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• Minimizing server load in case of many XMLHttpRequest calls

  - by user1888975

  I am making a website where users are to like some articles. Whenever the like button is clicked I am sending a XMLHttpRequest to the server to run a file called like_clicked.php along with the get data of article id and user id. This file takes article id and user id and updates the sql database and also adds a node in an xml file related to the user. This is the first time I am doing something for mass usage. I am worried about the server load when too many users call the like_clicked.php file. Please help me, if this method is ok. I am also thinking of an alternative in case the above method fails. I am thinking of making many like_clicked files (namely like_clicked1.php, like_clicked2.php ... ) to minimize load on a single i-node. Is there a method to detect that it is better to call the next like_clicked file. Here we would need to detect how many calls per unit time are coming for the particular file. How do we handle this? Thanks in advance.

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• Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

  - by Tony_Henrich

  My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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• [^.] causing headache in RewriteRule

  - by Ollie2893

  I am struggling with a very basic regex problem in my .htaccess file that I hope someone may be able to shed some light on. The basic premise is that I would like to teach Apache to switch any .html extension into a .var extension. I had thought that the rule would be positively trivial: RewriteRule ^([^.]+)\.html$ $1.var But the [^.] part simply doesn't work. Bizarrely, it works like so RewriteRule ^([^A-Z]+)\.html$ $1.var I do not understand why this latter rule works. Assume I am looking for a file called "index.html" then $1 should match to "index." and the ".html" bit should actually fail to match. To widen the scope of the question slightly, I am actually racking my brain on how to implement a multi-lingual site. I don't like Apache's MultiView option because it forces upon me a flat directory structure with file extensions that aren't recognizable to many development tools. I could go the .var type-map route but am finding that the default config for Apache doesn't support this all that well either (hence my excursions into regex land). So while I am using mod_rewrite, I am thinking that I might go the whole hog: whenever a request for a name.html file is received and this file does not exist, check whether there exists a XX/name.html file instead, where "XX" is the language code according to the user's preferences. This would give me a neater directory structure, though it does perhaps not perform as well as the .var approach in a situation where the language preference of the user's browser is not supported in by my site (in which situation .var would substitute EN or similar). Any thoughts? Thanks.

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• Convert plain text list to html

  - by morbusg

  So I have a plain text list like this: I am the first top-level list item I am his son Me too Second one here His son His daughter I am the son of the one above Me too because of the indentation Another one And I would like to turn that into: <ul> <li>I am the first top-level list-item <ul> <li>I am his son</li> <li>Me too</li> </ul> </li> <li>Second one here <ul> <li>His son</li> <li>His daughter <ul> <li>I am the son of the one above</li> <li>Me too because of the indentation</li> </ul> </li> <li>Another one</li> </ul> </li> </ul> How would one go about doing that?

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• HTML5: Rendering absolute images using canvas

  - by Mark

  I am experimenting with canvas as part of my HTML5 introduction. This constitutes as assignment work, but I am not asking for any help on the actual coursework at all. I am trying to write a rendering engine, but having no luck because once the image is drawn on canvas it looks very distorted, and not at the right dimensions of the image itself. I have made a animation engine that loads images into an array, and then iterates through them at a certain speed. This is not the problem, and I assume is not causing the issue as this was happening when I drawn an image to the canvas. I think this is natural behaviour for images to be scaled/skewed when the window is resized, so I conquered that by simply redrawing the whole thing once the window is resized. The images I am using are isometric, and drawn at a pixel level. Would this cause the distortion? It seems setting the dimensions on the drawImage() function are not working are all. I am using JavaScript for the manipulation and rendering of the canvas. I would normally try and work it out myself, but I do not have any time to ponder why because I have no idea why it is even scaling/skewing the image once it is drawn on the canvas. I cannot share the code for obvious reasons. I should also mention, the canvas's dimension is the total width of the viewport, as I am developing a game. My question is: Has anyone encountered this and how would I correct it? Thanks for your help.

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• how to change uibutton title at runtime in objective c?

  - by Sarah

  Hello, I know this question is asked many a times,and i am also implementing the same funda for chanding the title of the uibutton i guess. Let me clarify my problem first. I have one uibutton named btnType, on clicking of what one picker pops up and after selecting one value,i am hitting done button to hide the picker and at the same time i am changing the the title of the uibutton with code [btnType setTitle:btnTitle forState:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [btnType setTitleColor:[UIColor redColor] forState:UIControlEventAllEvents]; But with my surpriaze,it is not changed and application crashes with signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I am not getting where i am making mistake.I have allocated memory to the btnType at viewdidLoad. Also I am using -(IBAction)pressAddType { toolBar.hidden = FALSE; dateTypePicker.hidden = FALSE; } event on pressing the button to open the picker. Also i would like to mention that i have made connection with IB with event TouchUpInside for pressAddType. Any guesses? I will be grateful if you could help me. Thanks.

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• Coding the R-ight way - avoiding the for loop

  - by mropa

  I am going through one of my .R files and by cleaning it up a little bit I am trying to get more familiar with writing the code the r-ight way. As a beginner, one of my favorite starting points is to get rid of the for() loops and try to transform the expression into a functional programming form. So here is the scenario: I am assembling a bunch of data.frames into a list for later usage. dataList <- list (dataA, dataB, dataC, dataD, dataE ) Now I like to take a look at each data.frame's column names and substitute certain character strings. Eg I like to substitute each "foo" and "bar" with "baz". At the moment I am getting the job done with a for() loop which looks a bit awkward. colnames(dataList[[1]]) [1] "foo" "code" "lp15" "bar" "lh15" colnames(dataList[[2]]) [1] "a" "code" "lp50" "ls50" "foo" matchVec <- c("foo", "bar") for (i in seq(dataList)) { for (j in seq(matchVec)) { colnames (dataList[[i]])[grep(pattern=matchVec[j], x=colnames (dataList[[i]]))] <- c("baz") } } Since I am working here with a list I thought about the lapply function. My attempts handling the job with the lapply function all seem to look alright but only at first sight. If I write f <- function(i, xList) { gsub(pattern=c("foo"), replacement=c("baz"), x=colnames(xList[[i]])) } lapply(seq(dataList), f, xList=dataList) the last line prints out almost what I am looking for. However, if i take another look at the actual names of the data.frames in dataList: lapply (dataList, colnames) I see that no changes have been made to the initial character strings. So how can I rewrite the for() loop and transform it into a functional programming form? And how do I substitute both strings, "foo" and "bar", in an efficient way? Since the gsub() function takes as its pattern argument only a character vector of length one.

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• LNK4221 and LNK4006 Warnings!

  - by user295030

  Hi, I basically making a static library of my own. I have taken my code which works and now put it into a static library for another program to use. In my library I am using another static library which I don't want the people who will be using my API to know. Since, I want to hide that information from them I can't tell them to install the other static library. Anyway, I used the command line Lib.exe to extract and create a smaller lib file of just the obj's I used. However, I get a bunch of "LNK4006 :second definition ignored" linker warnings for each obj I use followed by "LNK4221 no public symbols found;archive member will be inaccessible". I am doing this work in vs2008 and I am not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using the #pragma comment line in my .cpp file I have also modified the librarian to add my smaller .lib along with its location. my code simply makes calls to a couple functions which it should be able to get from those Obj file in the smaller lib. All my functions are implemented in .cpp file and my header just have the includes of the third party header files and come standard c++ header files. nothing fancy. I have actually no function definitions in there atm. I was going to put the API definition in there and implement that in the .cpp for this static lib that i was going to make. However, I just wanted to build my code before I added more to it. s Any help would be appreciated. is this a vs2008 configuration issue? or a program issue I am not sure. thanks for the help!

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• License For (Mostly) Open Source Website / Service

  - by Ryan Sullivan

  I have an interesting setup and am not sure how to license a website. I know this is not legal advice, and I am not asking for any. There are so many different Open Source Licenses and I do not have the time to read every last one to see which best fits my situation. Really, I am looking for suggestions and a nudge in the right direction. My setup is: I give away for free version of my web service with a clean website interface. The implementation I use in the actual web site is (almost) identical to what I give away. The main service works the exactly the same way, but the website interface to manage features in the service is fairly different. Really the web interfaces have the same exact backend, and the front ends accomplish the same tasks, but the service I offer on my site is very rich and uses a good deal of javascript, where I kept the interface in the version I give away as simple and javascript-less as possible. Mostly so it is easy to understand and integrate into other sites. I am not entirely sure how I should license this. It is more like I develop an open source service but have a separate site built upon it. I like the GPLv3 but I am not sure if I can use it in this case especially since I am making some money off of google ad's on the site and plan on using amazon affiliates as well. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I do want to open it up as much as possible. But I still want to be able to continue with my own implementation. Thanks in advance for any information or help anyone can provide.

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• Overlay an image over video using OpenGL ES shaders

  - by BlueVoodoo

  I am trying to understand the basic concepts of OpenGL. A week into it, I am still far from there. Once I am in glsl, I know what to do but I find getting there is the tricky bit. I am currently able to pass in video pixels which I manipulate and present. I have then been trying to add still image as an overlay. This is where I get lost. My end goal is to end up in the same fragment shader with pixel data from both my video and my still image. I imagine this means I need two textures and pass on two pixel buffers. I am currently passing the video pixels like this: glGenTextures(1, &textures[0]); //target, texture glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[0]); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_BGRA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, buffer); Would I then repeat this process on textures[1] with the second buffer from the image? If so, do I then bind both GL_TEXTURE0 and GL_TEXTURE1? ...and would my shader look something like this? uniform sampler2D videoData; uniform sampler2D imageData; once I am in the shader? It seems no matter what combination I try, image and video always ends up being just video data in both these. Sorry for the many questions merged in here, just want to clear my many assumptions and move on. To clarify the question a bit, what do I need to do to add pixels from a still image in the process described? ("easy to understand" sample code or any types of hints would be appreciated).

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• auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_...

  - by bgadoci

  I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here? UPDATE: My QuestionsController#show action is fishing posts by: @question = Question.find(params[:id])

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• What type of data store should I use for my ios app?

  - by mwiederrecht

  I am pretty new to ios and using servers so forgive me. I am building an ios app for research. I need to monitor things that the user does and then push it up to a server for analysis (yes, with user and IRB permission). On the client's side I need to keep quite a bit of data that won't really change except in the case of pulling an updated version from the server, and then a minimal amount of user-specific data. Most of the data I will collect needs to be pushed to a server for analysis and then can be deleted from the client side. I am struggling to figure out what kind of data store I need to use, especially since I am not quite sure how the pushing and pulling from the server process works yet. Does it make sense to use Core Data? XML? SQLite? I like the Core Data idea, but I am not sure what kind of problems I will run into when I need to send large amounts of data to it and from it from the server. I imagine I might need to send data in a different form than it is probably stored in on either end - so what kind of overhead am I likely to run into in the process of converting that data? Is there a good format to save stuff in that would work well for me on both ends AND for sending the data? As you can probably tell, I could use some advice. Thanks!

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• What db fits me?

  - by afvasd

  Dear Everyone I am currently using mysql. I am finding that my schema is getting incredibly complicated. I seek to find a new db that will suit my needs: Let's assume I am building a news aggregrator (which collects news from multiple website). I then run algorithms to determine if two news from different sites are actually referring to the same topic. I run this algorithm to cluster news together. The relationship is depicted below: cluster \--news1 \--word1 \--word2 \--news2 \--word3 \--news3 \--word1 \--word3 And then I will apply some magic and determine the importance of each word. Summing all the importance of each word gives me the importance of a news article. Summing the importance of each news article gives me the importance of a cluster. Note that above cluster there are also subgroups( like split by region etc), and categories (like sports, etc) which I have to determine the importance of that in a particular day per se. I have used views in the past to do so, but I realized that views are very slow. So i will normally do an insert into an actual table and index them for better performance. As you can see this leads to multiple tables derived like (cluster, importance), (news, importance), (words, importance) etc which can get pretty messy. Also the "importance" metric will change. It has become increasingly difficult to alter tables, update data (which I am using TRUNCATE TABLE) and then inserting from null. I am currently looking into something schemaless like Mongodb. I do not need distributedness. I would very much want something that is reasonably fast (which can be indexed) and something that is a lot more flexible that traditional RDMBS. Also, I need something that has some kind of ORM because I personally like ORM a lot. I am currently using sqlalchemy Please help!

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• .Net file writing and string splitting issues

  - by sagar

  I have a requirement where the file should be split using a given character. Default splitting options are CRLF and LF In both these cases I am splitting the line by \r\n and \r respectively. Also I have requirement where any size of file should be processed. (Processing is basically inserting the given string in a file at given position). For this I am reading the file in chunk of 1024 bytes. Then I am applying the string.Split() method. Split() method gives options for ignoring white spaces and none. I have to add back these line break characters to the line. for this I am using a binary writer and I am writing the byte array to the new file. Issue:- 1) When line break is CRLF, and the split option is NONE, while spaces are also added in the splitted array. Second option is given (to ignore white spaces) CRLF works properly. 2)Bit ignoring white space option creates other problems, as I am reading the file byte by byte I can't ignore a white space. 3)When line break characters are other than default(e.g. '|', a null value is prepended to the resulting line. Can anybody give solution to my issues?

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• ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider and ADAM (or AD LDS) and SetPassword

  - by Iulian

  By the subject line it seems to be a rather broad subject and I need some help here. Basically what I want is to use ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider with an ADAM instance to authenticate users in an ASP.NET web application. My development environment is a windows 7 machine with an AD LDS instance on it whilst the QA server is a Windows 2003 server with an ADAM instance on it. I have all the required users on both instances plus one with adminsitrator role (CN=Admin,CN=xxx,DC=xxx,C=xx) which I want to use as the connection user. Using connectonProtecton="None" connectionUsername="CN=Admin,CN=xxx,DC=xxx,C=xx" connectionPassword="xxx" I am able to authenticate on both environments (dev & qa). If I change to the connectionProtection to "Secure" I am not able to authenticate anymore; the error I get is "Parser Error Message: Unable to establish secure connection with the server" To me it sounds wrong to use connectionProtection="None" although I found on the net a lot of samples using this setting. Can I use connectionProtection="Secure" to connect to an ADAM instance using an account defined on that instance having Administrator role? What other choices do I have (like using an domain account)? What if my machine where I am to deploy the application is not a part of the domain, will this affect in any way the behavior? I am novice in the respect so I would really appreciate some clear answers or some directions as where to look? Now beside the "signing in" feature of the ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider I also want to add an extra one, which is setting the password without knowing the old one (something that will be used by a "reset password" feature). So I added a couple of extension methods to the provider, and used System.DirectoryServices classes like DirectoryEntry and the like. When creating a directory entry I use the same credentials provided in web.config for the provider minus the AuthenticationType as I don't know what is right combination of the flags that corresponds to None/Secure. I am able to use Invoke "SetPassword" with ADS_OPTION_PASSWORD_METHOD option as ADS_PASSWORD_ENCODE_CLEAR on my dev machine (w/ AD LDS instance); nevertheless on qa environment (w/ ADAM instance) I am getting an error like "Exception Details: System.DirectoryServices.DirectoryServicesCOMException: An operations error occurred. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80072020)" I am quite sure it is not about AD LDS vs ADAM but probably another configuration / permission issue. So can anyone help me with some hints on how to use this SetPassword feature? And as a general question what are the best practices when it comes to using ADAM regarding security, programming etc? Thanks in advance Iulian

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• Jruby Gems-in-a-jar issue

  - by antonio

  Hi all, I am trying to write some code in ruby (using jruby) to be compiled to java bytecode with jrubyc and deployed to a remote machine where it will be run on the JVM (no ruby available there). Everything works fine as long as I am happy to stick with the standard jruby library. As explained on the jruby website, I simply copy the jruby-complete.jar library to the remote machine and include it in the classpath at runtime. I fire my compiled script and it works: cool! The problems start when I need some other libraries (typically rubygems) to run my script. I am aware of cool stuff like rawr, -which I successfully tested- to put together all you need in a single package. However that is not the solution I am looking for: I will have many small scripts to run independently and I don't want each of them to grow to at least 10 MB just because I insanely include the jruby-complete.jar in each of them. What I would like is to compile a .jar for each of the libraries that I will need to use, put all of them in a common folder on the remote machine and include them at runtime in the classpath when I run my compiled jruby scripts on the JVM. This said, I tried to follow the instructions here: http://blog.nicksieger.com/articles/2009/01/10/jruby-1-1-6-gems-in-a-jar I tried exactly the example shown there, with the "chronic" gem. Going step by step: Install the gem locally: java -jar jruby-complete-1.1.6.jar -S gem install -i ./chronic chronic --no-rdoc --no-ri Package it into a jar: jar cf chronic.jar -C chronic . Write a two lines test script, saving it as testt.rb: require 'chronic' Chronic.parse('tomorrow') Compile with: jrubyc testt.rb Run the resulting java class testt.class with the following (having both jruby-complete.jar and chronic.jar in the same folder as the java class): java -cp .:/jruby-complete.jar:./chronic.jar testt I get the following error: Exception in thread "main" file:/Users/ave2/NetBeansProjects/jrubywatir/lib/jruby-complete.jar!/METAINF/jruby.home/lib/ruby/site_ruby/shared/builtin/core_ext/symbol.rb:1:in `const_missing': uninitialized constant Chronic (NameError) from testt.rb:2 ...internal jruby stack elided... from Module.const_missing(testt.rb:2) from (unknown).(unknown)(:1) I really don't understand what I am doing wrong, and I am totally stuck on this. I am a noob in Ruby, much more used to Python: don't miss a chance to convert an infidel! :-) Thanks.

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• .NET SerialPort DataReceived event thread interference with main thread

  - by Kiran

  I am writing a serial communication program using the SerialPort class in C# to interact with a strip machine connected via a RS232 cable. When i send the command to the machine it responds with some bytes depending on the command. Like when i send a "\D" command, i am expecting to download the machine program data of 180 bytes as a continous string. As per the machine's manual, it suggests as a best practice to send an unreognized characters like comma (,) character to make sure the machine is initialized before sending the first command in the cycle. My serial communication code is as follows: public class SerialHelper { SerialPort commPort = null; string currentReceived = string.Empty; string receivedStr = string.Empty; private bool CommInitialized() { try { commPort = new SerialPort(); commPort.PortName = "COM1"; if (!commPort.IsOpen) commPort.Open(); commPort.BaudRate = 9600; commPort.Parity = System.IO.Ports.Parity.None; commPort.StopBits = StopBits.One; commPort.DataBits = 8; commPort.RtsEnable = true; commPort.DtrEnable = true; commPort.DataReceived += new SerialDataReceivedEventHandler(commPort_DataReceived); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { return false; } } void commPort_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { SerialPort currentPort = (SerialPort)sender; currentReceived = currentPort.ReadExisting(); receivedStr += currentReceived; } internal int CommIO(string outString, int outLen, ref string inBuffer, int inLen) { receivedStr = string.Empty; inBuffer = string.Empty; if (CommInitialized()) { commPort.Write(outString); } System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500); int i = 0; while ((receivedStr.Length < inLen) && i < 10) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500); i += 1; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(receivedStr)) { inBuffer = receivedStr; } commPort.Close(); return inBuffer.Length; } } I am calling this code from a windows form as follows: len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO(",",1,ref inBuffer, 4) If(inBuffer == "!?*O") { len = SerialHelperObj.CommIO("\D",2,ref inBuffer, 180) } A valid return value from the serial port looks like this: \D00000010000000000010 550 3250 0000256000 and so on ... I am getting some thing like this: \D00000010D,, 000 550 D,, and so on... I feel that my comm calls are getting interferred with the one when i send commands. But i am trying to make sure the result of the comma command then initiating the actual command. but the received thread is inserting the bytes from the previous communication cycle. Can any one please shed some light into this...? I lost quite some hair just trying to get this work. I am not sure where i am doing wrong

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• Properly setting up willSelectRowAtIndexPath and didSelectRowAtIndexPath to send cell selections

  - by Gordon Fontenot

  Feel like I'm going a bit nutty here. I have a detail view with a few stand-alone UITextFields, a few UITextFields in UITAbleViewCells, and one single UITableViewCell that will be used to hold notes, if there are any. I only want this cell selectable when I am in edit mode. When I am not in edit mode, I do not want to be able to select it. Selecting the cell (while in edit mode) will fire a method that will init a new view. I know this is very easy, but I am missing something somewhere. Here are the current selection methods I am using: -(NSIndexPath *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (!self.editing) { NSLog(@"Returning nil, not in edit mode"); return nil; } NSLog(@"Cell will be selected, not in edit mode"); if (indexPath.section == 0) { NSLog(@"Comments cell will be selected"); return indexPath; } return nil; } -(void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (!self.editing) { NSLog(@"Not in edit mode. Should not have made it this far."); return; } if (indexPath.section == 0) [self pushCommentsView]; else return; } My problem is really 2 fold; 1) Even when I'm not in edit mode, and I know I am returning nil (due to the NSLog message), I can still select the row (it flashes blue). From my understanding of the willSelectRowAtIndexPath method, this shouldn't be happening. Maybe I am wrong about this? 2) When I enter edit mode, I can't select anything at all. the willSelectRowAtIndexPath method never fires, and neither does the didSelectRowAtIndexPath. The only thing I am doing in the setEditing method, is hiding the back button while editing, and assigning firstResponder to the top textField to get the keyboard to pop up. I thought maybe the first responder was getting in the way of the click (which would be dumb), but even with that commented out, I cannot perform the cell selection during editing.

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• iPhone SDK / Core Data usage scenario, similar to GAE data store?

  - by boliva

  Hi all, I am currently rewriting a map based App which I wrote in the past, specifically for 2.2.1 devices. Originally I wrote it to make use of SQLite databases but I would like to try and migrate it over Core Data, now that it's available on 3.X (for which I am rewriting to). I am fairly experienced in iPhone/Obj-C development, SQL and server backend technologies, but I have never had the chance to work with Core Data so IDK really if it's the appropiate tool for what I am trying to accomplish. The App works on a limited area in a map over which there are about 4000 placemarks, with different kinds of icons and sizes. Of course not all 4000 placemarks are shown at once but only those currently visible in the map viewport, and depending on the zoom level. What I am doing right now is, after the user moves the map in any way (panning or zooming) I am requesting from the backend server the required information for the placemarks that would be visible given the viewport coordinates boundaries and zoom level, however the process isn't as smooth as I'd like (the backend is sending its response in XML and I am compressing it using gzip), it takes anywhere from 1 to 3 seconds to update the display of the placemarks after the user ends moving the map. What I would like to do is to prefetch all the placemarks data at the App launch and use it all through the app life time - I don't mind storing it for later use because the data should be dynamic. The way I would do it right now is, after retrieving all the data, to store it on an SQLite db which I would query later, whenever the user moves the map, to return only the placemarks inside the viewport coordinate boundaries and specific to a given zoom level. Now, the question itself is, if is it possible to use some more 'native', object driven way to carry this queries process, which got me thinking about Core Data and if it is in any way similar to what Google App Engine offers through its datastore where you can fetch a number of objects from the backend given a certain query or criteria, without resorting to an SQL query itself. Like I said before I don't have any experience on Core Data but I have a pretty deep understanding of Obj-C and iPhone development, as well as SQL databases. Any guides on how to achieve what I'm trying (if possible at all) would be greatly appreciated.

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• Zend Framework - Ruby on Rails has a screencast showing how to code a blog in 15 minutes. Does ZF ha

  - by Sootah

  Ruby on Rails has a screencast presentation they use to promote their framework that shows how to code a basic weblog system in 15 minutes with RoR. Does the Zend PHP Framework have a similar screencast/presentation/whatever demonstrating something similar? It doesn't have to be a blog specifically, but I would definitely like to find a presentation that shows some rapid application development using ZF. Where I'm coming from: I have been programming on and off for years now. I started out with QBASIC waaaaay back in the day making little programs (text adventure games, screensavers, simple little things). I then moved to C++ but never really did anything too impressive with it. Since then (probably 5 years or so now) I have started to use C# for my desktop development and PHP for my web development. I've made some pretty cool tools here and there, but am certainly not a professional programmer by any stretch of the term as it has always simply been a hobby of mine. Right now I have two major web applications that I will start work on shortly. (Like tomorrow, or later tonight ideally.. :) ) Both will be database-driven apps that will require user registration, the ability to manipulate data that is specific to their account (their posts, listings, user account details, etc), amongst other things. Currently I am evaluating different frameworks to help me develop these web apps more quickly. I've been looking at, and have heard good things about Ruby on Rails. Hulu and YellowPages.com using it is an obvious endorsement - Of course, I have heard about the scalability issues that it potentially has; but that shouldn't be an issue with what I am working on. I don't expect millions of users per day for either project. I am also seriously looking at the Zend Framework for my needs because I already have some experience with PHP. Ideally I would like to find a ZF screencast that shows an app being written quickly so that I have a roughly equal comparison between the two options I am exploring and can see first-hand how things get done in both. That said - I am not opposed to considering frameworks other than RoR or ZF. The only research I've done on the subject has been over the past couple of days so I am quite certain that there are other excellent options out there that I've not even looked at - or heard of. Of course, it'd be awesome if there is a rapid app dev presentation that I can watch for whatever else is suggested. So - Suggestions? Links to good screencasts that show rapid application development in other frameworks? Are there other PHP frameworks that I should be considering? (Ones that are easy to deploy would be ideal, so I don't have to purchase a dedicated server that I have full control over. I'd like to keep my hosting costs down assuming that it's reasonable) Thanks in advance! -Sootah

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• Auto update the content in ASP.NET

  - by Zerotoinfinite

  I have to design a website where user can update their status, just like facebook and twitter and other social networking sites. Now my requirement is to refresh the feed with new user updates. Ex: when the new status comes facebook automatically add that on the top of the feed. on the other hand twitter shows the number of updates which is ready to be load. both ways are acceptable to me Now, I have to decide what is the best way to achieve this functionality. I am open to use ASP.NET. So I am confused that regular repeater control with timer and auto refresh or any other way? (I am wondering that if I set repeater for auto update and meanwhile if user is performing some action on any status it will lost). or do I need to change my framework from ASP.NET to ASP.NET MVC (I am little afraid with MVC as I have very less knowledge regarding it and I know it has a learning curve to master ajax/Jquery things) Any suggestion how I can I achieve it in a better and feasible way? EDIT1 I am not looking for a code but I want advice to achieve this. Supporting URL's would be appreciated. EDIT2 I am open to JQuery which can regularly check the database and fill the section. But my concern is this that if user is updating any comment and want to load/feed is automatically generated. his textbox text shouldn't be disappear (just like facebook, twitter or Linkedin) EDIT3 I have seen that on Stack overflow when any other user has modified the question/answer, I got notification like this question/answer is modified. and when I clicked on that notification only that section got reloaded. I am curious to know how to achieve this functionality. So that when user is commenting on a status/post and if meanwhile someone has updated the content then it would show the other user comment. Edit4 Could someone please recommend me an example of ASP.NET MVC 3+ which can do similar kind of activity (i.e. one input box and once user insert an text it will add the item in the list (with JQuery).

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• reCaptcha issue with Spring MVC

  - by skip

  Hi I've been trying to integrate reCaptcha with my application built on Spring framework, but I am getting this error: org.springframework.web.bind.MissingServletRequestParameterException: Required String parameter 'recaptcha_challenge_field' is not present Could someone help me understand that why am I getting this error. I've got both recaptcha_challenge_field and recaptcha_response_field parameters bound to the User domain object. Could anybody help me understand what am I missing? Thanks Here is the code of the controller I am using, all I am trying to do is register a user with reCaptcha functionality but what I am getting is a http status 400 with the error org.springframework.web.bind.MissingServletRequestParameterException: Required String parameter 'recaptcha_challenge_field' is not present: UserManagementController.java @Controller public class UserManagementController { private static final String RECAPTCHA_HTML = "reCaptchaHtml"; @Autowired private UserService userService; @Autowired private ReCaptcha reCaptcha; @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET, value="/addNewUser.do") public ModelAndView addNewUser() { User user = new User(); String html = reCaptcha.createRecaptchaHtml(null, null); ModelMap modelMap = new ModelMap(); modelMap.put("user", user); modelMap.put(RECAPTCHA_HTML, html); return new ModelAndView("/addNewUser", modelMap); } @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.POST, value="/addNewUser.do") public String addNewUser(@Valid User user, BindingResult result, @RequestParam("recaptcha_challenge_field") String challenge, @RequestParam("recaptcha_response_field") String response, HttpServletRequest request, Model model) { verifyBinding(result); String remoteAddr = request.getRemoteAddr(); ReCaptchaResponse reCaptchaResponse = reCaptcha.checkAnswer(remoteAddr, challenge, response); if (!reCaptchaResponse.isValid()) { result.rejectValue("captcha", "errors.badCaptcha"); } model.addAttribute("user", user); if (result.hasErrors()) { result.reject("form.problems"); return "addNewUser"; } return "redirect:showContent.do"; } @InitBinder public void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) { binder.setAllowedFields(new String[] { "firstName", "lastName", "email", "username", "password", "recaptcha_challenge_field", "recaptcha_response_field" }); } private void verifyBinding(BindingResult result) { String[] suppressedFields = result.getSuppressedFields(); if (suppressedFields.length > 0) { throw new RuntimeException("You've attempted to bind fields that haven't been allowed in initBinder(): " + StringUtils.join(suppressedFields, ", ")); } } } Here is the addNewUser.jsp element on the form page for the above controller: <tr> <td>Please prove you're a person</td> <td>${reCaptchaHtml}</td> <td><form:errors path="captcha" cssStyle="color:red"></form:errors></td> </tr> Could you help me understand what am I missing here? Thanks for reply.

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• PERL newbie : get a proper minimal debug_mode solution

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: I am learning PERL in a "head-first" manner. I am absolutely a newbie in this language: I am trying to have a debug_mode switch from CLI which can be used to control how my script works, by switching certain subroutines "on and off". And below is what I've got so far: #!/usr/bin/perl -s -w # purpose : make subroutine execution optional, # which is depending on a CLI switch flag use strict; use warnings; use constant DEBUG_VERBOSE => "v"; use constant DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS => "s"; use constant DEBUG_IGNORE_VALIDATION => "i"; use constant DEBUG_SETPPING_COMPUTATION => "c"; our ($debug_mode); mainMethod(); sub mainMethod # () { if(!$debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is OFF\n"; } elsif($debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is ON\n"; } else { print "OMG!\n"; exit -1; } checkArgv(); printErrorMsg("Error_Code_123", "Parsing Error at..."); verbose(); } sub checkArgv #() { print ("Number of ARGV : ".(1 + $#ARGV)."\n"); } sub printErrorMsg # ($error_code, $error_msg, ..) { if(defined($debug_mode) && !($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS)) { print "You can only see me if -debug_mode is NOT set". " to DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS\n"; die("terminated prematurely...\n") and exit -1; } } sub verbose # () { if(defined($debug_mode) && ($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_VERBOSE)) { print "Blah blah blah...\n"; } } So far as I can tell, at least it works...: the -debug_mode switch doesn't interfere with normal ARGV the following commandlines work: ./optional.pl ./optional.pl -debug_mode ./optional.pl -debug_mode=v ./optional.pl -debug_mode=s However, I am puzzled when multiple debug_modes are "mixed", such as: ./optional.pl -debug_mode=sv ./optional.pl -debug_mode=vs I don't understand why the above lines of code "magically works". I see both of the "DEBUG_VERBOS" and "DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS" apply to the script, which is fine in this case. However, if there are some "conflicting" debug modes, I am not sure how to set the "precedence of debue_modes"? Also, I am not certain if my approach is good enough to Perlists and I hope I am getting my feet in the right direction. One biggest problem is that I now put if statements inside most of my subroutines for controlling their behavior under different modes. Is this okay? Is there a more elegant way? I know there must be a debug module from CPAN or elsewhere, but I wanna a real minimal solution that doesn't depend on any other module than the "default" And I cannot have any control on the environment where this script will be executed... Many thanks to the suggestions in advance.

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• e.Row.Tag .ToString

  - by prince23

  hi, Child data grid is not showing the values in the page for the child datagrid I am binding with an list <sdk:DataGrid MinHeight="100" x:Name="contacts" Margin="51,21,88,98" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="contacts_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" LoadingRowDetails="contacts_LoadingRowDetails" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected" MouseLeftButtonUp="contacts_MouseLeftButtonUp" MouseLeftButtonDown="contacts_MouseLeftButtonDown"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeID}" Header="ID" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeFName}" Header="Fname" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeLName}" Header="LName" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeMailID}" Header="MailID" /> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <DataTemplate> <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgrdRowDetail" Width="200" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HorizontalAlignment="Center" IsReadOnly="True"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="CompanyName" Binding="{Binding Company name}"/> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="CompanyName" Binding="{Binding EmpID}"/> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid> I am having 2 grids "contacts" and "dgrdRowDetail" globally i have defined an variable like this:- DataGrid dgrdRowDetail; in the contacts_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged event I have this code if (e.Row.DataContext != null) { string strEmpID = ((SilverlightApplication1.DBServiceEMP.Employee)((e.DetailsElement).DataContext)).EmployeeID; dgrdRowDetail = (DataGrid)e.DetailsElement.FindName("dgrdRowDetail"); // here i am finding the child datgrid control in contacts datagrid // then in dgrdRowDetail i will be binding this grid with new values if (strEmpID != null) { int EmpID = Convert.ToInt32(strEmpID.ToString()); DBServiceEmp.GetEmployeeIDCompleted += new EventHandler<GetEmployeeIDCompletedEventArgs>(DBServiceEmp_GetEmployeeIDCompleted); DBServiceEmp.GetEmployeeIDAsync(EmpID); } } this is my method void DBServiceEmp_GetEmployeeIDCompleted(object sender, GetEmployeeIDCompletedEventArgs e) { // List<Employee> Employes = new List<Employee>(); List<Employee> rows = new List<Employee>(); for (int i = 0; i < e.Result.Count; i++) { rows.Add(e.Result[i]); } dgrdRowDetail.ItemsSource = rows; // here i am binding the child datagrid with new data source } dgrdRowDetail.ItemsSource = rows// what ever rows i am binding to dgrdRowDetail are not shown in the page if i check the rows i am able to see the value ther. but in the child grid it is not reflecting plz plz help me out i am struck thanks in advance prince

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• FACING ERROR WHILE CALLING AXIS2 WEB SERVICE ...

  - by darshanv

  Hello , I am new to axis ,I have created a web servcie with couple of methods using axis2 and deployed it on tomcat.And am calling that web service from my android program with the help of ksoap.But wen i call a method which doesn't take any parameter am gettin fine reply from web service which i can able to see on my screen,But wen i call anothr method which takes a string argument am getting namespace exception on server WEB SERVICE CODE IS ..... package Guru; public class DarshanSays { public String getMsg(String h) { return h+" ..the power of change is eVolution..."; } public String getEmpty(String d)throws Exception { return "empty string from tomcattttttttttt"; } } //AND program is String soap_action="http://Guru/getEmpty"; String method_nm="getEmpty"; String nmspc="http://Guru/"; String url7="//192.168.10.182:8080/axis2/services/Friday";//http: SoapObject request = new SoapObject(url7,method_nm); /*sending method parameters with SoapObject */ request.newInstance(); request.addProperty("h","darshan.....");//sending a parameter to a method SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.bodyOut=request; envelope.dotNet = true; envelope.encodingStyle = SoapSerializationEnvelope.XSD; Log.d("Step","3"); envelope.dotNet=true; /*setting outputsoap object sending request */ envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); /*HttpTransportSE object creating sending it url */ androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(url7); //androidHttpTransport.setXmlVersionTag(""); Log.d("Step","4"); try{ androidHttpTransport.debug=true; androidHttpTransport.call(nmspc,envelope); } catch(Exception e) { Log.d("Transportcall",""+e); alert=new AlertDialog.Builder(this); alert.setMessage(""+e); alert.show(); } //exception is throw. Log.d("Step","5"); try { Log.d("giving...","resp"); SoapPrimitive sp=(SoapPrimitive)envelope.getResponse(); String hh=sp.toString(); Log.d("reply from web ser",".."+hh.toString()); //and erorr msg is SoapFault - faultcode:'soapenv:Server' faultstring: 'namespace mismatch require http://Guru found 192.168.10.182:8080/axis2/services/Friday' faultactor: 'null' detail: org.kxml2.kdom.Node@43d31390 ERROR IS coming only when am calling parameterized method. I am facing this issue only when am giving a call to parameterized method. Please Help.. thanks Darshan V

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