Search Results

Search found 54098 results on 2164 pages for 'something broken'.

Page 93/2164 | < Previous Page | 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100  | Next Page >

  • Google maps not showing satellite background - streets on white background.

    - by WooYek
    Custom map is broken on satellite view, does not show satellite imagery. Any ideas, what's wrong? Overlays are also broken - they're not transparent. Code: <div id="map_canvas" class="grid_8 omega" style="width:460px; height: 420px"></div> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=3&amp;sensor=true&amp;key=my-key-is-here" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(52.229676, 21.012229), 13); map.setMapType(G_HYBRID_MAP); map.setUIToDefault(); } var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); function showAddress(address) { geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { if (!point) { alert('Nie mozna znalezc adresu: '+address); } else { map.setCenter(point, 13); var marker = new GMarker(point); map.addOverlay(marker); marker.openInfoWindowHtml(address); } } ); } showAddress('some address goes here') } $('body').ready(initialize); $('body').unload(GUnload); </script>

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Blocking Issue

    - by Robin Weston
    We currently have an issue that occurs roughly once a day on SQL 2005 database server, although the time it happens is not consistent. Basically, the database grinds to a halt, and starts refusing connections with the following error message. This includes logging into SSMS: A connection was successfully established with the server, but then an error occurred during the login process. (provider: TCP Provider, error: 0 - The specified network name is no longer available.) Our CPU usage for SQL is usually around 15%, but when the DB is in it's broken state it's around 70%, so it's clearly doing something, even if no-one can connect. Even if I disable the web app that uses the database the CPU still doesn't go down. I am unable to restart the SQLSERVER process as it is unresponsive, so I have to end up killing the process manually, which then puts the DB into Suspect/Recovery mode (which I can fix but it's a pain). Below are some PerfMon stats I gathered when the DB was in it's broken state which might help. I have a bunch more if people want to request them: Active Transactions: 2 (Never Changes) Logical Connections: 34 (NC) Process Blocked: 16 (NC) User Connections: 30 (NC) Batch Request: 0 (NC) Active Jobs: 2 (NC) Log Truncations: 596 (NC) Log Shrinks: 24 (NC) Longest Running Transaction Time: 99 (NC) I guess they key is finding out what the DB is using it's CPU on, but as I can't even log into SSMS this isn't possible with the standard methods. Disturbingly, I can't even use the dedicated admin connection to get into SSMS. I get the same timout as with all other requests. Any advice, reccomendations, or even sympathy, is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • proper way to dynamically assign backbone.js view el

    - by kikuchiyo
    I would like to create two ( or more ) view instances, each with different el attributes, and have events bound to them via backbone.js view's events hash ( not through jQuery ). Getting events to trigger when all instantiations have the same el is easy: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: '#someDiv', events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); So far, if I assign el in the initialize function, and set events normally as follows, events do not trigger: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, initialize: function( options ){ this.el = options.el }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); My first instinct was to have el be a function that returns the string representation of the dom element of interest: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: function(){ return '#someDiv-' + this.someNumber }, events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, initialize: function( options ){ this.someNumber = options.someNumber }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); However, this triggers someFunction x times if I have x instantiations of someView. Next I tried setting both the el and events attributes in initialize: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ initialize: function( options ){ this.el = options.el this.events = { 'click': 'someFunction' } }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); but this does not trigger events. At this point I'm pretty much fishing. Does anyone know how instantiate a backbone.js view with an el specific to that instance that has events that only trigger for that instance, and not other instances of the View?

    Read the article

  • How to exit an if clause

    - by Roman Stolper
    What sorts of methods exist for prematurely exiting an if clause? There are times when I'm writing code and want to put a break statement inside of an if clause, only to remember that those can only be used for loops. Lets take the following code as an example: if some_condition: ... if condition_a: # do something # and then exit the outer if block ... if condition_b: # do something # and then exit the outer if block # more code here I can think of one way to do this: assuming the exit cases happen within nested if statements, wrap the remaining code in a big else block. Example: if some_condition: ... if condition_a: # do something # and then exit the outer if block else: ... if condition_b: # do something # and then exit the outer if block else: # more code here The problem with this is that more exit locations mean more nesting/indented code. Alternatively, I could write my code to have the if clauses be as small as possible and not require any exits. Does anyone know of a good/better way to exit an if clause? If there are any associated else-if and else clauses, I figure that exiting would skip over them.

    Read the article

  • Python DictReader - Skipping rows with missing columns?

    - by victorhooi
    heya, I have a Excel .CSV file I'm attempting to read in with DictReader. All seems to be well, except it seems to omit rows, specifically those with missing columns. Our input looks like: mail,givenName,sn,lorem,ipsum,dolor,telephoneNumber [email protected],ian,bay,3424,8403,2535,+65(2)34523534545 [email protected],mike,gibson,3424,8403,2535,+65(2)34523534545 [email protected],ross,martin,,,,+65(2)34523534545 [email protected],david,connor,,,,+65(2)34523534545 [email protected],chris,call,3424,8403,2535,+65(2)34523534545 So some of the rows have missing lorem/ipsum/dolor columns, and it's just a string of commas for those. We're reading it in with: def read_gd_dump(input_file="blah 20100423.csv"): gd_extract = csv.DictReader(open('blah 20100423.csv'), restval='missing', dialect='excel') return dict([(row['something'], row) for row in gd_extract]) And I checked that "something" (the key for our dict) isn't one of the missing columns, I had originally suspected it might be that. It's one of the columns after that. However, DictReader seems to completely skip over the rows. I tried setting restval to something, didn't seem to make any difference. I can't seem to find anything in Python's CSV docs (http://docs.python.org/library/csv.html) that would explain this behaviour, but I may have misread something. Any ideas? Thanks, Victor

    Read the article

  • How should I read from a buffered reader?

    - by Roman
    I have the following example of reading from a buffered reader: while ((inputLine = input.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println("I got a message from a client: " + inputLine); } The code in the loop println will be executed whenever something appears in the buffered reader (input in this case). In my case, if a client-application writes something to the socket, the code in the loop (in the server-application) will be executed. But I do not understand how it works. inputLine = input.readLine() waits until something appears in the buffered reader and when something appears there it returns true and the code in the loop is executed. But when null can be returned. There is another question. The above code was taken from a method which throws Exception and I use this code in the run method of the Thread. And when I try to put throws Exception before the run the compiler complains: overridden method does not throw exception. Without the throws exception I have another complain from the compiler: unreported exception. So, what can I do?

    Read the article

  • Problem with Restlet on GAE

    - by Leaf
    I'm trying to implement a calculator web service on GAE using Java Restlets... it works perfectly fine on localhost but when I upload my project to the Google App Engine everytime I try the web service link it says the link is broken. Here's the code I used: public Restlet createInboundRoot() { // Create a router Restlet that routes each call to a // new instance of HelloWorldResource. Router router = new Router(getContext()); Restlet restlet = new Restlet() { public void handle(Request request, Response response) { // Print the requested URI path String parameters = request.getResourceRef().getRemainingPart(); String message; if(parameters.charAt(0)=='?'){ message = "" + Calculator.calculate(parameters.substring(1)); } else { message = ""; } response.setEntity(message, MediaType.TEXT_PLAIN); } }; // Defines only one route router.attachDefault(restlet); return router; } The Application it's on is mapped to the /calcservice but as I said when I upload to GAE it comes back with a broken link error. I'm developing on Eclipse 3.4 and I'm wondering if there are any parameters I have to change to include the Restlet classes.

    Read the article

  • TFS 2010 Build gives WorkItemStore error when Create Work Item on Failure is enabled

    - by Derek Morrison
    I'm using TFS 2010 Build. I have a build definition that uses the DefaultTemplate.xaml template that's stock in TFS 2010, and the Create Work Item on Failure property is set to True in the build definition. I deliberately made a change in my project that breaks the build. When the build runs, I see the compilation error reflected in the TFS Build log within Visual Studio, but I get the error "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: WorkItemStore" when TFS Build next tries to generate a Work Item for the broken build. I tracked down the activity in DefaultTemplate.xaml (see the rather lengthy path to it below) where the Work Item is created for a broken build, and I see it uses the Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Build.Workflow.Activities.OpenWorkItem class to create the Work Item. The appropriate values seemed to be filled out in the Properties window for the Create Work Item activity, so I don't see where I can pass WorkItemStore to it and I don't even know appropriate values for this setting. Path to the Create Work Item activity: Process Sequence Run On Agent Try Compile, Test, and Associate Changesets and Work Items Sequence Compile, Test, and Associate Changesets and Work Items Try Compile and Test Compile and Test For Each Configuration in BuildSettings.PlatformConfigurations Compile and Test for Configuration If BuildSettings.HasProjectsToBuild For Each Project in BuildSettings.ProjectsToBuild Try to Compile the Project Handle Exception If CreateWorkItem Create Work Item for non-Shelveset Builds Create Work Item

    Read the article

  • HTTP: can GET and POST requests from a same machine come from different IPs?

    - by NoozNooz42
    I'm pretty sure I remember reading --but cannot find back the links anymore-- about this: on some ISP (including at least one big ISP in the U.S.) it is possible to have a user's GET and POST request appearing to come from different IPs. (note that this is totally programming related, and I'll give an example below) I'm not talking about having your IP adress dynamically change between two requests. I'm talking about this: IP 1: 123.45.67.89 IP 2: 101.22.33.44 The same user makes a GET, then a POST, then a GET again, then a POST again and the servers see this: - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 So altough it's the same user, the webserver sees different IPs for the GET and the POSTs. Surely seen that HTTP is a stateless protocol this is perfectly legit right? I'd like to find back the explanation as to how/why certain ISP have their networks configured such that this may happen. I'm asking because someone asked me to implement the following IP filter and I'm pretty sure it is fundamentally broken code (breaking havoc for at least one major american ISP users). Here's a Java servlet filter that is supposed to protect against some attacks. The reasoning is that: "For any session filter checks that IP address in the request is the same that was used when session was created. So in this case session ID could not be stolen for forming fake sessions." http://www.servletsuite.com/servlets/protectsessionsflt.htm However I'm pretty sure this is inherently broken because there are ISPs where you may see GET and POST coming from different IPs. Any info on this subject is very welcome.

    Read the article

  • Getting progress reports from a layered worker class?

    - by Slashdev
    I have a layered worker class that I'm trying to get progress reports from. What I have looks something like this: public class Form1 { private void Start_Click() { Controller controller = new Controller(); controller.RunProcess(); } } public class Controller { public void RunProcess() { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(DoEverything)); newThread.Start(); } private void DoEverything() { // Commencing operation... Class1 class1 = new Class1(); class1.DoStuff(); Class2 class2 = new Class2(); class2.DoMoreStuff(); } } public class Class1 { public void DoStuff() { // Doing stuff Thread.Sleep(1000); // Want to report progress here } } public class Class2 { public void DoMoreStuff() { // Doing more stuff Thread.Sleep(2000); // Want to report progress here as well } } I've used the BackgroundWorker class before, but I think I need something a bit more free form for something like this. I think I could use a delegate/event solution, but I'm not sure how to apply it here. Let's say I've got a few labels or something on Form1 that I want to be able to update with class1 and class2's progress, what's the best way to do that?

    Read the article

  • Unwanted Shell expansion when assigning the output of a shell command to a variable

    - by Rob Goodwin
    I am exporting a portion of a local prototypte svn repository to import into a different repo. We have a number of svn properties set throughout the repo so I figured I would write a script to list the file elements and their corresponding properties. How hard can that be right. So I write started writing a bash script that would assign the output of the svn proplist -v to a variable so I could check if the specified file had any properties. #!/bin/bash svn proplist -v $1 o=$(svn proplist -v "$1") echo $o now this works fine and echos the output of the svn proplist command. But if the proplist command returns something like svn:ignore : * build it performs a shell expansion on the * and inserts the entire directory listing prior to the build property value. So if the directory had a.txt, b.txt and build files/dirs in it, the output would look like. svn:ignore a.txt b.txt build I figure I need to somehow escape the output or something to keep the expansion from happening, but have yet to find something that works. There are other ways to do this, but I hate when I cannot figure something out. and I have to admin, I think this one beat me ( well given the time I can spend on it )

    Read the article

  • How can I make an even more random number in ActionScript 2.0

    - by Theo
    I write a piece of software that runs inside banner ads which generates millions of session IDs every day. For a long time I've known that the random number generator in Flash is't random enough to generate sufficiently unique IDs, so I've employed a number of tricks to get even more random numbers. However, in ActionScript 2.0 it's not easy, and I'm seeing more and more collisions, so I wonder if there is something I've overlooked. As far as I can tell the problem with Math.random() is that it's seeded by the system time, and when you have sufficient numbers of simultaneous attempts you're bound to see collisions. In ActionScript 3.0 I use the System.totalMemory, but there's no equivalent in ActionScript 2.0. AS3 also has Font.enumerateFonts, and a few other things that are different from system to system. On the server side I also add the IP address to the session ID, but even that isn't enough (for example, many large companies use a single proxy server and that means that thousands of people all have the same IP -- and since they tend to look at the same sites, with the same ads, roughly at the same time, there are many session ID collisions). What I need isn't something perfectly random, just something that is random enough to dilute the randomness I get from Math.random(). Think of it this way: there is a certain chance that two people will generate the same random number sequence using only Math.random(), but the chance of two people generating the same sequence and having, say, the exact same list of fonts is significantly lower. I cannot rely on having sufficient script access to use ExternalInterface to get hold of things like the user agent, or the URL of the page. I don't need suggestions of how to do it in AS3, or any other system, only AS2 -- using only what's available in the standard APIs. The best I've come up with so far is to use the list of microphones (Microphone.names), but I've also tried to make some fingerprinting using some of the properties in System.capabilities, I'm not sure how much randomness I can get out of that though so I'm not using that at the moment. I hope I've overlooked something.

    Read the article

  • .NET 4.0 Implementing OutputCacheProvider

    - by azamsharp
    I am checking out the OutputCacheProvider in ASP.NET 4.0 and using it to store my output cache into the MongoDb database. I am not able to understand the purpose of Add method which is one of the override methods for OutputCacheProvider. The Add method is invoked when you have VaryByParam set to something. So, if I have VaryByParam = "id" then the Add method will be invoked. But after the Add the Set is also invoked and I can insert into the MongoDb database inside the Set method. public override void Set(string key, object entry, DateTime utcExpiry) { // if there is something in the query and use the path and query to generate the key var url = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(url.Query)) { key = url.PathAndQuery; } Debug.WriteLine("Set(" + key + "," + entry + "," + utcExpiry + ")"); _service.Set(new CacheItem() { Key = MD5(key), Item = entry, Expires = utcExpiry }); } Inside the Set method I use the PathAndQuery to get the params of the QueryString and then do a MD5 on the key and save it into the MongoDb database. It seems like the Add method will be useful if I am doing something like VaryByParam = "custom" or something. Can anyone shed some light on the Add method of OutputCacheProvider?

    Read the article

  • How do I get Bison/YACC to not recognize a command until it parses the whole string?

    - by chucknelson
    I have some bison grammar: input: /* empty */ | input command ; command: builtin | external ; builtin: CD { printf("Changing to home directory...\n"); } | CD WORD printf("Changing to directroy %s\n", $2); } ; I'm wondering how I get Bison to not accept (YYACCEPT?) something as a command until it reads ALL of the input. So I can have all these rules below that use recursion or whatever to build things up, which either results in a valid command or something that's not going to work. One simple test I'm doing with the code above is just entering "cd mydir mydir". Bison parses CD and WORD and goes "hey! this is a command, put it to the top!". Then the next token it finds is just WORD, which has no rule, and then it reports an error. I want it to read the whole line and realize CD WORD WORD is not a rule, and then report an error. I think I'm missing something obvious and would greatly appreciate any help - thanks! Also - I've tried using input command NEWLINE or something similar, but it still pushes CD WORD to the top as a command and then parses the extra WORD separately.

    Read the article

  • Database design and foreign keys: Where should they be added in related tables?

    - by Carvell Fenton
    I have a relatively simple subset of tables in my database for tracking something called sessions. These are academic sessions (think offerings of a particular program). The tables to represent a sessions information are: sessions session_terms session_subjects session_mark_item_info session_marks All of these tables have their own primary keys, and are like a tree, in that sessions have terms, terms have subjects, subjects have mark items, etc. So each on would have at least its "parent's" foreign key. My question is, design wise is it a good idea to include the sessions primary key in the other tables as a foreign key to easily select related session items, or is that too much redundency? If I include the session foreign key (or all parent foreign keys from tables up the heirarchy) in all the tables, I can easily select all the marks for a session. As an example, something like SELECT mark FROM session_marks WHERE sessionID=... If I don't, then I would have to combine selects with something like WHERE something IN (SELECT... Which approach is "more correct" or efficient? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

    - by melaos
    hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

    Read the article

  • How to detect a WCF session crash before calling a contract method?

    - by brain_pusher
    I am using a session mode for my WCF service. The problem is the following: if session is broken and no longer exists, client can't know it before calling a contract. For example, if the service has been restarted, the client's session id is invalid, because that session has been closed on the server side. I check the channel state before calling the contract and its value is CommunicationState.Opened even if session is already broken. So, when I call the contract after this check I get a CommunicationException with this message: The remote endpoint no longer recognizes this sequence. This is most likely due to an abort on the remote endpoint. The value of wsrm:Identifier is not a known Sequence identifier. The reliable session was faulted. Is there any workaround? I need a way to get an appropriate session state before calling a contract so that I can restore it without getting an exception. P.S. The CommunicationException type is general, so I can't detect a session crash by catching this exception. P.P.S. I have asked the similar question here, but in that case I didn't know the reason, now I don't know how to evade it.

    Read the article

  • Creating a smart text generator

    - by royrules22
    I'm doing this for fun (or as 4chan says "for teh lolz") and if I learn something on the way all the better. I took an AI course almost 2 years ago now and I really enjoyed it but I managed to forget everything so this is a way to refresh that. Anyway I want to be able to generate text given a set of inputs. Basically this will read forum inputs (or maybe Twitter tweets) and then generate a comment based on the learning. Now the simplest way would be to use a Markov Chain Text Generator but I want something a little bit more complex than that as the MKC basically only learns by word order (which word is more likely to appear after word x given the input text). I'm trying to see if there's something I can do to make it a little bit more smarter. For example I want it to do something like this: Learn from a large selection of posts in a message board but don't weight it too much For each post: Learn from the other comments in that post and weigh these inputs higher Generate comment and post See what other users' reaction to your post was. If good weigh it positively so you make more posts that are similar to the one made, and vice versa if negative. It's the weighing and learning from mistakes part that I'm not sure how to implement. I thought about Artificial Neural Networks (mainly because I remember enjoying that chapter) but as far as I can tell that's mainly used to classify things (i.e. given a finite set of choices [x1...xn] which x is this given input) not really generate anything. I'm not even sure if this is possible or if it is what should I go about learning/figuring out. What algorithm is best suited for this? To those worried that I will use this as a bot to spam or provide bad answers to SO, I promise that I will not use this to provide (bad) advice or to spam for profit. I definitely will not post it's nonsensical thoughts on SO. I plan to use it for my own amusement. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • PEAR mail not sending to .eu email addresses

    - by andy-score
    I have a PEAR mailing script that is used to send newsletters from a clients website. I've used the same code before to produce another newsletter system and it has worked well and been used to send emails to various addresses, however our latest client has email addresses ending .eu and this seems to cause a problem. When the newsletter is sent from the site to the various subscribers, including gmail, hotmail, yahoo and our own company emails, the emails are received correctly by all but the clients email addresses, the ones ending in .eu. As there is nothing different between their mailing system and our own, which is run from the same hosting company, I have to conclude that it is something to do with the domain name. The emails are being sent to the addresses from the system, as I have a log file storing the email addresses when the mail out function is called, but the newsletter never appears in the inbox. I have created a new email account for the domain and that too isn't receiving the emails. It's not going into a spam folder as the webmail system marks spam by adding SPAM into the subject. I've tried to log if there are any errors using the following foreach($subscribers as $recipient) { $send_newsletter = $mail->send($recipient, $headers, $body); // LOG INFO $message = $recipient; if($send_newsletter) { $message .= ' SENT'; } elseif(PEAR::isError($send_newsletter)) { $message .= ' ERROR: '.$send_newsletter->getMessage(); } $message .= ' | '; fwrite($log_file,$message); } However this simple returns SENT for all recipients, so in theory there isn't anything wrong with the mailing function. I don't know a great deal about PEAR or the mailing function so I may be missing something important, but I'd have thought seeing the last thing to happen is sending the email out, and that seems to work, then it should reach the clients inbox. Is this something to do with the PEAR mailing function not liking .eu addresses or is it more likely to be something wrong in my code or with their domain? Any help is greatly appreciated as the client and myself are getting both confused and frustrated by the whole thing. Cheers

    Read the article

  • Is there a language with native pass-by-reference/pass-by-name semantics, which could be used in mod

    - by Bubba88
    Hi! This is a reopened question. I look for a language and supporting platform for it, where the language could have pass-by-reference or pass-by-name semantics by default. I know the history a little, that there were Algol, Fortran and there still is C++ which could make it possible; but, basically, what I look for is something more modern and where the mentioned value pass methodology is preferred and by default (implicitly assumed). I ask this question, because, to my mind, some of the advantages of pass-by-ref/name seem kind of obvious. For example when it is used in a standalone agent, where copyiong of values is not necessary (to some extent) and performance wouldn't be downgraded much in that case. So, I could employ it in e.g. rich client app or some game-style or standalone service-kind application. The main advantage to me is the clear separation between identity of a symbol, and its current value. I mean when there is no reduntant copying, you know that you're working with the exact symbol/path you have queried/received. And intristing boxing of values will not interfere with the actual logic of program. I know that there is C# ref keyword, but it's something not so intristic, though acceptable. Equally, I realize that pass-by-reference semantics could be simulated in virtually any language (Java as an instant example) and so on.. not sure about pass by name :) What would you recommend - create a something like DSL for such needs wherever it be appropriate; or use some languages that I already know? Maybe, there is something that I'm missing? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Are finalizers ever allowed to call other managed classes' methods?

    - by romkyns
    I used to be pretty sure the answer is "no", as explained in Overriding the Finalize method and Object.Finalize documentation. However, while randomly browsing through FileStream in Reflector, I found that it can actually call just such a method from a finalizer: private SafeFileHandle _handle; ~FileStream() { if (this._handle != null) { this.Dispose(false); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { try { ... } finally { if ((this._handle != null) && !this._handle.IsClosed) // <=== HERE { this._handle.Dispose(); // <=== AND HERE } [...] } } I started wondering whether this will always work due to the exact way in which it's written, and hence whether the "do not touch managed classes from finalizers" is just a guideline that can be broken given a good reason and the necessary knowledge to do it right. I dug a bit deeper and found out that the worst that can happen when the "rule" is broken is that the managed object being accessed had already been finalized, or may be getting finalized in parallel on a separate thread. So if the SafeFileHandle's finalizer didn't do anything that would cause a subsequent call to Dispose fail then the above should be fine... right? Question: so there might after all be situations in which a method on another managed class may be called reliably from a finalizer? I've always believed this to be false, but this code suggests that it's possible and that there can be good enough reasons to do it. Bonus: Observe that the SafeFileHandle will not even know it's being called from a finalizer, since this is just a normal call to Dispose(). The base class, SafeHandle, actually has two private methods, InternalDispose and InternalFinalize, and in this case InternalDispose will be called. Isn't this a problem? Why not?...

    Read the article

  • Force a view change from a button when using UITabBarController

    - by user342197
    Hello - When using a UITabBarController, when the user enters some data on View1 and presses a button, I need to perform some calculations and present the results on View2. I have an AppDelegate, View1Controller, View2Controller, and View3Controller (View3 is a basically static view). My AppDelgate declares UITabBarController *rootController; On View1, I have the calculations being performed in an IBAction for buttonPressed; however, I can't seem to force the view to switch to View2 programmatically. I have done a lot of searching for similar problems, and think I should be doing something like "self.rootController.selectedIndex = 1"; however,when I do this from within buttonPressed on my View1Controller, I get an error "request for member rootController in something not in a structure or union". I think I'm missing something basic here... probably need do do something with my AppDelegate, but I'm banging my head against the wall. Can anyone provide some guidance in this situation...like key things I should do in View1Controller header and implementation with reference to my AppDelgate? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Java SWT: wrapping syncExec and asyncExec to clean up code

    - by jonescb
    I have a Java Application using SWT as the toolkit, and I'm getting tired of all the ugly boiler plate code it takes to update a GUI element. Just to set a disabled button to be enabled I have to go through something like this: shell.getDisplay().asyncExec(new Runnable() { public void run() { buttonOk.setEnabled(true); } }); I prefer keeping my source code as flat as I possibly can, but I need a whopping 3 indentation levels just to do something simple. Is there some way I can wrap it? I would like a class like: public class UIUpdater { public static void updateUI(Shell shell, *function_ptr*) { shell.getDisplay().asyncExec(new Runnable() { public void run() { //Execute function_ptr } }); } } And can be used like so: UIUpdater.updateUI(shell, buttonOk.setEnabled(true)); Something like this would be great for hiding that horrible mess SWT seems to think is necessary to do anything. As I understand it, Java cannot do functions pointers. But Java 7 will have something called Closures which should be what I want. But in the meantime is there anything at all I can do to pass a function pointer or callback to another function to be executed? As an aside, I'm starting to think it'd be worth the effort to redo this application in Swing, and I don't have to put up with this ugly crap and non-cross-platformyness of SWT.

    Read the article

  • How can I declare and initialize an array of pointers to a structure in C?

    - by worlds-apart89
    I have a small assignment in C. I am trying to create an array of pointers to a structure. My question is how can I initialize each pointer to NULL? Also, after I allocate memory for a member of the array, I can not assign values to the structure to which the array element points. #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> typedef struct list_node list_node_t; struct list_node { char *key; int value; list_node_t *next; }; int main() { list_node_t *ptr = (list_node_t*) malloc(sizeof(list_node_t)); ptr->key = "Hello There"; ptr->value = 1; ptr->next = NULL; // Above works fine // Below is erroneous list_node_t **array[10] = {NULL}; *array[0] = (list_node_t*) malloc(sizeof(list_node_t)); array[0]->key = "Hello world!"; //request for member ‘key’ in something not a structure or union array[0]->value = 22; //request for member ‘value’ in something not a structure or union array[0]->next = NULL; //request for member ‘next’ in something not a structure or union // Do something with the data at hand // Deallocate memory using function free return 0; }

    Read the article

  • Latex multicols. Can I group content so it won't split over cols and/or suggest colbreaks?

    - by valadil
    Hi. I'm trying to learn LaTeX. I've been googling this one for a couple days, but I don't speak enough LaTeX to be able to search for it effectively and what documentation I have found is either too simple or goes way over my head (http://www.uoregon.edu/~dspivak/files/multicol.pdf) I have a document using the multicol package. (I'm actually using multicols* so that the first col fills before the second begins instead of trying to balance them, but I don't think that's relevant here.) The columns output nicely, but I want to be able to indicate that some content won't be broken up into different columns. For instance, aaaaaaaa bbbbbbb aaaaaaaa bbbbbbb aaaaaaaa ccccccc bbbbbbbb ccccccc That poor attempt at ascii art columns is what's happening. I'd like to indicate that the b block is a whole unit that shouldn't be broken up into different columns. Since it doesn't fit under the a block, the entirety of the b block should be moved to the second column. Should b be wrapped in something? Is there a block/float/section/box/minipage/paragraph structure I can use? Something specific to multicol? Alternatively is there a way that I can suggest a columnbreak? I'm thinking of something like \- that suggests a hyphenated line break if its convenient, but this would go between blocks. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100  | Next Page >