't run the same console application which has been performing the imports due to the missing manageddts DLL in SQL Server 2008. It's several years old and in need of a rewrite for various reason, plus, I've been fairly unhappy with DTS in general. The original reason DTS was chosen was for speed (5 min import time compared to 30+ for ADO.NET). The format of the data to import is out of my control (the client likes Access). I would also like to be able to run the import from a machine completely separate from the server hosting SQL Server and preferably with minimal SQL features installed. Options I've considered: Creating an Access application to connect to both databases (SQL Server and Access) and perform the import (Ugh!) Revisiting ADO.NET to see if the original implementation was poorly written. Updated SSIS packages. What other technologies should I be considering for this job?

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• jquery post and get request different on local intranet and live server

  - by nccsbim071

  Hi, I have been developing an asp.net mvc application where i need to make large amounts of jquery post and get request to call controller methods and get back json result. Everything is working fine. The problem is i had to write different jquery post and get request url on local intranet(deployed by making virtual directory) and live server. the current jquery request url is given as below: $.post("/ProjectsChat/GetMessages", { roomId: 24 },.......... now this format of url for jquery request works fine for live server but not for local intranet. Since on local intranet i have made a virtual directory. It only works when i append the name of the virtual directory like this "$.post("MyProjectVirutalDirName/ProjectsChat..................." I am sure most of you must have come across same problem. now i have made a full project, there are large number of jquery requests made, i want to test the application by deploying on local intranet and fix the bugs. Changing all the jquery requests for local intranet doesn't seem feasible solution to me, i am really in a big problem, i can't deploy the same project on live server just like that and test it there, client will kill me. I need some expert advice. Please help Thanks

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• XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

  - by maharaj

  Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

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• UIImage - should be loaded with [UIImage imageNamed:@""] or not ?

  - by sagar

  Hello ! every one. I am having number of images with in my application. ( images more than 50 - approximately & it can extend according to client's need ) Each image are very large round about - 1024 x 768 & 150 dpi Now, I have to add all this images in a scroll view & display it. Ok, My question is as follows. According to me there are two options of loading large images imageNamed:@"" load asynchronously when viewDidLoad Called. Which is more preferable ? imgModel.image=[UIImage imageNamed:[dMain valueForKey:@"imgVal"]]; or like this. NSURL *ur=[[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:lblModelName.text ofType:@"png"] isDirectory:NO]; NSURLRequest *req=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:ur cachePolicy:NSURLCacheStorageNotAllowed timeoutInterval:40]; [ur release]; NSURLConnection *con=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:req delegate:self]; if(con){ myWebData=[[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { } -(void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { [myWebData setLength: 0]; } -(void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { [myWebData appendData:data]; } -(void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error { [connection release]; } -(void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { NSLog(@"ImageView Ref From - %@",imgV); // my image view & set image imgV.image=[UIImage imageWithData:myWebData]; [connection release]; connection=nil; }

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• How to render an HTML attribute from a Razor view.

  - by ProfK

  I would like to use the same partial view for create, edit, and details views, to avoid duplicating the fieldset structure for an entity. Then, depending on which view renders the partial view, I would like to add a class of "read-only" to a div surrounding my fieldset and handle making the actual input fields read-only on the client, using css or jQuery, or whatever. How can I specify from my Razor view that I need this class added to the "item-details" div? <div class="item-details"> <fieldset> <legend>Product Details</legend> @Html.HiddenFor(model => model.DetailItem.ProductId) <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.DetailItem.Name) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.DetailItem.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.DetailItem.Name) </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> </div>

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