Search Results

Search found 2313 results on 93 pages for 'twice'.

Page 84/93 | < Previous Page | 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91  | Next Page >

  • Using Hibernate to do a query involving two tables

    - by Nathan Spears
    I'm inexperienced with sql in general, so using Hibernate is like looking for an answer before I know exactly what the question is. Please feel free to correct any misunderstandings I have. I am on a project where I have to use Hibernate. Most of what I am doing is pretty basic and I could copy and modify. Now I would like to do something different and I'm not sure how configuration and syntax need to come together. Let's say I have two tables. Table A has two (relevant) columns, user GUID and manager GUID. Obviously managers can have more than one user under them, so queries on manager can return more than one row. Additionally, a manager can be managing the same user on multiple projects, so the same user can be returned multiple times for the same manager query. Table B has two columns, user GUID and user full name. One-to-one mapping there. I want to do a query on manager GUID from Table A, group them by unique User GUID (so the same User isn't in the results twice), then return those users' full names from Table B. I could do this in sql without too much trouble but I want to use Hibernate so I don't have to parse the sql results by hand. That's one of the points of using Hibernate, isn't it? Right now I have Hibernate mappings that map each column in Table A to a field (well the get/set methods I guess) in a DAO object that I wrote just to hold that Table's data. I could also use the Hibernate DAOs I have to access each table separately and do each of the things I mentioned above in separate steps, but that would be less efficient (I assume) that doing one query. I wrote a Service object to hold the data that gets returned from the query (my example is simplified - I'm going to keep some other data from Table A and get multiple columns from Table B) but I'm at a loss for how to write a DAO that can do the join, or use the DAOs I have to do the join. FYI, here is a sample of my hibernate config file (simplified to match my example): <hibernate-mapping package="com.my.dao"> <class name="TableA" table="table_a"> <id name="pkIndex" column="pk_index" /> <property name="userGuid" column="user_guid" /> <property name="managerGuid" column="manager_guid" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So then I have a DAOImplementation class that does queries and returns lists like public List<TableA> findByHQL(String hql, Map<String, String> params) etc. I'm not sure how "best practice" that is either.

    Read the article

  • jPlayer widget created with static error as result

    - by goldengel
    I've created a widged with Orchard. Unfortunately I've used the same "Title" for a jPlayer widget twice. Now I receive an error: Server Error in '/wgk' Application. Sequence contains more than one element Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element Source Error: Line 2: <fieldset> Line 3: <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> Line 4: @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { Line 5: <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> Line 6: } Source File: x:\Intepub\wgk\Modules\Orchard.jPlayer\Views\EditorTemplates\Parts\MediaGallery.cshtml Line: 4 Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Sequence contains more than one element] System.Linq.Enumerable.SingleOrDefault(IEnumerable`1 source) +4206966 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.HandleSingleOrDefaultCall(MethodCallExpression call) +51 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ImmediateResultsVisitor`1.VisitMethodCall(MethodCallExpression call) +411 NHibernate.Linq.Visitors.ExpressionVisitor.Visit(Expression exp) +371 In MediaGallery.cshtml (found in error description above) is written: @model Orchard.jPlayer.Models.MediaGalleryPart <fieldset> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.MediaGalleryName, @T("Media gallery"))</div> @if(!Model.HasAvailableGalleries) { <div>@T("You need first to create an media gallery on Media Gallery menu")</div> } else { <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedGallery, Model.AvailableGalleries)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.SelectedType, @T("Media gallery type"))</div> <div>@Html.DropDownListFor(o => o.SelectedType, Model.AvailableTypes)</div> <div>@Html.LabelFor(o => o.AutoPlay, @T("Auto play"))</div> <div>@Html.CheckBoxFor(o => o.AutoPlay)</div> } </fieldset> My problem is now, I cannot find or edit the widget with double used name. I would love to replace it to another name. But I do not know where to do this. Please advice.

    Read the article

  • Deleting items from a ListView using a custom BaseAdapter

    - by HXCaine
    I am using a customised BaseAdapter to display items on a ListView. The items are just strings held in an ArrayList. The list items have a delete button on them (big red X), and I'd like to remove the item from the ArrayList, and notify the ListView to update itself. However, every implementation I've tried gets mysterious position numbers given to it, so for example clicking item 2's delete button will delete item 5's. It seems to be almost entirely random. One thing to note is that elements may be repeated, but must be kept in the same order. For example, I can have "Irish" twice, as elements 3 and 7. My code is below: private static class ViewHolder { TextView lang; int position; } public View getView(final int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ViewHolder holder; if (convertView == null) { convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.language_link_row, null); holder = new ViewHolder(); holder.lang = (TextView)convertView.findViewById(R.id.language_link_text); holder.position = position; final ImageView deleteButton = (ImageView) convertView.findViewById(R.id.language_link_cross_delete); deleteButton.setOnClickListener(this); convertView.setTag(holder); deleteButton.setTag(holder); } else { holder = (ViewHolder) convertView.getTag(); } holder.lang.setText(mLanguages.get(position)); return convertView; } I later attempt to retrieve the deleted element's position by grabbing the tag, but it's always the wrong position in the list. There is no noticeable pattern to the position given here, it always seems random. // The delete button's listener public void onClick(View v) { ViewHolder deleteHolder = (ViewHolder) v.getTag(); int pos = deleteHolder.position; ... ... ... } I would be quite happy to just delete the item from the ArrayList and have the ListView update itself, but the position I'm getting is incorrect so I can't do that. Please note that I did, at first, have the deleteButton clickListener inside the getView method, and used 'position' to delete the value, but I had the same problem. Any suggestions appreciated, this is really irritating me.

    Read the article

  • How do I get a screenshot of a given website using C#

    - by Ender
    I'm writing a specialised crawler and parser for internal use and I require the ability to take a screenshot of a web page in order to check what colours are being used throughout. The program will take in around ten web addresses and will save them as a bitmap image, from there I plan to use LockBits in order to create a list of the five most used colours within the image. To my knowledge it's the easiest way to get the colours used within a web page but if there is an easier way to do it please chime in with your suggestions. Anyway, I was going to use this program until I saw the price tag. I'm also fairly new to C#, having only used it for a few months. Can anyone provide me with a solution to my problem of taking a screenshot of a web page in order to extract the colour scheme? EDIT: Sorry for not getting back to this sooner, but I've been busy with some other things. Anyway, the code seems to work well, but the problem I am having right now is that I am running it within a form, and naturally with Application.Run() being called I cannot run two instances of the same form at once. It recommended Form.showDialog() but that broke everything. Can anyone give me a hand with this code? public static void buildScreenshotFromURL(string url) { int width = 800; int height = 600; using (WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser()) { browser.Width = width; browser.Height = height; browser.ScrollBarsEnabled = true; // This will be called when the page finishes loading browser.DocumentCompleted += new System.Windows.Forms.WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventHandler(OnDocumentCompleted); //browser.DocumentCompleted += OnDocumentCompleted; browser.Navigate(url); // This prevents the application from exiting until // Application.Exit is called // Application.Run() does not work as it cannot be called twice, recommended form.showDialog() // but still issues Application.Run(); } } public static void OnDocumentCompleted(object sender, WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventArgs e) { // Define size of thumbnail neded int thumbSize = 50; // Now that the page is loaded, save it to a bitmap WebBrowser browser = (WebBrowser)sender; using (Graphics graphics = browser.CreateGraphics()) { using (Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(browser.Width, browser.Height, graphics)) { Rectangle bounds = new Rectangle(0, 0, bitmap.Width, bitmap.Height); browser.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, bounds); Bitmap thumbBitmap = new Bitmap(bitmap.GetThumbnailImage(thumbSize, thumbSize, thumbCall, IntPtr.Zero)); thumbBitmap.Save("screenshot.png", ImageFormat.Png); handleImage(thumbBitmap); } }

    Read the article

  • Getting a screenshot of a page using C# - Need help with code

    - by Ender
    I'm writing a specialised crawler and parser for internal use and I require the ability to take a screenshot of a web page in order to check what colours are being used throughout. The program will take in around ten web addresses and will save them as a bitmap image, from there I plan to use LockBits in order to create a list of the five most used colours within the image. To my knowledge it's the easiest way to get the colours used within a web page but if there is an easier way to do it please chime in with your suggestions. Anyway, I was going to use this program until I saw the price tag. I'm also fairly new to C#, having only used it for a few months. Can anyone provide me with a solution to my problem of taking a screenshot of a web page in order to extract the colour scheme? EDIT: Sorry for not getting back to this sooner, but I've been busy with some other things. Anyway, the code seems to work well, but the problem I am having right now is that I am running it within a form, and naturally with Application.Run() being called I cannot run two instances of the same form at once. It recommended Form.showDialog() but that broke everything. Can anyone give me a hand with this code? public static void buildScreenshotFromURL(string url) { int width = 800; int height = 600; using (WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser()) { browser.Width = width; browser.Height = height; browser.ScrollBarsEnabled = true; // This will be called when the page finishes loading browser.DocumentCompleted += new System.Windows.Forms.WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventHandler(OnDocumentCompleted); //browser.DocumentCompleted += OnDocumentCompleted; browser.Navigate(url); // This prevents the application from exiting until // Application.Exit is called // Application.Run() does not work as it cannot be called twice, recommended form.showDialog() // but still issues Application.Run(); } } public static void OnDocumentCompleted(object sender, WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventArgs e) { // Define size of thumbnail neded int thumbSize = 50; // Now that the page is loaded, save it to a bitmap WebBrowser browser = (WebBrowser)sender; // Code edited from example below to make smaller bitmap and save as PNG using (Graphics graphics = browser.CreateGraphics()) { using (Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(browser.Width, browser.Height, graphics)) { Rectangle bounds = new Rectangle(0, 0, bitmap.Width, bitmap.Height); browser.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, bounds); Bitmap thumbBitmap = new Bitmap(bitmap.GetThumbnailImage(thumbSize, thumbSize, thumbCall, IntPtr.Zero)); thumbBitmap.Save("screenshot.png", ImageFormat.Png); handleImage(thumbBitmap); } }

    Read the article

  • PerlIO in Windows PowerShell and CMD.exe

    - by Evan Carroll
    Apparently, a Perl script I have results in two different output files depending on if I run it under Windows PowerShell, or cmd.exe. The script can be found at the bottom of this question. The file handle is opened with IO::File, I believe that PerlIO is doing some screwy stuff. It seems as if under cmd.exe the encoding chosen is much more compact encoding (4.09 KB), as compared to PowerShell which generates a file nearly twice the size (8.19 KB). This script takes a shell script and generates a Windows batch file. It seems like the one generated under cmd.exe is just regular ASCII (1 byte character), while the other one appears to be UTF-16 (first two bytes FF FE) Can someone verify and explain why PerlIO works differently under Windows Powershell than cmd.exe? Also, how do I explicitly get an ASCII-magic PerlIO filehandle using IO::File? Currently, only the file generated with cmd.exe is executable. The UTF-16 .bat (I think that's the encoding) is not executable by either PowerShell or cmd.exe. BTW, we're using Perl 5.12.1 for MSWin32 #!/usr/bin/env perl use strict; use warnings; use File::Spec; use IO::File; use IO::Dir; use feature ':5.10'; my $bash_ftp_script = File::Spec->catfile( 'bin', 'dm-ftp-push' ); my $fh = IO::File->new( $bash_ftp_script, 'r' ) or die $!; my @lines = grep $_ !~ /^#.*/, <$fh>; my $file = join '', @lines; $file =~ s/ \\\n/ /gm; $file =~ tr/'\t/"/d; $file =~ s/ +/ /g; $file =~ s/\b"|"\b/"/g; my @singleLnFile = grep /ncftp|echo/, split $/, $file; s/\$PWD\///g for @singleLnFile; my $dh = IO::Dir->new( '.' ); my @files = grep /\.pl$/, $dh->read; say 'echo off'; say "perl $_" for @files; say for @singleLnFile; 1;

    Read the article

  • jQuery: .toggle() doesnt work properly on two different elements.

    - by Marius
    Hello there, This is my markup: <table class="col1table" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td><a class="tips_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_tips_venn.png" /></a></td> <td><a class="facebook_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_facebook.png" /></a></td> <td><a class="twitter_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_twitter.png" /></a></td> <td><a class="myspace_trigger" href="#"><img src="/img/design/icon_myspace.png" /></a></td> </tr> <tr> <td><a class="tips_trigger" href="#">TIPS EN VENN</a></td> <td><a class="facebook_trigger" href="#">FACEBOOK</a></td> <td><a class="twitter_trigger" href="#">TWITTER</a></td> <td><a class="myspace_trigger" href="#">MYSPACE</a></td> </tr> </table> This is the mark-up for a tool-tip: <div id="message_tips" class="toolTip">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet.<br /><br /><br /><br /><br /><br />Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet.</div> This is my code to hide/unhide tooltip for .tips_trigger (the tooltip has id: "#message_tips"). Notice that there is one .tips_trigger on each row in the table. And there will be one tooltip per "..._trigger-class". $('.tips_trigger').toggle(function(event){ event.preventDefault(); $('#message_tips').css('display', 'block'); }, function(event){ $('#message_tips').css('display', 'none'); }); I have two problems: 1. Each of the tips_trigger-classes seems to work the script independatly. What I mean by that is if I click tips_trigger in the first row, it displays the tool-tip. If i click tips_trigger in the second row straight after, it displays the tool-tip again. I have to click the exact same tips_trigger-class istance twice for it to hide it. How can I overcome this problem? 2. Each of the "..._trigger"-classes will have a tool-tip, not just ".tips_trigger". Is there a way to alter my current script so that it works for multiple unhides/hides instead of writing one script per class? Kind regards, Marius

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET - working with GridView Programmatically

    - by JMSA
    I am continuing from this post. After much Googling, I have come up with this code to edit cells programmatically: using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; using Ice_Web_Portal.BO; namespace GridView___Test { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { GridView1.DataSource = Course.GetCourses(); GridView1.DataBind(); } protected void GridView1_RowEditing(object sender, GridViewEditEventArgs e) { GridViewRow row = GridView1.Rows[e.NewEditIndex]; GridView1.EditIndex = e.NewEditIndex; GridView1.DataSource = Course.GetCourses(); GridView1.DataBind(); } protected void GridView1_RowUpdating(object sender, GridViewUpdateEventArgs e) { TextBox txtID = (TextBox)GridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[1].Controls[0]; TextBox txtCourseCode = (TextBox)GridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[2].Controls[0]; TextBox txtCourseName = (TextBox)GridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[3].Controls[0]; TextBox txtCourseTextBookCode = (TextBox)GridView1.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[4].Controls[0]; Course item = new Course(); item.ID = Convert.ToInt32(txtID.Text); item.CourseCode = txtCourseCode.Text; item.CourseName = txtCourseName.Text; item.TextBookCode = txtCourseTextBookCode.Text; bool success = Course.Update(item); labMessage.Text = success.ToString(); GridView1.EditIndex = -1; GridView1.DataSource = Course.GetCourses(); GridView1.DataBind(); } } } But 2 problems are happening. (1) I need to press command buttons twice to Edit/Update. (2) Changes in the cell values are not updated in the database. I.e. edited cell values are not committing. Can anyone give me a solution?

    Read the article

  • Javascript closures with google geocoder

    - by DaNieL
    Hi all, i still have some problems with javascript closures, and input/output variables. Im playing with google maps api for a no profit project: users will place the marker into a gmap, and I have to save the locality (with coordinates) in my db. The problem comes when i need to do a second geocode in order to get a unique pairs of lat and lng for a location: lets say two users place the marker in the same town but in different places, I dont want to have the same locality twice in the database with differents coords. I know i can do the second geocode after the user select the locality, but i want to understand what am i mistaking here: // First geocoding, take the marker coords to get locality. geocoder.geocode( { 'latLng': new google.maps.LatLng($("#lat").val(), $("#lng").val()), 'language': 'it' }, function(results_1, status_1){ // initialize the html var inside this closure var html = ''; if(status_1 == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { // do stuff here for(i = 0, geolen = results_1[0].address_components.length; i != geolen) { // Second type of geocoding: for each location from the first geocoding, // i want to have a unique [lat,lan] geocoder.geocode( { 'address': results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name }, function(results_2, status_2){ // Here come the problem. I need to have the long_name here, and // 'html' var should increment. coords = results_2[0].geometry.location.toUrlValue(); html += 'some html to let the user choose the locality'; } ); } // Finally, insert the 'html' variable value into my dom... //but it never gets updated! } else { alert("Error from google geocoder:" + status_1) } } ); I tryed with: // Second type of geocoding: for each location from the first geocoding, i want // to have a unique [lat,lan] geocoder.geocode( { 'address': results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name }, (function(results_2, status_2, long_name){ // But in this way i'll never get results_2 or status_2, well, results_2 // get long_name value, status_2 and long_name is undefined. // However, html var is correctly updated. coords = results_2[0].geometry.location.toUrlValue(); html += 'some html to let the user choose the locality'; })(results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name) ); And with: // Second type of geocoding: for each location from the first geocoding, i want to have // a unique [lat,lan] geocoder.geocode( { 'address': results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name }, (function(results_2, status_2, long_name){ // But i get an obvious "results_2 is not defined" error (same for status_2). coords = results_2[0].geometry.location.toUrlValue(); html += 'some html to let the user choose the locality, that can be more than one'; })(results_2, status_2, results_1[0].address_components[i].long_name) ); Any suggestion? EDIT: My problem is how to pass an additional arguments to the geocoder inner function: function(results_2, status_2, long_name){ //[...] } becose if i do that with a clousure, I mess with the original parameters (results_2 and status_2)

    Read the article

  • How do you 'clone' WebControls in C# .NET ?

    - by Adz
    My basic question is, in .NET, how do I clone WebControls? I would like to build a custom tag, which can produce multiple copies of its children. Ultimately I intend to build a tag similar to in JSP/Struts. But the first hurdle I have is the ability to duplicate/clone the contents of a control. Consider this rather contrived example; <custom:duplicate count="2"> <div> <p>Some html</p> <asp:TextBox id="tb1" runat="server" /> </div> </custom:duplicate> The HTML markup which is output would be something like, <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> Note: I know i have the id duplicated, I can come up with a solution to that later! So what we would have is my custom control with 3 children (I think) - a literal control, a TextBox control, and another literal control. In this example I have said 'count=2' so what the control should do is output/render its children twice. What I would hope to do is write some "OnInit" code which does something like: List<WebControl> clones; for(int i=1; i<count; i++) { foreach(WebControl c in Controls) { WebControl clone = c.Clone(); clones.Add(clone); } } Controls.AddRange(clones); However, as far as I can tell, WebControls do not implement ICloneable, so its not possible to clone them in this way. Any ideas how I can clone WebControls?

    Read the article

  • Spacing differences between IE7 and Firefox/Opera/Chrome

    - by user306940
    I have an ongoing issue with the amount of vertical space of unordered lists in IE7 vs. Firefox/Chrome/Opera and I can't seem to find a solution out there. In IE7, the space is less and what I would like to see. In Firefox, Chrome, and Opera, the space between is about twice as much. I can't account for any of the spacing issues in my code or page. On my page, the code looks like this: <!--BEGIN SIDEBOX--> <div id="sidebox_new"> <div id="sidebox_top"><div id="sup">SUPPORT LINKS</div></div> <div id="sidebox_bod"> <br /> <ul> <li><a href="training.aspx">User Training</a></li><br /><br /> <li><a href="faqs.aspx">FAQ</a></li><br /><br /> <li><a href="logonasst.aspx">Logon Assist. Center</a></li><br /><br /> <li><a href="faxus.aspx">Fax Us</a></li><br /><br /> <li><a href="callus.aspx">Call Us</a></li><br /><br /> <li><a href="feedback.aspx">General Feedback</a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="sidebox_btm"></div> </div> <!--END SIDEBOX--> My CSS for this section looks like this: #sidebox_bod { width: 200px; margin: 0 30px 0 0; padding: 0; background: url('../img/supbxbod.gif'); background-repeat:repeat-y; background-position:bottom; } #sidebox_bod ul { list-style-image:url('../triangle.gif'); text-align:left; padding: 0 0 0 30px; margin: 0; } #sidebox_bod ul li a { font-size: 13px; } Any idea what I can do to try to have the vertical spacing the same across all browsers? I would prefer to have the IE7 look to try to fix this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • i don't understand how...

    - by Hristo
    how can something print 3 times when it only goes the printing code twice? I'm coding in C and the code is in a SIGCHLD signal handler I created. void chld_signalHandler() { int pidadf = (int) getpid(); printf("pidafdfaddf: %d\n", pidadf); while (1) { int termChildPID = waitpid(-1, NULL, WNOHANG); if (termChildPID == 0 || termChildPID == -1) { break; } dll_node_t *temp = head; while (temp != NULL) { printf("stuff\n"); if (temp-pid == termChildPID && temp-type == WORK) { printf("inside if\n"); // read memory mapped file b/w WORKER and MAIN // get statistics and write results to pipe char resultString[256]; // printing TIME int i; for (i = 0; i < 24; i++) { sprintf(resultString, "TIME; %d ; %d ; %d ; %s\n",i,1,2,temp->stats->mboxFileName); fwrite(resultString, strlen(resultString), 1, pipeFD); } remove_node(temp); break; } temp = temp-next; } printf("done printing from sigchld \n"); } return; } the output for my MAIN process is this: MAIN PROCESS 16214 created WORKER PROCESS 16220 for file class.sp10.cs241.mbox pidafdfaddf: 16214 stuff stuff inside if done printing from sigchld MAIN PROCESS 16214 created WORKER PROCESS 16221 for file class.sp10.cs225.mbox pidafdfaddf: 16214 stuff stuff inside if done printing from sigchld and the output for the MONITOR process is this: MONITOR: pipe is open for reading MONITOR PIPE: TIME; 0 ; 1 ; 2 ; class.sp10.cs225.mbox MONITOR PIPE: TIME; 0 ; 1 ; 2 ; class.sp10.cs225.mbox MONITOR PIPE: TIME; 0 ; 1 ; 2 ; class.sp10.cs241.mbox MONITOR: end of readpipe ( I've taken out repeating lines so I don't take up so much space ) Thanks, Hristo

    Read the article

  • How to write this JavaScript code without eval?

    - by karlthorwald
    How to write this JavaScript code without eval? var typeOfString = eval("typeof " + that.modules[modName].varName); if (typeOfString !== "undefined") { doSomething(); } The point is that the name of the var that I want to check for is in a string. Maybe it is simple but I don't know how. Edit: Thank you for the very interesting answers so far. I will follow your suggestions and integrate this into my code and do some testing and report. Could take a while. Edit2: I had another look at the could and maybe itis better I show you a bigger picture. I am greatful for the experts to explain so beautiful, it is better with more code: MYNAMESPACE.Loader = ( function() { function C() { this.modules = {}; this.required = {}; this.waitCount = 0; this.appendUrl = ''; this.docHead = document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; } function insert() { var that = this; //insert all script tags to the head now! //loop over all modules: for (var modName in this.required) { if(this.required.hasOwnProperty(modName)){ if (this.required[modName] === 'required') { this.required[modName] = 'loading'; this.waitCount = this.waitCount + 1; this.insertModule(modName); } } } //now poll until everything is loaded or //until timout this.intervalId = 0; var checkFunction = function() { if (that.waitCount === 0) { clearInterval(that.intervalId); that.onSuccess(); return; } for (var modName in that.required) { if(that.required.hasOwnProperty(modName)){ if (that.required[modName] === 'loading') { var typeOfString = eval("typeof " + that.modules[modName].varName); if (typeOfString !== "undefined") { //module is loaded! that.required[modName] = 'ok'; that.waitCount = that.waitCount - 1; if (that.waitCount === 0) { clearInterval(that.intervalId); that.onSuccess(); return; } } } } } }; //execute the function twice a second to check if all is loaded: this.intervalId = setInterval(checkFunction, 500); //further execution will be in checkFunction, //so nothing left to do here } C.prototype.insert = insert; //there are more functions here... return C; }()); var myLoader = new MYNAMESPACE.Loader(); //some more lines here... myLoader.insert();

    Read the article

  • List of Django model instance foreign keys losing consistency during state changes.

    - by Joshua
    I have model, Match, with two foreign keys: class Match(model.Model): winner = models.ForeignKey(Player) loser = models.ForeignKey(Player) When I loop over Match I find that each model instance uses a unique object for the foreign key. This ends up biting me because it introduces inconsistency, here is an example: >>> def print_elo(match_list): ... for match in match_list: ... print match.winner.id, match.winner.elo ... print match.loser.id, match.loser.elo ... >>> print_elo(teacher_match_list) 4 1192.0000000000 2 1192.0000000000 5 1208.0000000000 2 1192.0000000000 5 1208.0000000000 4 1192.0000000000 >>> teacher_match_list[0].winner.elo = 3000 >>> print_elo(teacher_match_list) 4 3000 # Object 4 2 1192.0000000000 5 1208.0000000000 2 1192.0000000000 5 1208.0000000000 4 1192.0000000000 # Object 4 >>> I solved this problem like so: def unify_refrences(match_list): """Makes each unique refrence to a model instance non-unique. In cases where multiple model instances are being used django creates a new object for each model instance, even if it that means creating the same instance twice. If one of these objects has its state changed any other object refrencing the same model instance will not be updated. This method ensure that state changes are seen. It makes sure that variables which hold objects pointing to the same model all hold the same object. Visually this means that a list of [var1, var2] whose internals look like so: var1 --> object1 --> model1 var2 --> object2 --> model1 Will result in the internals being changed so that: var1 --> object1 --> model1 var2 ------^ """ match_dict = {} for match in match_list: try: match.winner = match_dict[match.winner.id] except KeyError: match_dict[match.winner.id] = match.winner try: match.loser = match_dict[match.loser.id] except KeyError: match_dict[match.loser.id] = match.loser My question: Is there a way to solve the problem more elegantly through the use of QuerySets without needing to call save at any point? If not, I'd like to make the solution more generic: how can you get a list of the foreign keys on a model instance or do you have a better generic solution to my problem? Please correct me if you think I don't understand why this is happening.

    Read the article

  • wrong operator() overload called

    - by user313202
    okay, I am writing a matrix class and have overloaded the function call operator twice. The core of the matrix is a 2D double array. I am using the MinGW GCC compiler called from a windows console. the first overload is meant to return a double from the array (for viewing an element). the second overload is meant to return a reference to a location in the array (for changing the data in that location. double operator()(int row, int col) const ; //allows view of element double &operator()(int row, int col); //allows assignment of element I am writing a testing routine and have discovered that the "viewing" overload never gets called. for some reason the compiler "defaults" to calling the overload that returns a reference when the following printf() statement is used. fprintf(outp, "%6.2f\t", testMatD(i,j)); I understand that I'm insulting the gods by writing my own matrix class without using vectors and testing with C I/O functions. I will be punished thoroughly in the afterlife, no need to do it here. Ultimately I'd like to know what is going on here and how to fix it. I'd prefer to use the cleaner looking operator overloads rather than member functions. Any ideas? -Cal the matrix class: irrelevant code omitted class Matrix { public: double getElement(int row, int col)const; //returns the element at row,col //operator overloads double operator()(int row, int col) const ; //allows view of element double &operator()(int row, int col); //allows assignment of element private: //data members double **array; //pointer to data array }; double Matrix::getElement(int row, int col)const{ //transform indices into true coordinates (from sorted coordinates //only row needs to be transformed (user can only sort by row) row = sortedArray[row]; result = array[usrZeroRow+row][usrZeroCol+col]; return result; } //operator overloads double Matrix::operator()(int row, int col) const { //this overload is used when viewing an element return getElement(row,col); } double &Matrix::operator()(int row, int col){ //this overload is used when placing an element return array[row+usrZeroRow][col+usrZeroCol]; } The testing program: irrelevant code omitted int main(void){ FILE *outp; outp = fopen("test_output.txt", "w+"); Matrix testMatD(5,7); //construct 5x7 matrix //some initializations omitted fprintf(outp, "%6.2f\t", testMatD(i,j)); //calls the wrong overload }

    Read the article

  • Undefined Behavior and Sequence Points Reloaded

    - by Nawaz
    Consider this topic a sequel of the following topic: Previous Installment Undefined Behavior and Sequence Points Let's revisit this funny and convoluted expression (the italicized phrases are taken from the above topic *smile* ): i += ++i; We say this invokes undefined-behavior. I presume that when say this, we implicitly assume that type of i is one of built-in types. So my question is: what if the type of i is a user-defined type? Say it's type is Index which is defined later in this post (see below). Would it still invoke undefined-behavior? If yes, why? Is it not equivalent to writing i.operator+=(i.operator ++()); or even syntactically simpler i.add(i.inc());? Or, do they too invoke undefined-behavior? If no, why not? After all, the object i gets modified twice between consecutive sequence points. Please recall the rule of thumb : an expression can modify an object's value only once between consecutive "sequence points. And if i += ++i is an expression, then it must invoke undefined-behavior. If so, then it's equivalents i.operator+=(i.operator ++()); and i.add(i.inc()); must also invoke undefined-behavior which seems to be untrue! (as far as I understand) Or, i += ++i is not an expression to begin with? If so, then what is it and what is the definition of expression? If it's an expression, and at the same time, it's behavior is also well-defined, then it implies that number of sequence points associated with an expression somehow depends on the type of operands involved in the expression. Am I correct (even partly)? By the way, how about this expression? a[++i] = i; //taken from the previous topic. but here type of `i` is Index. class Index { int state; public: Index(int s) : state(s) {} Index& operator++() { state++; return *this; } Index& operator+=(const Index & index) { state+= index.state; return *this; } operator int() { return state; } Index & add(const Index & index) { state += index.state; return *this; } Index & inc() { state++; return *this; } };

    Read the article

  • Function-Local Static Const variable Initialization semantics.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The questions are in bold, for those that cannot be bothered reading a question in depth. This is a followup to this question. It is to do with the initialization semantics of static variables in functions. Static variables should be initialized once, and their internal state might be altered later - as I (currently) do in the linked question. However, the code in question does not require the feature to change the state of the variable later. Let me clarrify my position, since I don't require the string object's internal state to change. The code is for a trait class for meta programming, and as such would would benifit from a const char * const ptr -- thus Ideally a local cost static const variable is needed. My educated guess is that in this case the string in question will be optimally placed in memory by the link-loader, and that the code is more secure and maps to the intended semantics. This leads to the semantics of such a variable "The C++ Programming language Third Edition -- Stroustrup" does not have anything (that I could find) to say about this matter. All that is said is that the variable is initialized once when the flow of control of the thread first reaches the code. This leads me to ponder if the following code would be sensible, and if not what are the intended semantics ?. #include <iostream> const char * const GetString(const char * x_in) { static const char * const x = x_in; return x; } int main() { const char * const temp = GetString("yahoo"); std::cout << temp << std::endl; const char * const temp2 = GetString("yahoo2"); std::cout << temp2 << std::endl; } The following compiles on GCC and prints "yahoo" twice. Which is what I want -- However it might not be standards compliant (which is why I post this question). It might be more elegant to have two functions, "SetString" and "String" where the latter forwards to the first. If it is standards compliant does someone know of a templates implementation in boost (or elsewhere) ?

    Read the article

  • Reliable and fast way to convert a zillion ODT files in PDF?

    - by Marco Mariani
    I need to pre-produce a million or two PDF files from a simple template (a few pages and tables) with embedded fonts. Usually, I would stay low level in a case like this, and compose everything with a library like ReportLab, but I joined late in the project. Currently, I have a template.odt and use markers in the content.xml files to fill with data from a DB. I can smoothly create the ODT files, they always look rigth. For the ODT to PDF conversion, I'm using openoffice in server mode (and PyODConverter w/ named pipe), but it's not very reliable: in a batch of documents, there is eventually a point after which all the processed files are converted into garbage (wrong fonts and letters sprawled all over the page). Problem is not predictably reproducible (does not depend on the data), happens in OOo 2.3 and 3.2, in Ubuntu, XP, Server 2003 and Windows 7. My Heisenbug detector is ticking. I tried to reduce the size of batches and restarting OOo after each one; still, a small percentage of the documents are messed up. Of course I'll write about this on the Ooo mailing lists, but in the meanwhile, I have a delivery and lost too much time already. Where do I go? Completely avoid the ODT format and go for another template system. Suggestions? Anything that takes a few seconds to run is way too slow. OOo takes around a second and it sums to 15 days of processing time. I had to write a program for clustering the jobs over several clients. Keep the format but go for another tool/program for the conversion. Which one? There are many apps in the shareware or commercial repositories for windows, but trying each one is a daunting task. Some are too slow, some cannot be run in batch without buying it first, some cannot work from command line, etc. Open source tools tend not to reinvent the wheel and often depend on openoffice. Converting to an intermediate .DOC format could help to avoid the OOo bug, but it would double the processing time and complicate a task that is already too hairy. Try to produce the PDFs twice and compare them, discarding the whole batch if there's something wrong. Although the documents look equal, I know of no way to compare the binary content. Restart OOo after processing each document. it would take a lot more time to produce them it would lower the percentage of the wrong files, and make it very hard to identify them. Go for ReportLab and recreate the pages programmatically. This is the approach I'm going to try in a few minutes. Learn to properly format bulleted lists Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Mapping two tables 0..n in Hibernate

    - by simon
    I have a table Users CREATE TABLE "USERS" ( "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL , "LOGINNAME" VARCHAR2 (150) NOT NULL ) and I have a second table SpecialUsers. No UserId can occur twice in the SpecialUsers table, and only a small subset of the ids of users in the Users table are contained in the SpecialUsers table. CREATE TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ( "USERID" NUMBER NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "PK_SPECIALUSERS" PRIMARY KEY ("USERID") ) ALTER TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ADD CONSTRAINT "FK_SPECIALUSERS_USERID" FOREIGN KEY ("USERID") REFERENCES "USERS" ("ID") / Mapping the Users table in Hibernate works ok <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="USERS"> <id name="id" column="ID" type="java.lang.Long"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="sequence"> <param name="sequence">SEQ_USERS_ID</param> </generator> </id> <property name="loginName" column="LOGINNAME" type="java.lang.String" not-null="true"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> But I'm struggling in creating the mapping for the SpecialUsers table. All the examples (e.g. in Hibernate documentation) in Internet I found don't have this type of self-reference. I tried a mapping like this: <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="SPECIALUSERS"> <id name="id" column="USERID"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="foreign"> <param name="property">user</param> </generator> </id> <one-to-one name="user" class="User"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> but got the error Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is org.hibernate.DuplicateMappingException: Duplicate class/entity mapping com.initech.User How should I map the SpecialUsers table? What I need on the application level is a list of the User objects contained in the SpecialUsers table.

    Read the article

  • Getting a screenshot of a page using .NET - Need help with code

    - by Ender
    I'm writing a specialized crawler and parser for internal use and I require the ability to take a screenshot of a web page in order to check what colours are being used throughout. The program will take in around ten web addresses and will save them as a bitmap image, from there I plan to use LockBits in order to create a list of the five most used colours within the image. To my knowledge it's the easiest way to get the colours used within a web page but if there is an easier way to do it please chime in with your suggestions. Anyway, I was going to use this program until I saw the price tag. I'm also fairly new to C#, having only used it for a few months. Can anyone provide me with a solution to my problem of taking a screenshot of a web page in order to extract the colour scheme? EDIT: Sorry for not getting back to this sooner, but I've been busy with some other things. Anyway, the code seems to work well, but the problem I am having right now is that I am running it within a form, and naturally with Application.Run() being called I cannot run two instances of the same form at once. It recommended Form.showDialog() but that broke everything. Can anyone give me a hand with this code? public static void buildScreenshotFromURL(string url) { int width = 800; int height = 600; using (WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser()) { browser.Width = width; browser.Height = height; browser.ScrollBarsEnabled = true; // This will be called when the page finishes loading browser.DocumentCompleted += new System.Windows.Forms.WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventHandler(OnDocumentCompleted); //browser.DocumentCompleted += OnDocumentCompleted; browser.Navigate(url); // This prevents the application from exiting until // Application.Exit is called // Application.Run() does not work as it cannot be called twice, recommended form.showDialog() // but still issues Application.Run(); } } public static void OnDocumentCompleted(object sender, WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventArgs e) { // Define size of thumbnail neded int thumbSize = 50; // Now that the page is loaded, save it to a bitmap WebBrowser browser = (WebBrowser)sender; // Code edited from example below to make smaller bitmap and save as PNG using (Graphics graphics = browser.CreateGraphics()) { using (Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(browser.Width, browser.Height, graphics)) { Rectangle bounds = new Rectangle(0, 0, bitmap.Width, bitmap.Height); browser.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, bounds); Bitmap thumbBitmap = new Bitmap(bitmap.GetThumbnailImage(thumbSize, thumbSize, thumbCall, IntPtr.Zero)); thumbBitmap.Save("screenshot.png", ImageFormat.Png); handleImage(thumbBitmap); } }

    Read the article

  • ServiceController.Stop() doesn't appear to be stopping anything

    - by peacedog
    My dev box is a Windows 7 (x64) machine. I've got some code (C#, .net 2.0) that in certain circumstances, checks to see if a service is running and then stops it. ServiceController matchedService = //My Service! //If statements and such matchedService.Stop(); matchedService.WaitForStatus(ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped); Now, I can verify MyService is in fact installed and running. I can tell you I am running Visual Studio 2008 as an administrator while debugging. I can also verify that after a couple of If statements, I wind up at the .Stop() and .WaitForStatus() portion of the programming. I do know that if step over the .Stop() call, the service itself just keeps running (looking at it in Services, though it occurs to me perhaps I should grab a better tool for this. I'm sure there's some sysinternals tool that might give me more information). As I step over the .WaitForStatus() call, I basically wind up waiting for the stopped status. . . forever. Well, I let it sit there for over 15 minutes yesterday (twice) and nothing happens. We never make it to the next line of code. It feels exactly like Bowie's Space Oddity (you know the part I am talking about). There's a lotta things about MyService you don't know anything about. Things you wouldn't understand. Things you couldn't. . . let me state this plainly. No services depend on MyService and MyService depends on no other services. Addendum MyOtherService and SonOfMyService both seem to behave correctly at this point in the code. All of these services share the same characteristics (they're our own services we hatched in a secret lab and have no dependencies). Is it possible there is something wrong with the MyService install or something? I do know that if I stop debugging at this point, MyService is still listed as running in Services (even after hitting refresh). If I try to restart it then (or run my application again and get to this point), I get a message about it not being able to accept control messages. After that, the service shows up as stopped and I can start it normally. Why isn't the service being stopped? Is this a quirk of win 7? A failing on my part to understand the ServiceController, or Win Services in general?

    Read the article

  • How to force VS 2010 to skip "builds" of projects which haven't changed?

    - by Ladislav Mrnka
    Our product's solution has more than 100+ projects (500+ksloc of production code). Most of them are C# projects but we also have few using C++/CLI to bridge communication with native code. Rebuilding the whole solution takes several minutes. That's fine. If I want to rebuilt the solution I expect that it will really take some time. What is not fine is time needed to build solution after full rebuild. Imagine I used full rebuild and know without doing any changes to to the solution I press Build (F6 or Ctrl+Shift+B). Why it takes 35s if there was no change? In output I see that it started "building" of each project - it doesn't perform real build but it does something which consumes significant amount of time. That 35s delay is pain in the ass. Yes I can improve the time by not using build solution but only build project (Shift+F6). If I run build project on particular test project I'm currently working on it will take "only" 8+s. It requires me to run project build on correct project (the test project to ensure dependent tested code is build as well). At least ReSharper test runner correctly recognizes that only this single project must be build and rerunning test usually contains only 8+s compilation. My current coding Kata is: don't touch Ctrl+Shift+B. The test project build will take 8s even if I don't do any changes. The reason why it takes 8s is because it also "builds" dependencies = in my case it "builds" more than 20 projects but I made changes only to unit test or single dependency! I don't want it to touch other projects. Is there a way to simply tell VS to build only projects where some changes were done and projects which are dependent on changed ones (preferably this part as another build option)? I worry you will tell me that it is exactly what VS is doing but in MS way ... I want to improve my TDD experience and reduce the time of compilation (in TDD the compilation can happen twice per minute). To make this even more frustrated I'm working in a team where most of developers used to work on Java projects prior to joining this one. So you can imagine how they are pissed off when they must use VS in contrast to full incremental compilation in Java. I don't require incremental compilation of classes. I expect working incremental compilation of solutions. Especially in product like VS 2010 Ultimate which costs several thousands dollars. I really don't want to get answers like: Make a separate solution Unload projects you don't need etc. I can read those answers here. Those are not acceptable solutions. We're not paying for VS to do such compromises.

    Read the article

  • Can GPU capabilities impact virtual machine performance?

    - by Dave White
    While this many not seem like a programming question directly, it impacts my development activities and so it seems like it belongs here. It seems that more and more developers are turning to virtual environments for development activities on their computers, SharePoint development being a prime example. Also, as a trainer, I have virtual training environments for all of the classes that I teach. I recently purchased a new Dell E6510 to travel around with. It has the i7 620M (Dual core, HyperThreaded cpu running at 2.66GHz) and 8 GB of memory. Reading the spec sheet, it sounded like it would be a great laptop to carry around and run virtual machines on. Getting the laptop though, I've been pretty disappointed with the user experience of developing in a virtual machine. Giving the Virtual Machine 4 GB of memory, it was slow and I could type complete sentences and watch the VM "catchup". My company has training laptops that we provide for our classes. They are Dell Precision M6400 Intel Core 2 Duo P8700 running at 2.54Ghz with 8 GB of memory and the experience on this laptops is night and day compared to the E6510. They are crisp and you barely aware that you are running in a virtual environment. Since the E6510 should be faster in all categories than the M6400, I couldn't understand why the new laptop was slower, so I did a component by component comparison and the only place where the E6510 is less performant than the M6400 is the graphics department. The M6400 is running a nVidia FX 2700m GPU and the E6510 is running a nVidia 3100M GPU. Looking at benchmarks of the two GPUs suggest that the FX 2700M is twice as fast as the 3100M. http://www.notebookcheck.net/Mobile-Graphics-Cards-Benchmark-List.844.0.html 3100M = 111th (E6510) FX 2700m = 47th (Precision M6400) Radeon HD 5870 = 8th (Alienware) The host OS is Windows 7 64bit as is the guest OS, running in Virtual Box 3.1.8 with Guest Additions installed on the guest. The IDE being used in the virtual environment is VS 2010 Premium. So after that long setup, my question is: Is the GPU significantly impacting the virtual machine's performance or are there other factors that I'm not looking at that I can use to boost the vm's performance? Do we now have to consider GPU performance when purchasing laptops where we expect to use virtualized development environments? Thanks in advance. Cheers, Dave

    Read the article

  • c# - How do you get a variable's name as it was physically typed in its declaration?

    - by Petras
    The class below contains the field city. I need to dynamically determine the field's name as it is typed in the class declaration i.e. I need to get the string "city" from an instance of the object city. I have tried to do this by examining its Type in DoSomething() but can't find it when examining the contents of the Type in the debugger. Is it possible? public class Person { public string city = "New York"; public Person() { } public void DoSomething() { Type t = city.GetType(); string field_name = t.SomeUnkownFunction(); //would return the string "city" if it existed! } } Some people in their answers below have asked me why I want to do this. Here's why. In my real world situation, there is a custom attribute above city. [MyCustomAttribute("param1", "param2", etc)] public string city = "New York"; I need this attribute in other code. To get the attribute, I use reflection. And in the reflection code I need to type the string "city" MyCustomAttribute attr; Type t = typeof(Person); foreach (FieldInfo field in t.GetFields()) { if (field.Name == "city") { //do stuff when we find the field that has the attribute we need } } Now this isn't type safe. If I changed the variable "city" to "workCity" in my field declaration in Person this line would fail unless I knew to update the string if (field.Name == "workCity") //I have to make this change in another file for this to still work, yuk! { } So I am trying to find some way to pass the string to this code without physically typing it. Yes, I could declare it as a string constant in Person (or something like that) but that would still be typing it twice. Phew! That was tough to explain!! Thanks Thanks to all who answered this * a lot*. It sent me on a new path to better understand lambda expressions. And it created a new question.

    Read the article

  • How to know when a user has really released a key in Java?

    - by Luis Soeiro
    (Edited for clarity) I want to detect when a user presses and releases a key in Java Swing, ignoring the keyboard auto repeat feature. I also would like a pure Java approach the works on Linux, Mac OS and Windows. Requirements: When the user presses some key I want to know what key is that; When the user releases some key, I want to know what key is that; I want to ignore the system auto repeat options: I want to receive just one keypress event for each key press and just one key release event for each key release; If possible, I would use items 1 to 3 to know if the user is holding more than one key at a time (i.e, she hits 'a' and without releasing it, she hits "Enter"). The problem I'm facing in Java is that under Linux, when the user holds some key, there are many keyPress and keyRelease events being fired (because of the keyboard repeat feature). I've tried some approaches with no success: Get the last time a key event occurred - in Linux, they seem to be zero for key repeat, however, in Mac OS they are not; Consider an event only if the current keyCode is different from the last one - this way the user can't hit twice the same key in a row; Here is the basic (non working) part of code: import java.awt.event.KeyListener; public class Example implements KeyListener { public void keyTyped(KeyEvent e) { } public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyPressed: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } public void keyReleased(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyReleased: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } } When a user holds a key (i.e, 'p') the system shows: KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271673 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637272023 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637272023 ... At least under Linux, the JVM keeps resending all the key events when a key is being hold. To make things more difficult, on my system (Kubuntu 9.04 Core 2 Duo) the timestamps keep changing. The JVM sends a key new release and new key press with the same timestamp. This makes it hard to know when a key is really released. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91  | Next Page >