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• Fetching e-mails into Redmine via IMAP

  - by Danilo Bargen

  I'm trying to fetch e-mails into Redmine via IMAP. The e-mails I'm generating look like this: FooBar Ltd 123456 http://example.com/Foobar-Ltd-123456.html Project: backend Tracker: Dataerror Beschreibung: This is the description =========================== CLIENT_IP: 192.168.1.215 HTTP_USER_AGENT: mozilla/asdfjköl I try to fetch them into Redmine via this command: rake -f /var/www/projects/redmine/Rakefile redmine:email:receive_imap \ RAILS_ENV="production" host=example.com port=993 ssl=true username=redmine \ password=1234 project=myproject tracker=other \ allow_override=project,tracker,category,priority \ move_on_success=read move_on_failure=failed But the e-mails get moved into the failed folder. I had this setup running some time ago with a different e-mail generator but pretty much the same template, and I can't figure out why it's not working. The permissions seem to be OK too. In order to further debug this issue, I need some logfiles. Are there any logfiles written by this command? Or are there any other suggestions to solve this issue? My environment: danilo@jabba:/var/www/projects/redmine$ RAILS_ENV=production script/about About your application's environment Ruby version 1.8.7 (i486-linux) RubyGems version 1.3.5 Rack version 1.0 Rails version 2.3.5 Active Record version 2.3.5 Active Resource version 2.3.5 Action Mailer version 2.3.5 Active Support version 2.3.5 Application root /var/www/projects/redmine Environment production Database adapter mysql Database schema version 20100819172912

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• Should I use /etc/bind/zones/ or /var/cache/bind/?

  - by nbolton

  Each tutorial seems to have a different opinion on this. For my ISC BIND zones, should I use /etc/bind/zones/ or /var/cache/bind/? In the last install, I used /var/cache/bind/ but only because I was guided to do so; however I just spotted a pid file in there for this new Debian install, so I figured that using the "working directory" to store zone files probably wasn't the best idea. It seems that many admins use this so they don't have to type the full path when declaring a new zone. For example: file "/etc/bind/zones/db.foobar.com"; Instead of: file "db.foobar.com"; Is obviously easier to type, but is it good or bad practice? Some may also suggest setting the working directory to /etc/bind/zones: options { // directory "/var/cache/bind"; directory "/etc/bind/zones"; } ... but something tells me this isn't good practice, since the pid file would be created there I assume (unless it's just in /var/cache/bind by coincidence). I took a look at the manpage but it didn't seem to say what the directory option was for, any ideas exactly what it was design for?

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• Trying to use Nginx try_files to emulate Apache MultiViews

  - by Samuel Bierwagen

  I want a request to http://example.com/foobar to return http://example.com/foobar.jpg. (Or .gif, .html, .whatever) This is trivial to do with Apache MultiViews, and it seems like it would be equally easy in Nginx. This question seems to imply that it'd be easy as try_files $uri $uri/ index.php; in the location block, but that doesn't work. try_files $uri $uri/ =404; doesn't work, nor does try_files $uri =404; or try_files $uri.* =404; Moving it between my location / { block and the regexp which matches images has no effect. Crucially, try_files $uri.jpg =404; does work, but only for .jpg files, and it throws a configuration error if I use more than one try_files rule in a location block! The current server { block: server { listen 80; server_name example.org www.example.org; access_log /var/log/nginx/vhosts.access.log; root /srv/www/vhosts/example; location / { root /srv/www/vhosts/example; } location ~* \.(?:ico|css|js|gif|jpe?g|es|png)$ { expires max; add_header Cache-Control public; try_files $uri =404; } } Nginx version is 1.1.14.

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• What does Apache's "Require all granted" really do?

  - by John Crawford

  I've just update my Apache server to Apache/2.4.6 which is running under Ubuntu 13.04. I used to have a vhost file that had the following: <Directory "/home/john/development/foobar/web"> AllowOverride All </Directory> But when I ran that I got a "Forbidden. You don't have permission to access /" After doing a little bit of googling I found out that to get my site working again I needed to add the following line "Require all granted" so that my vhost looked like this: <Directory "/home/john/development/foobar/web"> AllowOverride All Require all granted </Directory> I want to know if this is "safe" and does not bring in any security issues. I read on Apache's page that this "mimics the functionality the was previously provided by the 'Allow from all' and 'Deny from all' directives. This provider can take one of two arguments which are 'granted' or 'denied'. The following examples will grant or deny access to all requests." But it didn't say if this was a security issue of some sort or why we now have to do it when in the past you did not have to.

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• Apache 2: Mod_Rewrite Help - If/else for directory exists

  - by BHare

  This is my current and sloppy Apache 2 mod_rewrite. Keep in mine the part with site1 site2..etc has about 50 sites. RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mainsite\.org$ RewriteCond /home/%1/ -d RewriteRule ^(.+) %{HTTP_HOST}$1 RewriteRule ^([^.]+)\.mainsite\.org/media/(.*) /home/$1/special/media/$2 RewriteRule ^([^.]+)\.mainsite\.org/(.*) /home/$1/www/$2 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^mainsite\.org$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.mainsite.org$1 [R=302] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} (site1|site2|site3|site4)\.(com|net|biz|org|us)$ [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/media/ RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ /home/%1/www/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} (site1|site2|site3|site4)\.(com|biz|net|org|us)$ [NC] RewriteRule ^/media/(.*)$ /home/%1/special/media/$1 RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} favicon.ico$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /misc/favicon.ico So if someone tries to go to theirusername.mainsite.org it will check if /home/theirusername/ exists, and if it does use their www (/home/theirusername/www/) as the file location for web files. If they try they try to access theirusername.mainsite.org/media/ it will make a special file location to look for the file(s) at /home/theirusername/special/media/ I would like it if the username did NOT have /home/username that it would automatically default to www.mainsite.org. I am having a hard time understanding how to do skips and such. so: If someone went to notrealusername.mainsite.org/forum/ it would auto direct to www.mainsite.org/forum/ Extra: I am using repetitive code for other site for example lets say foobar has a website foobar.com, it goes through the same process as mainsite.org so figured maybe having something like: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+).(mainsite.org|com|net|biz|org)$ where I could have one major rule for all existing domains who have a /home/

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• Attempting to emulate Apache MultiViews with Nginx try_files

  - by Samuel Bierwagen

  I want a request to http://example.com/foobar to return http://example.com/foobar.jpg. (Or .gif, .html, .whatever) This is trivial to do with Apache MultiViews, and it seems like it would be equally easy in Nginx. This question seems to imply that it'd be easy as try_files $uri $uri/ index.php; in the location block, but that doesn't work. try_files $uri $uri/ =404; doesn't work, nor does try_files $uri =404; or try_files $uri.* =404; Moving it between my location / { block and the regexp which matches images has no effect. Crucially, try_files $uri.jpg =404; does work, but only for .jpg files, and it throws a configuration error if I use more than one try_files rule in a location block! The current server { block: server { listen 80; server_name example.org www.example.org; access_log /var/log/nginx/vhosts.access.log; root /srv/www/vhosts/example; location / { root /srv/www/vhosts/example; } location ~* \.(?:ico|css|js|gif|jpe?g|es|png)$ { expires max; add_header Cache-Control public; try_files $uri =404; } } Nginx version is 1.1.14.

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• ASP.Net RadioButton loses ViewState

  - by Carl

  I'm having trouble with a simple radio set of two radio buttons (I don't want to use a RadioButtonList [RBL] because RBL doesn't allow child controls, and in my case, if you select one option, I want to enable a textbox next to the button; yes you could hack this with jQuery to move the textbox, but that's dirty!). I would check one, submit the form (either explicitly or through AutoPostBack), and the CheckedChanged event would never fire. When the page was reloaded, both buttons would be unchecked, regardless of their initial state on non-postback load or the state before form submission. I took out the checkbox and stripped this down to the simplest example I could come up with. I tossed EnableViewState=true all over the place just in case it was being disabled somewhere I couldn't find. <form id="form1" runat="server" enableviewstate="true"> <div> <asp:RadioButton ID="foo" Text="foo" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnCheckedChanged="rbChanged" Checked="true" GroupName="foobar" EnableViewState="true" /> <asp:RadioButton ID="bar" Text="bar" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" GroupName="foobar" OnCheckedChanged="rbChanged" Checked="false" EnableViewState="true" /> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="resultLbl" /> </div> </form> protected void rbChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (foo.Checked) resultLbl.Text = "foo is checked"; else if (bar.Checked) resultLbl.Text = "bar is checked"; else resultLbl.Text = "neither is checked"; }

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• How to create an SaaS Application?

  - by Andrew

  I don't know how else to say it so I'm just going to explain my ideal scenario and hopefully you can explain to me how to implement it... I'm creating an application with the Zend Framework that will be hosted with DreamHost. The application will be hosted on its own domain (i.e. example-app.com). Basically, a user should be able to sign up, get their own domain sampleuser.example-app.com or example-app.com/sampleuser which points to, what looks like their own instance of the app, which is really a single instance serving up different content based on the url. Eventually, I want my users to be able to create their own domain (like foobar.com) that points to sampleuser.example-app.com, such that visitors to foobar.com don't notice that the site is really being served up from example-app.com. I don't know how to do most of that stuff. How does this process work? Do I need to do some funky stuff with Apache or can this be done with a third party host, like DreamHost? Update: Thanks for the advice! I've decided to bite the bullet and upgrade my hosting plan to utilize wildcard subdomains. It's cheaper than I was expecting! I also found out about domain reseller programs, like opensrs.com, that have their own API. I think using one of these APIs will be the solution to my domain registration issue.

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• template engine implementation

  - by qwerty

  I am currently building this small template engine. It takes a string containing the template in parameter, and a dictionary of "tags,values" to fill in the template. In the engine, I have no idea of the tags that will be in the template and the ones that won't. I am currently iterating (foreach) on the dictionnary, parsing my string that I have put in a string builder, and replacing the tags in the template by their corresponding value. Is there a more efficient/convenient way of doing this? I know the main drawback here is that the stringbuilder is parsed everytime entirely for each tag, which is quite bad... (I am also checking, though not included in the sample, after the process that my template does not contain any tag anymore. They are all formated in the same way: @@tag@@) //Dictionary<string, string> tagsValueCorrespondence; //string template; StringBuilder outputBuilder = new StringBuilder(template); foreach (string tag in tagsValueCorrespondence.Keys) { outputBuilder.Replace(tag, tagsValueCorrespondence[tag]); } template = outputBuilder.ToString(); Responses: @Marc: string template = "Some @@foobar@@ text in a @@bar@@ template"; StringDictionary data = new StringDictionary(); data.Add("foo", "value1"); data.Add("bar", "value2"); data.Add("foo2bar", "value3"); Output: "Some text in a value2 template" instead of: "Some @@foobar@@ text in a value2 template"

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• How do I connect to a Java command-line tool with the YourKit Java Profiler?

  - by Daryl Spitzer

  I've build a command-line tool in Java, which I would now like to profile with YourKit. I launch the command-line tool with something like: $ java -classpath .:foo.bar.jar com.foobar.tools.TheTool arg1 arg2 arg3 It runs to completion in less than 2 seconds. After reading http://www.yourkit.com/docs/80/help/agent.jsp, I tried the following: $ java -agentpath:/home/dspitzer/yjp-8.0.24/bin/linux-x86-32/libyjpagent.so -classpath .:foo.bar.jar com.foobar.tools.TheTool arg1 arg2 arg3 ...and I get: [YourKit Java Profiler 8.0.24] JVMTI version 3001016d; 14.3-b01; Sun Microsystems Inc.; mixed mode, sharing; Linux; 32-bit JVM [YourKit Java Profiler 8.0.24] Profiler agent is listening on port 10001... [YourKit Java Profiler 8.0.24] *** HINT ***: To get profiling results, connect to the application from the profiler UI ... But I guess YourKit is designed to only connect to running application. How should I modify my command-line tool to allow connection from YourKit? I could add a command-line option that will have it pause for input, and I won't press return for it to continue until I've connected to it from YourKit. Is there a YourKit API that I could add to my tool that would cause it to block until I've connected with YourKit? Is there a YourKit API or a java command-line option that would create a profiling "snapshot" that I could load and analyze later (after the command-line tool has completed) with YourKit?

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• Launch User Control in a tab control dynamically

  - by Redburn

  I have a custom built menu system in which I would like to load user controls from another project into a tab control on my main project (menu control) User control Project : foobar Menu system Project : Menu The function to load them into the tab control: private void LaunchWPFApplication(string header, string pPath) { // Header - What loads in the tabs header portion. // pPath - Page where to send the user //Create a new browser tab object BrowserTab bt = tabMain.SelectedItem as BrowserTab; bt = new BrowserTab(); bt.txtHeader.Text = header; bt.myParent = BrowserTabs; //Load in the path try { Type formType = Type.GetType(pPath, true); bt.Content = (UserControl)Activator.CreateInstance(formType); } catch { MessageBox.Show("The specified user control : " + pPath + " cannot be found"); } //Add the browser tab and then focus BrowserTabs.Add(bt); bt.IsSelected = true; } And what I send to the function as an example: LaunchWPFApplication("Calculater", "foobar.AppCalculater"); But every time run, the application complains that the formType is null. I am confused on how to load the user control and curious if I'm sending the correct parameters.

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• advanced Visual Studio kung-fu test -- Calling functions from the Immediate Window during debugging

  - by kizzx2

  I see some related questions have been asked, but they're either too advanced for me to grasp or lacking a step-by-step guide from start to finish (most of them end up being insider talk of their own experiment results). OK here it is, given this simple program: #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int main() { FILE * f; char buffer[100]; memset(buffer, 0, 100); fun(); f = fopen("main.cpp", "r"); fread(buffer, 1, 99, f); printf(buffer); fclose(f); return 0; } What it does is basically print itself (assume file name is main.cpp). Question How can I have it print another file, say foobar.txt without modifying the source code? It has something to do with running it through VS's, stepping through the functions and hijacking the FILE pointer right before fread() is called. No need to worry about leaking resources by calling fclose(). I tried the simple f = fopen("foobar.txt", "r") which gave CXX0017: Error: symbol "fopen" not found Any ideas? Edit I found out the solution accidentally on Debugging Mozilla on Windows FAQ. The correct command to put into the Immediate Window is f = {,,MSVCR100D}fopen("foo.txt", "r") However, it doesn't really answer this question: I still don't understand what is going on here. How to systematically find out the {,,MSVCR100D} part for any given method? I know the MSVCR version changes from system to system. How can I find that out? Could anyone explain the curly brace syntax, especially, what are those two commas doing there? Are there more hidden gems using this syntax?

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• How to give the menus associated with dojo's dijit.ComboBox different css from those of dijit.Menu

  - by sprugman

  When you use a dijit.ComboBox, the type ahead suggestions get implemented as a dijit.Menu. I've got a design which calls for the matched portion of the suggestion rows to be normal, and the unmatched portion to be bold. The structure that dojo creates is like this: <ul class="dijitReset dijitMenu"> <li role="option" class="dijitReset dijitMenuItem"> <span class="dijitComboBoxHighlightMatch">Ch</span>oice One </li> <li role="option" class="dijitReset dijitMenuItem"> <span class="dijitComboBoxHighlightMatch">Ch</span>oice Two </li> </ul> So I can target the matched part, but not the unmatched part. So my css needs to be something like: .dijitMenuItem { font-weight: bold; } .dijitMenuItem .dijitComboBoxHighlightMatch { font-weight: normal; } The problem is, if I do that, all menus will be bolded, and I don't want that. Just doing something like this: <select dojoType="dijit.form.ComboBox" class="foobar">[options]</select> puts the foobar class in the ComboBox, but the menu is an independent node not under that hierarchy. What's the easiest way to add a css class around the popup menu that the ComboBox generates?

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• Subscription website architecture questions + SQL Server & .NET

  - by chopps

  Hey Guys, I have a few questions about the architecture of a subscription service I am about to embark on and I am looking for some feedback on how best to set it up. I won’t have a large amount of customers as Basecamp, maybe a few hundred and was wondering what would be a solid architecture for setting up the customer sites. I’m running SQL Server and .NET on a dedicated machine. Should create a new database for each customer as to have control and isolation of data or keep them all in one database? I am also thinking of creating a sub-domain for each customer as well so modifications can be made to each site as needed. The customer URLs would look like this: https://customer1.foobar.com https://customer2.foobar.com I am going to have the ability to ‘plug-in’ reports that will be uploaded to the site so each customer can customize as needed. Off the top of my head this necessitates having each sub domain on its own code-base for the uploading of these reports. So on the main site the customer would sign up for their new subscription and I would programmatically create a new directory for the customer from the main code base and then create a sub domain pointing to the new directory for the customer and then finally their database. Does this sound about right? Am I on the right track? How do other such sites accomplish the same thing? Thanks for letting me bend your ear for a bit on this.

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• How do I read binary C++ protobuf data using Python protobuf?

  - by nbolton

  The Python version of Google protobuf gives us only: SerializeAsString() Where as the C++ version gives us both: SerializeToArray(...) SerializeAsString() We're writing to our C++ file in binary format, and we'd like to keep it this way. That said, is there a way of reading the binary data into Python and parsing it as if it were a string? Is this the correct way of doing it? binary = get_binary_data() binary_size = get_binary_size() string = None for i in range(len(binary_size)): string += i message = new MyMessage() message.ParseFromString(string) Update: Here's a new example, and a problem: message_length = 512 file = open('foobars.bin', 'rb') eof = False while not eof: data = file.read(message_length) eof = not data if not eof: foo_bar = FooBar() foo_bar.ParseFromString(data) When we get to the foo_bar.ParseFromString(data) line, I get this error: Exception Type: DecodeError Exception Value: Too many bytes when decoding varint. Update 2: It turns out, that the padding on the binary data was throwing protobuf off; too many bytes were being sent in, as the message suggests (in this case it was referring to the padding). This padding comes from using the C++ protobuf function, SerializeToArray on a fixed-length buffer. To eliminate this, I have used this temproary code: message_length = 512 file = open('foobars.bin', 'rb') eof = False while not eof: data = file.read(message_length) eof = not data string = '' for i in range(0, len(data)): byte = data[i] if byte != '\xcc': # yuck! string += data[i] if not eof: foo_bar = FooBar() foo_bar.ParseFromString(string) There is a design flaw here I think. I will re-implement my C++ code so that it writes variable length arrays to the binary file. As advised by the protobuf documentation, I will prefix each message with it's binary size so that I know how much to read when I'm opening the file with Python.

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• Calling functions from the Immediate Window during debugging -- advanced Visual Studio kung-fu test

  - by kizzx2

  I see some related questions have been asked, but they're either too advanced for me to grasp or lacking a step-by-step guide from start to finish (most of them end up being insider talk of their own experiment results). OK here it is, given this simple program: #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int main() { FILE * f; char buffer[100]; memset(buffer, 0, 100); fun(); f = fopen("main.cpp", "r"); fread(buffer, 1, 99, f); printf(buffer); fclose(f); return 0; } What it does is basically print itself (assume file name is main.cpp). Question How can I have it print another file, say foobar.txt without modifying the source code? It has something to do with running it through VS's, stepping through the functions and hijacking the FILE pointer right before fread() is called. No need to worry about leaking resources by calling fclose(). I tried the simple f = fopen("foobar.txt", "r") which gave CXX0017: Error: symbol "fopen" not found Any ideas?

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• Trouble with Router::url() when using named parameters

  - by sibidiba

  I'm generating plain simple links with CakePHP's HtmlHelper the following way: $html->link("Newest", array( 'controller' => 'posts', 'action' => 'listView', 'page'=> 1, 'sort'=>'Question.created', 'direction'=>'desc', )); Having the following route rule: Router::connect('/foobar/*',array( 'controller' => 'posts', 'action' => 'listView' )); The link is nicely generated as /foobar/page:1/sort:Question.created/direction:desc. Just as I want, it uses my URL prefix instead of controller/action names. However, for some links I must add named parameters like this: $html->link("Newest", array( 'controller' => 'posts', 'action' => 'listView', 'page'=> 1, 'sort'=>'Question.created', 'direction'=>'desc', 'namedParameter' => 'namedParameterValue' )); The link in this case points to /posts/listView/page:1/sort:Question.created/direction:desc/namedParameter:namedParameterValue. But I do not want to have contoller/action names in my URL-s, why is Cake ignoring in this case my routers configuration?

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• Strange(?) Opera Floating

  - by SkaveRat

  I have some strange floating behaviour on opera (IE f's up completely different, but that's for later). I'm floating the i-icons to the right. It works nicely on Fx and WebKit, but opera shifts the icons down a bit. Anyone got an idea how this happenes? CSS: .dataRow { margin: 5px 0; clear:right; } .dataRow label{ display: block; float:left; width: 160px; vertical-align: middle; font-size: 80%; } .dataGroup a img { border:0;float:right; position:relative; right:0; } .dataGroup a:hover { background:#EBEDC7; text-decoration:none; } .dataGroup a.tooltip span { display:none; padding:2px 3px; margin-top:20px; width:100px; font-size: 80%; } .dataGroup a.tooltip:hover span { display:inline; position:absolute; border:1px solid #632D11; background:#C2BD6C; color:#fff; } HTML: <fieldset class="dataGroup"> <div class="dataRow"><label>Foobar:</label> <input name="foobar" size="10" value="somedata" /> <a href="#" class="tooltip"><img src="/img/admin/information.png"/><span>Tooltip Info</span></a></div> </fieldset>

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• How to not use JavaScript with in the elements events attributes but still load via AJAX

  - by thecoshman

  I am currently loading HTMl content via AJAX. I have code for things on different elements onclick attributes (and other event attributes). It does work, but I am starting to find that the code is getting rather large, and hard to read. I have also read that it is considered bad practice to have the event code 'inline' like this and that I should really do by element.onclick = foobar and have foobar defined somewhere else. I understand how with a static page it is fairly easy to do this, just have a script tag at the bottom of the page and once the page is loaded have it executed. This can then attach any and all events as you need them. But how can I get this sort of affect when loading content via AJAX. There is also the slight case that the content loaded can very depending on what is in the database, some times certain sections of HTML, such as tables of results, will not even be displayed there will be something else entirely. I can post some samples of code if any body needs them, but I have no idea what sort of things would help people with this one. I will point out, that I am using Jquery already so if it has some helpful little functions that would be rather sweet¬

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• How to redirect a URL with GET variables in routes.rb without Rails stripping out the variable first?

  - by Michael Hopkins

  I am building a website in Rails to replace an existing website. In routes.rb I am trying to redirect some of the old URLs to their new equivalents (some of the URL slugs are changing so a dynamic solution is not possible.) My routes.rb looks like this: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") When I visit /index.php?page=contact-us I am not redirected to /contact-us. I have determined this is because Rails is removing the get variables and only trying to match /index.php. For example, If I pass /index.php?page=contact-us into the below routes I will be redirected to /foobar: match "/index.php?page=contact-us" => redirect("/contact-us") match "/index.php?page=about-us" => redirect("/about-us") match "/index.php?page=committees" => redirect("/teams") match "/index.php" => redirect("/foobar") How can I keep the GET variables in the string and redirect the old URLs the way I'd like? Does Rails have an intended mechanism for this?

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• SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

  - by gbn

  Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

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• Why is Routes.rb not loading the IPs from cache?

  - by Christian Fazzini

  I am testing this in local. My ip is 127.0.0.1. The ip_permissions table, is empty. When I browse the site, everything works as expected. Now, I want to simulate browsing the site with a banned IP. So I add the IP into the ip_permissions table via: IpPermission.create!(:ip => '127.0.0.1', :note => 'foobar', :category => 'blacklist') In Rails console, I clear the cache via; Rails.cache.clear. I browse the site. I don't get sent to pages#blacklist. If I restart the server. And browse the site, then I get sent to pages#blacklist. Why do I need to restart the server every time the ip_permissions table is updated? Shouldn't it fetch it based on cache? Routes look like: class BlacklistConstraint def initialize @blacklist = IpPermission.blacklist end def matches?(request) @blacklist.map { |b| b.ip }.include? request.remote_ip end end Foobar::Application.routes.draw do match '/(*path)' => 'pages#blacklist', :constraints => BlacklistConstraint.new .... end My model looks like: class IpPermission < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :ip, :note, :category validates_uniqueness_of :ip, :scope => [:category] validates :category, :inclusion => { :in => ['whitelist', 'blacklist'] } def self.whitelist Rails.cache.fetch('whitelist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'whitelist').all } end def self.blacklist Rails.cache.fetch('blacklist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'blacklist').all } end end

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• linq to xml enumerating over descendants

  - by gh9

  Hi trying to write a simple linq query from a tutorial I read. But i cannot seem to get it to work. I am trying to display both the address in the attached xml document, but can only display the first one. Can someone help me figure out why both aren't being printed. Thank you very much <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Emails> <Email group="FooBar"> <Subject>Test subject</Subject> <Content>Test Content</Content> <EmailTo> <Address>[email protected]</Address> <Address>[email protected]</Address> </EmailTo> </Email> </Emails> Dim steve = (From email In emailList.Descendants("Email") _ Where (email.Attribute("group").Value.Equals("FooBar")) _ Select content = email.Element("EmailTo").Descendants("Address")).ToList() If Not steve Is Nothing Then For Each addr In steve Console.WriteLine(addr.Value) Next Console.ReadLine() End If

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• Best way to design a class in python

  - by Fraz

  So, this is more like a philosophical question for someone who is trying to understand classes. Most of time, how i use class is actually a very bad way to use it. I think of a lot of functions and after a time just indent the code and makes it a class and replacing few stuff with self.variable if a variable is repeated a lot. (I know its bad practise) But anyways... What i am asking is: class FooBar: def __init__(self,foo,bar): self._foo = foo self._bar = bar self.ans = self.__execute() def __execute(self): return something(self._foo, self._bar) Now there are many ways to do this: class FooBar: def __init__(self,foo): self._foo = foo def execute(self,bar): return something(self._foo, bar) Can you suggest which one is bad and which one is worse? or any other way to do this. This is just a toy example (offcourse). I mean, there is no need to have a class here if there is one function.. but lets say in __execute something() calls a whole set of other methods.. ?? Thanks

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• jquery, attaching objects (instead of string attribute) to an element

  - by binaryLV

  Hi! I'm trying to build DOM with jQuery and fill it with data that is received with AJAX (data type = json). I'd like to also store this data as an object, attached to a specific DOM element. Does jQuery provide any method for this? The reason I want to do it is because only part of data is initially displayed; other data might be needed later, depending on user actions. I tried using attr(), but it stores a string "[object Object]" instead of an actual object: var div = $('<div/>'); div.attr('foo', {bar: 'foobar'}); alert(div.attr('foo')); // gives "[object Object]" alert(typeof div.attr('foo')); // gives "string" alert(div.attr('foo').bar); // gives "undefined" Another way to do this would be by "bypassing" jQuery (div[0].foo = {bar: 'foobar'};), though this seems to be a "dirty workaround", if jQuery happens to already support attaching objects. Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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