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  • ValidationProperty not returning entered value for textbox in custom ontrol

    - by nat
    hi I have a custom control, (relevant code at the bottom) it consists of some text/links and a hidden textbox (rather than a hidden input). when rendered, the user via another dialog and some JS sets the value of the textbox to an integer and clicks submit on the form. i am trying to assure that the user has entered a number (via the JS) and that the textbox is not still set to its default of "0" the requiredfieldvalidator works just fine, if i dont change the value it spots it on the client and fills the validation summary on the page with the appropriate message. unfortunately when i do fill the textbox, the validator also rejests the post as the controls textbox text value is still set to "0", even though on the form it has changed. clearly i am doing something wrong.. but cant work out what it is? could someone enlighten me please, this is driving me potty if i step through the code, when the get of the mediaidtext is hit,the findcontrol finds does not the textbox, if i inspect the controls collection however i can find the textbox, but its value is still "0" it also seems that when findcontrol is called, the createchildcontrols is called again - thus resetting the value back to "0" there.. ! how can i ever assure the control realises that the textbox value has changed? many thanks code below nat [ValidationProperty("MediaIdText")] public class MediaLibraryFileControl: CompositeControl { private int mediaId = 0; public int MediaId { get { return mediaId; } set { mediaId = value; } } public string MediaIdText { get { string txt = "0"; Control ctrl = this.FindControl(this.UniqueID+ "_hidden"); try { txt = ((TextBox)ctrl).Text; MediaId = Convert.ToInt32(txt); } catch { MediaId = 0; } return txt; } } protected override void CreateChildControls() { this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<span>")); this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<span id=\"" + TextControlName + "\">" + getMediaDetails() + "</span>")); TextBox tb = new TextBox(); tb.Text = this.MediaId.ToString(); tb.ID = this.UniqueID + "_hidden"; tb.CssClass = "hidden"; this.Controls.Add(tb); if (Select == true) { this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format("&nbsp;[<a href=\"javascript:{0}(this,'{1}','{2}')\" class=\"select\">{3}</a>]", dialog, this.UniqueID, this.categoryId, "select"))); this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format("&nbsp;[<a href=\"javascript:{0}(this,'{1}')\" class=\"select\">{2}</a>]", clearDialog, this.ID, "clear"))); } this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</span>")); } protected virtual string getMediaDetails() { //... return String.Empty; } } this is the code adding the validationcontrol the editcontrol is the instance of the control above public override Control RenderValidationControl(Control editControl) { Control ctrl = new PlaceHolder(); RequiredFieldValidator req = new RequiredFieldValidator(); req.ID = editControl.ClientID + "_validator"; req.ControlToValidate = editControl.ID; req.Display = ValidatorDisplay.None; req.InitialValue = "0"; req.EnableClientScript = false; req.ErrorMessage = "control cannot be blank"; ctrl.Controls.Add(req); return ctrl; }

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  • Getting value from pointer

    - by Eric
    Hi, I'm having problem getting the value from a pointer. I have the following code in C++: void* Nodo::readArray(VarHash& var, string varName, int posicion, float& d) { //some code before... void* res; float num = bit.getFloatFromArray(arregloTemp); //THIS FUNCTION RETURN A FLOAT AND IT'S OK cout << "NUMBER " << num << endl; d = num; res = &num; return res } int main() { float d = 0.0; void* res = n.readArray(v, "c", 0, d); //THE VALUES OF THE ARRAY ARE: {65.5, 66.5}; float* car3 = (float*)res; cout << "RESULT_READARRAY " << *car3 << endl; cout << "FLOAT REFERENCE: " << d << endl; } The result of running this code is the following: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //CORRECT NUMBER 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 66.5 //CORRECT For some reason, when I get the value of the pointer returned by the function called readArray is incorrect. I'm passing a float variable(d) as a reference in the same function just to verify that the value is ok, and as you can see, THE FLOAT REFERENCE matches the NUMBER. If I declare the variable num(read array) as a static float, the first RESULT_READARRAY will be 65.5, that is correct, however, the next value will be the same instead of 66.5. Let me show you the result of running the code using static float variable: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 //PERFECT FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //¨PERFECT NUMBER 65.5 //THIS IS INCORRECT, IT SHOULD BE 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 Do you know how can I get the correct value returned by the function called readArray()?

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  • jquery pass value class

    - by mckenzie
    $(".hidee2").click(function() { var type = $(".st").val(); } <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st2"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st3"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> How do i get which book now! link user click? because i need to pass over the st value? is there any way to achieve this using jquery? currently, only st value is passed over

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  • pass jQuery value to php

    - by andrew
    Hi, for example, i have got this value in my php file: <script type="text/javascript"> function altcat(id) { $ogzu = id; } </script> i want to use $ogzu value in php. is it possible? can i pass a value to php from jquery? i need to learn this answer. can anyone help me please? thanks and regards edit: thanks for your kindly replies. i wanted to use $ogzu value in php like that: <?php echo "<a href='".$ogzu."'>test link</a>"; ?> well, i know its wrong. its already not working. i want to learn if we are able to use jquery values in php? thanks again friends. regards

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  • javascript filter nested object based on key value

    - by murray3
    I wish to filter a nested javascript object by the value of the "step" key: var data = { "name": "Root", "step": 1, "id": "0.0", "children": [ { "name": "first level child 1", "id": "0.1", "step":2, "children": [ { "name": "second level child 1", "id": "0.1.1", "step": 3, "children": [ { "name": "third level child 1", "id": "0.1.1.1", "step": 4, "children": []}, { "name": "third level child 2", "id": "0.1.1.2", "step": 5, "children": []} ]}, ]} ] }; var subdata = data.children.filter(function (d) { return (d.step <= 2)}); This just returns the unmodified nested object, even if I put value of filter to 1. does .filter work on nested objects or do I need to roll my own function here, advise and correct code appreciated. cjm

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  • implementing cryptographic algorithms, specifically the key expansion part

    - by masseyc
    Hey, recently I picked up a copy of Applied Cryptography by Bruce Schneier and it's been a good read. I now understand how several algorithms outlined in the book work, and I'd like to start implementing a few of them in C. One thing that many of the algorithms have in common is dividing an x-bit key, into several smaller y-bit keys. For example, blowfish's key, X, is 64-bits, but you are required to break it up into two 32-bit halves; Xl and Xr. This is where I'm getting stuck. I'm fairly decent with C, but I'm not the strongest when it comes to bitwise operators and the like. After some help on IRC, I managed to come up with these two macros: #define splitup(a, b, c) {b = a >> 32; c = a & 0xffffffff; } #define combine(a, b, c) {a = (c << 32) | a;} Where a is 64 bits and b and c are 32 bits. However, the compiler warns me about the fact that I'm shifting a 32 bit variable by 32 bits. My questions are these: what's bad about shifting a 32-bit variable 32 bits? I'm guessing it's undefined, but these macros do seem to be working. Also, would you suggest I go about this another way? As I said, I'm fairly familiar with C, but bitwise operators and the like still give me a headache.

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  • VBA Add to Array and Use Previous Value

    - by MattHead93
    I'm trying to write some code that will take a value WeekNum, and add it to an array Week(1 To 51), and then associate a value from a Textbox TargDef. Once this has been added to the array, I want to look up the value of the array for the previous WeekNum and add it to a value ProdTarg. I've created this much so far: Dim Week(1 To 51) Dim Count As Integer If TargDef < 0 Then Count = WeekNum Week(Count) = Abs(Val(TargDef)) If Val(Week((Count) - 1)) = 0 Then ProdTarg = Val(ProdTarg) Else ProdTard = Val(ProdTarg) + Val(Week((Count) - 1)) End If End If I am currently receiving the error "Subscript out of Range" for the line If Val(Week((Count) - 1)) = 0 Then Any help will be greatly appreciated!

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  • NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

    - by Carl Raymond
    I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

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  • Modifying C# dictionary value

    - by minjang
    I'm a C++ expert, but not at all for C#. I created a Dictionary<string, STATS>, where STATS is a simple struct. Once I built the dictionary with initial string and STATS pairs, I want to modify the dictionary's STATS value. In C++, it's very clear: Dictionary<string, STATS*> benchmarks; Initialize it... STATS* stats = benchmarks[item.Key]; // Touch stats directly However, I tried like this in C#: Dictionary<string, STATS> benchmarks = new Dictionary<string, STATS>(); // Initialize benchmarks with a bunch of STATS foreach (var item in _data) benchmarks.Add(item.app_name, item); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, STATS> item in benchmarks) { // I want to modify STATS value inside of benchmarks dictionary. STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile("foo", ref stat_item); // But, not modified in benchmarks... stat_item is just a copy. } This is a really novice problem, but wasn't easy to find an answer. EDIT: I also tried like the following: STATS stat_item = benchmarks[item.Key]; ParseOutputFile(file_name, ref stat_item); benchmarks[item.Key] = stat_item; However, I got the exception since such action invalidates Dictionary: Unhandled Exception: System.InvalidOperationException: Collection was modified; enumeration operation may not execute. at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowInvalidOperationException(ExceptionResource resource) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Enumerator.MoveNext() at helper.Program.Main(String[] args) in D:\dev\\helper\Program.cs:line 75

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  • what if _POSIX_VDISABLE value is -1?

    - by Nagaraj
    In POSIX _POSIX_VDISABLE value if -1, there is no disabling character for special character for all the terminal device files; otherwise the value is the disabling character value.. Can please anyone help me understand this. I m not able to get the exact meaning of this. Please

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  • How to test if a doctrine records has any relations that are used

    - by murze
    Hi, I'm using a doctrine table that has several optional relations (of types Doctrine_Relation_Association and Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) with other tables. How can I test if a record from that table has connections with records from the related table. Here is an example to make my question more clear. Assume that you have a User and a user has a many to many relation with Usergroups and a User can have one Userrole How can I test if a give user is part of any Usergroups or has a role. The solution starts I believe with $relations = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->getRelations(); $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->findOne(1); foreach($relations as $relation) { //here should go a test if the user has a related record for this relation if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_Association) { //here the related table probably has more then one foreign key (ex. user_id and group_id) } if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) { //here the related table probably has the primary key of this table (id) as a foreign key (user_id) } } //true or false echo $result I'm looking for a general solution that will work no matter how many relations there are between user and other tables. Thanks!

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  • "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

    - by keithjgrant
    Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

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  • How to load an RSA key from binary data to an RSA structure using the OpenSSL C Library?

    - by Andreas Bonini
    Currently I have my private key saved in a file, private.key, and I use the following function to load it: RSA *r = PEM_read_RSAPrivateKey("private.key", NULL, NULL, NULL); This works perfectly but I'm not happy with the file-based format; I want to save my key in pure binary form (ie, no base64 or similar) in a char* variable and load/save the key from/to it. This way I have much more freedom: I'll be able to store the key directly into the application const char key[] { 0x01, 0x02, ... };, send it over a network socket, etc. Unfortunately though I haven't found a way to do that. The only way to save and load a key I know of reads/saves it to a file directly.

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  • Select a row having a column with max value - On a date range

    - by Abhi
    Excuse me for posting a similar question. Please consider this: date value 18/5/2010, 1 pm 40 18/5/2010, 2 pm 20 18/5/2010, 3 pm 60 18/5/2010, 4 pm 30 18/5/2010, 5 pm 60 18/5/2010, 6 pm 25 19/5/2010, 6 pm 300 19/5/2010, 6 pm 450 19/5/2010, 6 pm 375 20/5/2010, 6 pm 250 20/5/2010, 6 pm 310 The query is to get the date and value for each day such that the value obtained for that day is max. If the max value is repeated on that day, the lowest time stamp is selected. The result should be like: 18/5/2010, 3 pm 60 19/5/2010, 6 pm 450 20/5/2010, 6 pm 310 The query should take in a date range like the one given below and find results for that range in the above fashion: where date = to_date('26/03/2010','DD/MM/YYYY') AND date < to_date('27/03/2010','DD/MM/YYYY')

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  • CFfile -- value is not set to the queried data

    - by user494901
    I have this add user form, it also doubles as a edit user form by querying the data and setting the value="#query.xvalue#". If the user exists (eg, you're editing a user, it loads in the users data from the database. When doing this on the <cffile field it does not load in the data, then when the insert goes to insert data it overrights the database values with a blank string (If a user does not input a new file). How do I avoid this? Code: Form: <br/>Digital Copy<br/> <!--- If null, set a default if not, set the default to database default ---> <cfif len(Trim(certificationsList.cprAdultImage)) EQ 0> <cfinput type="file" required="no" name="cprAdultImage" value="" > <cfelse> File Exists: <cfoutput><a href="#certificationsList.cprAdultImage#">View File</a></cfoutput> <cfinput type="file" required="no" name="cprAdultImage" value="#certificationsList.cprAdultImage#"> </cfif> Form Processor: <!--- Has a file been specificed? ---> <cfif not len(Trim(form.cprAdultImage)) EQ 0> <cffile action="upload" filefield="cprAdultImage" destination="#destination#" nameConflict="makeUnique"> <cfinvokeargument name="cprAdultImage" value="#pathOfFile##cffile.serverFile#"> <cfelse> <cfinvokeargument name="cprAdultImage" value=""> </cfif> CFC ARGS: <cfargument name="cprAdultExp" required="NO"> <cfargument name="cprAdultCompany" type="string" required="no"> <cfargument name="cprAdultImage" type="string" required="no"> <cfargument name="cprAdultOnFile" type="boolean" required="no"> Query: UPDATE mod_StudentCertifications SET cprAdultExp='#DateFormat(ARGUMENTS.cprAdultExp, "mm/dd/yyyy")#', cprAdultCompany='#Trim(ARGUMENTS.cprAdultCompany)#', cprAdultImage='#Trim(ARGUMENTS.cprAdultImage)#', cprAdultOnFile='#Trim(ARGUMENTS.cprAdultOnFile)#' INSERT INTO mod_StudentCertifications( cprAdultExp, cprAdultcompany, cprAdultImage, cprAdultOnFile

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  • Updating an input value with Jquery

    - by Evan
    I have a form with a few fields, one of which should be updated based on the value of another. The value of the first is POSTed to another URL, and the returned value should be used to fill the second field. Here's the code: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> function lookup(rid) { $.get("/handler?rid=" + $("input#rid").val(), function(update_rid){ $("#name").val(html(update_rid)); }) } </script> <form name="new_alert"> <input type="text" name="rid" id="rid" onkeyup="lookup(this.value);"> <br /> <input type="text" name="name" id="name"> </form> The POST works fine, and the correct data is returned from /hander, which I confirmed by making a test and filling it using $("#testdiv").html(update_rid); So it seems like the problem is in the way I'm trying to update the value, but I can't get past that.

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  • why do i lose my hidden field value?

    - by user517406
    Hi, I have some hidden fields on my page, all of which work fine apart from one. I am setting the value in document.ready, before calling buildGrid() : $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "/CDServices.asmx/GetWeekEndingDates", data: "{}", dataType: "json", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function(msg) { //store default dates in hidden fields $("#<%=hdnCurrentDate.ClientID%>").val(msg.d.CurrentDate); $("#<%=hdnLastWeekEndingDate.ClientID%>").val(msg.d.LastWeekEndingDate); } }); buildGrid(); }); Yet in buildGrid, the value in the hidden field is empty : function buildGrid() { alert($("#<%=hdnLastWeekEndingDate.ClientID%>").val()); I call other functions on button clicks where the hidden field value is picked up fine, why does the value disappear here?

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  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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  • How to change the attribute value of svg file

    - by rafiq7s
    Hello, In samplexml.svg there is a node <image width="744" height="1052" xlink:href="image1.png"/> I need to replace "image1.png" with another value like "image2.png". Please guide me with sample code how to to that. I could get the attribute value "image1.png". Here is the code: > <?php $xdoc = new DomDocument; > $xdoc->Load('samplexml.svg'); $tagName > = $xdoc->getElementsByTagName('image')->item(0); > $attribNode = > $tagName->getAttributeNode('xlink:href'); > > echo "Attribute Name : > ".$attribNode->name; echo "<br > />Attribute Value : > ".$attribNode->value; ?> Here is samplexml.svg: > <svg> <g> <title>Test title</title> > <image x="0" y="0" width="744" > height="1052" > xlink:href="image1.png"/> </g> </svg> Please help me, how to change this attribute value. Regards, rafiq7s

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  • Load PEM encoded private RSA key in Crypto++

    - by 01100110
    Often times, user will have PEM encoded RSA private keys. Crypto++ requires that these keys be in DER format to load. I've been asking people to manually convert their PEM files to DER beforehand using openssl like this: openssl pkcs8 -in in_file.pem -out out_file.der -topk8 -nocrypt -outform der That works fine, but some people don't understand how to do that nor do they want to. So I would like to convert PEM files to DER files automatically within the program. Is it as simple as striping the "-----BEGIN CERTIFICATE-----" and "-----END CERTIFICATE-----" from the PEM or is some other transformation required as well? I've been told that between those markers that it's just b64 encoded DER. Here's some code that demonstrates the issue: // load the private key CryptoPP::RSA::PrivateKey PK; CryptoPP::ByteQueue bytes; try { CryptoPP::FileSource File( rsa.c_str(), true, new CryptoPP::Base64Decoder() ); File.TransferTo( bytes ); bytes.MessageEnd(); // This line Causes BERDecodeError when a PEM encoded file is used PK.Load( bytes ); } catch ( CryptoPP::BERDecodeErr ) { // Convert PEM to DER and try to load the key again } I'd like to avoid making system calls to openssl and do the transformation entirely in Crypto++ so that users can provide either format and things "just work". Thanks for any advice.

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  • t-sql get variable value from string with variable name

    - by Markus
    Hi. Is there a way to convert '@my_variable' string into a value of @my_variable? I have a table which stores names of variables. I need to get the value of this variable. Something like this: DECLARE @second_variable AS NVARCHAR(20); DECLARE @first_variable AS NVARCHAR(20); SET @first_variable = '20'; SET @second_variable = SELECT '@first_variable'; --here I want that @second variable be assigned a value of "20".

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  • INSERT INTO statement that copies rows and auto-increments non-identity key ID column

    - by AmoebaMan17
    Given a table that has three columns ID (Primary Key, not-autoincrementing) GroupID SomeValue I am trying to write a single SQL INSERT INTO statement that will make a copy of every row that has one GroupID into a new GroupID. Example beginning table: ID | GroupID | SomeValue ------------------------ 1 | 1 | a 2 | 1 | b Goal after I run a simple INSERT INTO statement: ID | GroupID | SomeValue ------------------------ 1 | 1 | a 2 | 1 | b 3 | 2 | a 4 | 2 | b I thought I could do something like: INSERT INTO MyTable ( [ID] ,[GroupID] ,[SomeValue] ) ( SELECT (SELECT MAX(ID) + 1 FROM MyTable) ,@NewGroupID ,[SomeValue] FROM MyTable WHERE ID = @OriginalGroupID ) This causes a PrimaryKey violation since it will end up reusing the same Max(ID)+1 value multiple times as it seems. Is my only recourse to a bunch of INSERT statements in a T-SQL WHILE statement that has an incrementing Counter value? I also don't have the option of turning the ID into an auto-incrementing Identity column since that would breaking code I don't have source for.

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  • Different return value of an overridden class

    - by Samer Afach
    I have a simple but confusing question here. Is it legal to have a different return value type for overridden methods than the abstact ones defined in the base class?? I did that and the compiler didn't complain... could someone please explain? class MyBaseClass { int value; public: virtual int getValue() = 0; }; class MyClass : public MyBaseClass { double value; public: virtual double getValue(); // here!!! return is double, not int }; double MyClass::getValue() { return this->value; } The compiler totally accepted something similar (MSVC und MinGW)... could anyone please exaplain to what extent this is legal?

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