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  • View controller/NIB architecture for non-navigation application with transitions?

    - by Ben
    I'm tinkering with an app that doesn't use the UINavigation root view control system, so I don't have natural ownership for each app "view". I essentially have two basic views, a document list view, and a document edit view. I'm playing with UIView animation for getting from a selected document to the edit view. I also have a toolbar that exists in both "views". Because I don't have UINavigation running the show for me, I have a tendency to just throw more and more stuff into one NIB and one view controller that owns the whole container. But now I'm trying to figure out how to segue from the document list view to the edit view if the edit view lives inside a different NIB, preserving the toolbar too. Anyone have thoughts or experience on app structures like this? I find the docs lacking on best practices around code/UI structure for anything except trivial one-screen apps or full-on navigation apps. Thanks!

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  • Combine two views into one view

    - by Kevin
    I have two views that I would like to combine into one. The first view shows all items of X where company ID = Y. This is to give preferential sort to the client first, and then everyone else. So I created a second view, all items of X, where company ID != Y. I created it as an Attachment to attach to the first view, but I don't think I got the intended result. How can I combine these views so the first view results are listed first, and then the second view is too, using the same pager, filters, and arguments? Is there any way of achieving this without programming it?

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  • pyramid view redirection

    - by ascobol
    This question title may be slightly incorrect but I could not find a better one (yet). I'm trying to integrate Mozilla Persona (browserid) into a Pyramid application. The login process is: user can login on any page by clicking on the login button a popup then shows a login form when the users enters correct login/password, an ajax call is made by the popup to a pyramid view that checks users credentials, and calls pyramid remember function if the check succeeded the browserid javascript code then reloads the current page Now I want to handle the case of a new user subscribing to the web app and present a new view asking for a few more details (desired username, etc) Since the "remember" function is called by an ajax call from the popup, I cannot redirect the user the the "/newuser" page. So every view needs to redirect new users to the "/newuser" url whenever the remembered browserid has no corresponding user in the database. Is there a way to intercept user requests before calling a view to call the "new_user" view instead ? Or maybe my authentication approach is fundamentally incorrect and I should rely on another approach ?

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  • iPhone switching views without first view being reset

    - by user298261
    Heya! I'm making a role-playing game, and I want to have a Map View and a Battle Screen. With the possibility of other screens as well. I thought the best way to achieve this was to use multiple NIB files. When I prototyped this by have one view that creates content, switches to the next view, and then back, the content on the original view was reset. How do I make it so that the first view doesn't reset the data each time it's loaded? Thanks!

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  • Random access view in boost::multi_array

    - by linai
    Here is a boost example: typedef boost::multi_array<double, 1> array_type; typedef array_type::index index; array_type A(boost::extents[100]); for(index i = 0; i != A.size(); ++i) { A[i] = (double)i; } // creating view array_type::index_gen indices; typedef boost::multi_array_types::index_range range; array_type::array_view<1>::type myview = A[ indices[range(0,50)] ]; What this code does is creating a subarray or view mapping onto the original array. This view is continuous and covers from 0th to 50th elements of an original array. What if I need to explicitly define elements I'd like to see in the view? How can I create a view with indices like [1, 5, 35, 23] ? Any ideas?

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  • Reload table view in real time

    - by Lucas Vallim da Costa
    The app receives a UILocalNotification, but if the user is at the UITableViewController at the fire time, the table view (containing the scheduled notifications) does not reload. The user has to get out of that view and load the view again so that the cells are loaded and, as the notification was already fired, it will not be displayed on any cell of that table view. Problem is: If the user touches the specific tableView cell that contained the notification that just fired, the app crashes, cause the notification is not there anymore. I've implemented the - (void)reloadData in every place possible, and it still doesn't load in real time. What would be a better solution for this? Other detail, how can I push a specific view after the notification is displayed (when the user slides the app icon when the phone is locked)? Any help will be truly appreciated, since theres are the last details remaining to publish my first App.

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  • Identifying the view selected in a ContextMenu (Android)

    - by Casebash
    In Android, onContextItemSelected has a single MenuItem argument and so it isn't clear how to identify the view selected. MenuItem.getMenuInfo provides access to Contextmenu.ContextMenuInfo, but while both known subclasses provide access to the target view, there does not appear to be an accessor on the interface. One alternative is to save the View provided in onCreateContextMenu in a private class variable which relies on onCreateContextMenu not being called again in the activity before onContextItemSelected. Another is to use the id of the View for the itemId argument of ContextMenu.add. If we do this, we would then need to identify the option selected from the context menu by using its (possibly internationalised) title. What is the best method for identifying the View selected in onContextSelected?

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  • Navigation problem with view controllers.

    - by abdulsamad
    Hi All I have some problem with the my view controllers. When i have about 50 or more records in one of my table view which is below in the stack of view controllers and if i tap the back button quickly the navigation bar on the tap changes but the view does't change. For example: if i have the search controller below in the stack and detail controller up in the stack in this case on tapping the back button quickly the navigation bar comes to the search but the view controller remains on detail page. can any one can give me cause or solution of this problem. your help will be highly appreciated.

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  • didSelectRowAtIndexPath being called after viewDidLoad of the called view

    - by Serguei Fedorov
    I am trying to pass variables over to the new view. I have the following code: appDelegate *dataCenter = (AppDelegate*)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; dataCenter.myVariable = [array objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; in the didSelectRowAtIndexPath of the calling view. However, the issue that I have is that this variable is empty in the vewDidLoad function of the next view, simply because it fired off BEFORE the didSelectRowAtIndexPath of the calling view. I am using storyboard to link the views together. Both are UITableView. If I hit back and then reselect the table element it is then set, granted that by the time I hit back and then selected again, the variable got set. Is there any way to for the order of execution? I really don't want to do UI view switching on the back end. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • updating the values in detail view from another view....

    - by praseed
    Hi friends, i am building one app almost similar to contact management system...in which i have a detail view .. on pressing one of the table cells, a new view will be shown were the user can enter the new values and on pressing the save button the values will be updated in the database. On going back to the detail view the user should be able to see the updated values in the table cells.. or how can i update the values in detail view from another view...? i came to know that this can be acheived through Appdelegate objects ... but i couldnt understand wat is it or how it is done.... may be bcuz i am new to iPhone apps development... Pls can anyone explain me the process..

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  • Pass a datatable model to controller action in MVC

    - by user2906420
    Code: @model System.Data.DataTable <button type="submit" class="btn btn-primary" data-dismiss="modal" aria-hidden="true"> Download</button> [HttpPost] public void getCSV(DataTable dt) { MemoryStream stream = Export.GetCSV(dt); var filename = "ExampleCSV.csv"; var contenttype = "text/csv"; Response.Clear(); Response.ContentType = contenttype; Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment;filename=" + filename); Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); Response.BinaryWrite(stream.ToArray()); Response.End(); } I want to allow the user to export a CSV file when the button is clicked on. the datatable should be passed to the method getCSV. Please can someone help me. thanks I do not mind using Tempdata to store the datatable and then access it in the controller

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  • What is a good way for a custom accessory view in a UITableViewCell to message the table view contro

    - by Alex Gosselin
    Hi Everyone, I am working on adding a custom accessory view, (a button) to a UITableViewCell, and I need it to tell the table view when it is touched, but I can't figure out how to communicate to the table view what button was pressed. Ideally I'd like to somehow call a function like this: [controller tableView:view didSelectCustomButtonAtIndexPath:indexPath usingCell:self]; when my custom view button is pressed. Sorry if this is a bit vague, I'm not really sure how to explain this well. I am basically looking for how to mimic the implementation for tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath: without having to subclass UITableViewCell. Thanks for any help.

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  • Primary IDE Channel: Ultra DMA Mode 5 >> PIO Mode

    - by Wesley
    Hi, my netbook was having huge audio lag and just abnormally slow processing. After doing some searching on the internet, I found out that I needed to uninstall/reinstall the Primary IDE Channel found under the IDE controller section in the Device Manager. I would then set the Transfer Mode to DMA if available and everything would be great. For a period of time, I would see that "Ultra DMA Mode 5" was the current transfer mode, but every so often, it'd revert back to "PIO Mode", which is when it's really laggy. What can I do to prevent the Primary IDE Channel to revert from Ultra DMA Mode to PIO Mode? Also, my netbook has BSODed a few times when it is in PIO Mode, without any real explanation. I have a Samsung N120. Specs are as follows: http://www.samsung.com/ca/consumer/office/mobile-computing/netbook/NP-N120-KA01CA/index.idx?pagetype=prd_detail&tab=spec&fullspec=F. Only difference is that I have upgraded to 2.0 GB of DDR2 RAM. EDIT: For all who are looking for an answer to this problem, click the link in Kythos's answer and look at number 6 (Re-enable DMA using the Registry Editor). This always works for me now. If on reboot, you seem to only have a black screen after XP is loading, just wait... it is still loading and will show signs of life after 2-3 minutes.

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  • Exchange 2003 SP2 and Windows Server 2008 R2 Domain Controllers

    - by Brian
    I'm looking at adding two Windows Server 2008 R2 Domain Controllers into our Windows Server 2003 domain to support our Exchange 2003 SP2 server and replace a retiring Windows Server 2003 Server. Our Domain and Forest functional levels are currently Windows Server 2003, which supports domain controller operating systems (Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Server 2008 and Windows Server 2003) according to the "Appendix of Functional Level Features" on Technet . So there should not be an issue other than running adprep /forestprep and adprep /domain.... right!? But, according to the Exchange Server Supportability Matrix, Windows Server 2008 R2 Active Directory Servers are not supported as global catalog servers or domain controllers in a Exchange 2003 SP2 environment!!!??? This was a shock to me... How can Windows Server 2008 R2 be a DC for a Windows Server 2003 domain and forest, but not communicate with an Exchange 2003 SP2 server? Hopefully, I'm not the first to see this issue (or maybe I am), but I know a lot of Exchange 2003 admins will not be happy if there is not a work around... or is Microsoft trying to push everyone automatically to Exchange 2010...

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  • best practice to removing DC from Site that no longer connects via vpn in another city

    - by dasko
    hi i am looking for a recap of what i have done already to see if i missed anything. i had two cities connected by wan using a ipsec persistent tunnel between gateways. i had one DC (DOMAIN CONTROLLER) in each city that was a global catalog server (GC) they were set up to replicate and i had them configured under Sites and Servers with their own subnet etc... about 6 months ago the one city was removed and i was not able to gracefully remove, through dcpromo, the server that was there. it is no longer used and cannot be brought back. the company went from two sites down to single site. Problem is i had a whole bunch of kcc errors and replication bugs in the event viewer. i wanted to clean up my active directory and decided to use the ntdsutil metadata cleanup commands. i removed the server from the specifed site based on a procedure from petri website. I then removed the instances of the old DC and site from Sites and Servers. Then i went and cleaned up the DNS by removing Host A records, NS server name from both the local DNS forward lookup zone and the _msdcs i also removed the reverse lookup zone for the subnet that no longer exists. is there anything i missed? thanks in advance for any help. gd

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  • A Domain Admin user doesn't have effective Administrative rights on a Domain Computer

    - by rwetzeler
    I am a developer who is setting up a virtual domain environment of testing purposes and am having trouble with the setup. I have created a new DC on a new Forest... call it dev.contoso.com. I have setup a virtual internal network for all machines that are going to be apart of this virtual test environment and have given each machine a static IP address in the 192.169.150.0 subnet. I have added machine1.dev.contoso.com to the domain dev.contoso.com. I have also provisioned a user account (adminuser) in the domain and made that user a member of Domain Admins group. Upon logging into machine1 using my newly created Domain Admin account, I cannot access/run any files on machine1. When I go into the advanced permissions for the c:\ folder and goto properties - Security Tab - Advanced - Effective Permissions and search for the dev\adminuser (mentioned above), I get an error saying: Windows can't calculate the effective permissions for admin user What do I need to do to get Administrative rights on Machine1? I am using Server 2008 R2 for both the AD controller and machine1.

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  • Windows 2003 Active Directory Integrated DNS zone not registering non-domain computers

    - by Jeff Willener
    I'm not a networking guy by all means, I'm just a developer who dabbles enough to get into trouble and I'm there. So bear with me... :) At my office I have a Windows 2003 Domain Controller which also services DNS. On the domain I have a handful of computers and other misc. equipment/toys. For the DNS I only created a Forward Lookup Zone for my domain (mydomain.com). I run a lot of VM's so generally I have everything on the domain, however some of those VM's are not and only in a 'Workgroup'. I also have another laptop which belongs to another domain (otherdomain.com) which is here 100% but I use it for other purposes and has to belong to the otherdomain.com. With all that said, I have two questions: I have found any computer not on mydomain.com does not register it's IP address even though 'Register this connections address in DNS' is set to in the 'Advanced TCP/IP Settings' for the nic. Where have I messed this up? On the laptop which is registered on otherdomain.com, when I do a nslookup for a computer on mydomain.com (e.g. nslookup devbox1) it appends otherdomain.com as the suffix (e.g. queries devbox1.otherdomain.com). Same thing occurs if I use the fully qualified name. In the 'Advanced TCP/IP Settings' for that nic, I can 'Append these DNS suffixes' of mydomain.com but I fear that will hose my DNS lookups when I VPN to otherdomain.com. So what is the correct approach to resolve this issue? Do I add both mydomain.com and otherdomain.com in that order?

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  • Restoring snapshot for Microsoft Exchange server

    - by Mugen
    Hi, The background: I need to do some testing with Microsoft exchange server. Specifically, I'll be installing some software on the Microsoft exchange server machine and uninstalling that same software again. The problem I face: While I repeatedly do this with different versions of my software there is a chance that sometime later the Exchange server installation might get corrupted. When that happens I would need to reinstall Exchange server which I feel is somewhat of a chore. So what I am planning to do is to install the Ms Exchange server on a virtual machine in VMware ESX server and take a snapshot so that during my work whenever the installation is corrupted I can restore the snapshot. So here's my question: Would restoring the snapshot for the Microsoft Exchange server virtual machine work correctly? I'm not familiar with the intricacies of exchange server and any changes (if any) that happen with the Domain controller when we use or install an exchange server (Personally I don't think that should happen but just making sure). I have a shortage of time and hence decided to post this question here. Could someone please tell me whether restoring a snapshot for Exchange server would work fine? Thanks a load, Mugen

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  • Read Only Domain Controllers and DNS zone updates

    - by Mike M
    I have a Windows 2003 domain and just added a new DC that runs 2008 R2. I updated the schema accordingly for both forest and domain levels. I also made sure to run /rodcprep at the time I did this. I have a branch office with a 2008 R2 file/print server that is a read-only domain controller (DC). The one problem I have been having is with AD-integrated DNS records updates. In the data center, we had to make an IP address change on a particular server. All our other sites' DCs (2003) updated the record fine. The 2008 R2 DC in the data center also updates its record fine. However, the RODC in the branch office does not. So if I nslookup the target server on a 2003 DC, the IP address is correct. Same with the 2008 R2 DC in the data center. But an nslookup on the branch office RODC still pulls in the old IP address. Moreover, any new records we've created (e.g., just added a new terminal server) do not get updated on the branch RODC either. Is there something simple I'm missing? How do I get the RODC to sync its AD-integrated DNS records with the rest of my world? Thank you in advance for your responses. Mike

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  • New AD-DC in a new Site is refusing cross-site IPv4 connections

    - by sysadmin1138
    We just added a new Server 2008 (sp2) Domain Controller in a new Site, our first such config. It's over a VPN gateway WAN (10Mbit). Unfortunately it is displaying a strange network symptom. Connections to the SMB ports (TCP/139 and TCP/445) are being actively refused... if the connection is coming in on pure IPv4. If the incoming connection is coming by way of the 6to4 tunnel those connections establish and work just fine. It isn't the Firewall, since this behavior can be replicated with the firewall turned off. Also, it's actually issuing RST packets to connection attempts; something that only happens with a Windows Firewall if there is a service behind a port and the service itself denies access. I doubt it's some firewall device on the wire, since the server this one replaced was running Samba and access to it from our main network functioned just fine. I'm thinking it might have something to do with the Subnet lists in AD Sites & Services, but I'm not sure. We haven't put any IPv6 addresses in there, just v4, and it's the v4 connections that are being denied. Unfortunately, I can't figure this out. We need to be able to talk to this DC from the main campus. Is there some kind of site-based SMB-level filtering going on? I can talk to the DC's on campus just fine, but that's over that v6 tunnel. I don't have access to a regular machine on that remote subnet, which limits my ability to test.

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  • pfsense, active directory, local domain

    - by Dalton Conley
    First things first, I have no idea what I'm doing. Certainly not afraid to admit that.. but here is my network setup. I have 2 servers, one of them in a domain controller. Both are running windows server 2008. They have replicated directories. Each server is at a different location and has its own firewall for the network at that location. Both firewalls are using pfsense. Recently a firewall went down and my coworker reinstalled pfsense, and everything seems setup correctly. Again, I have no idea what I'm doing so I'm not sure. I have records from when the previous IT person had setup this network and the firewall settings are the same but those records could have been extremely old. Now, I have a domain name for my network.. we'll call it "mydomain.net". I use to be able to access this domain name and it would bring up the servers replicated drives(i.e. \\mydomain.net). Now I cannot. I can however access the servers individual host names on my network(i.e. \\server1 , \\server2). We didn't change anything on the server which is what makes me think its something to do with the firewall. I know this is probably a very general question and I don't have a lot of detail to add but could anyone give me some insight on to what could be causing this, or some debugging techniques I can apply to this? I'm a programmer, not a network administrator.

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  • Windows 2003 DC to Windows 2008 R2 DC with same name and same IP

    - by TheCleaner
    Environment = Windows 2003 native domain with 8 DCs I've got an old domain controller that is running 2003, CA Enterprise role, DHCP, DNS, a few GPO scripts that point to shares on it, and some other minor functions. All our servers point to it as their primary DNS, and there's lots of references to its IP or name throughout the domain at this point (8+ years later). I really don't feel like manually changing all of this, it would be a pretty massive undertaking. I want to follow this guide: http://msmvps.com/blogs/acefekay/archive/2010/10/09/remove-an-old-dc-and-introduce-a-new-dc-with-the-same-name-and-ip-address.aspx to hopefully end up with basically an "in-place upgrade" so to say. I considered just doing a P2V of the box, but we don't really want to keep it around running 2003 to be honest. I also considered using a CNAME and adding a 2nd IP (the old one) but again, it seemed like it would be cleaner using the attached link. My actual question: Any gotchas or big caution signs when doing what the link suggests? Anyone gone down this road and have advice on how to proceed?

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  • Adding 2nd DC to the domain from a different subnet over VPN.

    - by EagerToLearn
    I'm in the process of adding a second DC to our domain and just want to make sure I have all the steps right before proceeding. Info: DC1 is 2008 R2 Standard. DC2 is 2008 R2 Standard. Network1 is 192.168.39.x/24 Network2 is 10.0.0.x/24 VPN is Sonicwall. The 2 DC's will be at two different sites, but the networks are connected by hardware VPN. (Sonicwall). The main DC server will be on the 192.168.39.0/24 network. The 2nd DC will be on 10.0.0.0/24. Here are the steps I plan to take; please let me know if I'm missing anything. Part 1: AD Sites and Services on DC1, create a new site and subnet for DC2. (Or should I create a new one for both?) (Can I use the default IPSiteLink and not change anything in there other than refresh timer?) Part 2: Point the DNS of DC2 to DC1. Run /forestprep and /domainprep (on both, or just DC1?). Dcpromo and select "Additional Domain Controller for Existing Domain". Then continue with normal steps with default locations for databases. EDIT: Didn't realize this was like reddit and required two skipped lines to skip one :P EDIT 2: When DCPromo-ing DC2, do I need to have "Append primary and connection specific DNS" and "Append parent suffixes of the primary DNS suffix" checked?

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  • Slow RDP after server joins domain

    - by Chris Grove
    We're having RDP issues with Amazon cloud servers that we recently joined to an Active Directory domain. The setup is: A local office network A virtual private cloud in Amazon An IPSec tunnel between the two networks A number of Windows 2008 R2 servers on both networks An AD domain (call it abc.net), with one domain controller in each network. The domain controllers are both new, fresh installs. Before we had the domain set up we had local accounts for the cloud computers which were used for RDP access. Our idea was to get all of the servers on to the domain so we could use domain logins instead of per-server local logins. Before the cloud servers were in the domain, RDP (from the office network or through a VPN to the cloud) worked great. After we joined the cloud servers to the domain, RDP from the office became very slow - a few minutes to log in, long frequent pauses when the interface is unresponsive, generally just a slow and frustrating experience. This is a problem regardless of whether a domain or local login is used for RDP. Oddly, when outside of the office network and connecting to the cloud directly with the VPN, RDP is still very responsive. Any idea why RDP from office to cloud is suddenly very slow after the cloud servers join the domain? What can I look at in our configuration to address this? Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Flash Backed Write Cache (FBWC) without capacitor pack

    - by Martyn
    I brought a HP Smart Array P410 controller and it is installed and working fine in a HP Prolient Microserver with 4 drives in two RAID 1 arrays. I didn’t realise however that it came without any cache so would only work by directly writing straight to the disk, and the performance was horrible. So I then brought the 512MB Flash Backed Write Cache (FBWC) memory module as I was under the impression that with FBWC I would not need a battery. I got this idea from a forum post. "What do you guys think of the choice between 'BBWC' (battery backed write cache) and 'FBWC' (flash backed write cache)? The flashed based ones use non-volitile memory so need no battery." After installing the cache module however the server pretty much won’t boot. The P410 has a flashing amber light on it, and from the manual that doesn’t sound good. I’ve managed to get to the on board BIOS once and even managed to get to boot to the HP Array Configuration Utility (ACU) CD once, but every other time the Server continuingly reboots once it get to the POST screen and reads ARRAY INITILIZING %%%. The one time I reached the ACU, it reported a problem with the Cache Module. To me, it seems like the cache module is faulty, however the supplier tells me “Do you have an FBWC battery pack, p/n 587324-001, because that is required for the cache to work. If you have it, please complete an RMA form and we'll send a replacement / credit.” Does this sound right to you? I’ve been ordering the parts from the US and I don’t want to spend $77 + $40 p&p on a battery, wait a week for the shipping to find the card is faulty, and I don’t want to send back a working card?

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