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  • Armchair Linguists: 'code' vs. 'codes'--or why I write 'code' and my manager asks for 'codes'

    - by Ukko
    I wanted to tap into the collective wisdom here to see if I can get some insight into one of my pet peeves, people who thread "code" as a countable noun. Let me also preface this by saying that I am not talking about anyone who speaks english as a second language, this is a native phenomenon. For those of us who slept through grammar class there are two classes of nouns which basically refer to things that are countable and non-countable (sometimes referred to as count and noncount). For instance 'sand' is a non-count noun and 'apple' is count. You can talk about "two apples" but "two sands" does not parse. The bright students then would point out a word like "beer" where is looks like this is violated. Beer as a substance is certainly a non-count noun, but I can ask for "two beers" without offending the grammar police. The reason is that there are actually two words tied up in that one utterance, Definition #1 is a yummy golden substance and Definition #2 is a colloquial term for a container of said substance. #1 is non-count and #2 is countable. This gets to my problem with "codes" as a countable noun. In my mind the code that we programmers write is non-count, "I wrote some code today." When used in the plural like "Have you got the codes" I can only assume that you are asking if I have the cryptographically significant numbers for launching a missile or the like. Every time my peer in marketing asks about when we will have the new codes ready I have a vision of rooms of code breakers going over the latest Enigma coded message. I corrected the usage in all the documents I am asked to review, but then I noticed that our customer was also using the work "codes" when they meant "code". At this point I have realized that there is a significant sub-population that uses "codes" and they seem to be impervious to what I see as the dominant "correct" usage. This is the part I want some help on, has anyone else noticed this phenomenon? Do you know what group it is associated with, old Fortran programmer perhaps? Is it a regionalism? I have become quick to change my terms when I notice a customer's usage, but it would be nice to know if I am sending a proposal somewhere what style they expect. I would hate to get canned with a review of "Ha, these guy's must be morons they don't even know 'code' is plural!"

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  • What Can I Do To One Of My Team Number (Good Friend As Well) Who Lost His Passion.

    - by skyflyer
    It seems this question is not program related, but there are lot of similar questions. So please bear with me! By the way, I am programmer and my team is also charging a software project. And SO is the only place which solved me lot of thorny troubles!THANK YOU GUYS! I joined my company with him years ago. At that time he was quite passionate on his job which is a front-end development. He gave us lot of useful suggestions concerning his work like design. And I believed he was a smart guy. I believe he still is smart too by the way. One years later, however, he seemed lost his passion and fooling around every day, did not care about his work any more and produced poorwork. Even worse he literally stopped learning new skills and honing his work related skills. For me it is horrible, we got to keep abreast with new technology development, otherwise we will be throw out. Since we were just coworkers, I did not care about it too much except mentioned my thoughts several times. But last month, we resembled a new group and assigned very important project. And I am the team leader, sadly! My boss gave me lot of support and expectation as well. I did a pretty good job before and I am very optimism to our future. But as a team, if my team does not work hard, we will be doomed to failure no matter how hard I work and push. In order to revitalize his passion, I tried couple of ways like talking to him about my concern and my boss's angry. I offered his new task which is quite new to him. I even persuaded my boss to give him new incentive package. But all of them knocked wall. His reaction was just he did not care. Even worse he did not want to talk about his situation. I want to be hard on him, but since we are friends and coworkers, I really can not see it will work. Even it works, I can not so quickly change my self from friend and coworker into manager. As a novice in management, I am really overwhelmed! I do not want get him fired, we are friends and I do not see him fired as my team number. What can I do? Thank you guys!

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  • PDF Corruption When Sending with Microsoft Products

    - by Winner
    I have the same PDF corruption problem in two different offices that I am the tech support for. Office 1: Started in the middle of December. PDF received from outside the office and is viewable with no problems. I have no control over how it is created. If it is forwarded to anyone else, the PDF is corrupted. I have forwarded it to multiple people in the office. I have tried viewing with Reader 8, 9, Sumatra and Fox IT. I have tried forwarding to Gmail and their viewer says it is corrupted. If I save the PDF and create a new email, it will be corrupted when sent using Outlook 2003, Outlook 2007, Microsoft Live Mail and Outlook Express. If I create the email using Thunderbird 3, Gmail or the webclient Iclient for IPSwitch IMail it will not be corrupted. I have confirmed the same results when using our IMail SMTP and also Using Gmail as the SMTP server. To be clear, if I created in Thunderbird, Gmail or Iclient and received on any of the MS products, it will be viewable. This office receives PDFs daily from multiple sources. There is only a small subset that are having this problem. So far they problem PDFs are from two different companies they deal with, but not all of the PDFs are bad. Office 2: PDFs are created by a management system. I'm not sure what engine is used to create them. Same exact same issues. At both offices, I noticed that the file size is wrong. One small PDF the proper file size is 12kb for the PDF when it's viewable, when it shows up corrupted it is only 8kb. We handle the email for both offices. Both are POP servers, not Exchange. IMail was updated after these issues start. I have tried different SMTP servers and it still seems to happen only when using Microsoft products to send. Anyone else having problems with PDFs getting corrupted? Any ideas how to find out a resolution?

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  • PHP sessions and class members.

    - by JDW
    Ok, messing about with classes in PHP and can't get it to work the way I'm used to as a C++/Java-guy. In the "_init" funtion, if I run a query at the "// query works here" line", everythong works, but in the "getUserID" function, all that happens is said warning... "getUserID" gets called from login.php (they are in the same dir): login.php <?php include_once 'sitehandler.php'; include_once 'dbhandler.php'; session_start(); #TODO: Safer input handling $t_userName = $_POST["name"]; $t_userId = $_SESSION['handler']['db']->getUserID($t_userName); if ($t_userId != -1) { $_SESSION['user']['name'] = $t_userName; $_SESSION['user']['id'] = $t_userId; } //error_log("user: " . $_SESSION['user']['name'] . ", id: ". $_SESSION['user']['id']); header("Location: " . $_SERVER["HTTP_REFERER"]); ? dbhandler.php <?php include_once 'handler.php'; class DBHandler extends HandlerAbstract { private $m_handle; function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } public function test() { #TODO: isdir liquibase #TODO: isfile liquibase-195/liquibase + .bat + execrights $this->m_isTested = true; } public function _init() { if (!$this->isTested()) $this->test(); if (!file_exists('files/data.db')) { #TODO: How to to if host is Windows based? exec('./files/liquibase-1.9.5/liquibase --driver=org.sqlite.JDBC --changeLogFile=files/data_db.xml --url=jdbc:sqlite:files/data.db update'); #TODO: quit if not success } #TODO: Set with default data try { $this->m_handle = new SQLite3('files/data.db'); } catch (Exception $e) { die("<hr />" . $e->getMessage() . "<hr />"); } // query works here $this->m_isSetup = true; } public function teardown() { } public function getUserID($name) { // PHP Warning: SQLite3::prepare(): The SQLite3 object has not been correctly initialised in $t_statement = $this->m_handle->prepare("SELECT id FROM users WHERE name = :name"); $t_statement->bindValue(":name", $name, SQLITE3_TEXT); $t_result = $t_statement->execute(); //var_dump($this->m_handle); return ($t_result)? (int)$t_result['id']: -1; } }

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  • Where is the method call in the EXE file?

    - by Victor Hurdugaci
    Introduction After watching this video from LIDNUG, about .NET code protection http://secureteam.net/lidnug_recording/Untitled.swf (especially from 46:30 to 57:30), I would to locate the call to a MessageBox.Show in an EXE I created. The only logic in my "TrialApp.exe" is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("This is trial app"); } } Compiled on the Release configuration: http://rapidshare.com/files/392503054/TrialApp.exe.html What I do to locate the call Run the application in WinDBG and break after the message box appears. Get the CLR stack with !clrstack: 0040e840 5e21350b [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e840] System.Windows.Forms.SafeNativeMethods.MessageBox(System.Runtime.InteropServices.HandleRef, System.String, System.String, Int32) 0040e894 5e21350b System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.ShowCore(System.Windows.Forms.IWin32Window, System.String, System.String, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxButtons, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxIcon, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxDefaultButton, System.Windows.Forms.MessageBoxOptions, Boolean) 0040e898 002701f0 [InlinedCallFrame: 0040e898] 0040e934 002701f0 TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Get the MethodDesc structure (using the address of Form1_Load) !ip2md 002701f0 MethodDesc: 001762f8 Method Name: TrialApp.Form1.Form1_Load(System.Object, System.EventArgs) Class: 00171678 MethodTable: 00176354 mdToken: 06000005 Module: 00172e9c IsJitted: yes CodeAddr: 002701d0 Transparency: Critical Source file: D:\temp\TrialApp\TrialApp\Form1.cs @ 22 Dump the IL of this method (by MethodDesc) !dumpil 001762f8 IL_0000: ldstr "This is trial app" IL_0005: call System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox::Show IL_000a: pop IL_000b: ret So, as the video mentioned, the call to to Show is 5 bytes from the beginning of the method implementation. Now I open CFFExplorer (just like in the video) and get the RVA of the Form1_Load method: 00002083. After this, I go to Address Converter (again in CFF Explorer) and navigate to offset 00002083. There we have: 32 72 01 00 00 70 28 16 00 00 0A 26 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 In the video is mentioned that the first 12 bytes are for the method header so I skip them 2A 7A 03 2C 13 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 5 bytes from the beginning of the implementation should be the opcode for method call (28). Unfortunately, is not there. 02 7B 02 00 00 04 2C 0B 02 7B 02 00 00 04 6F 17 00 00 0A 02 03 28 18 00 00 0A 2A 00 03 30 04 00 67 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 28 19 00 00 0A 02 Questions: What am I doing wrong? Why there is no method call at that position in the file? Or maybe the video is missing some information... Why the guy in that video replaces the call with 9 zeros?

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  • uninitialized constant Active Scaffold rails 2.3.5

    - by Kiva
    Hi guy, I update my rails application 2.0.2 to 2.3.5. I use active scaffold for the administration part. I change nothing in my code but a problem is coming with the update. I have a controller 'admin/user_controller' to manage users. Here is the code of the controller: class Admin::UserController < ApplicationController layout 'admin' active_scaffold :user do |config| config.columns.exclude :content, :historique_content, :user_has_objet, :user_has_arme, :user_has_entrainement, :user_has_mission, :mp, :pvp, :user_salt, :tchat, :notoriete_by_pvp, :invitation config.list.columns = [:user_login, :user_niveau, :user_mail, :user_bloc, :user_valide, :group_id] #:user_description, :race, :group, :user_lastvisited, :user_nextaction, :user_combats_gagner, :user_combats_perdu, :user_combats_nul, :user_password, :user_salt, :user_combats, :user_experience, :user_mana, :user_vie config.create.link.page = true config.update.link.page = true config.create.columns.add :password, :password_confirmation config.update.columns.add :password, :password_confirmation config.create.columns.exclude :user_password, :user_salt config.update.columns.exclude :user_password, :user_salt config.list.sorting = {:user_login => 'ASC'} config.subform.columns = [] end end This code hasn't change with the update, but when I go in this page, I got this error: uninitialized constant Users /Users/Kiva/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:443:in `load_missing_constant' /Users/Kiva/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:80:in `const_missing' /Users/Kiva/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:92:in `const_missing' /Users/Kiva/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/inflector.rb:361:in `constantize' /Users/Kiva/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/inflector.rb:360:in `each' /Users/Kiva/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/inflector.rb:360:in `constantize' /Users/Kiva/.gem/ruby/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/core_ext/string/inflections.rb:162:in `constantize' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/extensions/reverse_associations.rb:28:in `reverse_matches_for' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/extensions/reverse_associations.rb:24:in `each' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/extensions/reverse_associations.rb:24:in `reverse_matches_for' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/extensions/reverse_associations.rb:11:in `reverse' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/active_scaffold/data_structures/column.rb:117:in `autolink?' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/active_scaffold.rb:107:in `links_for_associations' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/active_scaffold/data_structures/columns.rb:62:in `each' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/active_scaffold/data_structures/columns.rb:62:in `each' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/active_scaffold.rb:106:in `links_for_associations' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/vendor/plugins/active_scaffold/lib/active_scaffold.rb:59:in `active_scaffold' /Users/Kiva/Documents/Projet-rpg/jeu/app/controllers/admin/user_controller.rb:11 I search since 2 days but I don't find the problem, can you help me please.

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  • Problem measuring N times the execution time of a code block

    - by Nazgulled
    EDIT: I just found my problem after writing this long post explaining every little detail... If someone can give me a good answer on what I'm doing wrong and how can I get the execution time in seconds (using a float with 5 decimal places or so), I'll mark that as accepted. Hint: The problem was on how I interpreted the clock_getttime() man page. Hi, Let's say I have a function named myOperation that I need to measure the execution time of. To measure it, I'm using clock_gettime() as it was recommend here in one of the comments. My teacher recommends us to measure it N times so we can get an average, standard deviation and median for the final report. He also recommends us to execute myOperation M times instead of just one. If myOperation is a very fast operation, measuring it M times allow us to get a sense of the "real time" it takes; cause the clock being used might not have the required precision to measure such operation. So, execution myOperation only one time or M times really depends if the operation itself takes long enough for the clock precision we are using. I'm having trouble dealing with that M times execution. Increasing M decreases (a lot) the final average value. Which doesn't make sense to me. It's like this, on average you take 3 to 5 seconds to travel from point A to B. But then you go from A to B and back to A 5 times (which makes it 10 times, cause A to B is the same as B to A) and you measure that. Than you divide by 10, the average you get is supposed to be the same average you take traveling from point A to B, which is 3 to 5 seconds. This is what I want my code to do, but it's not working. If I keep increasing the number of times I go from A to B and back A, the average will be lower and lower each time, it makes no sense to me. Enough theory, here's my code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #define MEASUREMENTS 1 #define OPERATIONS 1 typedef struct timespec TimeClock; TimeClock diffTimeClock(TimeClock start, TimeClock end) { TimeClock aux; if((end.tv_nsec - start.tv_nsec) < 0) { aux.tv_sec = end.tv_sec - start.tv_sec - 1; aux.tv_nsec = 1E9 + end.tv_nsec - start.tv_nsec; } else { aux.tv_sec = end.tv_sec - start.tv_sec; aux.tv_nsec = end.tv_nsec - start.tv_nsec; } return aux; } int main(void) { TimeClock sTime, eTime, dTime; int i, j; for(i = 0; i < MEASUREMENTS; i++) { printf(" » MEASURE %02d\n", i+1); clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &sTime); for(j = 0; j < OPERATIONS; j++) { myOperation(); } clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &eTime); dTime = diffTimeClock(sTime, eTime); printf(" - NSEC (TOTAL): %ld\n", dTime.tv_nsec); printf(" - NSEC (OP): %ld\n\n", dTime.tv_nsec / OPERATIONS); } return 0; } Notes: The above diffTimeClock function is from this blog post. I replaced my real operation with myOperation() because it doesn't make any sense to post my real functions as I would have to post long blocks of code, you can easily code a myOperation() with whatever you like to compile the code if you wish. As you can see, OPERATIONS = 1 and the results are: » MEASURE 01 - NSEC (TOTAL): 27456580 - NSEC (OP): 27456580 For OPERATIONS = 100 the results are: » MEASURE 01 - NSEC (TOTAL): 218929736 - NSEC (OP): 2189297 For OPERATIONS = 1000 the results are: » MEASURE 01 - NSEC (TOTAL): 862834890 - NSEC (OP): 862834 For OPERATIONS = 10000 the results are: » MEASURE 01 - NSEC (TOTAL): 574133641 - NSEC (OP): 57413 Now, I'm not a math wiz, far from it actually, but this doesn't make any sense to me whatsoever. I've already talked about this with a friend that's on this project with me and he also can't understand the differences. I don't understand why the value is getting lower and lower when I increase OPERATIONS. The operation itself should take the same time (on average of course, not the exact same time), no matter how many times I execute it. You could tell me that that actually depends on the operation itself, the data being read and that some data could already be in the cache and bla bla, but I don't think that's the problem. In my case, myOperation is reading 5000 lines of text from an CSV file, separating the values by ; and inserting those values into a data structure. For each iteration, I'm destroying the data structure and initializing it again. Now that I think of it, I also that think that there's a problem measuring time with clock_gettime(), maybe I'm not using it right. I mean, look at the last example, where OPERATIONS = 10000. The total time it took was 574133641ns, which would be roughly 0,5s; that's impossible, it took a couple of minutes as I couldn't stand looking at the screen waiting and went to eat something.

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  • IE and Google Chrome timeout on an IIS6 hosted SSL page that Firefox handles well

    - by Thomas
    Ok, here's the scenario: Up until a few weeks ago, none of us noticed anything wrong with the corporate website. People were using it without complaint. Then, a client complained that a specific page on the site was timing out for him, and only when he committed a POST action on a form filled with data. I checked it out, and it timed out for me, too. But, it only timed out in Google Chrome and IE, not in Firefox. Additionally, the same page, on the same server, but served from a different domain name (one not under the protection of SSL, either) does not time out under any browser. To clarify: https://www.mysite.com/changes.php times out on POST, but the same with http works fine. That distinction (SSL vs. Non-SSL) seems to be important, as nothing else has changed. Our certificate is valid, and Firefox detects no errors thrown by the page. I've looked at the Request and Response headers from the page, and they all follow the correct formats. Then, after wandering through the site, I noticed a few other things. Both IE and Chrome will frequently time out on any page that is PHP-based. They never time out on static images or html files. I've looked at the site from a variety of different servers, my home and work workstations, and my netbook. Because of that, I've discounted a viral infection, as I highly doubt a virus is going to hit every one of the machines to which I have access in exactly the same manner. My setup is: Server: Win2k3, II6, PHP 5.2.9-1. Clients: IE7, IE8, Chrome (regular and dev channel): Frequent timeouts on PHP pages. Firefox 2, Firefox 3: No timeouts. Firebug shows no errors or even lengthy periods serving the pages. I've spent 2 days searching for any tech knowledge that I can find, and my search parameters are all too general. Everyone has problems loading SSL pages in IE and Chrome for a wide variety of reasons. The infrequent nature of the timeouts and the fact that there are no errors being reported anywhere is starting to drive me insane. Does anyone have any insight on a problem like this?

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  • replacing div content with a click using jquery

    - by Joel
    I see this question asked a lot in the related questions, but my need seems very simple compared to those examples, and sadly I'm just still too new at js to know what to remove...so at the risk of being THAT GUY, I'm going to ask my question... I'm trying to switch out the div contents in a box depending on the button pushed. Right now I have it working using the animatedcollapse.toggle function, but it doesn't look very good. I want to replace it with a basic fade in on click and fade in new content on next button. Basic idea: <div> <ul> <li><a href="this will fade in the first_div"></li> <li><a href="this will fade in the second_div"></li> <li><a href="this will fade in the third_div"></li> </ul> <div class="first_container"> <ul> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> </ul> </div> <div class="second_container"> <ul> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> </ul> </div> <div class="third_container"> <ul> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> <li>stuff</li> </ul> </div> </div> I've got everything working with the animated collapse, but it's just an ugly effect for this situation, so I want to change it out. Thanks! Joel

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  • Howcome I cannot make my javascript 'executable' in an address bar

    - by imHavoc
    The second link does not work like the first one. How come? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>Dynamic CSS Properties</title> <script language="JavaScript"> function change(){ //document.getElementById("box1").style.visibility = "visible"; var spanArray = document.getElementsByTagName('span'); var number_spans = spanArray.length ; for( var i = 0; i < number_spans ; i++ ){ var target = spanArray[ i ] ; // do something with target like set visibility target.style.visibility = "visible"; } } function change2(){ var spanArray=document.getElementsByTagName('span');var number_spans=spanArray.length;for(var i=0;i<number_spans;i++){var target=spanArray[i];target.style.visibility="visible";} } </script> </head> <body> <a href="javascript:change2();">Change</a> <br /> <a href="javascript:var spanArray=document.getElementsByTagName('span');va r number_spans=spanArray.length;for(var i=0;i<number_spans;i++){var target=spanArray[i];target.style.visibility='visible';}; ">Show Spans</a> <br /> <div style="position: relative; overflow: hidden;"><center> <br><br> <font size="5" color="blue"> 1. just press the <img src="http://up203.siz.co.il/up1/jw2k4az1imny.jpg"> button on the top to see the picture i promise you its so funny!!!!: <br><br><br> <span style="background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% white;"><span style="visibility: hidden;"> <a onmousedown="UntrustedLink.bootstrap($(this), &quot;77a0d&quot;, event)" rel="nofollow" target="_blank" onclick="(new Image()).src = '/ajax/ct.php?app_id=4949752878&amp;action_type=3&amp;post_form_id=3917211492ade40ee468fbe283b54b3b&amp;position=16&amp;' + Math.random();return true;" href="http://thebigbrotherisrael.blogspot.com/2010/04/all-family-guy-characters-in-real-life.html">Press here to see the picture!!!</a> </span><span style="visibility: visible;"></span></span></font></center></div> </body> </html>

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  • What's the best way to do user profile/folder redirect/home directory archiving?

    - by tpederson
    My company is in dire need of a redesign around how we handle user account administration. I've been tasked with automating the process. The end goal is to have the whole works triggered by the business, and IT only looking in when there's an error reported. The interim phase is going to be semi-manual. That is a level 2 tech inputs the user's info and supervises the process. The current hurdle I'm facing is user profile archiving. Our security team requires us to archive the profile directories for any terminated user for 60 days in case the legal team requires access to their files. Our AD is as much a mess as everything else, so there are some users with home directories and some with profiles. Anyone who has a profile dir in AD also has a good deal of their profile redirected to our file servers over DFS. In order to complete the process manually you find the user in AD, disable them, find their home/profile dir, go there and take ownership, create an archive folder, move all their files over, then delete the old dir. Some users have many many gigs of nonsense and this can take quite some time. Even automated the process would not be a quick one. I'm thinking that I need to have a client side C# GUI for the quick stuff and some server side batch script or console app to offload this long running process. I have a batch script that works decently using takeown and robocopy, but I wonder if a C# console app would do a better job. So, my question at long last is, what do you think is the best way to handle this? I can't imagine this is a unique problem, how do other admins get this done? The last place I worked was easily 10x larger than the place I'm in now. If we would have been doing this manual crap there, they'd have needed a team of at least 30 full time workers to keep up. I have decent skills in C#.net and batch scripting, but am a quick study and I have used most every language once or twice. Thank you for reading this and I look forward to seeing what imaginative solutions you all can come up with.

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  • How do you use technology to memorize set of terms?

    - by user49767
    Always there are few set of items needs to be memorized in short span of time. Here are my following cases. 1) My Job requires some set of items needs to be memorized. 2) I am a developer who has to learn 150+ tags within next 3 days. 3) Fix developer/support has to remember minimum of 125+ tags (set of possible values). 4) It is better if team's SQL developer knows all the table and columns in my database. 5) When guys join new department or job. Memorizing few related items will definitely gives some benefit. Most of the cases, I suggest people to understand the domain better and nothing wrong in using google (but remember correct search-word). But recently I came across a junior developer who took lot of effort in memorizing set of things (150+ table structures, fix protocol tags, almost 300+ configuration items from property file) and was very very successful in his job and was swift in responding for support queries. Needless to say he is smart worker too (not a dumb guy). When I try to recollect some of the successful employees I met, they were so good in remembering entire schema and they did in short span of time. But I don't argue that memorizing alone gives success, but it greatly helps when situation demands. Here my question is, I am not good at remembering things, but it shouldn't be lame excuse. Hence I am evaluating using technolgies better to memorize set of items. Not very much interested in memory techniques (mnemoninc, photography memory, etc..). Even I have recorded 100+ items and listen to that whenever I found free time, defintely there were some fruitful result. Now I need your suggestion about what are all the ways to exploit technology to memorize. There could be so many reason why guys remember a subject (passionate, essential, author, creator, responsbile). Not interested in dissecting why guys remeber. Rather much interested in using ways, and techniques (cheat sheet...) to remember a set of itmes. Note : I appreciate, encourage people who could rephrase my question better. Note : I have kept couple of cheat-sheet close to my monitor, honestly it did not help me :).

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  • Starting company and getting a good deal

    - by Dan
    Hi, I'm having the possibility to start a small company with someone else. I'm a software programmer and been working on a field where there isn't much competition, at least in the platform I'm developing, which is the one with highest market share. This other person comes from marketing so he would find / provide clients and be in charge of the business side. So initially it would be me, the tech guy with the knowledge to develop our product and products based on my development, and this person who would become CEO (basically a 50/50 share). The idea is getting a product on our own, but also perform projects for others in order to get some cash. The problem is that his idea is doing this without initial capital. He tells me that he could get some customers from past business (which is mostly true as he has been in the business for some time) and then with the money obtained from such development, we could hire some freelance developers and build our own platform. I've already discussed with him that I don't find this the best way, provided that we need to compete against other companies some of who are VC funded and have many developers working fulltime. But most of all, I'm thinking of whether this is a fair deal to do, provided that this person is not providing anything other than clients, and I'd be the one having to do the work and dedicate time, thus also taking most of the risks. In all fairness, I'd expect him to put some initial capital, given that initially I'm putting some of my code which in some way is money given the time I've dedicated to it. So the question here is, does this seem fair to you? Is this the way it is usually done? My only concern here is that I don't have previous experience with such deals, and I ignore whether this is the usual thing to do in other cases. Certainly having a marketing person helps a lot. As you probably know being a programmer doesn't make me the most indicated person for marketing ;-) but at the same time I'm not sure if this could be a good deal or I'd just be making a pretty inconvenient deal. Hope I made my point clear, but feel free to let me know if more details are needed. Thanks in advance

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  • Myself throwing NullReferenceException... needs help

    - by Amit Ranjan
    I know it might be a weird question and its Title too, but i need your help. I am a .net dev , working on platform for the last 1.5 years. I am bit confused on the term usually we say " A Good Programmer ". I dont know ,what are the qualities of a good programmer ? Is the guy who writes a bug free code? or Can develop applications solely? or blah blah blah...lots of points. I dont know... But as far i am concerned , I know I am not a good programmer, still in learning phase an needs a lot to learn in coming days. So you guys are requested to please help me with this two problems of mine My first problem is regarding the proper Error Handling, which is a most debatable aspect of programming. We all know we use ` try { } catch { } finally { } ` in our code to manage exception. But even if I use try { } catch(exception ex) { throw ex } finally { } , different guys have different views. I still dont know the good way to handle errors. I can write code, use try-catch but still i feel I lacks something. When I saw the codes generated by .net fx tools even they uses throw ex or `throw new Exception("this is my exception")`.. I am just wondering what will be the best way to achieve the above. All means the same thing but why we avoid something. If it has some demerits then it must be made obselete.Anyways I still dont have one [how to handle errors efficiently?]. I generally follow the try-catch(execoption ex){throw ex}, and usually got stucked in debates with leads why you follow this why not that... 2.Converting your entire code blocks in modules using Design patterns of some OOPs concepts. How do you guys decide what architeture or pattern will be the best for my upcoming application based on its working, flow etc. I need to know what you guys can see that I can't. Since I know , I dont have that much experience but I can say, with my experience that experience doesnot comes either from degree/certificates or success you made instead it cames from failures you faced or got stucking situations. Pleas help me out.

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  • How do I (robustly) remotely execute tasks on Windows workstations in a domain?

    - by Zac B
    I'm not even sure if "robustly" is a word. Anyway. Context: We have a few hundred Windows 7 workstations on a LAN. We use AD/GPO management pretty heavily, but there are a lot of periodic and/or manual maintenance tasks we need to do that can't be done via GPO/scheduled task. For example, say I want to execute program X (which runs silently, in the background, and doesn't bother the user) on workstation Y, or say I want to execute task A on a workstation group B either on a schedule or on demand. Kicking the users off of their computers to do this (i.e. using RDP) is a no-no, and doesn't work on groups anyway. Question: What's the best way to do this that is robust enough that, after setup, I could give it to beginner support people (read: people who are phobic of the command line, and get confused with GUI interfaces more complicated than Firefox)? I'm a competent programmer, and, if there is a robust set of tools or framework out there for this type of task, I'd consider hacking something together myself if it didn't take too long. If there's some combination of tools or techniques that others use to make remote-workstation-administration doable by beginners, I have yet to find it. For those who care about the "why": I'm midlevel IT, and was told to implement a remote management solution that allows arbitrary/scheduled remote execution, with confirmation that programs actually ran remotely, and the ability to view what they returned. "Why?" I asked, "Can't I just use PsExec and the task scheduler on a dispatcher machine?" "No," I was told, "'Joe' the second-week tech is going to be in charge of this one, and he needs something simple with a GUI." What I've tried: I've played with making a bunch of one-clickable "transfer files to remote computer and run them with PsExec" batch/VB scrips, but those tend to break down and don't easily support running on customizable groups. I've played a little bit with the Windows version of Puppet, but it doesn't support arbitrary-time remote execution (it's ability to group computers into a tree/node structure is really nice though). I've used an older version of Altiris, and, while it does a lot of what I want, it's interface is awful, it's slow, crashes a lot, and is probably too expensive for management. SwiftWater's DMS solution does some of what I want, but it's very underdeveloped, closed-source (not a deal breaker but not ideal), and I get the impression that support and reliability are lacking.

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  • Graphics card artifacting

    - by White Phoenix
    This is my current build: EVGA X58 (first generation) motherboard Intel i7 965 @ stock clocks 3x 2GB DDR3-1600 Corsair RAM at stock timings and voltages Corsair AX750 80 Plus Gold PSU 1 Optical Drive 1 Seagate 7200.10 500 GB drive 2x Western Digital Caviar Black 1 TB drives OCZ Vertex 1 60 GB EVGA GTX 460 Antec 1200 case HT-Omega Striker 7.1 Sound Card Windows 7 32-bit Professional (PAE Enabled) My graphics card started artifacting while I was playing a game. It artifacted, the display blinked, then I got an NVIDIA driver has crashed and recovered message. Kept going, more artifacts, another crash, but this time my display blanked out and I couldn't do anything. Restarted my computer - artifacting is in the BIOS - got to Windows 7 but it BSOD'd before I could even log in. I restarted the computer again - artifacts cleared themselves out and I managed to get to Win7, but it soon started blinking in and out and artifacting again. Checked the card temps and they're well within range. (50 idle, 70 full load) The ambient temperature here is about 80-85F with high humidity. Tried Safe Mode and it still froze up/BSOD'd. Already tried the following to fix this problem: - Reseat the graphics card and swapped in a different slot. - Removed cover on card and sprayed with compressed air to clean it out. - Swapped around memory and/or went with only using one stick at a time. - Underclocked card I called EVGA Tech Support and they said that the voltage on the 12V rail of my Corsair AX750 PSU was on the high end of the "acceptable" range (12.4V, highest within acceptable range is 12.6V - optimal is obviously 12V). They gave me an RMA number anyway, but I want to get a second opinion from you all before I send this thing off, as shipping from where I live to EVGA is kind of pricey. This PSU is only 6 months old. So that I don't have to play RMA tag, which case would be most likely? I'm strapped for cash at the moment so I want to reduce the amount of RMAs I have to do since shipping is expensive here. Is there any surefire way to test to see if it's really the graphics card or the PSU? I tried unplugging any devices that were connected to the 12V rail (except for my SSD and graphics card) as I do have 3 mechanical hard drives, but the voltage for that rail didn't drop (it remained at 12.4V). I'm fairly sure it isn't the drivers since I'm getting the artifacting at the BIOS too. Right now I'm back in Windows 7 but I don't know for how long until it messes up again. Any ideas?

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  • IPv6 routing to another interface

    - by Robert
    I'm trying to get an IPv6 enabled router to forward data from one interface to the other and I'm having issues. When following this example (http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk872/technologies_configuration_example09186a0080ba6106.shtml) I am able to get full connectivity between all 3 routers in my simulator. However when I try to use only 1 router; I can't get connectivity to the other interfacs on the same router. My PC is directly attached to FA 0/1 and it can ping the router's interface. However it can not ping any other interface on the router(which unless I'm missing something it should be able to do). The router on the other hand can ping everything. I thought static routes might help; but the router already has routes for everything. I'm thinking the packet should come in; router looks up the destination in it's ipv6 routing table and then realizes it's for itself, and should respond. I thought maybe it couldn't respond directly; so I tried pinging a device like 2001:0000:0000:1000::2, but i don't get a response. I'm running on IOS 12.4. I'm missing something(hopefully simple), but I just can't see what it is. With only 1 router; how do I enable my PC to talk to the other subnets? Thank you in advance, Robert Topology: R1 FA 0/0: 2001:0000:0000:0000::1/52 FA 0/1: 2001:0000:0000:1000::1/52 FA 1/0: 2001:0000:0000:2000::1/52 Loopback 0: 2001:0000:0000:3000::1/52 PC: 2001:0000:0000:2000::2/52 PC plugs directly into FA 1/0 on the router. --- Configuration --- ipv6 cef ipv6 unicast routing interface Loopback0 no ip address ipv6 address 2001:0000:0000:3000::1/52 ipv6 enable ! interface FastEthernet0/0 no ip address duplex auto speed auto ipv6 address 2001:0000:0000::1/52 ipv6 enable ! interface FastEthernet0/1 no ip address duplex auto speed auto ipv6 address 2001:0000:0000:1000::1/52 ipv6 enable ! interface FastEthernet1/0 no ip address duplex auto speed auto ipv6 address 2001:0000:0000:2000::1/52 ipv6 enable --- end of config --- --- routing table --- IPV6Lab#show ipv6 route IPv6 Routing Table - 10 entries Codes: C - Connected, L - Local, S - Static, R - RIP, B - BGP U - Per-user Static route I1 - ISIS L1, I2 - ISIS L2, IA - ISIS interarea, IS - ISIS summary O - OSPF intra, OI - OSPF inter, OE1 - OSPF ext 1, OE2 - OSPF ext 2 ON1 - OSPF NSSA ext 1, ON2 - OSPF NSSA ext 2 C 2001:0000:0000::/52 [0/0] via ::, FastEthernet0/0 L 2001:0000:0000::1/128 [0/0] via ::, FastEthernet0/0 C 2001:0000:0000:1000::/52 [0/0] via ::, FastEthernet0/1 L 2001:0000:0000:1000::1/128 [0/0] via ::, FastEthernet0/1 C 2001:0000:0000:2000::/52 [0/0] via ::, FastEthernet1/0 L 2001:0000:0000:2000::1/128 [0/0] via ::, FastEthernet1/0 C 2001:0000:0000:3000::/52 [0/0] via ::, Loopback0 L 2001:0000:0000:3000::1/128 [0/0] via ::, Loopback0 L FE80::/10 [0/0] via ::, Null0 L FF00::/8 [0/0] via ::, Null0 --- end of routing table ---

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  • Educate me - should I buy these prebuilt NAS (which is better) or make my own?

    - by user29336
    I'm trying to learn as much as possible, and I think I've learned quite a bit so bear with me here under my confusion. I found a coupe NAS setups. I'm not sure if one is better than the other, other than the price being higher on some, and some coming with drives VS not. Let me list my setup so you can get an idea of what I want to provide: Macbook Pro Macbook Mini for Media streaming (so far) Windows 7 Gaming Computer Xbox 360 I'd like to provide a storage system for all these devices so they can access files very easily, I'd also like any of these devices to be able to stream media from this storage system. I'd like this storage system to be hassle free in terms of my confidence in the data integrity. If a drive fails, I want to know that I can replace the drive and all my files will still exist. I'd like to access this storage system OUTSIDE of my LAN. If I'm out on a job for work I'd like to go in, or be able to have people DL some files. This brings me to a question, is this what iSCSI is? I'd like this data system to be able to download torrents. I want to mount any drive on this storage system onto my OSX laptop as if it were a local drive attached. (Is this with iSCSI is?) I'd like this system to have a GOOD web based GUI. I don't want to install software to use it. I believe those are the most of my requirements. If I'm missing something that I have no knowledge about, can someone educate me? Here are the systems I found: $729ish on Newegg Lacie 5Big Network 2 (comes with 5TB of space. iSCSI / mac compatible, torrents, nice ui, + others?) Is this overpriced for what it provides? It almost seems like a great deal to me because of the 5TB of space it comes with vs the other NAS systems that don't come with storage but cost $600-700. Should I get a different NAS system? Netgear? Others? Do they have same features? Better? Is it better to buy your own disks? What about making my own? I'm tech savy all around. It seems cheaper to buy a premade one especially with the support/warranty it provides...

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  • program crashes at CIN input | C++

    - by TimothyTech
    hello okay, so i made a DOS program however my game always crashes on my second time running to the cin function. #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <ctime> #include <cstdlib> using namespace std; //call functions int create_enemyHP (int a); int create_enemyAtk (int a); int find_Enemy(int a); int create_enemyDef (int a); // user information int userHP = 100; int userAtk = 10; int userDef = 5; string userName; //enemy Information int enemyHP; int enemyAtk; int enemyDef; string enemies[] = {"Raider", "Bandit", "Mugger"}; int sizeOfEnemies = sizeof(enemies) / sizeof(int); string currentEnemy; int chooseEnemy; // ACTIONS int journey; int test; int main() { // main menu cout << "welcome brave knight, what is your name? " ; cin >> userName; cout << "welcome " << userName << " to Darland" << endl; //TRAVELING MENU: cout << "where would you like to travel? " << endl; cout << endl << " 1.> Theives Pass " << endl; cout << " 2.> Humble Town " << endl; cout << " 3.> Mission HQ " << endl; cin >> journey; if (journey == 1) { // action variable; string c_action; cout << "beware your journey grows dangerous " << endl; //begins battle // Creating the enemy, HP ATK DEF AND TYPE. ; srand(time(0)); enemyHP = create_enemyHP(userHP); enemyAtk = create_enemyAtk(userAtk); enemyDef = create_enemyDef(userDef); chooseEnemy = find_Enemy(sizeOfEnemies); currentEnemy = enemies[chooseEnemy]; cout << " Here comes a " << currentEnemy << endl; cout << "stats: " << endl; cout << "HP :" << enemyHP << endl; cout << "Attack : " << enemyAtk << endl; cout << "Defense : " << enemyDef << endl; ACTIONS: cout << "Attack <A> | Defend <D> | Items <I>"; cin >> c_action; //if ATTACK/DEFEND/ITEMS choice if (c_action == "A" || c_action == "a"){ enemyHP = enemyHP - userAtk; cout << " you attack the enemy reducing his health to " << enemyHP << endl; userHP = userHP - enemyAtk; cout << "however he lashes back causing you to have " << userHP << "health left " << endl; //end of ATTACK ACTION } the last line "cin c_action crashes. i use two other pages. they just create the functions. is it a complier issue. also why does my complier always shutdown after it runs he app. is there a way to stop it?

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  • If Nvidia Shield can stream a game via wifi, why can I not do the same via ethernet to any other PC?

    - by Enigma
    I think it absurd that a wireless game streaming solution is the *first to hit the market when a 1000mbps+ Ethernet connection would accomplish the same feat with roughly 6x the available bandwidth. I can only assume that there must be some reason behind this or a limitation preventing this, but what? 150mbps wifi is in no way superior to a 1000mbps LAN connection aside from well wireless mobility. Not only that but I have a secondary laptop and desktop which should by hardware comparison completely outperform anything the Tegra in the Nvidia Shield can do. Is this all just a marketing scheme to force people to buy the shield for the streaming benefit? Chief among these is that NVIDIA’s Shield handheld game console will be getting a microconsole-like mode, dubbed “Shield Console Mode”, that will allow the handheld to be converted into a more traditional TV-connected console. In console mode Shield can be controlled with a Bluetooth controller, and in accordance with the higher resolution of TVs will accept 1080p game streaming from a suitably equipped PC, versus 720p in handheld mode. With that said 1080p streaming will require additional bandwidth, and while 720p can be done over WiFi NVIDIA will be requiring a hardline GigE connection for 1080p streaming (note that Shield doesn’t have Ethernet, so this is presumably being done over USB). Streaming aside, in console mode Shield will also support its traditional local gaming/application functionality. - http://www.anandtech.com/show/7435/nvidia-consolidates-game-streaming-tech-under-gamestream-brand-announces-shield-console-mode ^ This is not acceptable for me for a number of reasons not to mention the ridiculousness of having a little screen+controller unit sitting there while using a secondary controller and screen instead. That kind of redundant absurdity exemplifies how wrong of a solution that is. They need a second product for this solution without the screen or controller for it to make sense... at which point your just buying a little computer that does what most other larger computers do better. All that is required, by my understanding, is the ability to decode H.264 video compression and transmit control/feedback so by any logical comparison, one (Nvidia especially) should have no difficulty in creating an application for PC's (win32/64 environment) that does the exact same thing their android app does. I have 2 video cards capable of streaming (encoding) H.264 so by right they must be capable of decoding it I would think. I haven't found anything stating plans to allow non-shield owners to do this. Can a third party create this software or does it hinge on some limitation that only Nvidia can overcome? (*) - perhaps this isn't the first but afaik it is the first complete package.

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  • Best approach for using Scanner Objects in Java?

    - by devjeetroy
    Although I'm more of a C++/ASM guy, I have to work with java as a part of my undergrad course at college. Our teacher taught us input using Scanner(System.in), and told us that if multiple functions are were taking user input, it would be advisable that a single Scanner object is passed around so as to reduce chances of the input stream getting screwed up. Now using this approach has gotten me into a situation where I'm trying to use a Scanner.nextLine(), and this statement does not wait for user input. It just moves on to the following statement. I figured there may be some residual cr/lf or other characters in the Scanner that might not have been retrieved are causing the problem. Here is the code. while(lineScanner.hasNext()) { if(isPlaceHolder(temp = lineScanner.next())) { temp = temp.replace("<",""); temp = temp.replace(">", ""); System.out.print("Enter "+aOrA(temp.charAt(0)) +" " +temp + " : "); temp = consoleInput.nextLine(); } outputFileStream.print(temp + " "); } All of the code is inside a function which receives a Scanner object consoleInput. Ok, so what happens when i run it is that when the program enters the if() the first time, It carries out theSystem.out.print, does not wait for user input, and moves on to the second time that it enters the 'if' block. This time, it takes the input and the rest of the program operates normally. What is even more surprising is that when i check the output file created by the program, it is perfect, just as i want to be. Almost as if the first time input using the scanner is correct. I have solved this problem by creating a new system.in Scanner in the function itself, instead of receiving the Scanner object as a parameter. But I am still very curious to know what the hell is happening and why it couldn't be solved using a simple Scanner.reset(). Would it be better to just simply create a Scanner Object for each function? Thanks, Devjeet PS. Although I know how to take input using fileinputstreams and the like, we are not supposed to use it with the homework.

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  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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  • making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

    - by user3081123
    I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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  • Application not showing up in Google Play for 4.x devices

    - by Zargle
    I recently posted about the Play store not letting me publish my app without a minSdkVersion, but whenever I set it to anything above "1" my app just doesn't work (minSdkVersion breaking program). So this guy suggested to just set my minSdkVersion to 1, which worked. But now when I submitted my app even though the developer site says: API level: 1-16+ Supported screens: normal-xlarge OpenGL textures: all But the app only shows it supports Android under 4.x, I developed it on my 4.0.4 device. I tried searching around and I found that some people have problems with services messing up the phones it supports, so I deleted all of my services, because I don't really need any for this version of the app to submit. And it still didn't work. So I don't know what else to do, here is my AndroidManifest.xml if it helps... I've been trying to figure out why my application isn't working for a week now, still nothing. I have tried setting a targetSdkVersion to something like 14, my application still breaks. I cleaned out my code, taking everything out of the already short, 200 lines, application, and it still isn't working. Is there something I can't use in an android application 4.0 that I am using in my application? or is it just my AndroidManifest? Thank you so much! <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.unparalleledsoftware.app.list" android:versionCode="5" android:versionName="2.02" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="1" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" android:theme="@style/AppTheme" > <activity android:name=".MainActivity" android:label="@string/title_activity_main" > <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> I should note,I am using the Theme.Holo.Light, but even if I change it to DeviceDefault it doesn't work. Edit: I googled the app on my friends Samsung Galaxy S3 (it didn't show up in the Play Store on his phone), when I installed by googling the app and hitting the "install" button on google and it opened in the Google Play store and was able to install. When I did the same on my phone, Galaxy Note, it opened in the Google Play Store, but then said "Not compatible." Why? They are both on the same version of OS. Why is mine not compatible, nor the One X compatible, but the Samsung Galaxy S3 worked...? Edit: I get these errors/problems when compiling with a targetSdkVersion, http://pastebin.com/mxgWNLdM

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  • ODBC: when is the best time to create my database?

    - by mawg
    I have a windows program which generates PGP forms which will be filled in later. Those PHP forms will populate a database. It looks very much like MySql, but I can't be certain, so let's call it ODBC. And, yes, it does have to be a windows program. There will also be PHP forms which query the database - examine which tables and fields it contains and then generates forms which can be used to search the database (e.g, it finds a table with fields "employee_name", etc and generates a form which lets you search based on employee name. Let's call that design time and run time. At design time, some manager or IT guy or similar gets to define the nature of the database and at runtime 1) a worker fills in the form daily and 2) management can extract reports. Here's my question: given that the database is defined at "design time" (and populated at run time), where and how is best to do so? 1 I could use an ODBC interface from the windows program, but I am having difficulty finding something good to work with Delphi. Things like ADO and firebird tend to expect you to already have a database and allow you to manipulate it, but I can find no code example of how to create a database and some tables, so ... 2 I could used DOS commands from Delphi in my windows program. I just tried and got a response to MySql --version, but am not sure if MySql etc are more interactive. That is, can I use a script file or a very long stacked command with semicolons and returns separating? e.g 'CREATE DATABASE db; CREATE TABLE t1;' 3) Since the best way to work with databases seems to be PHP, perhaps my windows program could spit out a PHP page which would, when run in a browser, create the database. I have tried to make this as uncomplicated as I can, but please feel free to ask questions. It may be that there are several valid ways, but there is probably one 'better' solution in terms of ease of implementation or maintenance. Better scratch option 3. What if the user later wants to come back and have the windows program change the input form? It needs to update the database too.

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