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  • JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

    - by purecharger
    And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

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  • Assign a unique client ID to each <rich:dataTable /> row?

    - by Dolph Mathews
    I'm relatively new to working with the UI in Seam, so I'm hoping there is something simple I can replace the three instances of UNIQUE_ID with in the following example (such as #{object.uniqueId}). The goal is to have a <rich:dataTable /> wherein each row has the ability to show/hide a <rich:modalPanel /> with more details about the particular object instance. <rich:dataTable var="object" value="#{bean.myObject}"> <rich:column> <h:outputText value="#{object.summary}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <a onclick="Richfaces.showModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Show Details in ModalPanel</a> <a4j:form> <rich:modalPanel id="UNIQUE_ID" > <a onclick="Richfaces.hideModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Hide This ModalPanel</a> <h:outputText value="#{object.details}" /> </rich:modalPanel> </a4j:form> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> If I only had one link/modalPanel pair, this would obviously be trivial, but I don't know what to do within the scope of the <rich:dataTable />'s iteration. Also, in case it complicates things further, the page will also contain many <rich:dataTable />'s, each implementing this behavior.

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  • rich suggestions - why input is null? (seam framework)

    - by Cristian Boariu
    Hi, I'm trying to build a rich suggestions and i do not understand WHY the input value is null... I mean, why inputText value is not taken when i enter something. The .xhtml code: <h:inputText value="#{suggestion.input}" id="text"> </h:inputText> <rich:suggestionbox id="suggestionBoxId" for="text" tokens=",[]" suggestionAction="#{suggestion.getSimilarSpacePaths()}" var="result" fetchValue="#{result.path}" first="0" minChars="2" nothingLabel="No similar space paths found" columnClasses="center" > <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{result.path}" style="font-style:italic"/> </h:column> </rich:suggestionbox> and action class: @Name("suggestion") @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) public class Suggestion { @In protected EntityManager entityManager; private String input; public String getInput() { return input; } public void setInput(final String input) { this.input = input; } public List<Space> getSimilarSpacePaths() { List<Space> suggestionsList = new ArrayList<Space>(); if (!StringUtils.isEmpty(input) && !input.equals("/")) { final Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("SpaceByPathLike"); query.setParameter("path", input + '%'); suggestionsList = (List<Space>) query.getResultList(); } return suggestionsList; } } So, input beeing null, suggestionList is always empty... Why input's value is not posted?

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • How to use jQuery .live() with ajax

    - by kylemac
    Currently I am using John Resig's LiveQuery plugin/function - http://ejohn.org/blog/jquery-livesearch/ - to allow users to sort through a long unordered-list of list-items. The code is as follows: $('input#q').liveUpdate('ul#teams').focus(); The issue arises when I use ajaxified tabs to sort the lists. Essentially I use ajax to pull in different lists and the liveUpdate() function doesn't have access to the new li's. I assume I would need to bind this using the .live() function - http://api.jquery.com/live/. But I am unclear how to bind this to an ajax event, I've only used the "click" event. How would I bind the new liveUpdate() to the newly loaded list-items? EDIT: The ajax tabs is run through the wordpress ajax api so the code is fairly complex, but simplified it is something like this: $('div.item-list-tabs').click( function(event) { var target = $(event.target).parent(); var data = {action, scope, pagination}; // Passes action to WP that loads my tab data $.post( ajaxurl, data, function(response) { $(target).fadeOut( 100, function() { $(this).html(response); $(this).fadeIn(100); }); }); return false; }); This is simplified for the sake of this conversation, but basically once the $.post loads the response in place .liveUpdate() doesn't have access to it. I believe the .live() function is the answer to this problem, I'm just unclear on how to implement it with the $.post()

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  • jQuery - Callback failing if there is no options parameter

    - by user249950
    Hi, I'm attempting to build a simple plugin like this (function($) { $.fn.gpSlideOut = function(options, callback) { // default options - these are used when no others are specified $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults = { fadeToColour: "#ffffb3", fadeToColourSpeed: 500, slideUpSpeed: 400 }; // build main options before element iteration var o = $.extend({}, $.fn.gpSlideOut.defaults, options); this.each(function() { $(this) .animate({backgroundColor: o.fadeToColour},o.fadeToColourSpeed) .slideUp(o.SlideUpSpeed, function(){ if (typeof callback == 'function') { // make sure the callback is a function callback.call(this); // brings the scope to the callback } }); }); return this; }; // invoke the function we just created passing it the jQuery object })(jQuery); The confusion I'm having is that normally on jQuery plugins you can call something like this: $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(function() { // Do stuff }); Without the options parameter, but it misses the callback if I do it like that so I have to always have var options = {} $(this_moveable_item).gpSlideOut(options, function() { // Do stuff }); Even if I only want to use the defaults. Is there anyway to make sure the callback function is called whether or not the options parameter is there? Cheers.

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  • Converting TrueClass / FalseClass to integer.

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello. I'm trying to figure out if there is an easy way to do the following short of adding to_i method to TrueClass/FalseClass. Here is a dilemma: I have a boolean field in my rails app - that is obviously stored as Tinyint in mysql. However - I need to generate xml based of the data in mysql and send it to customer - there SOAP service requires the field in question to have 0 or 1 as the value of this field. So at the time of the xml generation I need to convert my False to 0 and my True to 1 ( which is how they are stored in the DB). Since True & False lack to_i method I could write some if statement that generate either 1 or 0 depending on true/false state. However I have about 10 of these indicators and creating and if/else for each is not very DRY. So what you recommend I do? Or I could add a to_i method to the True / False class. But I'm not sure where should I scope it in my rails app? Just inside this particular model or somewhere else?

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  • Will rel=canonical break site: queries ?

    - by Justin Grant
    Our company publishes our software product's documentation using a custom-built content management system using a dynamic URL namespace like this: http://ourproduct.com/documentation/version/pageid Where "version" is the version number to which the documentation applies, and "pageid" is a unique string which identifies that page in our back-end content management system. For example, if content (e.g. a page about configuration best practices) is unchanged from version 3.0 and 4.0 of our product, it'd be reachable by two different URLs: http://ourproduct.com/documentation/3.0/configuration-best-practices http://ourproduct.com/documentation/4.0/configuration-best-practices This URL scheme allows us to scope Google search results to see only documentaiton for a particular product version, like this: configuration site:ourproduct.com/documentation/4.0 But when the user is searching across all versions, we don't want Google to arbitrarily choose one of the URLs to show in results. Instead, we always want the latest version to show up. Hence our planned use of rel=canonical so we can proscriptively tell Google which URL we want to show up if multiple versions are being searched. (Users who do oddball things like searching 2 versions but not all of them are a corner case, so we don't care which version(s) show up in that case-- the primary use-cases we care about is searching one version or searching all versions) But what will happen to scoped searches if we do this? If my rel=canonical URL points to version 4.0, but my search is scoped to 3.0, will Google return a result? Even if you don't know the answer offhand, do you know a site which uses rel=canonical to redirect across folders in a URL namespace. If so, I could run a few Google searches and figure out the answer.

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  • Regexp that matches user-agents of end-user browsers but NOT crawlers with >90 % accuracy

    - by knorv
    I'm trying to construct a regexp that will evaluate to true for User-Agent:s of "browsers navigated by humans", but false for bots. Needless to say the matching will not be exact, but if it gets things right in say 90 % of cases that is more than good enough. My approach so far is to target the User-Agent string of the the five major desktop browsers (MSIE, Firefox, Chrome, Safari, Opera). Specifically I want the regexp NOT to match if the user-agent is a bot (Googlebot, msnbot, etc.). Currently I'm using the following regexp which appears to achieve the desired precision: ^(Mozilla.*(Gecko|KHTML|MSIE|Presto|Trident)|Opera).*$ I've observed small number of false negatives which are mostly mobile browsers. The exceptions all match: (BlackBerry|HTC|LG|MOT|Nokia|NOKIAN|PLAYSTATION|PSP|SAMSUNG|SonyEricsson) My question is: Given the desired accuracy level, how would you improve the regexp? Can you think of any major false positives or false negatives to the given regexp? Please note that the question is specifically about regexp-based User-Agent matching. There are a bunch of other approaches to solving this problem, but those are out of the scope of this question.

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  • How does the destructor know when to activate itself? Can it be relied upon?

    - by Robert Mason
    Say for example i have the following code (pure example): class a { int * p; public: a() { p = new int; ~a() { delete p; } }; a * returnnew() { a retval; return(&retval); } int main() { a * foo = returnnew(); return 0; } In returnnew(), would retval be destructed after the return of the function (when retval goes out of scope)? Or would it disable automatic destruction after i returned the address and i would be able to say delete foo; at the end of main()? Or, in a similar vein (pseudocode): void foo(void* arg) { bar = (a*)arg; //do stuff exit_thread(); } int main() { while(true) { a asdf; create_thread(foo, (void*)&asdf); } return 0; } where would the destructor go? where would i have to say delete? or is this undefined behavior? Would the only possible solution be to use the STL referenced-counted pointers? how would this be implemented? Thank you- i've used C++ for a while but never quite been in this type of situation, and don't want to create memory leaks.

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  • How to use javascript class from within document ready

    - by Richard
    Hi, I have this countdown script wrapped as an object located in a separate file Then when I want to setup a counter, the timeout function in the countdown class can not find the object again that I have setup within the document ready. I sort of get that everything that is setup in the document ready is convined to that scope, however it is possible to call functions within other document ready´s. Does anyone has a solution on how I could setup multiple counters slash objects. Or do those basic javascript classes have to become plugins This is some sample code on how the class begins function countdown(obj) { this.obj = obj; this.Div = "clock"; this.BackColor = "white"; this.ForeColor = "black"; this.TargetDate = "12/31/2020 5:00 AM"; this.DisplayFormat = "%%D%% Days, %%H%% Hours, %%M%% Minutes, %%S%% Seconds."; this.CountActive = true; this.DisplayStr; this.Calcage = cd_Calcage; this.CountBack = cd_CountBack; this.Setup = cd_Setup; } thanks, Richard

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  • iPhone Multithreaded Search

    - by Kulpreet
    I'm sort of new to any sort of multithreading and simply can't seem to get a simple search method working on a background thread properly. Everything seems to be in order with an NSAutoreleasePool and the UI being updated on the main thread. The app doesn't crash and does perform a search in the background but the search results yield the several of the same items several times depending on how fast I type it in. The search works properly without the multithreading (which is commented out), but is very slow because of the large amounts of data I am working with. Here's the code: - (void)filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText { isSearching = YES; NSAutoreleasePool *apool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; /* Update the filtered array based on the search text and scope. */ //[self.filteredListContent removeAllObjects]; // First clear the filtered array. for (Entry *entry in appDelegate.entries) { NSComparisonResult result = [entry.gurmukhiEntry compare:searchText options:(NSCaseInsensitiveSearch|NSDiacriticInsensitiveSearch) range:NSMakeRange(0, [searchText length])]; if (result == NSOrderedSame) { [self.filteredListContent addObject:entry]; } } [self.searchDisplayController.searchResultsTableView performSelectorOnMainThread:(@selector(reloadData)) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; //[self.searchDisplayController.searchResultsTableView reloadData]; [apool drain]; isSearching = NO; } - (BOOL)searchDisplayController:(UISearchDisplayController *)controller shouldReloadTableForSearchString:(NSString *)searchString { if (!isSearching) { [self.filteredListContent removeAllObjects]; // First clear the filtered array. [self performSelectorInBackground:(@selector(filterContentForSearchText:)) withObject:searchString]; } //[self filterContentForSearchText:searchString]; return NO; // Return YES to cause the search result table view to be reloaded. }

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  • How to hide some nodes in Richfaces Tree (do not render nodes by condition)?

    - by VestniK
    I have a tree of categories and courses in my SEAM application. Courses may be active and inactive. I want to be able to show only active or all courses in my tree. I've decided to always build complete tree in my PAGE scope component since building this tree is quite expensive operation. I have boolean flag courseActive in the data wrapped by TreeNode<T>. Now I can't find the way to show courses node only if this flag is true. The best result I've achieved with the following code: <h:outputLabel for="showInactiveCheckbox" value="show all courses: "/> <h:selectBooleanCheckbox id="showInactiveCheckbox" value="#{categoryTreeEditorModel.showAllCoursesInTree}"> <a4j:support event="onchange" reRender="categoryTree"/> </h:selectBooleanCheckbox> <rich:tree id="categoryTree" value="#{categoryTree}" var="item" switchType="ajax" ajaxSubmitSelection="true" reRender="categoryTree,controls" adviseNodeOpened="#{categoryTreeActions.adviseRootOpened}" nodeSelectListener="#{categoryTreeActions.processSelection}" nodeFace="#{item.typeName}"> <rich:treeNode type="Category" icon="..." iconLeaf="..."> <h:outputText value="#{item.title}"/> </rich:treeNode> <rich:treeNode type="Course" icon="..." iconLeaf="..." rendered="#{item.courseActive or categoryTreeEditorModel.showAllCoursesInTree}"> <h:outputText rendered="#{item.courseActive}" value="#{item.title}"/> <h:outputText rendered="#{not item.courseActive}" value="#{item.title}" style="color:#{a4jSkin.inactiveTextColor}"/> </rich:treeNode> </rich:tree> the only problem is if some node is not listed in any rich:treeNode it just still shown with title obtained by Object.toString() method insted of being hidden. Does anybody know how to not show some nodes in the Richfases tree according to some condition?

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  • COM-Objects containing maps / content error(0)

    - by Florian Berzsenyi
    I'm writing a small wrapper to get familiar with some important topics in C++ (WinAPI, COM, STL,OOP). For now, my class shall be able to create a (child) window. Mainly, this window is connected to a global message loop that distribute messages to a local loop of the right instance (global is static, local is virtual). Obviously, there are surely better ways to do that but I'm using std::maps to store HWND and their instance pointer in pairs (the Global loop looks for the pointer with the HWND-parameter, gets itself the pointer from the map and calls then the local loop). Now, it appears that the map does not accept any values because of a unknown reason. It seems to allocate enough space but something went wrong anyway [ (error) 0 is displayed instead of the entries in visual C++). I've looked that up in google as well and found out that maps cause some trouble when used in classes AND DLLs. May this be the reason and is there any solution?? Protected scope of class: static std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> m_LoopBuf Implementation in .cpp-file: std::map<HWND,MAP_BASE_OBJECT*> HWindow::m_LoopBuf;

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  • How do I select the shallowest matching elements with XPath?

    - by harpo
    Let's say I have this document. <a:Root> <a:A> <title><a:B/></title> <a:C> <item><a:D/></item> </a:C> </a:A> </a:Root> And I have an XmlNode set to the <a:A> element. If I say A.SelectNodes( "//a:*", namespaceManager ) I get B, C, and D. But I don't want D because it's nested in another "a:" element. If I say A.SelectNodes( "//a:*[not(ancestor::a:*)]", namespaceManager ) of course, I get nothing, since both A and its parent are in the "a" namespace. How can I select just B and C, that is, the shallowest children matching the namespace? Thanks. Note, this is XPath 1.0 (.NET 2), so I can't use in-scope-prefixes (which it appears would help).

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  • How can I build the Boost.Python example on Ubuntu 9.10?

    - by Gatlin
    I am using Ubuntu 9.10 beta, whose repositories contain boost 1.38. I would like to build the hello-world example. I followed the instructions here (http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1%5F40%5F0/libs/python/doc/tutorial/doc/html/python/hello.html), found the example project, and issued the "bjam" command. I have installed bjam and boost-build. I get the following output: Jamroot:18: in modules.load rule python-extension unknown in module Jamfile</usr/share/doc/libboost1.38-doc/examples/libs/python/example>. /usr/share/boost-build/build/project.jam:312: in load-jamfile /usr/share/boost-build/build/project.jam:68: in load /usr/share/boost-build/build/project.jam:170: in project.find /usr/share/boost-build/build-system.jam:248: in load /usr/share/boost-build/kernel/modules.jam:261: in import /usr/share/boost-build/kernel/bootstrap.jam:132: in boost-build /usr/share/doc/libboost1.38-doc/examples/libs/python/example/boost-build.jam:7: in module scope I do not know enough about Boost (this is an exploratory exercise for myself) to understand why the python-extension macro in the included Jamroot is not valid. I am running this example from the install directory, so I have not altered the Jamroot's use-project setting. As a side question, if I were to just willy-nilly start a project in an arbitrary directory, how would I write my jamroot?

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  • Not showing error when calling another function in Spring

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a controller with 2 methods. The first one just add some lists to the model (the lists of my comboboxes) and return a JSP with a form. The second one validates the data and if there aren't errors it saves the data. The code looks like this: public String showForm(Model model){ //load some data into some lists return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } public String save(@Valid @ModelAttribute("MyData") Data data, BindingResult result, Model model){ if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages //(but I need to reload the combobox lists) return showForm(model); } //save data } The problem is that in this way I don't see the error messages in the form (though I see by the debugger that it has found errors). I've thought that the problem comes because the showForm method doesn't have the error messages because it can't see the BindingResult, so I've added BindingResult as a parameter of showForm method, but it still doesn't work. I've added My Model Attribute as well but I get the same problem. If I just return the JSP file in the save method I can see the errors, but in this way I would need to add again in this other method the lists I had already added in the showForm (duplicated code). I can't save the data in session scope so it's compulsory to get again the lists after getting the error. if(result.hasErrors()){ //there are errors: show form with error messages return "tiles:myJSPfile"; } Why are errors not shown when I call a function to display my JSP different from the one I used for the validation? What's the best way to do this? Thanks.

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  • How can I automatically release resources RAII-style in Perl?

    - by Philip Potter
    Say I have a resource (e.g. a filehandle or network socket) which has to be freed: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; process($fh); close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; Suppose that process might die. Then the code block exits early, and $fh doesn't get closed. I could explicitly check for errors: open my $fh, "<", "filename" or die "Couldn't open filename: $!"; eval {process($fh)}; my $saved_error = $@; close $fh or die "Couldn't close filename: $!"; die $saved_error if $saved_error; but this kind of code is notoriously difficult to get right, and only gets more complicated when you add more resources. In C++ I would use RAII to create an object which owns the resource, and whose destructor would free it. That way, I don't have to remember to free the resource, and resource cleanup happens correctly as soon as the RAII object goes out of scope - even if an exception is thrown. Unfortunately in Perl a DESTROY method is unsuitable for this purpose as there are no guarantees for when it will be called. Is there a Perlish way to ensure resources are automatically freed like this even in the presence of exceptions? Or is explicit error checking the only option?

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  • are there java based auto-updating tools other than WebStart & Eclipse P2?

    - by DaddyB
    Hi, I am working on a java based application and we are looking to ease our deployment of updates. Up until now, we've always simply sent out new install packs & had the sysadmin's on our customer sites roll out the upgrades - painful for a large number of users. what I'd like to do is something similar to java webstart (or eclipse p2) - when the application starts, it checks for updates in a specified location and then downloads the updates prior to starting. But here's my problem - I want more control over what's done outside of the scope of plugins & jar files. For example: I'd like to be able to upate my JVM (we ship a modified version with additional security features). I need to install DLL's - possibly local to the jar files, sometimes to windows Occasiontally run MSI's to install windows components (e.g. printer drivers). I need to modify config files & the registry. I have found a few applications that support this (such as AppLifeUpdate at http://www.kineticjump.com/) but they tend to be .NET focused and it seems a bit perverse to introduce a .NET dependancy on a java application ;) I know I could write my own here, but if there is already a 3rd party library out there that supports this kind of facility, then it would make my life a lot easier. So, has anyone else had a similar problem & knows of some products I could look at? Thanks, Brian.

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  • jQuery multiple themes on one page

    - by lloydphillips
    This is driving me NUTS! I've followed the post here which just doesn't seem to be working: http://www.filamentgroup.com/lab/using_multiple_jquery_ui_themes_on_a_single_page/ I have a base theme, for examples sake it's the Smoothness theme from the jQuery UI gallery. Then I have a 'red' theme which basically colours the buttons red. Here is the theme I created. So I go to download my theme. Choose Advanced settings, set the scope to 'red' and my theme folder name to 'red' and download. First of all I'm not entirely 100% sure which folder I'm to copy over to my project is it the 'development-bundle\themes' folder (which contains my red folder) or the '\css\red' folder? I've tried both. The post above seems to suggest if I copy my themes folder and link to my theme in the css it'll work when I add a class of 'red' to a wrapper div or element. So I've linked the themes like so in my file: <link type="text/css" href="themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <link type="text/css" href="themes/red/jquery.ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> The base theme loads and works all honkey doorey but the red theme doesn't. I've got a button styled like so: <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" class="red" /> I've also tried: <div class="red"> <input type="submit" id="btn" value="A submit button" /> </div> Neither work. When I remove the 'themes/base/jquery.ui.all.css' css file link the button's aren't styled at all. Crazy! I'm pulling my hair out. Where am I going wrong? Surely they should just make it easy enough to download JUST the theme folder and reference the ui.all file.

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  • How to configure database connection securely

    - by chiccodoro
    Similar but not the same: How to securely store database connection details Securely connecting to database within a application Hi all, I have a C# WinForms application connecting to a database server. The database connection string, including a generic user/pass, is placed in a NHibernate configuration file, which lies in the same directory as the exe file. Now I have this issue: The user that runs the application should not get to know the username/password of the general database user because I don't want him to rummage around in the database directly. Alternatively I could hardcode the connection string, which is bad because the administrator must be able to change it if the database is moved or if he wants to switch between dev/test/prod environments. So long I've found three possibilities: The first referenced question was generally answered by making the file only readable for the user that runs the application. But that's not not enough in my case (the user running the application is a person. The database user/pass are general and shouldn't even be accessible by the person.) The first answer additionally proposed to encrypt the connection data before writing it to the file. With this approach, the administrator is not able anymore to configure the connection string because he cannot encrypt it by hand. The second referenced question provides an approach for this very scenario but it seems very complicated. My questions to you: This is a very general issue, so isn't there any general "how-to-do-it" way, somehow a "design pattern"? Is there some support in .NET's config infrastructure? (optional, maybe out of scope) Can I combine that easily with the NHibernate configuration mechanism?

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  • Rails does not display error messages on a form in a custom method

    - by slythic
    Hi all, I've created a custom method called checkout in my app. I create an order (which is done my adding products to my "cart"), assign it to my client, and then I head to my checkout screen where I confirm the items and enter their customer order number and complete the order (submit). Everything works great except that it doesn't display error messages. I'm able to display a flash error notice (seen in complete_order method) when things go wrong but it doesn't specify the details like a normal form would. The error messages should appear if the customer order number is not unique for that client. Below is the custom method (checkout) related code. Order Model: validates_uniqueness_of :customer_order_number, :scope => :client_id Orders_controller: def checkout @order = current_order end def complete_order @order = current_order respond_to do |format| if @order.update_attributes(params[:order]) @order.complete #sets submitted datetime and state to 'complete' flash[:notice] = 'Thank you! Your order is being processed.' format.html { redirect_to( products_path ) } format.xml { head :ok } else flash[:error] = 'Please review your items' #added to confirm an error is present format.html { redirect_to( checkout_path ) } format.xml { render :xml => @order.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end And the form in the checkout view: <% form_for @order, :url => { :controller => "orders", :action => "complete_order" } do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= f.text_field :customer_order_number, :label => "Purchase Order Number" %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Complete Order', :confirm => 'Are you sure?' %> <small> or <%= link_to 'cancel', current_cart_path %></small> </p> <% end %> Any idea how I can display the specific error messages? Thank you in advance! -Tony

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  • when an autoreleased object is actually released?

    - by psebos
    Hi, I am new in objective-c and I am trying to understand memory management to get it right. After reading the excellent Memory Management Programming Guide for Cocoa by apple my only concern is when actually an autoreleased object is released in an iphone/ipod application. My understanding is at the end of a run loop. But what defines a run loop in the application? So I was wondering whether the following piece of code is right. Assume an object @implementation Test - (NSString *) functionA { NSString *stringA; stringA = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"Hello" autorelease] return stringA; } - (NSString *) functionB { NSString *stringB; stringB = [self functionA]; return stringB; } - (NSString *) functionC { NSString *stringC; stringC = [self functionB]; return stringC; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; (NSString *) p = [self functionC]; NSLog(@"string is %@",p); } @end Is this code valid? From the apple text I understand that the NSString returned from functionA is valid in the scope of functionB. I am not sure whether it is valid in functionC and in viewDidLoad. Thanks!

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  • Defining an implementation independent version of the global object in JavaScript

    - by Aadit M Shah
    I'm trying to define the global object in JavaScript in a single line as follows: var global = this.global || this; The above statement is in the global scope. Hence in browsers the this pointer is an alias for the window object. Assuming that it's the first line of JavaScript to be executed in the context of the current web page, the value of global will always be the same as that of the this pointer or the window object. In CommonJS implementations, such as RingoJS and node.js the this pointer points to the current ModuleScope. However, we can access the global object through the property global defined on the ModuleScope. Hence we can access it via the this.global property. Hence this code snippet works in all browsers and in at least RingoJS and node.js, but I have not tested other CommomJS implementations. Thus I would like to know if this code will not yield correct results when run on any other CommonJS implementation, and if so how I may fix it. Eventually, I intend to use it in a lambda expression for my implementation independent JavaScript framework as follows (idea from jQuery): (function (global) { // javascript framework })(this.global || this);

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  • Reading Code - helpful visualizers and browser tools

    - by wishi_
    Hi! I find myself reading 10 times more code than writing. My IDEs all are optimized to make me edit code - with completion, code assist, outlines etc. However if I'm checking out a completely new project: getting into the application's logics isn't optimized with these IDE features. Because I cannot extend what I don't fully understand. If you for example check out a relatively new project, frama-c, you realize that it has got plugins that are helpful to gain insight into "unfamiliar code": http://frama-c.com/plugins.html - However of course the project has a different scope. What I'm fully aware of. I'm looking for something that does helpful things for code-reading. Like: providing a graph, - reverse engineering UML e g., showing variable scopes showing which parts are affected by attempted modifications visualizing data-flow semantics showing tag-lists of heavily utilized functions ... My hope is that something like that exists. - That there're some Eclipse plugins I don't know or that there's a code-browser that has some of these features?

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