Search Results

Search found 11568 results on 463 pages for 'config spec'.

Page 112/463 | < Previous Page | 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119  | Next Page >

  • MVC2 DataAnnotations on ViewModel - Don't understand using it with MVVM pattern

    - by ScottSEA
    I have an MVC2 Application that uses MVVM pattern. I am trying use Data Annotations to validate form input. In my ThingsController I have two methods: [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } public ActionResult Details(ThingsViewModel tvm) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(tvm); try { Query q = new Query(tvm.Query); ThingRepository repository = new ThingRepository(q); tvm.Things = repository.All(); return View(tvm); } catch (Exception) { return View(); } } My Details.aspx view is strongly typed to the ThingsViewModel: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Config.Web.Models.ThingsViewModel>" %> The ViewModel is a class consisting of a IList of returned Thing objects and the Query string (which is submitted on the form) and has the Required data annotation: public class ThingsViewModel { public IList<Thing> Things{ get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="You must enter a query")] public string Query { get; set; } } When I run this, and click the submit button on the form without entering a value I get a YSOD with the following error: The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Config.Web.Models.ThingsViewModel', but this dictionary requires a model item of type System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[Config.Domain.Entities.Thing]'. How can I get Data Annotations to work with a ViewModel? I cannot see what I'm missing or where I'm going wrong - the VM was working just fine before I started mucking around with validation.

    Read the article

  • zend session exception on zend_session::start with forms

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi I'm having issues with trying to use Zend_Form_SubForm and sessions. My controller is in essance acting a wizard showing different subforms depending on the stage of the wizard. Using the example I am planning on storing the forms in a session namespace. My controller looks like this. include 'mylib/Form/addTaskWizardForm.php'; class AddtaskController extends Zend_Controller_Action{ private $config = null; private $log = null; private $subFormSession = null; /** * This function is called and initialises the global variables to this object * which is the configuration details and the logger to write to the log file. */ public function init(){ $this->config = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('config'); $this->log = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('log'); //set layout $this->_helper->layout->setLayout('no-sidemenus'); //we need to get the subforms and $wizardForms = new addTaskWizardForm(); $this->subFormSession = new Zend_Session_Namespace('addTaskWizardForms'); if(!isset($this->subFormSession->subforms)){ $this->subFormSession->subforms = $wizardForms; } } /** * The Landing page controller for the site. */ public function indexAction(){ $form = $this->subFormSession->subforms->getSubForm('start'); $this->view->form = $form; } However this is causing the application session to crash out with Uncaught exception 'Zend_Session_Exception' with message 'Zend_Session::start() Any idea why this is having issues with the Zend Session?? thanks.

    Read the article

  • log4net 1.2 RollingFileAppender not working

    - by Rishi Poptani
    Hi Guys, I'm using log4net v1.2 with a Windows Service App. My RollingFileAppender seems not to work. I'm pasting the logging sections of my service.exe.config below. Can anyone advise where m going wrong? <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net"/> .....(lots of other config stuff) <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender,log4net" > <param name="File" value="D:\\Trinity\\Booking\\OneDay_PostTrade\\logs\\Trinity.log" /> <param name="MaximumFileSize" value="20MB" /> <param name="MaxSizeRollBackups" value="10" /> <param name="StaticLogFileName" value="true" /> <param name="Threshold" value="ALL" /> <param name="RollingStyle" value="Composite" /> <param name="appendToFile" value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout,log4net"> <param name="ConversionPattern" value="%d [%t] %-5p %c - %m%n" /> </layout> </appender> ...(stuff in between) <root> <level value="ALL" /> <appender-ref ref="ConsoleAppender" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> </root> .....(stuff in between) <logger name="CSFB.PostTradeRulesEngine"> <level value="ALL"/> </logger>

    Read the article

  • How do you parse the XDG/gnome/kde menu/desktop item structure in c++??

    - by Joe Soul-bringer
    I would like to parse the menu structure for Gnome Panels (the standard Gnome Desktop application launcher) and it's KDE equivalent using c/c++ function calls. That is, I'd like a list of what the base menu categories and submenu are installed in a given machine. I would like to do with using fairly simple c/c++ function calls (with NO shelling out please). I understand that these menus are in the standard xdg format. I understand that this menu structure is stored in xml files such as: /home/user/.config/menus/applications.menu I've look here: http://www.freedesktop.org/wiki/Specifications/menu-spec?action=show&redirect=Standards%2Fmenu-spec but all they offer is the standard and some shell files to insert item entries (I don't want shell scripts, I don't want installation, I definitely don't want to create a c-library from the XDG specification. I want to find the existing menu structure). I've looked here: http://library.gnome.org/admin/system-admin-guide/stable/menustructure-13.html.en for more notes on these structures. None of this gives me a good idea of how determine the menu structures using a c/c++ program. The actual gnome menu structures seem to be a horrifically hairy things - they don't seem to show the menu structure but to give an XML-coded description of all the changes that the menus have gone through since installation. I assume gnome panels parses these file so there's a function buried somewhere to do this but I've yet to find where that function is after scanning library.gnome.org for a couple of days. I've scanned the Nautilus source code as well but Panels seem to exist elsewhere or are burried well. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Behavior of local variables in JavaScripts with()-statement

    - by thr
    I noticed some weird (and to my knowledge undefined behavior, by the ECMA 3.0 Spec at least), take the following snippet: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); alert(bar); } alert(bar); It crashes in both Firefox and Chrome, because "bar" doesn't exist in the first alert(); statement, this is as expected. But if you add a declaration of bar inside the with()-statement, so it looks like this: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; alert(bar); } alert(bar); It will produce the following: undefined, 1, g2, undefined It seems as if you create a variable inside a with()-statement most browsers (tested on Chrome or Firefox) will make that variable exist outside that scope also, it's just set to undefined. Now from my perspective bar should only exist inside the with()-statement, and if you make the example even weirder: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; var zoo; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; zoo = function() { return bar; } alert(bar); } alert(bar); alert(zoo()); It will produce this: undefined, 1, g2, undefined, g2 So the bar inside the with()-statement does not exist outside of it, yet the runtime somehow "automagically" creates a variable named bar that is undefined in its top level scope (global or function) but this variable does not refer to the same one as inside the with()-statement, and that variable will only exist if a with()-statement has a variable named bar that is defined inside it. Very weird, and inconsistent. Anyone have an explanation for this behavior? There is nothing in the ECMA Spec about this.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to defer member initialization to the constructor body?

    - by Kjir
    I have a class with an object as a member which doesn't have a default constructor. I'd like to initialize this member in the constructor, but it seems that in C++ I can't do that. Here is the class: #include <boost/asio.hpp> #include <boost/array.hpp> using boost::asio::ip::udp; template<class T> class udp_sock { public: udp_sock(std::string host, unsigned short port); private: boost::asio::io_service _io_service; udp::socket _sock; boost::array<T,256> _buf; }; template<class T> udp_sock<T>::udp_sock(std::string host = "localhost", unsigned short port = 50000) { udp::resolver res(_io_service); udp::resolver::query query(udp::v4(), host, "spec"); udp::endpoint ep = *res.resolve(query); ep.port(port); _sock(_io_service, ep); } The compiler tells me basically that it can't find a default constructor for udp::socket and by my research I understood that C++ implicitly initializes every member before calling the constructor. Is there any way to do it the way I wanted to do it, or is it too "Java-oriented" and not feasible in C++? I worked around the problem by defining my constructor like this: template<class T> udp_sock<T>::udp_sock(std::string host = "localhost", unsigned short port = 50000) : _sock(_io_service) { udp::resolver res(_io_service); udp::resolver::query query(udp::v4(), host, "spec"); udp::endpoint ep = *res.resolve(query); ep.port(port); _sock.bind(ep); } So my question is more out of curiosity and to better understand OOP in C++

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework in layered architecture

    - by Kamyar
    I am using a layered architecture with the Entity Framework. Here's What I came up with till now (All the projects Except UI are class library): Entities: The POCO Entities. Completely persistence ignorant. No Reference to other projects. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. DAL: The EDMX (Entity Model) file with the context class. (t4 generated). References: Entities BLL: Business Logic Layer. Will implement repository pattern on this layer. References: Entities, DAL. This is where the objectcontext gets populated: var ctx=new DAL.MyDBEntities(); UI: The presentation layer: ASP.NET website. References: Entities, BLL + a connection string entry to entities in the config file (question #2). Now my three questions: Is my layer discintion approach correct? In my UI, I access BLL as follows: var customerRep = new BLL.CustomerRepository(); var Customer = customerRep.GetByID(myCustomerID); The problem is that I have to define the entities connection string in my UI's web.config/app.config otherwise I get a runtime exception. IS defining the entities connectionstring in UI spoils the layers' distinction? Or is it accesptible in a muli layered architecture. Should I take any additional steps to perform chage tracking, lazy loading, etc (by etc I mean the features that Entity Framework covers in a conventional, 1 project, non POCO code generation)? Thanks and apologies for the lengthy question.

    Read the article

  • Is the Java classpath final after JVM startup?

    - by Jens
    Hi, I have read a lot about the Java class loading process lately. Often I came across texts that claimed that it is not possible to add classes to the classpath during runtime and load them without class loader hackery (URLClassLoaders etc.) As far as I know classes are loaded dynamically. That means their bytecode representation is only loaded and transformed to a java.lang.Class object when needed. So shouldn't it be possible to add a JAR or *.class file to the classpath after the JVM started and load those classes, provided they haven't been loaded yet? (To be clear: In this case the classpath is simple folder on the filesystem. "Adding a JAR or *.class file" simply means dropping them in this folder.) And if not, does that mean that the classpath is searched on JVM startup and all fully qualified names of the found classes are cached in an internal "list"? It would be nice of you if you could point me to some sources in your answers. Preferably the offical SUN documentation: Sun JVM Spec. I have read the spec but could not find anything about the classpath and if it's finalized on JVM startup. P.s. This is a theoretical question. I just want to know if it is possible. There is nothing practical I want to achieve. There is just my thirst for knowledge :)

    Read the article

  • Can a page opt out of IIS 7 compression?

    - by Glen Little
    My pages are automatically being compressed by IIS7 with GZIP. That is great... but, for one particular page, I need to stream it to the user, using Response.Flush() when needed. But when the output is being compressed, the IIS server seems to collect all my output until the page is done before compressing and sending it to the client. That nullifies my attempt to Flush the content out to the user. Is there a way that I can have this one page opt out of the compression? One possible option I've determined that if I manually set the content type to one that does not match the IIS configuration at c:\windows\system32\inetsrv\config\applicationhost.config, then IIS will not compress it. Eg. Response.ContentType = "x-text/html". This works okay with IE8, as it falls back to display the HTML. But Firefox will ask the user what to do with the unknown file type. This could work, if there was another Mime Type I could use that browsers would accept as HTML, that is not matched in the applicationhost.config. For reference, these are the mime types that will be compressed: <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/atom+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xaml+xml" enabled="true" /> Others options? Are there other options to opt out of compression?

    Read the article

  • Share Localization

    - by fop6316
    I was able to localize my Alfresco Model (+ constraints lists) by following these rules : http://wiki.alfresco.com/wiki/Data_Dictionary_Guide#Model_Localization But I would like to know if there is something similar for Share ? Do we only have to use the "label-id" attributes without worrying of any convention ? Is it better to use : label.companyName=Company name or something like sop_sopModel.field.sop_companyName.title=Company Name or anything else ? I didn't see any recommandation on the wiki. Here is an example of label-id's I don't know how to format. This is a part of my share-config-custom.xml file. I know this is not really important but I would like to do things properly. <config evaluator="aspect" condition="sop:company"> <forms> <form> <field-visibility> <show id="sop:companyName" /> <show id="sop:companyAddress" /> </field-visibility> <appearance> <set id="sopPanel" appearance="bordered-panel" label-id="???" /> <field id="sop:companyName" label-id="???" set="sopPanel" /> <field id="sop:companyAddress" label-id="???" set="sopPanel" /> </appearance> </form> </forms> </config> Thanks

    Read the article

  • horizontal uiview's controls unresponsive.. or how to foul up a view hierarchy

    - by Oldmicah
    Hello all, I'm working on an app that has two sections, a config section and a results section. My config section needs to be 2 separate views (horizontal and vert, and yes, I can hear the intake of breath from here), with one rotatable view for the results. b/c of layout restraints and a lot of pain around rotation, I'm not using a navigation controller. I've been experiencing the joys of rotation experimentation and have settled upon keeping my views contained as subviews of my view controller. i.e. view controller.view.subviews = configH, configV, and results. I then use the controller.view bringSubviewToFront to bring the either the configH, configV, or the result view to the front. Rotation works-queue(humor intended) the angelic choirs... almost. What's happening is that my configV button's are responsive, but when the device (or simulator) is rotated, my configH controls are not. (configV is the second subview added, but the first one to be brought to the front because app comes up in portrait mode) The controls on the results view also work. Plan B was to assign the controller.view to configH, configV, or results. All of my controls now work, but rotation is now fouled up. Question 1: Is there a better way to do this? (a horizontal and vertical config view and a rotatable results view) Question 2: Does the above suggest a design issue, or is it more likely that my addled brain is just missing something in my own code. (nothing from the peanut gallery please) many thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I fully reload my Sencha Touch App when tapping 'refresh'?

    - by torr
    My list view layout is similar to Pinterest, with absolutely positioned blocks. Unfortunately, this seems to require a full re-initialization at refresh. If reload only the store (as below) the new blocks are incorrectly positioned. How do I reload the app when the user clicks on refresh? This is my View: Ext.require(['Ext.data.Store', 'MyApp.model.StreamModel'], function() { Ext.define('MyApp.view.HomeView', { extend: 'Ext.navigation.View', xtype: 'homepanel', requires: [ 'Ext.dataview.List', ], config: { title: 'Home', iconCls: 'home', styleHtmlContent: true, navigationBar: { items: [ { xtype: 'button', iconMask: true, iconCls: 'refresh', align: 'left', action: 'refreshButton' } ] }, items: { title: 'My', xtype: 'list', itemTpl: [ '<div class="post">', ... '</div>' ].join(''), store: new Ext.data.Store({ model: 'MyApp.model.StreamModel', autoLoad: true, storeId: 'stream' }), } } }); }); Model: Ext.define('MyApp.model.StreamModel', { extend: 'Ext.data.Model', config: { fields: [ 'post_id', 'comments' ], proxy: { type: 'jsonp', url: 'http://My.com/app', reader: { type: 'json', } } } }); and my Controller: Ext.define('MyApp.controller.RefreshController', { extend: 'Ext.app.Controller', requires: [ 'Ext.navigation.View' ], config: { control: { 'button[action=refreshButton]': { tap: 'refresh' } } }, refresh: function() { // Ext.StoreMgr.get('stream').load(); // here I'd like to reload the app instead // not just the store } });

    Read the article

  • How to avoid hard-coded credentials in Sharepoint webpart?

    - by Bryan
    I am building a Sharepoint web part that will be used by all users, but can only be modified by admins. The web part connects to a web service which needs credentials. I hard coded credentials in the web part's code. query.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain"); query is an instance of the web service class This may not be a good approach. In regard with security, the source code of the web apart is available to people who are not allowed to see the credentials. In normal ASP.net applications, credentials can be written into web.config and encrypted. A web part doesn't have a .config file associated. There is a application-level .config file for the whole sharepoint site, but I don't want to modify it for a single webpart. I wonder if there is a webpart-specific way to solve the credential problem? Say we provide a WebBrowsable property of that web part so that privileged users can modify credentials. If this is desirable, how should I make the property displayed in a password ("*") rather than in plain text? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • problem with phpMyAdmin advanced features

    - by typoknig
    Hi all, I am having trouble putting the final touches on my MySQL/Apache/phpMyAdmin install on a Windows XP system. I am trying to get rid of all the error message in phpMyAdmin and I have gotten rid of all of them except the ones related to "advanced features." The exact error message I have is : The additional features for working with linked tables have been deactivated. To find out why click here. I have read up on the cause of the errors but I must be missing something because I still cannot get the warning to go away. Here is what I have done: Created a linked-tables infrastructure (default name "phpmyadmin") per the phpMyAdmin instructions and enabled "pmadb" in my "config.inc.php" file. Specified (enabled) the table names in my "config.inc.php" file (there are 9 tables total). Created a "controluser" and granted only Select privilages per phpMyAdmin instructions Adjusted "controluser" pma and "controlpass" pmapass in "config.inc.php" file From what I can see these are all the instruction phpMyAdmin gives on this subject, and I am unable to locate any tutorials on the specifics of "advanced features" in phpMyAdmin. Any help would be appreciated, and be gentle, this is my first go with MySQL/phpMyAdmin

    Read the article

  • Artisan unable to access environment variables from $_ENV

    - by hansn
    Any artisan command I enter into the command line throws this error: $ php artisan <? return array( 'DB_HOSTNAME' => 'localhost', 'DB_USERNAME' => 'root', 'DB_NAME' => 'pc_booking', 'DB_PASSWORD' => 'secret', ); PHP Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in /home/martin/code/www/pc_backend/vendor/laravel/framework/src/Illuminate/Config/EnvironmentVariables.php on line 35 {"error":{"type":"ErrorException","message":"Undefined index: DB_HOSTNAME","file":"\/home\/martin\/code\/www\/pc_backend\/app\/config\/database.php","line":57}} This is only on my local development system, where I recently installed apache and php. On my production system on a shared host artisan commands work just fine. The prod system has it's own .env.php, but other than that the code should be identical. Relevant files: .env.local.php <? return array( 'DB_HOSTNAME' => 'localhost', 'DB_USERNAME' => 'root', 'DB_NAME' => 'pc_booking', 'DB_PASSWORD' => 'secret', ); app/config/database.php <?php return array( 'fetch' => PDO::FETCH_CLASS, 'default' => 'mysql', 'connections' => array( 'mysql' => array( 'driver' => 'mysql', 'host' => $_ENV['DB_HOSTNAME'], 'database' => $_ENV['DB_NAME'], 'username' => $_ENV['DB_USERNAME'], 'password' => $_ENV['DB_PASSWORD'], 'charset' => 'utf8', 'collation' => 'utf8_unicode_ci', 'prefix' => '', ), ), 'migrations' => 'migrations', ), ); The $_ENV array is populated as expected on the website - the problem appears to be with artisan only.

    Read the article

  • grailsApplication access in Grails unit Test

    - by Reza
    I am trying to write unit tests for a service which use grailsApplication.config to do some settings. It seems that in my unit tests that service instance could not access the config file (null pointer) for its setting while it could access that setting when I run "run-app". How could I configure the service to access grailsApplication service in my unit tests. class MapCloudMediaServerControllerTests { def grailsApplication @Before public void setUp(){ grailsApplication.config= ''' video{ location="C:\\tmp\\" // or shared filesystem drive for a cluster yamdi{ path="C:\\FFmpeg\\ffmpeg-20121125-git-26c531c-win64-static\\bin\\yamdi" } ffmpeg { fileExtension = "flv" // use flv or mp4 conversionArgs = "-b 600k -r 24 -ar 22050 -ab 96k" path="C:\\FFmpeg\\ffmpeg-20121125-git-26c531c-win64-static\\bin\\ffmpeg" makethumb = "-an -ss 00:00:03 -an -r 2 -vframes 1 -y -f mjpeg" } ffprobe { path="C:\\FFmpeg\\ffmpeg-20121125-git-26c531c-win64-static\\bin\\ffprobe" params="" } flowplayer { version = "3.1.2" } swfobject { version = "" qtfaststart { path= "C:\\FFmpeg\\ffmpeg-20121125-git-26c531c-win64-static\\bin\\qtfaststart" } } ''' } @Test void testMpegtoFlvConvertor() { log.info "In test Mpg to Flv Convertor function!" def controller=new MapCloudMediaServerController() assert controller!=null controller.videoService=new VideoService() assert controller.videoService!=null log.info "Is the video service null? ${controller.videoService==null}" controller.videoService.grailsApplication=grailsApplication log.info "Is grailsApplication null? ${controller.videoService.grailsApplication==null}" //Very important part for simulating the HTTP request controller.metaClass.request = new MockMultipartHttpServletRequest() controller.request.contentType="video/mpg" controller.request.content= new File("..\\MapCloudMediaServer\\web-app\\videoclips\\sample3.mpg").getBytes() controller.mpegtoFlvConvertor() byte[] videoOut=IOUtils.toByteArray(controller.response.getOutputStream()) def outputFile=new File("..\\MapCloudMediaServer\\web-app\\videoclips\\testsample3.flv") outputFile.append(videoOut) } }

    Read the article

  • Can ScalaCheck/Specs warnings safely be ignored when using SBT with ScalaTest?

    - by pdbartlett
    I have a simple FunSuite-based ScalaTest: package pdbartlett.hello_sbt import org.scalatest.FunSuite class SanityTest extends FunSuite { test("a simple test") { assert(true) } test("a very slightly more complicated test - purposely fails") { assert(42 === (6 * 9)) } } Which I'm running with the following SBT project config: import sbt._ class HelloSbtProject(info: ProjectInfo) extends DefaultProject(info) { // Dummy action, just to show config working OK. lazy val solveQ = task { println("42"); None } // Managed dependencies val scalatest = "org.scalatest" % "scalatest" % "1.0" % "test" } However, when I runsbt test I get the following warnings: ... [info] == test-compile == [info] Source analysis: 0 new/modified, 0 indirectly invalidated, 0 removed. [info] Compiling test sources... [info] Nothing to compile. [warn] Could not load superclass 'org.scalacheck.Properties' : java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.scalacheck.Properties [warn] Could not load superclass 'org.specs.Specification' : java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.specs.Specification [warn] Could not load superclass 'org.specs.Specification' : java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.specs.Specification [info] Post-analysis: 3 classes. [info] == test-compile == For the moment I'm assuming these are just "noise" (caused by the unified test interface?) and that I can safely ignore them. But it is slightly annoying to some inner OCD part of me (though not so annoying that I'm prepared to add dependencies for the other frameworks). Is this a correct assumption, or are there subtle errors in my test/config code? If it is safe to ignore, is there any other way to suppress these errors, or do people routinely include all three frameworks so they can pick and choose the best approach for different tests? TIA, Paul. (ADDED: scala v2.7.7 and sbt v0.7.4)

    Read the article

  • what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

    - by R_Coder
    I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

    Read the article

  • Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) - am I missing something here?

    - by David Semeria
    I was reading about CORS (https://developer.mozilla.org/en/HTTP_access_control) and I think the implementation is both simple and effective. However, unless I'm missing something, I think there's a big part missing from the spec. As I understand, it's the foreign site that decides, based on the origin of the request (and optionally including credentials), whether to allow access to its resources. This is fine. But what if malicious code on the page wants to POST a user's sensitive information to a foreign site? The foreign site is obviously going to authenticate the request. Hence, again if I'm not missing something, CORS actually makes it easier to steal sensitive information. I think it would have made much more sense if the original site could also supply an immutable list of servers its page is allowed to access. So the expanded sequence would be: 1) Supply a page with list of acceptable CORS servers (abc.com, xyz.com, etc) 2) Page wants to make an XHR request to abc.com - the browser allows this because it's in the allowed list and authentication proceeds as normal 3) Page wants to make an XHR request to malicious.com - request rejected locally (ie by the browser) because the server is not in the list. I know that malicious code could still use JSONP to do its dirty work, but I would have thought that a complete implementation of CORS would imply the closing of the script tag multi-site loophole. I also checked out the official CORS spec (http://www.w3.org/TR/cors) and could not find any mention of this issue.

    Read the article

  • How to process events chain.

    - by theblackcascade
    I need to process this chain using one LoadXML method and one urlLoader object: ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("Config.xml"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("GraphicsSet.xml"); Loader starts loading after first frameFunc iteration (why?) I want it to start immediatly.(optional) And it starts loading only "GraphicsSet.xml" Loader class LoadXml method: public function LoadXML(URL:String):XML { urlLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,XmlLoadCompleteListener); urlLoader.load(new URLRequest(URL)); return xml; } private function XmlLoadCompleteListener(e:Event):void { var xml:XML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(xml); trace(xml.name()); if(xml.name() == "Config") XMLParser.Instance.GameSetup(xml); else if(xml.name() == "GraphicsSet") XMLParser.Instance.GraphicsPoolSetup(xml); } Here is main: public function Main() { Mouse.hide(); this.addChild(Game.Instance); this.addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME,Game.Instance.Loop); } And on adding a Game.Instance to the rendering queue in game constuctor i start initialize method: public function Game():void { trace("Constructor"); if(_instance) throw new Error("Use Instance Field"); Initialize(); } its code is: private function Initialize():void { trace("initialization"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("Config.xml"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("GraphicsSet.xml"); } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to Inserting message into View that depends on session value. ASP.NET MVC. Best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    User have to populate multistep questionnaire web-forms and step messages depend on the option chosen by user at the very beginning. Messages are stored in web.config file. I use asp.net mvc project, strong typed views and keep business logic separated from controller in static class. I don't want to make business logic dependency on web.config. Well, I have to insert message into view that depends on session value. There are at least 2 options how to implement this: View model has property that is populated in controller/businessLogic and rendered in view like <%: Model.HelpMessage1 %>. I have to pass web.config values from controller to businessLogic that makes business logic methods signature too complex. I don't want to make configuration source abstract (in order to let business logic read configuration values from its methods directly) also. Create static helper class that is called from view like <%: ViewHelper.HelpMessage1(Model.Option1) %>. But in this case logic what to show seems to be separated into two classes: business logic & viewHelper. What will you suggest? Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • How do I enforce the order of qmake library dependencies?

    - by James Oltmans
    I'm getting a lot of errors because qmake is improperly ordering the boost libraries I'm using. Here's what .pro file looks like QT += core gui TARGET = MyTarget TEMPLATE = app CONFIG += no_keywords \ link_pkgconfig SOURCES += file1.cpp \ file2.cpp \ file3.cpp PKGCONFIG += my_package \ sqlite3 LIBS += -lsqlite3 \ -lboost_signals \ -lboost_date_time HEADERS += file1.h\ file2.h\ file3.h FORMS += mainwindow.ui RESOURCES += Resources/resources.qrc This produces the following command: g++ -Wl,-O1 -o MyTarget file1.o file2.o file3.o moc_mainwindow.o -L/usr/lib/x86_64-linux-gnu -lboost_signals -lboost_date_time -L/usr/local/lib -lmylib1 -lmylib2 -lsqlite3 -lQtGui -lQtCore Note: mylib1 and mylib2 are statically compiled by another project, placed in /usr/local/lib with an appropriate pkg-config .pc file pointing there. The .pro file references them via my_package in PKGCONFIG. The problem is not with pkg-config's output but with Qt's ordering. Here's the .pc file: prefix=/usr/local exec_prefix=${prefix} libdir=${exec_prefix}/lib includedir=${prefix}/include Name: my_package Description: My component package Version: 0.1 URL: http://example.com Libs: -L${libdir} -lmylib1 -lmylib2 Cflags: -I${includedir}/my_package/ The linking stage fails spectacularly as mylib1 and mylib2 come up with a lot of undefined references to boost libraries that both the app and mylib1 and mylib2 are using. We have another build method using scons and it properly orders things for the linker. It's build command order is below. g++ -o MyTarget file1.o file2.o file3.o moc_mainwindow.o -L/usr/local/lib -lmylib1 -lmylib2 -lsqlite3 -lboost_signals -lboost_date_time -lQtGui -lQtCore Note that the principle difference is the order of the boost libs. Scons puts them at the end just before QtGui and QtCore while qmake puts them first. The other differences in the compile commands are unimportant as I have hand modified the qmake produced make file and the simple reordering fixed the problem. So my question is, how do I enforce the right order in my .pro file despite what qmake thinks they should be?

    Read the article

  • Imlpementations of an Interface with Different Types?

    - by b3njamin
    Searched as best I could but unfortunately I've learned nothing relevant; basically I'm trying to work around the following problem in C#... For example, I have three possible references (refA, refB, refC) and I need to load the correct one depending on a configuration option. So far however I can't see a way of doing it that doesn't require me to use the name of said referenced object all through the code (the referenced objects are provided, I can't change them). Hope the following code makes more sense: public ??? LoadedClass; public Init() { /* load the object, according to which version we need... */ if (Config.Version == "refA") { Namespace.refA LoadedClass = new refA(); } else if (Config.Version == "refB") { Namespace.refB LoadedClass = new refB(); } else if (Config.Version == "refC") { Namespace.refC LoadedClass = new refC(); } Run(); } private void Run(){ { LoadedClass.SomeProperty... LoadedClass.SomeMethod(){ etc... } } As you can see, I need the Loaded class to be public, so in my limited way I'm trying to change the type 'dynamically' as I load in which real class I want. Each of refA, refB and refC will implement the same properties and methods but with different names. Again, this is what I'm working with, not by my design. All that said, I tried to get my head around Interfaces (which sound like they're what I'm after) but I'm looking at them and seeing strict types - which makes sense to me, even if it's not useful to me. Any and all ideas and opinions are welcome and I'll clarify anything if necessary. Excuse any silly mistakes I've made in the terminology, I'm learning all this for the first time. I'm really enjoying working with an OOP language so far though - coming from PHP this stuff is blowing my mind :-)

    Read the article

  • Sending emails with CodeIgniter in a local XAMPP server

    - by KeyStroke
    Hi, I'm trying to send emails through localhost (XAMPP Windows 1.7.3 installation), but I've been trying for hours with no success. This is the last code I tried: $config = Array( 'protocol' => 'smtp', 'smtp_host' => 'ssl://smtp.gmail.com', 'smtp_port' => 465, 'smtp_user' => '[email protected]', 'smtp_pass' => 'mypassword', ); $this->load->library('email', $config); $this->email->set_newline("\r\n"); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'My Name'); $this->email->to('[email protected]'); $this->email->subject('Email Test'); $this->email->message('Testing the email class.'); if($this->email->send()) { echo 'Your email was sent.'; } else { show_error($this->email->print_debugger()); } Whenever I tried to load this the page shows that it's loading but nothing happens. Is there anything I need to setup in my server to insure email delivery? I messed with php.ini and sendmail's config a bit with no luck. And openSSL isn't available in case that matters. Any idea what's wrong?

    Read the article

  • What is the subject of Rspecs its method

    - by Steve Weet
    When you use the its method in rspec like follows its(:code) { should eql(0)} what is 'its' referring to. I have the following spec that works fine describe AdminlwController do shared_examples_for "valid status" do it { should be_an_instance_of(Api::SoapStatus) } it "should have a code of 0" do subject.code.should eql(0) end it "should have an empty errors array" do subject.errors.should be_an(Array) subject.errors.should be_empty end #its(:code) { should eql(0)} end describe "Countries API Reply" do before :each do co1 = Factory(:country) co2 = Factory(:country) @result = invoke :GetCountryList, "empty_auth" end subject { @result } it { should be_an_instance_of(Api::GetCountryListReply) } describe "Country List" do subject {@result.country_list} it { should be_an_instance_of(Array) } it { should have(2).items } it "should have countries in the list" do subject.each {|c| c.should be_an_instance_of(Api::Country)} end end describe "result status" do subject { @result.status } it_should_behave_like "valid status" end end However if I then uncomment the line with its(:code) then I get the following output AdminlwController Countries API Reply - should be an instance of Api::GetCountryListReply AdminlwController Countries API Reply Country List - should be an instance of Array - should have 2 items - should have countries in the list AdminlwController Countries API Reply result status - should be an instance of Api::SoapStatus - should have a code of 0 - should have an empty errors array AdminlwController Countries API Reply result status code - should be empty (FAILED - 1) 1) NoMethodError in 'AdminlwController Countries API Reply result status code should be empty' undefined method code for <AdminlwController:0x40fc4dc> /Users/steveweet/romad_current/romad/spec/controllers/adminlw_controller_spec.rb:29: Finished in 0.741599 seconds 8 examples, 1 failure It seems as if "its" is referring to the subject of the whole test, namely AdminLwController rather than the current subject. Am I doing something wrong or is this an Rspec oddity?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119  | Next Page >