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• PHP include taking too long

  - by wxiiir

  I have a php file with around 100mb which is full of arrays (only arrays). I've made a script that includes this file (for processing), first it exhausted the default Xampp 128mb memory limit, i've raised it to 1024mb but it just takes forever and doesn't do anything. I'm sure the problem is being created by the sheer size of the file because i've tried removing all lines of code and just leaving the include and an echo for me to know when it finishes executing, and it does the same thing (which is taking forever), i've also tried to run the 100mb file in separate and same thing again. A 10mb file is taking forever as well but a similar 1mb file is almost instantly read and executed so the problem must be more than just the file size. I was avoiding using c++ for a simple project as this and would rather not to as php is easier for me and the task that will be executed doesn't need to benefit from the added speed that it would have if it had been done in c++ but if i have no luck in solving this problem i guess i'll have to. EDIT Reasons for not using a database: 1-Whoever made it didn't used a database and it will be pretty hard to store this in an organized database if i'm not able to do something with it first, like just reading it, copying parts from it or putting in memory or something. 2-I don't have experience working with databases as pretty much all stuff i've ever done in php didn't needed large amounts of stored data, 50kb at best, if i was thinking about a big project or huge chunks of data as this one, i definitely would, but i didn't made this mess to start with and now i have to undo it. 3-The logic for having to store a small portion of data like 10mb in hard drive when now every computer has pretty much enough ram to fit the whole OS in it is pretty much incomprehensible unless someone gives a good explanation about it, if i had to access a lot of said files simultaneously i would understand but like i said, this is a simple project, this is the only file that will be accessed at a given time this isn't even to make some kind of website, it's to run a few times and be done with it.

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• How can I prevent the scaling of a UIWebview's content after reorientation?

  - by frankhermes

  I'm building an iOS 5/6 app that has a UIWebView. It loads some HTML that I have embedded in my app. Now when I rotate my device, the WebView changes its size (as I want it to fill the entire width of the screen). And then it gets weird: some content gets scaled up and some content doesn't get scaled up. See this image with some example text in it: As you can see, the header (H6) stays the same, while the paragraph gets scaled up. Does anybody have an idea how to prevent this? I want the html to look the same in landscape as it does in portrait mode. I've tried setting the viewport scaling to 1: <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0,max-scale=1.0"> but that doesn't help. The body's font-size style is set to 14px, but changing that to 14pt or a percentage also made no difference. Setting the width of the body to 100% also didn't help. Strangely, removing the line break (<br/>) that's in the text fixes it but I need line breaks to be in there so that's no solution. The only thing that does work is reloading the UIWebView's content after an orientation change, but that doesn't prevent it from looking wrong during rotation, and it resets any scrolling that the user may have done. Any ideas?

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• How can I have a Label change dynamically based on a Slider Value?

  - by duney

  I'm writing a grade calculator and I currently have a slider with a textbox beside it which displays the current value of the slider: <Slider Name="gradeSlider" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="2" VerticalAlignment="Center" Minimum="40" Maximum="100" IsSnapToTickEnabled="True" TickFrequency="5" TickPlacement="BottomRight"/> <TextBox Name="targetGrade" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="3" Width="30" Height="23" Text="{Binding ElementName=gradeSlider, Path=Value}" TextAlignment="Center"/> However I'm struggling to include a label which will show display a different grade classification based on the slider's value range. I'd have thought that I could create the label: <Label Name="gradeClass" Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="2" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Bottom"/> And then use code: string gradeText; if (gradeSlider.Value >= 40 && gradeSlider.Value < 50) { gradeText = "Pass"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else if (gradeSlider.Value >= 50 && gradeSlider.Value < 60) { gradeText = "2:2"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else { gradeText = "so on..."; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } But the label just stays as "Pass" whatever the slider value. Could somebody please advise me as to where I'm going wrong? I tried using Content = "{Binding Source = gradeText}" on the Label xaml and removing the gradeClass.Content's in the code but it complained that gradeText was declared but never used. Many thanks to anyone who can help.

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• auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_...

  - by bgadoci

  I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here? UPDATE: My QuestionsController#show action is fishing posts by: @question = Question.find(params[:id])

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• Remove file from history completely

  - by Iain

  A colleague has done a few things I told them not to do: forked the origin repo online cloned the fork, added a file that shouldn't have been added to that local repo pushed this to their fork I've then: merged the changes from the fork and found the file I want to remove this from: my local repo the fork their local repo I have a solution for removing something from the history, taken from Remove file from git repository (history). What I need to know is, should my colleague also go through this, and will a subsequent push remove all info from the fork? (I'd like an alternative to just destroying the fork, as I'm not sure my colleague will do this) SOLUTION: This is the shortest way to get rid of the files: check .git/packed-refs - my problem was that I had there a refs/remotes/origin/master line for a remote repository, delete it, otherwise git won't remove those files (optional) git verify-pack -v .git/objects/pack/#{pack-name}.idx | sort -k 3 -n | tail -5 - to check for the largest files (optional) git rev-list --objects --all | grep a0d770a97ff0fac0be1d777b32cc67fe69eb9a98 - to check what files those are git filter-branch --index-filter 'git rm --cached --ignore-unmatch file_names' - to remove the file from all revisions rm -rf .git/refs/original/ - to remove git's backup git reflog expire --all --expire='0 days' - to expire all the loose objects (optional) git fsck --full --unreachable - to check if there are any loose objects git repack -A -d - repacking the pack git prune - to finally remove those objects

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• In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

  - by Irchi

  Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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• iPhone loading view from nib only works once

  - by The Swissdude

  Hi Forum I'm trying to add a «loader-view» to my app which shows a spinner while doing stuff. This works fine the first time, but it doesn't work a second time. here's what I do: I have a viewController for the spinner (spinnerViewController) and a nib-file which I made in IB (spinner.xib). I load the nib in the viewDidLoad-event: spinnerView = [[spinnerViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"spinner" bundle:nil]; [spinnerView retain]; spinnerView is declared in the .h-file (spinnerViewController *spinnerView;) next, I show the spinner-view: [self.view addSubview:spinnerView.view]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:spinnerView.view]; which works fine... And now the trouble starts. No matter what I do, I can't show the spinner view again. I tried just hiding it (self.view sendSubViewToBack: spinnerView.view) which works for hiding, but when I try to bring it to the front again (self.view bringSubViewToFront: spinnerView.view) it doesn't work. I also tried removing the spinner-view and add it again with no success (within the spinnerViewController: [self.view removeFromSuperview] and to show it again [self.view addSubview... ) Any ideas what I'm doing wrong??? ;) Thanks for the help!

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• Using an iterator without its container

  - by User1

  I am mixing some C and C++ libraries and have only a single pointer available to do some work in a callback function. All I need to do is iterate through a vector. Here's a simplified, untested example: bool call_back(void* data){ done=... if (!done) cout << *data++ << endl; return done; } Note that this function is in an extern "C" block in C++. call_back will be called until true is returned. I want it to cout the next element each time it's called. data is a pointer to something that I can pass from elsewhere in the code (an iterator in the above example, but can be anything). Something from data will likely be used to calculate done. I see two obvious options to give to data: Have data point to my vector. Have data point to an iterator of my vector. I can't use an iterator without having the .end() method available, right? I can't use a vector alone (unless maybe I start removing its data). I could make a struct with both vector and iterator, but is there a better way? What would you do?

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• Using LINQ, need help splitting a byte array on data received from Silverlight sockets

  - by gcadmes

  The message packats received contains multiple messages deliniated by a header=0xFD and a footer=0xFE // sample message packet with three // different size messages List<byte> receiveBuffer = new List<byte>(); receiveBuffer.AddRange(new byte[] { 0xFD, 1, 2, 0xFE, 0xFD, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 0xFE, 0xFD, 33, 65, 25, 44, 0xFE}); // note: this sample code is without synchronization, // statements, error handling...etc. while (receiveBuffer.Count > 0) { var bytesInRange = receiveBuffer.TakeWhile(n => n != 0xFE); foreach (var n in bytesInRange) Console.WriteLine(n); // process message.. // 1) remove bytes read from receive buffer // 2) construct message object... // 3) etc... receiveBuffer.RemoveRange(0, bytesInRange.Count()); } As you can see, (including header/footer) the first message in this message packet contains 4 bytes, and the 2nd message contains 10 bytes,a and the 3rd message contains 6 bytes. In the while loop, I was expecting the TakeWhile to add the bytes that did not equal the footer part of the message. Note: Since I am removing the bytes after reading them, the header can always be expected to be at position '0'. I searched examples for splitting byte arrays, but non demonstrated splitting on arrays of unknown and fluctuating sizes. Any help will be greatly appreciated. thanks much!

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• PHP cache header override

  - by Soyo

  I've been through over 100 answers here, lots to try, NOTHING working?? Have a PHP based site. I need caching OFF for all .php files EXCEPT A SELECT FEW. So, in .htaccess, I have the following: ExpiresActive On # Eliminate caching for certain dynamic files <FilesMatch "\.(php|cgi|pl)$"> ExpiresDefault A0 Header set Cache-Control "no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate, max-age=0, proxy-revalidate, no-transform" Header set Pragma "no-cache" </FilesMatch> Using Firebug, I see the following: Cache-Control no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate, max-age=0, proxy-revalidate, no-transform Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type text/html Date Sun, 02 Sep 2012 19:22:27 GMT Expires Sun, 02 Sep 2012 19:22:27 GMT Keep-Alive timeout=3, max=100 Pragma no-cache Server Apache Transfer-Encoding chunked X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.17 Hey, Looks great! BUT, I have a couple .php pages I need some very short caching on. I thought the simple answer was having this added to the very top of each php page in which I want caching enabled: <?php header("Cache-Control: max-age=360"); ?> Nope. Then I tried various versions of the above. Nope. Then I tried meta http-equiv variations. Nope. Then I tried variations of the .htaccess code along with the above variations, such as limiting it to: # Eliminate caching for certain dynamic files <FilesMatch "\.(php|cgi|pl)$"> Header set Cache-Control "no-cache, max-age=0" </FilesMatch> Nope. It seems nothing I do will allow a single .php to be cache enabled with the .htaccess code in place, short of removing the statements from the .htaccess file altogether. Where am I going wrong? What do I have to do to get individual php pages to be cacheable while the rest remain off?? Thank you for any thoughts.

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• subset complete or balance dataset in r

  - by SHRram

  I have a dataset that unequal number of repetition. I want to subset a data by removing those entries that are incomplete (i.e. replication less than maximum). Just small example: set.seed(123) mydt <- data.frame (name= rep ( c("A", "B", "C", "D", "E"), c(1,2,4,4, 3)), var1 = rnorm (14, 3,1), var2 = rnorm (14, 4,1)) mydt name var1 var2 1 A 2.439524 3.444159 2 B 2.769823 5.786913 3 B 4.558708 4.497850 4 C 3.070508 2.033383 5 C 3.129288 4.701356 6 C 4.715065 3.527209 7 C 3.460916 2.932176 8 D 1.734939 3.782025 9 D 2.313147 2.973996 10 D 2.554338 3.271109 11 D 4.224082 3.374961 12 E 3.359814 2.313307 13 E 3.400771 4.837787 14 E 3.110683 4.153373 summary(mydt) name var1 var2 A:1 Min. :1.735 Min. :2.033 B:2 1st Qu.:2.608 1st Qu.:3.048 C:4 Median :3.120 Median :3.486 D:4 Mean :3.203 Mean :3.688 E:3 3rd Qu.:3.446 3rd Qu.:4.412 Max. :4.715 Max. :5.787 I want to get rid of A, B, E from the data as they are incomplete. Thus expected output: name var1 var2 4 C 3.070508 2.033383 5 C 3.129288 4.701356 6 C 4.715065 3.527209 7 C 3.460916 2.932176 8 D 1.734939 3.782025 9 D 2.313147 2.973996 10 D 2.554338 3.271109 11 D 4.224082 3.374961 Please note the dataset is big, the following may not a option: mydt[mydt$name == "C",] mydt[mydt$name == "D", ]

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• php png image transparency

  - by user1334130

  I have been working with some code to draw a circle but I am having problems with removing the black background from the shape. I am using imagecopyresampled for its AA features in order to draw a smooth circle, so I can't use a different drawing function. Thanks. <?php $img_2 = imagecreatetruecolor(200, 200); $red = imagecolorallocate($img_2, 255, 0, 0); imagefill($img_2, 0, 0, $red); //set circle values $xPos = 50; $yPos = 80; $diameter = 40; $img_1 = imagecreatetruecolor(($diameter + 2) * 2, ($diameter + 2) * 2); $green = imagecolorallocate($img_1, 0, 255, 0); //draw the circle imagefilledarc($img_1, $diameter+1, $diameter+1, ($diameter + 2) * 2, ($diameter + 2) * 2, 0, 360, $green, IMG_ARC_PIE); imagecopyresampled($img_2, $img_1, $xPos, $yPos, 0, 0, $diameter+2, $diameter+2, ($diameter + 2) * 2, ($diameter + 2) * 2); header("Content-type: image/png"); imagepng($img_2); imagedestroy($img_1); imagedestroy($img_2); ?>

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• Hide form if javascript disabled

  - by Kero

  I need to check on disabling JavaScript if the user disabled JavaScript from browser or firewall or any other place he will never show the form. I have lots of search and solutions, but unfortunately didn't got the right one. - Using style with no-script tag: This one could be broke with removing style... <noscript> <style type="text/css"> .HideClass { display:none; } </style> </noscript> The past code will work just fine but there is lots of problems in no-script tag as here Beside that i don't want to redirect user with no-script tag too...Beside that i can quickly stop loading the page to broke this meta or disable Meta tag from IE: <meta http-equiv="refresh" content="0; URL=Frm_JavaScriptDisable.aspx" /> Another way to redirect user with JavaScript but this will work let's say for 99% of users and this one isn't lovely way and will slow down the website... window.location="http://www.location.com/page.aspx"; Is there is any other ideas or suggestions to secure working with JavaScript...and prevent user from entering the website or see my form except when JavaScript enabled...

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• Migrating just article contect of Joomla 1.0 to 2.5.x / 3.x?

  - by user2919408

  I have a simple website using Joomla 1.0.15, just having articles in some categories. As i want to install or remove components from admin area, i got : "You are not authorised to view this resource" or something like that. This is uncommon, this site is about 5 years old, and never got error message like that. I think my website is hacked ?? I have set safe_mode = off in php.ini, turn of sh404sef, removing .htaccess file etc ... and it still does not work. Then i try to upgrade to Joomla 2.5.x / 3.x . I found that i must migrate to Joomla 1.5.x first, then from there to 2.5.x. I got problem installing "migration.zip" component in my Joomla 1.0.x (always alert/err message pop up is shown). Is there another way to migrate the website ? May be just get the article section, category, article id and the content of Joomla 1.0.x , then import it to Joomla 2.5.x / 3.x ? I don't need components, modules, mambots (if any) of the old site. How to do it ? Thanks

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• My iOS app has a + in its name. Bundle is invalid due to this. Need help resolving

  - by d.altman

  I did find a couple of very similar or identical threads here but they seemed to end before full resolution. My app runs fine on my device with no build error. I am trying to submit app for approval and I get the following error, "This bundle is invalid. The executable name, as reported by CFBundleExecutable in the info.plist file may not contain any of these characters ..... +". So I opened my info.plist file and changed the info.plist file executable name from the macro ${EXECUTABLE_NAME} to the name of my app without the +. I did a new archive but then get an error saying the "codesign failed with exit code 1". In another thread I read to just change targets name removing the + from there and leaving the info.plist file with the macro for the executable name, restarting Xcode and then archiving again. That allowed me to archive but I received the same error in iTunes Connect. I have been working on this all day and don't find the solution. Can anyone please point me in the right direction? Thank you for any help.

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• possible solutions of the warning

  - by lego69

  Hello, I have a very large code, that's why I can't post here all my code, can somebody explain what might be a problem if I have an error incompatible pointer type and give me several ways to solve it, thanks in advance just small clarification: I'm workin with pointers to functions ptrLine createBasicLine(){ DECLARE_RESULT_ALLOCATE_AND_CHECK(ptrLine, Line); result->callsHistory = listCreate(copyCall,destroyCall); <-here result->messagesHistory = listCreate(copyMessage,destroyMessage); <-and here result->linesFeature = NULL; result->strNumber = NULL; result->lastBill = 0; result->lineType = MTM_REGULAR_LINE; result->nCallTime = 0; result->nMessages = 0; result->rateForCalls = 0; result->rateForMessage = 0; return result; } copyCall,destroyCall - pointers to functions /** * Allocates a new List. The list starts empty. * * @param copyElement * Function pointer to be used for copying elements into the list or when * copying the list. * @param freeElement * Function pointer to be used for removing elements from the list * @return * NULL - if one of the parameters is NULL or allocations failed. * A new List in case of success. */ List listCreate(CopyListElement copyElement, FreeListElement freeElement); definitions of the functions ptrCall (*createCall)() = createNumberContainer; void (*destroyCall)(ptrCall) = destroyNumberContainer; ptrCall (*copyCall)(ptrCall) = copyNumberContainer;

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• .find replacing content inside html tags

  - by Woz

  I want to sanitize html tags from my wysiwyg. I want to replace certain tags with another. This almost works only the replaceWith() is also removing the content from within the tags. I dont want to do this. I just want to replace the tags. Here is what I have so far. Text for Testing: This<div>is</div><div>a test</div><div>to clean&nbsp;</div><div>some tags</div><div><br></div> Expected Result: This<p>is</p><p>a test</p><p>to clean</p><p>some tags</p><p><br></p> Actual Result: This<p></p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p></p> This is the code I am using to find and replace var thebad = ["h1","h2","h3","h4","h5","h6","div"]; var thegood = ["","","","","","","<p>"]; for(var i = 0; i < thebad.length; i++){ $('.content').contents().find('body').find(thebad[i]).replaceWith(thegood[i]); } I need to figure out how to keep the text inside the html tags when i replace them. Thanks in advance

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• Log4j Logging to the Wrong Directory

  - by John

  I have a relatively complex log4j.xml configuration file with many appenders. Some machines the application runs on need a separate log directory, which is actually a mapped network drive. To get around this, we embed a system property as part of the filename in order to specify the directory. Here is an example: The "${user.dir}" part is set as a system property on each system, and is normally set to the root directory of the application. On some systems, this location is not the root of the application. The problem is that there is always one appender where this is not set, and the file appears not to write to the mapped drive. The rest of the appenders do write to the correct location per the system property. As a unit test, I set up our QA lab to hard-code the values for the appender above, and it worked: however, a different appender will then append to the wrong file. The mis-logged file is always the same for a given configuration: it is not a random file each time. My best educated guess is that there is a HashMap somewhere containing these appenders, and for some reason, the first one retrieved from the map does not have the property set. Our application does have custom system properties loading: the main() method loads a properties file and calls into System.setProperties(). My first instinct was to check the static initialization order, and to ensure the controller class with the main method does not call into log4j (directly or indirectly) before setting the properties just in case this was interfering with log4j's own initialization. Even removing all vestiges of log4j from the initialization logic, this error condition still occurs.

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• Accessing "pseudo-globals" by their name as a string

  - by rob

  I am now in the process of removing most globals from my code by enclosing everything in a function, turning the globals into "pseudo globals," that are all accessible from anywhere inside that function block. (function(){ var g = 1; var func f1 = function () { alert (g); } var func f2= function () { f1(); } })(); (technically this is only for my "release version", where I append all my files together into a single file and surround them with the above....my dev version still has typically one global per js file) This all works great except for one thing...there is one important place where I need to access some of these "globals" by string name. Previously, I could have done this: var name = "g"; alert (window[name]); and it did the same as alert(g); Now -- from inside the block -- I would like to do the same, on my pseudo-globals. But I can't, since they are no longer members of any parent object ("window"), even though are in scope. Any way to access them by string? Thanks...

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• Renaming the argument name in JAX-WS

  - by user182944

  I created a web service using JAX-WS in RSA 7.5 and Websphere 7 using bottom-up approach. When I open the WSDL in SOAP UI, then the arguments section is appearing like this: <!--Optional--> <arg0> <empID>?</empId> </arg0> <!--Optional--> <arg1> <empName>?</empName> </arg1> <!--Optional--> <arg2> <empAddress>?</empAddress> </arg2> <!--Optional--> <arg3> <empCountry>?</empCountry> </arg3> The service method takes the above 4 elements as the parameters to return the employee details. 1) I want to rename this arg0, arg1, and so on with some valid names. 2) I want to remove the <!--optional--> present above the arg tags. (For removing the <!--optional--> from elements name, I used @XMLElement(required=true)). But I am not sure where exactly to use this annotation in this case :( Please help. Regards,

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• When my object is no longer referenced why do its events continue to run?

  - by Ryan Peschel

  Say I am making a game and have a base Buff class. I may also have a subclass named ThornsBuff which subscribes to the Player class's Damaged event. The Player may have a list of Buffs and one of them may be the ThornsBuff. For example: Test Class Player player = new Player(); player.ActiveBuffs.Add(new ThornsBuff(player)); ThornsBuff Class public ThornsBuff(Player player) { player.DamageTaken += player_DamageTaken; } private void player_DamageTaken(MessagePlayerDamaged m) { m.Assailant.Stats.Health -= (int)(m.DamageAmount * .25); } This is all to illustrate an example. If I were to remove the buff from the list, the event is not detached. Even though the player no longer has the buff, the event is still executed as if he did. Now, I could have a Dispel method to unregister the event, but that forces the developer to call Dispel in addition to removing the Buff from the list. What if they forget, increased coupling, etc. What I don't understand is why the event doesn't detatch itself automatically when the Buff is removed from the list. The Buff only existed in the list and that is its one reference. After it is removed shouldn't the event be detached? I tried adding the detaching code to the finalizer of the Buff but that didn't fix it either. The event is still running even after it has 0 references. I suppose it is because the garbage collector had not run yet? Is there any way to make it automatic and instant so that when the object has no references all its events are unregisted? Thanks.

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• How to determine which enemy is hit and destroy it alone

  - by Jon Ferriter

  http://jsfiddle.net/5DB6K/ I have this game being made where you shoot enemies from the sides of the screen. I've got the bullets moving and being removed when they reach the end of the screen (if they didn't hit any enemy) and removing the enemy when they collide with it. //------------collision----------------// if(shot === true){ bulletY = $('.bullet').position().top + 2; bulletX = $('.bullet').position().left + 2; $('.enemy').each(function(){ if($('.enemy').hasClass('smallEnemy')){ enemyY = $(this).position().top + 7; enemyX = $(this).position().left + 7; if(Math.abs(bulletY - enemyY) <= 9 && Math.abs(bulletX - enemyX) <=9){ $(this).remove(); score = score + 40; bulletDestroy(); } } }); } However, the bullet destroys every enemy if the collision check is right which isn't what I want. I want to check if the enemy has the class of either smallEnemy, medEnemy, or lrgEnemy and then do the collision check which is what I thought I had but it doesn't seem to work. Also, the game starts to lag the more and more time goes on. Would anyone know the reason for that?

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• Remove duplicates in a linked list before adding - C

  - by DesperateCoders

  Hi, My question is about removing duplicates from a linked list. But i want to do it before adding to linked list. struct myStr{int number; mystr *next;} void append(mystr **q,int item) { myStr *temp; temp = *q; myStr *newone; if(*q==NULL)// There should be control of previous elements. Call of keysearch function. { temp = (myStr *)malloc(sizeof(myStr)); temp->number =size; temp->next=NULL; *q=temp; } else //And also here { temp = *q; while(temp->next !=NULL) { temp=temp->next; } newone = (myStr *)malloc(sizeof(myStr)); newone->count = size; newone->next=NULL; temp->next=newone; } } int keysearch (myStr *p) { struct myStr *temp = p; int found = 0; int key= p->number; while (temp->number != NULL) { if(temp->number == key) { found = 1; } temp = temp->next; } return found; } My problem is in keySearch. I don't know what is wrong? Or is there another way for doing this.

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• Another C++ question, delete not working?

  - by kyeana

  New to c++, and am having a problem with delete and destructor (I am sure i am making a stupid mistake here, but haven't been able to figure it out as of yet). When i step through into the destructor, and attepmt to call delete on a pointer, the message shows up "Cannot access memory at address some address." The relevant code is: /* * Removes the front item of the linked list and returns the value stored * in that node. * * TODO - Throws an exception if the list is empty */ std::string LinkedList::RemoveFront() { LinkedListNode *n = pHead->GetNext(); // the node we are removing std::string rtnData = n->GetData(); // the data to return // un-hook the node from the linked list pHead->SetNext(n->GetNext()); n->GetNext()->SetPrev(pHead); // delete the node delete n; n=0; size--; return rtnData; } and /* * Destructor for a linked node. * * Deletes all the dynamically allocated memory, and sets those pointers to 0. */ LinkedListNode::~LinkedListNode() { delete pNext; // This is where the error pops up delete pPrev; pNext=0; pPrev=0; }

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• '??' Not a valid unicode character, but in the unicode character set?

  - by Steve Cotner

  Short story: I can't get an entity like '𠂉' to store in a MySQL database, either by using a text field in a Ruby on Rails app (with default UTF-8 encoding) or by inputting it directly with a MySQL GUI app. As far as I can tell, all Chinese characters and radicals can be entered into the database without problem, but not these rarely typed 'character components.' The character mentioned above is unicode U+20089 and html entity &#131209; I can get it to display on the page by entering <html>&#131209;</html> and removing html escaping, but I would like to store it simply as the unicode character and keep the html escaping in place. There are many other Chinese 'components' (parts of full characters, generally consisting of 2 or 3 strokes) that cause the same problem. According to this page, the character mentioned is in the UTF-8 charset: http://www.fileformat.info/info/unicode/char/20089/charset_support.htm But on the neighboring '...20089/index.htm' page, there's an alert saying it's not a valid unicode character. For reference, that entity can be found in Mac OS X by searching through the character palette (international menu, "Show Character Palette"), searching by radical, and looking under the '?' radical. Apologies if this is too open-ended... can a character like this be stored in a UTF-8-based database? How is this character both supported and unsupported, both present in the character set and not valid?

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