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  • Method interception in PHP 5.*

    - by Rolf
    Hi everybody, I'm implementing a Log system for PHP, and I'm a bit stuck. All the configuration is defined in an XML file, that declares every method to be logged. XML is well parsed and converted into a multidimensionnal array (classname = array of methods). So far, so good. Let's take a simple example: #A.php class A { public function foo($bar) { echo ' // Hello there !'; } public function bar($foo) { echo " $ù$ùmezf$z !"; } } #B.php class B { public function far($boo) { echo $boo; } } Now, let's say I've this configuration file: <interceptor> <methods class="__CLASS_DIR__A.php"> <method name="foo"> <log-level>INFO</log-level> <log-message>Transaction init</log-message> </method> </methods> <methods class="__CLASS_DIR__B.php"> <method name="far"> <log-level>DEBUG</log-level> <log-message>Useless</log-message> </method> </methods> </interceptor> The thing I'd like AT RUNTIME ONLY (once the XML parser has done his job) is: #Logger.php (its definitely NOT a final version) -- generated by the XML parser class Logger { public function __call($name,$args) { $log_level = args[0]; $args = array_slice($args,1); switch($method_name) { case 'foo': case 'far': //case ..... //write in log files break; } //THEN, RELAY THE CALL TO THE INITIAL METHOD } } #"dynamic" A.php class A extends Logger { public function foo($log_level, $bar) { echo ' // Hello there !'; } public function bar($foo) { echo " $ù$ùmezf$z !"; } } #"dynamic" B.php class B extends Logger { public function far($log_level, $boo) { echo $boo; } } The big challenge here is to transform A and B into their "dynamic" versions, once the XML parser has completed its job. The ideal would be to achieve that without modifying the code of A and B at all (I mean, in the files) - or at least find a way to come back to their original versions once the program is finished. To be clear, I wanna find the most proper way to intercept method calls in PHP. What are your ideas about it ??? Thanks in advance, Rolf

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  • c# inheriting generic collection and serialization...

    - by Stecy
    Hi, The setup: class Item { private int _value; public Item() { _value = 0; } public int Value { get { return _value; } set { _value = value; } } } class ItemCollection : Collection<Item> { private string _name; public ItemCollection() { _name = string.Empty; } public string Name { get {return _name;} set {_name = value;} } } Now, trying to serialize using the following code fragment: ItemCollection items = new ItemCollection(); ... XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(ItemCollection)); using (FileStream f = File.Create(fileName)) serializer.Serialize(f, items); Upon looking at the resulting XML I see that the ItemCollection.Name value is not there! I think what may be happening is that the serializer sees the ItemCollection type as a simple Collection thus ignoring any other added properties... Is there anyone having encountered such a problem and found a solution? Regards, Stécy

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  • How to inherit events between objects

    - by marduck19
    I need inherit events and properties for example move a picture around the form Y have this code to move the picture but y need create multiple images with the same behavior private void pictureBox_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (e.Button == MouseButtons.Left) { x = e.X; y = e.Y; } } private void pictureBox_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (e.Button == MouseButtons.Left) { pictureBox.Left += (e.X -x); pictureBox.Top += (e.Y - y); } }

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  • Use super class's address/pointer in initialization list

    - by JQ
    context 1: class D : public B1, public B2{}; context 2: B2 takes B1 to initialize: B2( B1 * ) //B2's constructor my question is in D's initialization list: D::D() : B1(), B2( ? )... What should be in ? I don't want to put " (B1*)this " in the ? place, because it's no good to use "this" in initialization list. And since B1 part has been initialized, it makes sense to use it. What should I do ?

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  • How to find the first declaring method for a reference method

    - by Oliver Gierke
    Suppose you have a generic interface and an implementation: public interface MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param); } public class MyImplementation<T> implements MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param) { } } These two types are frework types. In the next step I want allow users to extend that interface as well as redeclare foo(T param) to maybe equip it with further annotations. public interface MyExtendedInterface extends MyInterface<Bar> { @Override void foo(Bar param); // Further declared methods } I create an AOP proxy for the extended interface and intercept especially the calls to furtherly declared methods. As foo(…) is no redeclared in MyExtendedInterface I cannot execute it by simply invoking MethodInvocation.proceed() as the instance of MyImplementation only implements MyInterface.foo(…) and not MyExtendedInterface.foo(…). So is there a way to get access to the method that declared a method initially? Regarding this example is there a way to find out that foo(Bar param) was declared in MyInterface originally and get access to the accoriding Method instance? I already tried to scan base class methods to match by name and parameter types but that doesn't work out as generics pop in and MyImplementation.getMethod("foo", Bar.class) obviously throws a NoSuchMethodException. I already know that MyExtendedInterface types MyInterface to Bar. So If I could create some kind of "typed view" on MyImplementation my math algorithm could work out actually.

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  • stop propagarion from draggable div to selectable table

    - by Zeus
    If I have a table which has selectable cells $("#selectTable").selectable({ filter: ">*>tr>td"}); and one of the cells contains a draggable div $(".dragMe").draggable({}); HTML like so: <table id="selectTable"> <tr> <td> 1 </td> <td> 2 </td> <td> 3 </td> <td> <div class="dragMe">drag me</div> </td> </tr> </table> How do I stop the cell containing the div from being selectable? I presume the div will intercept the click event before the table cell, but my attempts at using event.stopPropagation on the draggable element have led me nowhere so far... Any suggestions or tips for using draggable inside a selectable parent would be most appreciated! EDIT: It seems that adding the div element to the cancel option for the selectable almost works - $("#selectTable").selectable({ filter: ">*>tr>td", cancel: ':input,option,div'}); this prevents the div from being selected when you click on it, but not when you drag+select it along with surrounding elements. Edit I've solved this now, the solution to this question can be found here

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  • Jquery Using Jeditable and activating on click

    - by BandonRandon
    I found this to be almost exactly what I'm trying to do. I'm using Jeditable I can get the default setup to work. I've also been able to get the code in the forum above to work. I believe my problem is that because I'm using a table I need to so something else to select the previous element. Here is my HTML <table> <tr> <td width="5%"><input class="cat_checkbox" type="checkbox" name='delete_cat[]' value='<?php echo("$cat_data[cat_id]");?>' /></td> <td width="90%" class="edit_cat_title" id='unique_id'>Category</td> <td width="5%"><a href="#" class="edit_cat_title_trigger"><img src="images/edit.gif" border="0"></a></td> </tr> </table> and here is my JQuery: //modify title content on the fly $('.edit_cat_title').editable('action.php', { name : 'cat_title', indicator : 'Saving...', submit : 'OK', cancel : 'Cancel', tooltip:'click to edit', event : 'edit' }); //trigger with the click of the edit image $(".edit_cat_title_trigger").bind("click", function() { $(this).prev().trigger("edit_cat_title"); }); I know I probably should be able to figure it out and I know all i have to do is change $(this).prev().trigger("edit_cat_title"); to the right thing but I'm still really new to Jquery. Thanks

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  • Why do pure virtual base classes get direct access to static data members while derived instances do

    - by Shamster
    I've created a simple pair of classes. One is pure virtual with a static data member, and the other is derived from the base, as follows: #include <iostream> template <class T> class Base { public: Base (const T _member) { member = _member; } static T member; virtual void Print () const = 0; }; template <class T> T Base<T>::member; template <class T> void Base<T>::Print () const { std::cout << "Base: " << member << std::endl; } template <class T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Derived (const T _member) : Base<T>(_member) { } virtual void Print () const { std::cout << "Derived: " << this->member << std::endl; } }; I've found from this relationship that when I need access to the static data member in the base class, I can call it with direct access as if it were a regular, non-static class member. i.e. - the Base::Print() method does not require a this- modifier. However, the derived class does require the this-member indirect access syntax. I don't understand why this is. Both class methods are accessing the same static data, so why does the derived class need further specification? A simple call to test it is: int main () { Derived<double> dd (7.0); dd.Print(); return 0; } which prints the expected "Derived: 7"

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  • Business entity: private instance VS single instance

    - by taoufik
    Suppose my WinForms application has a business entity Order, the entity is used in multiple views, each view handles a different domain or use-case in the application. As an example, one managing orders, the other one digging into one order and displaying additional data. If I'd use nHibernate (or any other ORM) and use one session/dataContext per view (or per db action), I'd end up getting two different instances for the same Order (let's say orderId = 1). Although functionally the same entity, they are technically two different instances. Yes, I could implement Equals/GetHashcode to make them "seem" the same. Why would you go for a single instance per entity vs private instances per view or per use-case? Having single instances has the advantage of sharing INotifyPropertyChanged events, and sharing additional (non-persistent) data. Having a private instance in each view would give you the flexibility of the undo functionality on a view level. In the example above, I'd allow the user to change order details, and give them the flexibility to not save the change. Here, synchronisation between the view/use-case happens on a data persistence level. What would your argument be?

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  • How do i make a allocation table?

    - by david
    I have build a grid of div's as playground for some visual experiments. In order to use that grid, i need to know the x and y coordinates of each div. That's why i want to create a table with the X and Y position of each div. X:0 & Y:0 = div:eq(0), X:0 Y:1 = div:eq(1), X:0 Y:2 = div:eq(2), X:0 Y:3 = div:eq(3), X:1 Y:0 = div:eq(4) etc.. What is the best way to do a table like that? Creating a OBJECT like this: { 00: 0, 01: 1, 02: 2, etc.. } or is it better to create a array? position[0][0] = 0 the thing is i need to use the table in multiple way's.. for example the user clicked the div nb: 13 what are the coordinates of this div or what is the eq of the div x: 12 y: 5. Thats how i do it right now: var row = 0 var col = 0 var eq = 0 c.find('div').each(function(i){ // c = $('div#stage') if (i !=0 && $(this).offset().top != $(this).prev().offset().top){ row++ col = 0 } $(this).attr({'row': row, 'col': col }) col++ }) I think it would be faster to build a table with the coordinates, instead of adding them as attr or data to the DOM. but i cant figure out how to do this technically. How would you solve this problem width JS / jQuery?

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  • Sharing view logic in Django

    - by Jeremy B.
    I've begun diving into Django again and I'm having trouble finding the parallel to some common concepts from my life in C#. While using .NET MVC I very often find myself creating a base controller which will provide a base action implementation to take care of the type of stuff I want to do on every request, like retrieving user information, getting localization values. Where I'm finding myself confused is how to do this in Django. I am getting more familiar with the MVT concept but I can't seem to find how to solve this scenario. I've looked at class based views and the generic views yet they didn't seem to work how I expected. What am I missing? How can i create default logic that each view will be instructed to run but not have to write it in each view method?

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  • EF 6 Code First Many to many With Payload and self referencing many to many

    - by lesley86
    I Have the problem where i have a many to many relationship and on one of the tables there will be a self referencing many to many. So basically a school have zero or many groups and many groups can have 0 or many schools. The groups table will contain a parent child many to many with itself because a group can be a child of another group or it can have no children and that child can have a child, one child can also have many parents or a entity can have no parents. I created a mapping table with Payload to solvethe first many to many problem. code snippet public class School { public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroupMap> SchoolGroupMaps } public class SchoolGroup { public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroupMap> SchoolGroupMaps } public class SchoolGroupMap { public virtual School School public virtual SchoolGroup SchoolGroup } i Then tried modifying the code the following way for the the self referencing many to many public class SchoolGroup { public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroupMap> SchoolGroupMaps public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroup> Parents public virtual ICollection<SchoolGroup> Children } I changed the context with has many and an auto mapping table (forgive me i have been trying so many things today i do not have the exact code). I received an error the properties on the classes must match. Can anyone help please. I want to do create navigation properties on the self referencing many to many. Also a seed example would be appreciated regards

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  • How do I Data-Bind dual DateTimePicker to a single DateTime object

    - by S.C. Madsen
    Hi, I have a simple form, with two DateTimePicker-controls: One for date, and one for time. The thing is these two controls are supposed to represent a single point in time. Hence I would like to "Bind" them to a single DateTime property on my form (for simplicity). I did the following: // Start is a DateTime property on the form _StartDate.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); _StartTime.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); But hooking into "ValueChanged" event, yields mixed results... Sometimes I get exactly what I want, sometimes the updates of the property are "sluggish". I figured this way of splitting into two DateTimePicker's was fairly common. So how to do it? Update: There is possibly multiple questions in there: How do I bind a DateTimePicker (Format: Date) to a DateTime Property on a form? Then, how do I bind yet another DateTimePicker (Format: Time) to the same property? I'm using Visual Studio Express 2008 (.NET 3.5), and I seemingly get ValueChanged events from the DateTimePickers before the value is changed?

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  • Is there any way to manipulate variables passed in to a child class constructor before passing it of

    - by Matt
    Hi, Is there any way to delay calling a superclass constructor so you can manipulate the variables first? Eg. public class ParentClass { private int someVar; public ParentClass(int someVar) { this.someVar = someVar; } } public class ChildClass : ParentClass { public ChildClass(int someVar) : base(someVar) { someVar = someVar + 1 } } I want to be able to send the new value for someVar (someVar + 1) to the base class constructor rather than the one passed in to the ChildClass constructor. Is there any way to do this? Thanks, Matt

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  • Me As Child Type

    - by Steven
    I have a MustInherit Parent class with two Child classes which Inherit from the Parent. How can I use (or Cast) Me in a Parent function as the the child type of that instance? EDIT: My actual goal is to be able to serialize (BinaryFormatter.Serialize(Stream, Object)) either of my child classes. However, "repeating the code" in each child "seems" wrong.

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  • spring - constructor injection and overriding parent definition of nested bean

    - by mdma
    I've read the Spring 3 reference on inheriting bean definitions, but I'm confused about what is possible and not possible. For example, a bean that takes a collaborator bean, configured with the value 12 <bean name="beanService12" class="SomeSevice"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean name="beanBaseNested" class="SomeCollaborator"> <constructor-arg index="0" value="12"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> I'd then like to be able to create similar beans, with slightly different configured collaborators. Can I do something like <bean name="beanService13" parent="beanService12"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean> <constructor-arg index="0" value="13"/> </bean> </constructor> </bean> I'm not sure this is possible and, if it were, it feels a bit clunky. Is there a nicer way to override small parts of a large nested bean definition? It seems the child bean has to know quite a lot about the parent, e.g. constructor index. I'd prefer not to change the structure - the parent beans use collaborators to perform their function, but I can add properties and use property injection if that helps. This is a repeated pattern, would creating a custom schema help? Thanks for any advice!

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  • Define interface for loading custom UserControls through reflection

    - by Tim
    I'm loading custom user controls into my form using reflection. I would like all my user controls to have a "Start" and "End" method so they should all be like: public interface IStartEnd { void Start(); void End(); } public class AnotherControl : UserControl, IStartEnd { public void Start() { } public void End() { } } I would like an interface to load through reflection, but the following obviously wont work as an interface cannot inherit a class: public interface IMyUserControls : UserControl, IInit, IDispose { }

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  • Is there a way to automaticly call all versions of an inherited method?

    - by Eric
    I'm writing a plug-in for a 3D modeling program. I have a custom class that wraps instances of elements in the 3D model, and in turn derives it's properties from the element it wraps. When the element in the model changes I want my class(es) to update their properties based on the new geometry. In the simplified example below. I have classes AbsCurveBasd, Extrusion, and Shell which are all derived from one another. Each of these classes implement a RefreshFromBaseShape() method which updates specific properties based on the current baseShape the class is wrapping. I can call base.RefreshFromBaseShape() in each implementation of RefreshFromBaseShape() to ensure that all the properties are updated. But I'm wondering if there is a better way where I don't have to remember to do this in every implementation of RefershFromBaseShape()? For example because AbsCurveBased does not have a parameterless constructor the code wont even compile unless the constructors call the base class constructors. public abstract class AbsCurveBased { internal Curve baseShape; double Area{get;set;} public AbsCurveBased(Curve baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public virtual void RefreshFromBaseShape() { //sets the Area property from the baseShape } } public class Extrusion : AbsCurveBased { double Volume{get;set;} double Height{get;set;} public Extrusion(Curve baseShape):base(baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public override void RefreshFromBaseShape() { base.RefreshFromBaseShape(); //sets the Volume property based on the area and the height } } public class Shell : Extrusion { double ShellVolume{get;set;} double ShellThickness{get;set;} public Shell(Curve baseShape): base(baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public void RefreshFromBaseShape() { base.RefreshFromBaseShape(); //sets this Shell Volume from the Extrusion properties and ShellThickness property } }

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  • Forward declaration of derived inner class

    - by Loom
    I ran into problem implementing some variations of factory method. // from IFoo.h struct IFoo { struct IBar { virtual ~IBar() = 0; virtual void someMethod() = 0; }; virtual IBar *createBar() = 0; }; // from Foo.h struct Foo : IFoo { // implementation of Foo, Bar in Foo.cpp struct Bar : IBar { virtual ~Bar(); virtual void someMethod(); }; virtual Bar *createBar(); // implemented in Foo.cpp }; I'd like to place declaration of Foo::Bar in Foo.cpp. For now I cannot succeed: struct Foo : IFoo { //struct Bar; //1. error: invalid covariant return type // for ‘virtual Foo::Bar* //struct Bar : IBar; //2. error: expected ‘{’ before ‘;’ token virtual Bar *createBar(); // virtual IBar *createBar(); // Is not acceptable by-design }; Is there a trick to have just forward declaration of Boo in Foo.hpp and to have full declaration in Foo.cpp?

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  • Using C++, how to call a base class method from a derived class method and apply this to an object passed as an argument?

    - by Chris
    I can't figure out how to call a base class method from a derived class method but concurrently applying this method call at an object passed as argument. What I mean is this: class Animal { virtual void eat(Animal& to_be_eaten) = 0; }; class Carnivores: public Animal { virtual void eat(Animal& to_be_eaten) { /*implementation here*/} }; class Wolf : public Carnivores { virtual void eat(Animal& to_be_eaten) { /*call eat method(of Base class) of Base to_be_eaten here*/ } } I thought of something like this dynamic_cast<Carnivores&>(to_be_eaten).eat(*this) //and got a segmentation fault Is there any way for this to be done? Thank you! New edit:: Updated the code

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  • .NET C# Explicit implementation of grandparent's interface method in the parent interface

    - by Cristi Diaconescu
    That title's a mouthful, isn't it?... Here's what I'm trying to do: public interface IBar { void Bar(); } public interface IFoo: IBar { void Foo(); } public class FooImpl: IFoo { void IFoo.Foo() { /*works as expected*/ } //void IFoo.Bar() { /*i'd like to do this, but it doesn't compile*/ } void IBar.Bar() { /*works as expected*/ } } So... Is there a way to declare IFoo.Bar(){...} in my class, other than basically merging the two interfaces into one? And, if not, why?

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  • Filter large amounts of data from a HTML table w/ jQuery

    - by Bry4n
    I work for a transit agency and I have large amounts of data (mostly times), and I need a way to filter the data using two textboxes (To and From). I found jQuery quick search, but it seems to only work with one textbox. If anyone has any ideas via jQuery or some other client side library, that would be fantastic. Ideal example: To: [Textbox] From:[Textbox] <table> <tr> <td>69th street</td><td>5:00pm</td><td>5:06pm</td><td>5:10pm</td><td>5:20pm</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Millbourne</td><td>5:09pm</td><td>5:15pm</td><td>5:20pm</td><td>5:25pm</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Spring Garden</td><td>6:00pm</td><td>6:15pm</td><td>6:20pm</td><td>6:25pm</td> </tr> </table> I have an HTML page with a giant table on it listing the station names and each stations times. I want to be able to put my starting location in one box and my ending location in another box and have all the items in the table disappear that don't relate to either of the two locations typed in, leaving only two rows that match what was typed in (even if they don't spell it right or type it all the way) Similar to the jQuery quick search plugin

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  • Inherit static properties in subclass without redeclaration?

    - by David
    Hi, I'm having the same problem as this guy with the application I'm writing right now. The problem is that static properties are not being inherited in subclasses, and so if I use the static:: keyword in my main class, it sets the variable in my main class as well. It works if I redeclare the static variables in my subclass, but I expect to have a large number of static properties and subclasses and wish to avoid code duplication. The top-rated response on the page I linked has a link to a few "workarounds", but it seems to have 404'd. Can anyone lend me some help or perhaps point me in the direction of said workarounds?

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  • method __getattr__ is not inherited from parent class

    - by ??????
    Trying to subclass mechanize.Browser class: from mechanize import Browser class LLManager(Browser, object): IS_AUTHORIZED = False def __init__(self, login = "", passw = "", *args, **kwargs): super(LLManager, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) self.set_handle_robots(False) But when I make something like this: lm["Widget[LinksList]_link_1_title"] = anc then I get an error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#8>", line 1, in <module> lm["Widget[LinksList]_link_1_title"] = anc TypeError: 'LLManager' object does not support item assignment Browser class have overridden method __getattr__ as shown: def __getattr__(self, name): # pass through _form.HTMLForm methods and attributes form = self.__dict__.get("form") if form is None: raise AttributeError( "%s instance has no attribute %s (perhaps you forgot to " ".select_form()?)" % (self.__class__, name)) return getattr(form, name) Why my class or instance don't get this method as in parent class?

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