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  • Reading three words and sorting them in lexicographic order

    - by Derrick
    I am trying to create a program that asks the User to type three words and sort them in lexicographic order. EXAMPLE; Enter three words separated by spaces: Pear Orange Apple Apple Orange Pear The program is working fine (if I attempt the above example) except for one type of combination example that I will show below. EXAMPLE; Enter three words separated by spaces: Orange Apple Pear Apple Pear Pear The program is skipping the first word (Orange) if it is supposed to appear in the middle of the three words. I believe that this line of code is affecting the program because it says that "this assigned value is never used" but I'm not sure how to fix it since I'm still an entry Java learner. middle = firstWord; Because of that line being unused, it's why Pear appeared twice. import java.util.*; public static void main(String[] args) { Scanner wordInput = new Scanner(System.in); String firstWord; String secondWord; String thirdWord; System.out.println("Enter three words separated by spaces: "); firstWord = wordInput.next(); secondWord = wordInput.next(); thirdWord = wordInput.next(); String top = firstWord; String bottom = firstWord; if( top.compareTo(secondWord) > 0) { top = secondWord; } if( top.compareTo(thirdWord) > 0) { top = thirdWord; } if( bottom.compareTo(secondWord) < 0) { bottom = secondWord; } if( bottom.compareTo(thirdWord) < 0) { bottom = thirdWord; } String middle; if( !firstWord.equals(bottom) && !firstWord.equals(top) ) { middle = firstWord; } if( !secondWord.equals(bottom) && !secondWord.equals(top) ) { middle = secondWord; } else { middle = thirdWord; } System.out.println( top ); System.out.println( middle ); System.out.println( bottom ); } } Does anyone what I am missing or doing wrong? :( Please and thank you for any help!

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  • How can I embed a conditional comment for IE with innerHTML?

    - by Samuel Charpentier
    Ok so I want to conditionally add this line of code; <!--[if ! IE]> <embed src="logo.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> <![endif]--> Using: document.getElementById("logo") .innerHTML='...'; In a if()/else() statement and it don't write it! If i get rid of the selective comment ( <!--[if ! IE]><![endif]-->) and only put the SVG ( <embed src="logo.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> ) it work! what should I do? I found a way around but i think in the Android browser the thing will pop up twice. here's what I've done ( and its Validated stuff!); <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <META CHARSET="UTF-8"> <title>SVG Test</title> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ onload=function() { var ua = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); var isAndroid = ua.indexOf("android") > -1; //&& ua.indexOf("mobile"); if(isAndroid) { document.getElementById("logo").innerHTML='<img src="fin_palais.png"/>'; } } //]]> </script> </head> <body> <div id="logo"> <!--[if lt IE 9]> <img src="fin_palais.png"/> <![endif]--> <!--[if gte IE 9]><!--> <embed src="fin_palais.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> <!--<![endif]--> </div> </body>

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  • DRY-ing very similar specs for ASP.NET MVC controller action with MSpec (BDD guidelines)

    - by spapaseit
    Hi all, I have two very similar specs for two very similar controller actions: VoteUp(int id) and VoteDown(int id). These methods allow a user to vote a post up or down; kinda like the vote up/down functionality for StackOverflow questions. The specs are: VoteDown: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 10; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteDown(1); It should_decrement_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(9); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } VoteUp: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 0; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteUp(1); It should_increment_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(1); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } So I have two questions: How should I go about DRY-ing these two specs? Is it even advisable or should I actually have one spec per controller action? I know I Normally should, but this feels like repeating myself a lot. Is there any way to implement the second It within the same spec? Note that the It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; requires me the spec to call controller.VoteDown(1) twice. I know the easiest would be to create a separate spec for it too, but it'd be copying and pasting the same code yet again... I'm still getting the hang of BDD (and MSpec) and many times it is not clear which way I should go, or what the best practices or guidelines for BDD are. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Why does the Ternary\Conditional operator seem significantly faster

    - by Jodrell
    Following on from this question, which I have partially answered. I compile this console app in x64 Release Mode, with optimizations on, and run it from the command line without a debugger attached. using System; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { var stopwatch = new Stopwatch(); var ternary = Looper(10, Ternary); var normal = Looper(10, Normal); if (ternary != normal) { throw new Exception(); } stopwatch.Start(); ternary = Looper(10000000, Ternary); stopWatch.Stop(); Console.WriteLine( "Ternary took {0}ms", stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds); stopwatch.Start(); normal = Looper(10000000, Normal); stopWatch.Stop(); Console.WriteLine( "Normal took {0}ms", stopwatch.ElapsedMilliseconds); if (ternary != normal) { throw new Exception(); } Console.ReadKey(); } static int Looper(int iterations, Func<bool, int, int> operation) { var result = 0; for (int i = 0; i < iterations; i++) { var condition = result % 11 == 4; var value = ((i * 11) / 3) % 5; result = operation(condition, value); } return result; } static int Ternary(bool condition, in value) { return value + (condition ? 2 : 1); } static int Normal(int iterations) { if (condition) { return = 2 + value; } return = 1 + value; } } I don't get any exceptions and the output to the console is somthing close to, Ternary took 107ms Normal took 230ms When I break down the CIL for the two logical functions I get this, ... Ternary ... { : ldarg.1 // push second arg : ldarg.0 // push first arg : brtrue.s T // if first arg is true jump to T : ldc.i4.1 // push int32(1) : br.s F // jump to F T: ldc.i4.2 // push int32(2) F: add // add either 1 or 2 to second arg : ret // return result } ... Normal ... { : ldarg.0 // push first arg : brfalse.s F // if first arg is false jump to F : ldc.i4.2 // push int32(2) : ldarg.1 // push second arg : add // add second arg to 2 : ret // return result F: ldc.i4.1 // push int32(1) : ldarg.1 // push second arg : add // add second arg to 1 : ret // return result } Whilst the Ternary CIL is a little shorter, it seems to me that the execution path through the CIL for either function takes 3 loads and 1 or 2 jumps and a return. Why does the Ternary function appear to be twice as fast. I underdtand that, in practice, they are both very quick and indeed, quich enough but, I would like to understand the discrepancy.

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  • Android browser touch events stop display being updated inc. canvas/elements - How to work around?

    - by Ed Kirk
    On some android's native browser touching the page seems to stop the display from being updated until the finger is released. This occurs for both html element based animation (switching classes) and for canvas based animation. It does not however stop normal js execution and other events are fired as normal. On devices with this problem the dolphin browser also seems effected (not firefox though). Touchstart/move both have preventDefault() fired as well as stopPropergation(), cancelBubble = true; and e.returnValue = false;. In the CSS webkit selection has also been disabled. The page will not scroll. A similar question has been asked here: Does Android browser lock DOM on touchStart? but I'd like to find out if this behaviour can be overcome, or at least to discover what devices will be effected by the problem, is it a device or version android issue? If you cannot answer the question running the demo and reporting your experience along with your device model and useragent (displayed at bottom of demo page) as a comment might help others or myself answer the question. Here is a demo and steps to reproduce the behaviour. A QR code for the link can be found here https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/tmp.png. https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/index.html The web page has a canvas at the top and a div with a background image at the bottom. Every second the canvas is cleared and a different image displayed and the div has it's class switched (both toggle between 0 and 1 pngs). Once this has toggled a few times place your finger on the canvas (the top grey box) and hold it there. Wait to see if the animation continues (sometimes it will once or twice then stops) and if there are any visual distortions. Update It seems that the Galaxy Tab running 3.2 requires handlers for touchstart/end of document, not just required divs for the screen to continue updating the display. Thanks jimpic. I'm starting to believe it's an issue caused by manufacturers skins, although this is difficult to prove.

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  • asp.net Wizard control strange issue

    - by epitka
    Update: There was actually a hidden panel with validator in the user control that was causing page not to be valid on the first postback. Consider this issue resolved. This is first time I am using this control and it is behaving rather strange. I have to click on the "Next" button twice for it to move to the next step. I tried explicitly setting active index, using MoveTo etc. Nothing works. Here is the markup for the control. Anybody has any ideas why? <asp:Wizard ID="UserWizard" runat="server" ActiveStepIndex="0" StartNextButtonImageUrl = "~/App_Themes/Default/images/buttons/continue.gif" StartNextButtonType="Image" StepNextButtonType="Image" StepNextButtonImageUrl="~/App_Themes/Default/images/buttons/continue.gif" FinishPreviousButtonImageUrl="~/App_Themes/Default/images/buttons/back.gif" FinishPreviousButtonType="Image" FinishCompleteButtonImageUrl="~/App_Themes/Default/images/buttons/save.gif" FinishCompleteButtonType="Image" CancelButtonType="Image" CancelButtonImageUrl="~/App_Themes/Default/images/buttons/back.gif" DisplaySideBar="false" > <WizardSteps> <asp:WizardStep Title="User Profile" ID="UserProfile" runat="server"> <uhc:ctlUserProfileEdit ID="ctlUserProfileEdit" runat="server"> </uhc:ctlUserProfileEdit> <br clear="all" /> <div> <asp:ImageButton ID="cmdResetPassword" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/App_Themes/Default/images/buttons/resetpassword.gif" /> </div> <div> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upSchools" runat="server" ChildrenAsTriggers="true"> <ContentTemplate> <uhc:ctlSchoolLocationSelector ID="ctlSchoolLocationSelector" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </asp:WizardStep> <asp:WizardStep Title="Roles" ID="Roles" runat="server"> <uhc:ctlPermissionInternal ID="ctlPermissionInternal1" runat="server"></uhc:ctlPermissionInternal> <uhc:ctlPermissionExternal ID="ctlPermissionExternal1" runat="server"></uhc:ctlPermissionExternal> </asp:WizardStep> </WizardSteps> </asp:Wizard>

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  • Bug in Safari: options.length = 0; not working as expected in Safari 4

    - by Stefan
    This is not a real question, but rather an answer to save some others the hassle of tracking this nasty bug down. I wasted hours finding this out. When using options.length = 0; to reset all options of a select element in safari, you can get mixed results depending on wether you have the Web Inspector open or not. If the web inspector is open you use myElement.options.length = 0; and after that query the options.length(), you might get back 1 instead of 0 (expected) but only if the Web Inspector is open (which is often the case when debugging problem like this). Workaround: Close the Web Inspector or call myElement.options.length = 0; twice like so: myElement.options.length = 0; myElement.options.length = 0; Testcase: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>Testcase</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" charset="utf-8"> function test(el){ var el = document.getElementById("sel"); alert("Before calling options.length=" + el.options.length); el.options.length = 0; alert("After calling options.length=" + el.options.length); } </script> </head> <body onLoad="test();"> <p> Make note of the numbers displayed in the Alert Dialog, then open Web inspector, reload this page and compare the numbers. </p> <select id="sel" multiple> <option label="a----------" value="a"></option> <option label="b----------" value="b"></option> <option label="c----------" value="c"></option> </select> </body> </html>

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  • Dynamic allocating of const member structures

    - by Willy
    I've got class which is using plain-only-data struct with const variables and I'm not sure, if I'm allocating these structures in a proper way. It looks more or less like: #include <cstdlib> #include <iostream> using std::cout; using std::endl; struct some_const_struct { const int arg1; const int arg2; }; class which_is_using_above_struct { public: some_const_struct* m_member; const some_const_struct* const m_const_member; public: const some_const_struct& get_member() const { return *m_member; } const some_const_struct& get_const_member() const { return *m_const_member; } void set_member(const int a, const int b) { if(m_member != NULL) { delete m_member; m_member = NULL; } m_member = new some_const_struct((some_const_struct){a, b}); } explicit which_is_using_above_struct(const int a, const int b) : m_const_member(new some_const_struct((const some_const_struct){a, b})) { m_member = NULL; } ~which_is_using_above_struct() { if(m_member != NULL) { delete m_member; } if(m_const_member != NULL) { delete m_const_member; } } }; int main() { which_is_using_above_struct c(1, 2); c.set_member(3, 4); cout << "m_member.arg1 = " << c.get_member().arg1 << endl; cout << "m_member.arg2 = " << c.get_member().arg2 << endl; cout << "m_const_member.arg1 = " << c.get_const_member().arg1 << endl; cout << "m_const_member.arg2 = " << c.get_const_member().arg2 << endl; return 0; } I'm just not quite sure if the statement: m_member = new some_const_struct((some_const_struct){a, b}); doesn't produce unnessesary use of some_const_struct's copy constructor, ergo allocating that struct twice. What do you think? And is it reasonable to make that struct's members const? (they're not supposed to change in their lifetime at all)

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  • Distinguishing between failure and end of file in read loop

    - by celtschk
    The idiomatic loop to read from an istream is while (thestream >> value) { // do something with value } Now this loop has one problem: It will not distinguish if the loop terminated due to end of file, or due to an error. For example, take the following test program: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> void readbools(std::istream& is) { bool b; while (is >> b) { std::cout << (b ? "T" : "F"); } std::cout << " - " << is.good() << is.eof() << is.fail() << is.bad() << "\n"; } void testread(std::string s) { std::istringstream is(s); is >> std::boolalpha; readbools(is); } int main() { testread("true false"); testread("true false tr"); } The first call to testread contains two valid bools, and therefore is not an error. The second call ends with a third, incomplete bool, and therefore is an error. Nevertheless, the behaviour of both is the same. In the first case, reading the boolean value fails because there is none, while in the second case it fails because it is incomplete, and in both cases EOF is hit. Indeed, the program above outputs twice the same line: TF - 0110 TF - 0110 To solve this problem, I thought of the following solution: while (thestream >> std::ws && !thestream.eof() && thestream >> value) { // do something with value } The idea is to detect regular EOF before actually trying to extract the value. Because there might be whitespace at the end of the file (which would not be an error, but cause read of the last item to not hit EOF), I first discard any whitespace (which cannot fail) and then test for EOF. Only if I'm not at the end of file, I try to read the value. For my example program, it indeed seems to work, and I get TF - 0100 TF - 0110 So in the first case (correct input), fail() returns false. Now my question: Is this solution guaranteed to work, or was I just (un-)lucky that it happened to give the desired result? Also: Is there a simpler (or, if my solution is wrong, a correct) way to get the desired result?

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  • jQuery - Save to SQL via PHP

    - by Kenny Bones
    This is probably easy for you guys, but I can't understand it. I want to save the filename of an image to it's own row in the SQL base. Basically, I log on to the site where I have my own userID. And each user has its own column for background images. And the user can choose his own image if he wants to. So basically, when the user clicks on the image he wants, a jquery click event occurs and an ajax call is made to a php file which is supposed to take care of the actual update. The row for each user always exist so there's only an update of the data that's necessary. First, I collect the filename of the css property 'background-image' and split it so I get only the filename. I then store that filename in a variable I call 'filename' which is then passed on to this jQuery snippet: $.ajax({ url: 'save_to_db.php', data: filename, dataType:'Text', type: 'POST', success: function(data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); And this is the php: <?php require("dbconnect.php") ?> <?php $uploadstring = ($_POST['filename']); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = $uploadstring WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id'] .""; mysql_close(); ?> Basically, each user has their own ID and this is called 'brukerID' The table everything is in is called 'brukere' and the column I'm supposed to update is the one called 'brukerBakgrunn' When I just run the javascript snippet, I get this message box in return where it says: Background changed to: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';' in /var/www/clients/client2/web8/web/save_to_db.php on line 8 I actualle get this messagebox twice, not sure why. Line 8 in 'save_to_db.php' is this one: mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = $uploadstring WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id'] .""; Not sure if you need to see db_connect.php as well. I can add that later if you need to see it. So what am I missing here?

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  • Jquery question : maintain focus upon appending a row?

    - by PoppySeedsAndAppleJuice
    The function below checks whether the id entered is already in the database, and if it is, then it adds some html to the table. I'm not sure if it's directly related to my issue or not, but, essentially, a user will place the focus on the id input field and enters an id. Using ajax, it posts to a php script and returns data if rows are found and nothing if it doesn't. If the user then tabs over to the next input field (zipcode), or clicks in another input field, they essentially have to do so twice. The cursor "flashes" in the field briefly and then focuses out. I tried adding in a focus(), but the behavior didn't change. So, the html looks like this: <table id="tableSearchData" class="searchlist" style="width: 789px;"> <thead> <tr> <th>ID</th> <th>Zip Code</th> <th>Radius (in miles)</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr class="odd"> <!-- PROBLEM is described below --> <!-- User clicks in <input name="id[]"> and ID is checked --> <!-- User presses "tab" or clicks in <input name="zipcode[] (in the *same* row) and cursor flashes, then goes out of focus so that the user has to click in the field again --> <td class="center sorting_1"><input type="text" value="" name="id[]"></td> <td class="center"><input type="text" value="" name="zipcode[]"></td> <td class="center"><input type="text" value="" name="radius[]"></td> </tr> </tbody> </table> Here's the jquery function... Like I said, I'm not sure if it's directly related to the problem I'm having, but, thought I should include it because I suppose it's likely there is something happening there... $("#tableSearchData > tbody > tr > td > input[name=id[]]").focusout(function() { var row = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); var sData = $(this).serialize(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "checkid.php", data: sData, success: function(html) { $(row).replaceWith(html); $(".preset").each(function() { $(this).attr("disabled", true); }); $(row).closest("input[name=zipcode[]]").focus(); } }); });

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  • Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

    - by steve.tse
    I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

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  • RequestFactoryEditorDriver getting edited data after flush

    - by Deanna
    Let me start with I have a solution, but I don't really think it is elegant. So, I am looking for a cleaner way to do this. I have an EntityProxy displayed in a view panel. The view panel is a RequestFactoryEditorDriver only using display mode. The user clicks on a data element and opens a popup editor to edit a data element of the EntityProxy with a few more bits of data than is displayed in the view panel. When the user saves the element I need the view panel to update the display. I ran into a problem because the RequestFactoryEditorDriver of the popup editor flow doesn't let you get to the edited data. The driver uses the passed in context and sends it to the server. The context returned out of flush only allows a Receiver even if you cast it to the type of context you stored in the editor driver in the edit() call. It doesn't appear to send and EntityProxyChanged event either, so I couldn't listen for that and update the display view. The solution I found was to change my domain object persist to return the newly saved entity. Then create the popup editor like this editor.getSaveButtonClickHandler().addClickHandler(createSaveHandler(driver, editor)); // initialize the Driver and edit the given text. driver.initialize(rf, editor); PlayerProfileCtx ctx = rf.playerProfile(); ctx.persist().using(playerProfile).with(driver.getPaths()) .to(new Receiver<PlayerProfileProxy>(){ @Override public void onSuccess(PlayerProfileProxy profile) { editor.hide(); playerProfile = profile; viewDriver.display(playerProfile); } }); driver.edit(playerProfile, ctx); editor.centerAndShow(); Then in the save handler I just fire the context I get from the flush. While this approach works, it doesn't seem right. It would seem I should subscribe to the entitychanged event in the display view and update the entity and the view from there. Also this approach saves the complete entity, not just the changed bits, which will increase bandwidth usage. What I would think should happen, is when you flush the entity it should 'optimistically' update the rf managed version of the entity and fire the entity proxy changed event. Only reverting the entity if something went wrong in the save. The actual save should only send the changed bits. In this way there isn't a need to refetch the whole entity and send that complete data over the wire twice. Is there a better solution?

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  • how to invoke an activity of a library project from an android apps

    - by Austin
    I have an open source android code that I need to use in my android apps. It has all the source code as well as resource files, manifest files and class path. It can be compiled as a separate android apps. I have constraints for using the open source. 1. I can't change a single line of code. 2. I can't use it as a separate apps. These constraints are non negotiable. What I have done is I have compiled the open source as class library(in Eclipse: Project Properties-Android- Tick check box Is Library). This has resulted in generation of .class files(in bin) for the java files and resource files. This open source has an android activity that i want to open from my application. So I have linked the directory of these sets of class files in the source section of my java build path( in .classpath). I have declared the activity in my manifest file with proper action intent filters. Now when I am trying to call activity from my code, its not working. Cleaning and rebuilding doesn't help. However, if I build the open source project and my apps in the same workspace of eclipse and link the open source in my apps in exact same manner it works fine. I am not able to identify the difference. All settings seems to be same(all files are identical in both the cases). But only in the second case it works. I have tried it as jar file also. I have build the open source as project library and exported it into a jar file(excluding manifest file). But in that case I am getting the following error UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: .... Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 This I guess is coming because the android library(2.2) has been included twice in my apps( one for building my apps & another for building the open source). I dont know how to avoid this. Cleaning the project doesn't help. What i require is to use the open source and invoking it's activities in my apps without violating the constraints. If i can use the open source as bunch of .class files then great, or else any other way will do fine. Please look into it and let me know. Thanks

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  • Simple jquery Fade Slideshow fails on certain browsers

    - by cmay
    So I have a simple slideshow on my website which just shows one image then shows another until it reaches the end or the user hits skip in which case it shows index.html. The site is served on apache2 with Django. The slideshow works perfectly on most machines, but certain machines it shows some images twice and other images not at all and the timing is off. I am using jquery 1.4.3. Below is the section of html where I push the image urls from the database to the javascript {% for image in latest_images %} {% thumbnail image.image_file "800x600" crop="center" as im %} <script>FadeImageList.push("{{im.url}}");</script> {% endthumbnail %} {% endfor %} Below is the full javascript file var FadeImageList = []; var fadeDuration = 2000; var fadeImgID = '#slideShow'; var homePageID = '#homePage'; var menuID = '#menu'; var skipFlag = 0; $(document).ready(function(){ $(homePageID).fadeOut(50); PlaySlideshow(FadeImageList); }); var PlaySlideshow = function(FadeImageList){ var newImgSrc = FadeImageList.shift(); $('#skip').click(function(){$('#loader').show();skipFlag = 1;}); if(((typeof(newImgSrc) !== "string") || (skipFlag === 1))){ EndSlideShow(); return; } else{ $(fadeImgID).fadeOut(fadeDuration,function(){ $(fadeImgID).attr('src', newImgSrc); $(fadeImgID).fadeIn(fadeDuration,function(){ PlaySlideshow(FadeImageList); }); }); } }; var EndSlideShow = function(fadeSettings){ $(fadeImgID).fadeOut(400,function(){ $(homePageID).fadeIn(400); $("#skip").fadeOut(400); $('#loader').hide(); }); }; The strange thing is I've had it work and fail on identically version numbered browsers on the same os but on different machines. It consistently either works or fails on a machine. I've had it fail in ie 7,8 firefox 3.6.3 and chrome. I've also had it succeed in ie6,7,8 firefox 3.6.3,3.4.2,3.1 and chrome.

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  • Sorting a list of numbers with modified cost

    - by David
    First, this was one of the four problems we had to solve in a project last year and I couldn’t find a suitable algorithm so we handle in a brute force solution. Problem: The numbers are in a list that is not sorted and supports only one type of operation. The operation is defined as follows: Given a position i and a position j the operation moves the number at position i to position j without altering the relative order of the other numbers. If i j, the positions of the numbers between positions j and i - 1 increment by 1, otherwise if i < j the positions of the numbers between positions i+1 and j decreases by 1. This operation requires i steps to find a number to move and j steps to locate the position to which you want to move it. Then the number of steps required to move a number of position i to position j is i+j. We need to design an algorithm that given a list of numbers, determine the optimal (in terms of cost) sequence of moves to rearrange the sequence. Attempts: Part of our investigation was around NP-Completeness, we make it a decision problem and try to find a suitable transformation to any of the problems listed in Garey and Johnson’s book: Computers and Intractability with no results. There is also no direct reference (from our point of view) to this kind of variation in Donald E. Knuth’s book: The art of Computer Programing Vol. 3 Sorting and Searching. We also analyzed algorithms to sort linked lists but none of them gives a good idea to find de optimal sequence of movements. Note that the idea is not to find an algorithm that orders the sequence, but one to tell me the optimal sequence of movements in terms of cost that organizes the sequence, you can make a copy and sort it to analyze the final position of the elements if you want, in fact we may assume that the list contains the numbers from 1 to n, so we know where we want to put each number, we are just concerned with minimizing the total cost of the steps. We tested several greedy approaches but all of them failed, divide and conquer sorting algorithms can’t be used because they swap with no cost portions of the list and our dynamic programing approaches had to consider many cases. The brute force recursive algorithm takes all the possible combinations of movements from i to j and then again all the possible moments of the rest of the element’s, at the end it returns the sequence with less total cost that sorted the list, as you can imagine the cost of this algorithm is brutal and makes it impracticable for more than 8 elements. Our observations: n movements is not necessarily cheaper than n+1 movements (unlike swaps in arrays that are O(1)). There are basically two ways of moving one element from position i to j: one is to move it directly and the other is to move other elements around i in a way that it reaches the position j. At most you make n-1 movements (the untouched element reaches its position alone). If it is the optimal sequence of movements then you didn’t move the same element twice.

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  • Solve a maze using multicores?

    - by acidzombie24
    This question is messy, i dont need a working solution, i need some psuedo code. How would i solve this maze? This is a homework question. I have to get from point green to red. At every fork i need to 'spawn a thread' and go that direction. I need to figure out how to get to red but i am unsure how to avoid paths i already have taken (finishing with any path is ok, i am just not allowed to go in circles). Heres an example of my problem, i start by moving down and i see a fork so one goes right and one goes down (or this thread can take it, it doesnt matter). Now lets ignore the rest of the forks and say the one going right hits the wall, goes down, hits the wall and goes left, then goes up. The other thread goes down, hits the wall then goes all the way right. The bottom path has been taken twice, by starting at different sides. How do i mark this path has been taken? Do i need a lock? Is this the only way? Is there a lockless solution? Implementation wise i was thinking i could have the maze something like this. I dont like the solution because there is a LOT of locking (assuming i lock before each read and write of the haveTraverse member). I dont need to use the MazeSegment class below, i just wrote it up as an example. I am allowed to construct the maze however i want. I was thinking maybe the solution requires no connecting paths and thats hassling me. Maybe i could split the map up instead of using the format below (which is easy to read and understand). But if i knew how to split it up i would know how to walk it thus the problem. How do i walk this maze efficiently? The only hint i receive was dont try to conserve memory by reusing it, make copies. However that was related to a problem with ordering a list and i dont think the hint was a hint for this. class MazeSegment { enum Direction { up, down, left, right} List<Pair<Direction, MazeSegment*>> ConnectingPaths; int line_length; bool haveTraverse; } MazeSegment root; class MazeSegment { enum Direction { up, down, left, right} List<Pair<Direction, MazeSegment*>> ConnectingPaths; bool haveTraverse; } void WalkPath(MazeSegment segment) { if(segment.haveTraverse) return; segment.haveTraverse = true; foreach(var v in segment) { if(v.haveTraverse == false) spawn_thread(v); } } WalkPath(root);

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  • Lithium: Run filter after find() to format output

    - by Housni
    I wanted to specify the output of a field from within my model so I added a date key to my $_schema: models/Tags.php <?php protected $_schema = array( 'id' => array('type' => 'integer', 'key' => 'primary'), 'title' => array('type' => 'string'), 'created' => array('type' => 'integer', 'date' => 'F jS, Y - g:i a'), 'modified' => array('type' => 'integer') ); ?> I store my time as an unsigned integer in the db (output of time()). I want my base model to format any field that has the date key for output. I thought the best place to do that would be right after a find: extensions/data/Model.php <?php static::applyFilter('find', function($self, $params, $chain) { $schema = $self::schema(); $entity = $chain->next($self, $params, $chain); foreach ($schema as $field => $options) { if (array_key_exists('date', $options)) { //format as a date $params['data'][$field] = $entity->formatDate($field, $options['date']); } } return $entity; }); public function formatdate($entity, $field, $format, $timezone = 'Asia/Colombo') { $dt = new \DateTime(); $tz = new \DateTimeZone($timezone); $dt->setTimestamp($entity->$field); $dt->setTimezone($tz); return $dt->format($format); } ?> This doesn't seem to be working. When I execute a find all, this filter seems to get hit twice. The first time, $entity contains a count() of the results and only on the second hit does it contain the Records object. What am I doing wrong? How do I alter this so that simply doing <?= $tag->created; ?> in my view will format the date the way I want? This, essentially, needs to be an 'after filter', of sorts. EDIT If I can find a way to access the current model entity object (not the full namespaced path, $self contains that), I can probably solve my problem.

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  • Calculating all distances between one point and a group of points efficiently in R

    - by dbarbosa
    Hi, First of all, I am new to R (I started yesterday). I have two groups of points, data and centers, the first one of size n and the second of size K (for instance, n = 3823 and K = 10), and for each i in the first set, I need to find j in the second with the minimum distance. My idea is simple: for each i, let dist[j] be the distance between i and j, I only need to use which.min(dist) to find what I am looking for. Each point is an array of 64 doubles, so > dim(data) [1] 3823 64 > dim(centers) [1] 10 64 I have tried with for (i in 1:n) { for (j in 1:K) { d[j] <- sqrt(sum((centers[j,] - data[i,])^2)) } S[i] <- which.min(d) } which is extremely slow (with n = 200, it takes more than 40s!!). The fastest solution that I wrote is distance <- function(point, group) { return(dist(t(array(c(point, t(group)), dim=c(ncol(group), 1+nrow(group)))))[1:nrow(group)]) } for (i in 1:n) { d <- distance(data[i,], centers) which.min(d) } Even if it does a lot of computation that I don't use (because dist(m) computes the distance between all rows of m), it is way more faster than the other one (can anyone explain why?), but it is not fast enough for what I need, because it will not be used only once. And also, the distance code is very ugly. I tried to replace it with distance <- function(point, group) { return (dist(rbind(point,group))[1:nrow(group)]) } but this seems to be twice slower. I also tried to use dist for each pair, but it is also slower. I don't know what to do now. It seems like I am doing something very wrong. Any idea on how to do this more efficiently? ps: I need this to implement k-means by hand (and I need to do it, it is part of an assignment). I believe I will only need Euclidian distance, but I am not yet sure, so I will prefer to have some code where the distance computation can be replaced easily. stats::kmeans do all computation in less than one second.

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  • jquery: find common elements in 2 sets of divs

    - by tsiger
    For a markup like this: <div id="set1"> <div id="100">a div</div> <div id="101">another div</div> <div id="102">another div 2</div> <div id="120">same div</div> </div> <div id="set2"> <div id="105">a different div> <div id="101">another div</div> <div id="110">more divs</div> <div id="120">same div</div> </div> As you can see both #set1 and #set2 contain 2 divs with the same id (101, 120). Is it possible somehow with jQuery to find the common elements and add a class to the divs in #set1 that have the same id with divs in #set2? In other words after the script run the above code would look like this: <div id="set1"> <div id="100">a div</div> <div id="101" class="added">another div</div> <div id="102">another div 2</div> <div id="120" class="added">same div</div> </div> <div id="set2"> <div id="105">a different div> <div id="101">another div</div> <div id="110">more divs</div> <div id="120">same div</div> </div> EDIT playing around with it i did something but i am not sure it can go anywhere. I created an array with the ids in both sets and in Firebug i can see an array with the values var arrEl = []; $('#set1 div, #set2 div').each( function(index) { var id = $(this).attr('id'); arrEl.push(id); //maybe somehow check the array for the values that appear twice, and add the class to the //matching divs? });

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  • Indexing on only part of a field in MongoDB

    - by Rob Hoare
    Is there a way to create an index on only part of a field in MongoDB, for example on the first 10 characters? I couldn't find it documented (or asked about on here). The MySQL equivalent would be CREATE INDEX part_of_name ON customer (name(10));. Reason: I have a collection with a single field that varies in length from a few characters up to over 1000 characters, average 50 characters. As there are a hundred million or so documents it's going to be hard to fit the full index in memory (testing with 8% of the data the index is already 400MB, according to stats). Indexing just the first part of the field would reduce the index size by about 75%. In most cases the search term is quite short, it's not a full-text search. A work-around would be to add a second field of 10 (lowercased) characters for each item, index that, then add logic to filter the results if the search term is over ten characters (and that extra field is probably needed anyway for case-insensitive searches, unless anybody has a better way). Seems like an ugly way to do it though. [added later] I tried adding the second field, containing the first 12 characters from the main field, lowercased. It wasn't a big success. Previously, the average object size was 50 bytes, but I forgot that includes the _id and other overheads, so my main field length (there was only one) averaged nearer to 30 bytes than 50. Then, the second field index contains the _id and other overheads. Net result (for my 8% sample) is the index on the main field is 415MB and on the 12 byte field is 330MB - only a 20% saving in space, not worthwhile. I could duplicate the entire field (to work around the case insensitive search problem) but realistically it looks like I should reconsider whether MongoDB is the right tool for the job (or just buy more memory and use twice as much disk space). [added even later] This is a typical document, with the source field, and the short lowercased field: { "_id" : ObjectId("505d0e89f56588f20f000041"), "q" : "Continental Airlines", "f" : "continental " } Indexes: db.test.ensureIndex({q:1}); db.test.ensureIndex({f:1}); The 'f" index, working on a shorter field, is 80% of the size of the "q" index. I didn't mean to imply I included the _id in the index, just that it needs to use that somewhere to show where the index will point to, so it's an overhead that probably helps explain why a shorter key makes so little difference. Access to the index will be essentially random, no part of it is more likely to be accessed than any other. Total index size for the full file will likely be 5GB, so it's not extreme for that one index. Adding some other fields for other search cases, and their associated indexes, and copies of data for lower case, does start to add up, which I why I started looking into a more concise index.

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  • IIS logs show sc-win32-status=64 but only through some networks

    - by wweicker
    I have an ASP.NET application running on a client server (W2k3, IIS6, .NET 2.0). FWIW, this is a Test instance, it hasn't been moved into Production yet. So it is not running under SSL, load balancing, etc. When I access one of the pages on their server from our office, the page gets hit once. Inspecting the IIS logs (c:WINDOWS\system32\LogFiles\W3SVC1) show a GET for that page, then I push a button on the page and the log file shows a POST. This seems to be working fine so far. Now when I remote into the client's network and access the page from one of their local machines, the log file shows a GET, then I push the button on the page and the log shows two POSTs at the same second. The first one shows status (sc-status, sc-substatus, sc-win32-status) 200 0 64, the second shows 200 0 0. In the log file, both POSTs are identical. Basically the log looks like this (except I masked some of the data): #Fields: date time s-ip cs-method cs-uri-stem cs-uri-query s-port cs-username c-ip cs(User-Agent) sc-status sc-substatus sc-win32-status 2009-08-11 20:19:32 x.x.x.x GET /File.aspx - 80 - y.y.y.y Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30618;+MDDR;+OfficeLiveConnector.1.4;+OfficeLivePatch.0.0) 200 0 0 2009-08-11 20:19:45 x.x.x.x POST /File.aspx - 80 - y.y.y.y Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30618;+MDDR;+OfficeLiveConnector.1.4;+OfficeLivePatch.0.0) 200 0 64 2009-08-11 20:19:45 x.x.x.x POST /File.aspx - 80 - y.y.y.y Mozilla/4.0+(compatible;+MSIE+8.0;+Windows+NT+6.0;+WOW64;+Trident/4.0;+SLCC1;+.NET+CLR+2.0.50727;+.NET+CLR+3.5.21022;+.NET+CLR+3.5.30729;+.NET+CLR+3.0.30618;+MDDR;+OfficeLiveConnector.1.4;+OfficeLivePatch.0.0) 200 0 0 The problem is, the page is getting hit twice. The database performs an operation for the first request, then the second request detects that a duplicate operation is being performed and throws an error message. The users think their operation failed, but it actually succeeded. The error description of sc-win32-status 64 is: "The specified network name is no longer available." This leads me to believe, given that both POST requests show an HTTP status of 200, that the server is successful in serving the request, but the client is never notified and resubmits the request. How can I troubleshoot this? Any ideas what could be causing this behavior on their internal network only? I should mention, this is happening at two separate client sites, but does not happen at six of our other client sites, or in our office, or connecting to any of our eight clients over the web. What could be making this reproducible 100% of the time on their local network but 0% of the time anywhere else? Update: I found a very small number of the duplicated POST requests had sc-win32-status of 995 instead of 64 as originally reported. The error description of sc-win32-status=995 is: "The I/O operation has been aborted because of either a thread exit or an application request." This doesn't make any sense (considering I have full access to the code). I still don't understand how or why this issue is occurring, but the new error code leads me to believe it may not be a network issue after all and I am now investigating the possibility of a random code bug.

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  • Why do GPUs overheat?

    - by JAD
    About a year ago, I added a 9800GT (1 GB version) and a Corsair CX500 PSU to an HP M8000N computer. A few weeks ago, the HDD overheated and I decided to transfer the GPU & PSU to a new build, which consists of: i3 @ 3.3Ghz Gigabyte H61 Micro ATX Mobo 4GB RAM 500GB WD HDD DVD RW Drive Cooler Master Elite 430 Tower Once I had Win7 up and running, I installed all the essential drivers that came with the Gigabyte Mobo CD. However, whenever I tried installing the Graphics Media Accelerator driver, the computer would crash and enter an endless boot sequence on the next startup. I skipped installing this driver and installed the CD driver for the 9800GT, which by now is a year old. Everything was working fine, WEI rated my GPU at 6.6 graphics & aero performance. However, after updating my Nvidia drivers to the latest, the WEI dropped my rating to 3.3 for Aero, and 4.7 for graphics performance. Just to make sure that everything was ok, I ran Bad Company 2 on medium settings. The first few minutes ran just fine at a smooth framerate, so I dismissed this as Windows being Windows. About 6 hours later, I ran BC2 again. This time I averaged anywhere from 2-5 FPS. I checked the GPU temperature through GPU-Z, and it came back as 120C. The problem with this, is that the computer was on for six hours up to that point. Wouldn't the card have experienced a reactor core meltdown a lot sooner than that? Granted, the computer was "sleeping" some of the time, but still... The next day I took out a temperature gun and ran some tests. I would point the laser at a very specific area on the reverse side of the card (not the fan or "front"), and compare the temp reading with GPU-Z. After leaving the system on idle on idle for a few minutes, I ran BC2 twice. Here are the results: GPU-Z Reading / Temp Gun Reading / Time Null / 22.3°C / Comp is Off 53°C / 33.5°C / 1:49 78°C / 46°C / 1:53 - (First BC2 run; good framerate) 102°C / 64.6°C / 2:01 - (System is again on idle) 113°C / 64.8°C / 2:10 119°C / 71.8°C / 2:17 - (Second BC2 run; poor framerate) I should also mention that I also took a temp recording of another part of the GPU from 2:01-2:17. The temp in this area jumped from 75°C to 82.9°C in that time frame. This pretty much confirms that GPU-Z is reporting the temperature accurately, and the card is overheating. But I'd like to know why; the cars is doing nothing and still the temperature climbs at a steady rate. I thoroughly cleaned the GPU and PSU when I salvaged them from the old HP M8000N computer with a can of compressed air, dust cant be the issue. Similarly, the rest of the computer is brand new. I installed various Nvidia drivers, but no luck. It seems strange to me that a year-old card is suddenly failing on me; aren't they supposed to last at least two years? Could this be a driver issue? Is the motherboard faulty? Could the PSU be overfeeding the card on voltage? Neither case seems likely, as the CPU, RAM and otherwise the rest of the comp has worked flawlessly and has stayed well within respectable temp ranges (the i3 lingers around 50C, the HDD stays at 30C, so does the PSU). How can I pinpoint the issue?

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  • Windows 2008 Unknown Disks

    - by Ailbe
    I have a BL460c G7 blade server with OS Windows 2008 R2 SP1. This is a brand new C7000 enclosure, with FlexFabric interconnects. I got my FC switches setup and zoned properly to our Clariion CX4, and can see all the hosts that are assigned FCoE HBAs on both paths in both Navisphere and in HP Virtual Connect Manager. So I went ahead and created a storage group for a test server, assigned the appropriate host, assigned the LUN to the server. So far so good, log onto server and I can see 4 unknown disks.... No problem, I install MS MPIO, no luck, can't initialize the disks, and the multiple disks don't go away. Still no problem, I install PowerPath version 5.5 reboot. Now I see 3 disks. One is initialized and ready to go, but I still have 2 disks that I can't initialize, can't offline, can't delete. If I right click in storage manager and go to properties I can see that the MS MPIO tab, but I can't make a path active. I want to get rid of these phantom disks, but so far nothing is working and google searches are showing up some odd results, so obviously I'm not framing my question right. I thought I'd ask here real quick. Does anyone know a quick way to get rid of these unknown disks. Another question, do I need the MPIO feature installed if I have PowerPath installed? This is my first time installing Windows 2008 R2 in this fashion and I'm not sure if that feature is needed or not right now. So some more information to add to this. It seems I'm dealing with more of a Windows issue than anything else. I removed the LUN from the server, uninstalled PowerPath completely, removed the MPIO feature from the server, and rebooted twice. Now I am back to the original 4 Unknown Disks (plus the local Disk 0 containing the OS partition of course, which is working fine) I went to diskpart, I could see all 4 Unknown disks, I selected each disk, ran clean (just in case i'd somehow brought them online previously as GPT and didn't realize it) After a few minutes I was no longer able to see the disks when I ran list disk. However, the disks are still in Disk Management. When I try and offline the disks from Disk Management I get an error: Virtual Disk Manager - The system cannot find the file specified. Accompanied by an error in System Event Logs: Log Name: System Source: Virtual Disk Service Date: 6/25/2012 4:02:01 PM Event ID: 1 Task Category: None Level: Error Keywords: Classic User: N/A Computer: hostname.local Description: Unexpected failure. Error code: 2@02000018 Event Xml: 1 2 0 0x80000000000000 4239 System hostname.local 2@02000018 I feel sure there is a place I can go in the Registry to get rid of these, I just can't recall where and I am loathe to experiement. So to recap, there are currently no LUNS attached at all, I still have the phantom disks, and I'm getting The system cannot find the file specified from Virtual Disk Manager when I try to take them offline. Thanks!

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  • How to get rid of a stubborn 'removed' device in mdadm

    - by T.J. Crowder
    One of my server's drives failed and so I removed the failed drive from all three relevant arrays, had the drive swapped out, and then added the new drive to the arrays. Two of the arrays worked perfectly. The third added the drive back as a spare, and there's an odd "removed" entry in the mdadm details. I tried both mdadm /dev/md2 --remove failed and mdadm /dev/md2 --remove detached as suggested here and here, neither of which complained, but neither of which had any effect, either. Does anyone know how I can get rid of that entry and get the drive added back properly? (Ideally without resyncing a third time, I've already had to do it twice and it takes hours. But if that's what it takes, that's what it takes.) The new drive is /dev/sda, the relevant partition is /dev/sda3. Here's the detail on the array: # mdadm --detail /dev/md2 /dev/md2: Version : 0.90 Creation Time : Wed Oct 26 12:27:49 2011 Raid Level : raid1 Array Size : 729952192 (696.14 GiB 747.47 GB) Used Dev Size : 729952192 (696.14 GiB 747.47 GB) Raid Devices : 2 Total Devices : 2 Preferred Minor : 2 Persistence : Superblock is persistent Update Time : Tue Nov 12 17:48:53 2013 State : clean, degraded Active Devices : 1 Working Devices : 2 Failed Devices : 0 Spare Devices : 1 UUID : 2fdbf68c:d572d905:776c2c25:004bd7b2 (local to host blah) Events : 0.34665 Number Major Minor RaidDevice State 0 0 0 0 removed 1 8 19 1 active sync /dev/sdb3 2 8 3 - spare /dev/sda3 If it's relevant, it's a 64-bit server. It normally runs Ubuntu, but right now I'm in the data centre's "rescue" OS, which is Debian 7 (wheezy). The "removed" entry was there the last time I was in Ubuntu (it won't, currently, boot from the disk), so I don't think that's not some Ubuntu/Debian conflict (and they are, of course, closely related). Update: Having done extensive tests with test devices on a local machine, I'm just plain getting anomalous behavior from mdadm with this array. For instance, with /dev/sda3 removed from the array again, I did this: mdadm /dev/md2 --grow --force --raid-devices=1 And that got rid of the "removed" device, leaving me just with /dev/sdb3. Then I nuked /dev/sda3 (wrote a file system to it, so it didn't have the raid fs anymore), then: mdadm /dev/md2 --grow --raid-devices=2 ...which gave me an array with /dev/sdb3 in slot 0 and "removed" in slot 1 as you'd expect. Then mdadm /dev/md2 --add /dev/sda3 ...added it — as a spare again. (Another 3.5 hours down the drain.) So with the rebuilt spare in the array, given that mdadm's man page says RAID-DEVICES CHANGES ... When the number of devices is increased, any hot spares that are present will be activated immediately. ...I grew the array to three devices, to try to activate the "spare": mdadm /dev/md2 --grow --raid-devices=3 What did I get? Two "removed" devices, and the spare. And yet when I do this with a test array, I don't get this behavior. So I nuked /dev/sda3 again, used it to create a brand-new array, and am copying the data from the old array to the new one: rsync -r -t -v --exclude 'lost+found' --progress /mnt/oldarray/* /mnt/newarray This will, of course, take hours. Hopefully when I'm done, I can stop the old array entirely, nuke /dev/sdb3, and add it to the new array. Hopefully, it won't get added as a spare!

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