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  • Replicating SQL's 'Join' in Python

    - by Daniel Mathews
    I'm in the process of trying to switch from R to Python (mainly issues around general flexibility). With Numpy, matplotlib and ipython, I've am able to cover all my use cases save for merging 'datasets'. I would like to simulate SQL's join by clause (inner, outer, full) purely in python. R handles this with the 'merge' function. I've tried the numpy.lib.recfunctions join_by, but it critical issues with duplicates along the 'key': join_by(key, r1, r2, jointype='inner', r1postfix='1', r2postfix='2', defaults=None, usemask=True, asrecarray=False) Join arrays r1 and r2 on key key. The key should be either a string or a sequence of string corresponding to the fields used to join the array. An exception is raised if the key field cannot be found in the two input arrays. Neither r1 nor r2 should have any duplicates along key: the presence of duplicates will make the output quite unreliable. Note that duplicates are not looked for by the algorithm. source: http://presbrey.mit.edu:1234/numpy.lib.recfunctions.html Any pointers or help will be most appreciated!

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  • How do I set YUI2 paginator to select a page other than the first page?

    - by Jeremy Weathers
    I have a YUI DataTable (YUI 2.8.0r4) with AJAX pagination. Each row in the table links to a details/editing page and I want to link from that details page back to the list page that includes the record from the details page. So I have to a) offset the AJAX data correctly and b) tell YAHOO.widget.Paginator which page to select. According to my reading of the YUI API docs, I have to pass in the initialPage configuration option. I've attempted this, but it doesn't take (the data from AJAX is correctly offset, but the paginator thinks I'm on page 1, so clicking "next" takes me from e.g. page 6 to page 2. What am I not doing (or doing wrong)? Here's my DataTable building code: (function() { var columns = [ {key: "retailer", label: "Retailer", sortable: false, width: 80}, {key: "publisher", label: "Publisher", sortable: false, width: 300}, {key: "description", label: "Description", sortable: false, width: 300} ]; var source = new YAHOO.util.DataSource("/sales_data.json?"); source.responseType = YAHOO.util.DataSource.TYPE_JSON; source.responseSchema = { resultsList: "records", fields: [ {key: "url"}, {key: "retailer"}, {key: "publisher"}, {key: "description"} ], metaFields: { totalRecords: "totalRecords" } }; var LoadingDT = function(div, cols, src, opts) { LoadingDT.superclass.constructor.call( this, div, cols, src, opts); // hide the message tbody this._elMsgTbody.style.display = "none"; }; YAHOO.extend(LoadingDT, YAHOO.widget.DataTable, { showTableMessage: function(msg) { $('sales_table_overlay').clonePosition($('sales_table').down('table')). show(); }, hideTableMessage: function() { $('sales_table_overlay').hide(); } }); var table = new LoadingDT("sales_table", columns, source, { initialRequest: "startIndex=125&results=25", dynamicData: true, paginator: new YAHOO.widget.Paginator({rowsPerPage: 25, initialPage: 6}) }); table.handleDataReturnPayload = function(oRequest, oResponse, oPayload) { oPayload.totalRecords = oResponse.meta.totalRecords; return oPayload; }; })();

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  • how to verify browser IP for server-side web service

    - by Anthony
    I have a web service that needs to be able to verify the end-user's IP that called the server-script that is requesting the web service. Simple layout: Person A goes to Webpage B. Webpage B calls Web Service C to get some info on Person A. Web Service C won't give Webpage B the requested information without confirmation that the request originated from Person A's IP and not someone who has stolen Person A's session. I'm thinking that for a browser-based solution, the original site (Webpage B) can open an iframe that goes to the Web Service's authentication page. A key of some kind is passed to the browser which will some how indicate both the user's IP and Web Page B's IP, so that the Web Service can confirm that no one has nabbed anything. I have two challenges, but I'll stick to the more immediate one first: I'm not sure if my browser-based plan really makes sense. If someone steals the session cookie, how is the Web Service going to know? Would this cookie be held be Web Page B and thus be harder to steal? Is it a sound assumption that a cookie or key held by the server only and not the browser is safe? Also, would the web service, based on the iframe initial connection, be expecting the server/user-ip combo? What I mean is, does the session key provided via the iframe get stored by the web service and the Web Site B shows it has a match? Or is the session key more generic, meaning the web service is passed the key by Website B and the Web Service verifies that this is a valid session key based on what a valid session key should look like?

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  • Drupal - no self-linking

    - by pygorex1
    So, I've added several pages to my Drupal install and linking to the pages using URL aliases via the Path module. So far so good - http://mydrupal/node/1 becomes http://mydrupal/about which is exactly what I'm looking for. Then I'm adding these links to the primary navigation and outputting the primary links via a custom theme (copy and paste the primary link code from the Chameleon theme). Here's the problem: when viewing http://mydrupal/about the page links to itself - that is the "About" link at http://mydrupal/about is still linking to http://mydrupal/about - the behavior I'm looking for is to have the "About" text display without a link. In summary: how do I prevent self-linking of pages when displaying the primary navigation?

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  • Mysterious extra hashtable entry

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Good evening everyone, I'm back :) Let me explain my problem. I have a hashtable in wich I store the products a costumors buys (%orders). It uses the productcode as key and has a reference to an array with the other info as value. At the end of the program, I have to rewrite the inventory to the updated version (i.e. subtract the quantity of the bought items) This is how I do this: sub rewriteInventory{ open(FILE,'>inv.txt'); foreach $key(%inventory){ print FILE "$key\|$inventory{$key}[0]\|$inventory{$key}[1]\|$inventory{$key}[2]\n" } close(FILE); } where $inventory{$key}[x] is 0 - Title, 1 - price, 2 - quantity. The problem here is that when I look at inv.txt afterwards, I see things like this: CD-911|Lady Gaga - The Fame|15.99|21 ARRAY(0x145030c)||| BOOK-1453|The Da Vinci Code - Dan Brown|14.75|12 ARRAY(0x145bee4)||| Where do these "ARRAY(0x145030c)|||" entries come from? Or more important, how do I get rid of them? This is the last part of this school task, I had so much problems programming all this and this stupid little thing comes up now and I'm really fed up with this whole Perl thing. (this aside :p) I hope someone can help me :) Fuji

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  • Linq to sql Error "Data at the root level is invalid " for nullable xml column

    - by Mukesh
    I have Created a table like CREATE TABLE [dbo].[tab1]( [Id] [int] NOT NULL, [Name] [varchar](100) NOT NULL, [Meta] [xml] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_tab1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] TEXTIMAGE_ON [PRIMARY] When I am doing linq to sql query to fetch a data it throw an error "data at the root level is invalid linq". In further investigation I come to know that the meta column is null in that case. In real it is nullable Do I have to remove the nullable and set some blank root node as default or there is some another way to get rid of the error. My linq Query which throws error var obj1= (from obj in dbContext.tab1s where obj.id== 123 select obj).FirstOrDefault<Tab1>();

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  • How to turn off auto_increment in Rails Active Record

    - by Darth
    Is it possible to create primary key without auto_increment flag in ActiveRecord? I can't do create table :blah, :id => false because I want to have primary key index on the column. I looked up documentation but didn't find anything useful. Is it possible to create primary key without auto_increment?

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  • How do I Relate these 4 Tables

    - by Baddie
    Trying to setup a simple Thread/Poll table mapping. Here is what I have: Threads table ThreadID (Primary Key/Identity Column) Polls table PollID (Primary Key, FK for ThreadID for one-to-one relation) Question PollOptions table PollOptionID (Identity/Primary Key) Text PollID PollVotes table PollVoteID (Primary Key/Identity) PollOptionID I'm not sure if this is a proper relationship. It seems wrong but I'm not sure whats wrong with it. A Thread can have 0 or 1 Poll. A Poll can have 2 or more PollOptions. A PollOption can have 0 or many PollVotes. I'm going to be using Entity Framework and before I generate the code for it (VS 2010, .NET 4) I want to make sure I have the proper relationship mapping.

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  • matching an element's class to another element's ID, or *part* of another element's ID

    - by shecky
    hello again Such a simple concept but I'm struggling to express it ... apologies in advance for my verbosity. I have a container div with a class, e.g., ; I want to use that class to do two things: add a class (e.g., 'active') to the nav element whose ID matches the class of div#container (e.g., #nav-primary li# apples) add the same class to another element if part of this element's ID matches the class of #container (e.g., div#secondary-apples) I assume there's an .each() loop to check the primary nav's list items' IDs, and to check the div IDs of the secondary nav ... though the latter needs to have its prefix trimmed ... or should I say more simply if the secondary nav div IDs contain the class of div#container? I've tried a few variations of something like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav-primary li').each(function(){ var containerClass = $('#container').attr('class'); var secondaryID = $('#nav-primary li').attr('id'); // something like if ('#nav-primary li id' == (containerClass) { } // or should I first store a variable of the LI's ID and do something like this: if ( secondaryID == containerClass ) { } // and for the trickier part, how do I filter/trim the secondary nav div IDs, something like this: var secondaryNavID = $('#aux-left div[id ... something here to strip the 'secondary-' bit ... ]'); }); // end each }); // end doc.ready.func </script> The markup is, e.g.: ... ... ... ... ... ... ... Many thanks in advance for any suggestions, svs

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  • MySQL auto increments disappeared

    - by Lizard
    I have a mysql database with 60 tables most of the tables have primary keys (expect pivot tables) all these primary keys had the attribute AUTO INCREMENT Then over night some how all the primary keys had that attribute removed, and the default value set to 0. I have no idea how this may have been caused. Any suggestions?

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  • .NET 4.0 Implementing OutputCacheProvider

    - by azamsharp
    I am checking out the OutputCacheProvider in ASP.NET 4.0 and using it to store my output cache into the MongoDb database. I am not able to understand the purpose of Add method which is one of the override methods for OutputCacheProvider. The Add method is invoked when you have VaryByParam set to something. So, if I have VaryByParam = "id" then the Add method will be invoked. But after the Add the Set is also invoked and I can insert into the MongoDb database inside the Set method. public override void Set(string key, object entry, DateTime utcExpiry) { // if there is something in the query and use the path and query to generate the key var url = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(url.Query)) { key = url.PathAndQuery; } Debug.WriteLine("Set(" + key + "," + entry + "," + utcExpiry + ")"); _service.Set(new CacheItem() { Key = MD5(key), Item = entry, Expires = utcExpiry }); } Inside the Set method I use the PathAndQuery to get the params of the QueryString and then do a MD5 on the key and save it into the MongoDb database. It seems like the Add method will be useful if I am doing something like VaryByParam = "custom" or something. Can anyone shed some light on the Add method of OutputCacheProvider?

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  • SQL error with script to create

    - by PapaDaniel
    I used the SQL Server management studio on a table with Create Script to New and did minor changes. Give me an error "Incorrect syntax near '('" for the "(" after "WITH" /* EventType Table Creation */ CREATE TABLE [EventType] ( [pkEventID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Description] [nvarchar](50) NOT NULL, [BeginDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [EndDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [Comments] [nvarchar](500) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_EventType] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [pkEventID] ASC ) WITH ( PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON ) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO

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  • Incorrect syntax near ','.

    - by jeffreyshek
    I get the following error from the SQL Script I am trying to run: Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 10 Incorrect syntax near ','. This is the SQL script: IF NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM dbo.sysobjects WHERE id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].HDDB_DataSource]') AND OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1) BEGIN CREATE TABLE [dbo].[HDDB_DataSource]( [ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Name] [nvarchar](255) NOT NULL, [Type] [nvarchar](50) NOT NULL, [XmlFileName] [nvarchar](255) NULL, [ConnectionString] [nvarchar](255) NULL), CONSTRAINT [PK_DataSource] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC ) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] END I am using SQL Server 2005 if that helps. Jeff

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  • What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

    - by RenderIn
    I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

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  • Modeling objects with multiple table relationships in Zend Framework

    - by andybaird
    I'm toying with Zend Framework and trying to use the "QuickStart" guide against a website I'm making just to see how the process would work. Forgive me if this answer is obvious, hopefully someone experienced can shed some light on this. I have three database tables: CREATE TABLE `users` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `email` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `username` varchar(255) NOT NULL default '', `first` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `last` varchar(128) NOT NULL default '', `gender` enum('M','F') default NULL, `birthyear` year(4) default NULL, `postal` varchar(16) default NULL, `auth_method` enum('Default','OpenID','Facebook','Disabled') NOT NULL default 'Default', PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `email` (`email`), UNIQUE KEY `username` (`username`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_password` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `password` varchar(16) NOT NULL default '', PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `user_metadata` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL default '0', `signup_date` datetime default NULL, `signup_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, `last_login_date` datetime default NULL, `last_login_ip` varchar(15) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 I want to create a User model that uses all three tables in certain situations. E.g., the metadata table is accessed if/when the meta data is needed. The user_password table is accessed only if the 'Default' auth_method is set. I'll likely be adding a profile table later on that I would like to be able to access from the user model. What is the best way to do this with ZF and why?

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  • Display a ranking grid for game : optimization of left outer join and find a player

    - by Jerome C.
    Hello, I want to do a ranking grid. I have a table with different values indexed by a key: Table SimpleValue : key varchar, value int, playerId int I have a player which have several SimpleValue. Table Player: id int, nickname varchar Now imagine these records: SimpleValue: Key value playerId for 1 1 int 2 1 agi 2 1 lvl 5 1 for 6 2 int 3 2 agi 1 2 lvl 4 2 Player: id nickname 1 Bob 2 John I want to display a rank of these players on various SimpleValue. Something like: nickname for lvl Bob 1 5 John 6 4 For the moment I generate an sql query based on which SimpleValue key you want to display and on which SimpleValue key you want to order players. eg: I want to display 'lvl' and 'for' of each player and order them on the 'lvl' The generated query is: SELECT p.nickname as nickname, v1.value as lvl, v2.value as for FROM Player p LEFT OUTER JOIN SimpleValue v1 ON p.id=v1.playerId and v1.key = 'lvl' LEFT OUTER JOIN SimpleValue v2 ON p.id=v2.playerId and v2.key = 'for' ORDER BY v1.value This query runs perfectly. BUT if I want to display 10 different values, it generates 10 'left outer join'. Is there a way to simplify this query ? I've got a second question: Is there a way to display a portion of this ranking. Imagine I've 1000 players and I want to display TOP 10, I use the LIMIT keyword. Now I want to display the rank of the player Bob which is 326/1000 and I want to display 5 rank player above and below (so from 321 to 331 position). How can I achieve it ? thanks.

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  • error in a pygame code

    - by mekasperasky
    # INTIALISATION import pygame, math, sys from pygame.locals import * screen = pygame.display.set_mode((1024, 768)) car = pygame.image.load('car.png') clock = pygame.time.Clock() k_up = k_down = k_left = k_right = 0 speed = direction = 0 position = (100, 100) TURN_SPEED = 5 ACCELERATION = 2 MAX_FORWARD_SPEED = 10 MAX_REVERSE_SPEED = ­5 BLACK = (0,0,0) while 1: # USER INPUT clock.tick(30) for event in pygame.event.get(): if not hasattr(event, 'key'): continue down = event.type == KEYDOWN # key down or up? if event.key == K_RIGHT: k_right = down * ­5 elif event.key == K_LEFT: k_left = down * 5 elif event.key == K_UP: k_up = down * 2 elif event.key == K_DOWN: k_down = down * ­2 elif event.key == K_ESCAPE: sys.exit(0) # quit the game screen.fill(BLACK) # SIMULATION # .. new speed and direction based on acceleration and turn speed += (k_up + k_down) if speed > MAX_FORWARD_SPEED: speed = MAX_FORWARD_SPEED if speed < MAX_REVERSE_SPEED: speed = MAX_REVERSE_SPEED direction += (k_right + k_left) # .. new position based on current position, speed and direction x, y = position rad = direction * math.pi / 180 x += ­speed*math.sin(rad) y += ­speed*math.cos(rad) position = (x, y) # RENDERING # .. rotate the car image for direction rotated = pygame.transform.rotate(car, direction) # .. position the car on screen rect = rotated.get_rect() rect.center = position # .. render the car to screen screen.blit(rotated, rect) pygame.display.flip() enter code here the error i get is this Non-ASCII character '\xc2' in file race1.py on line 13, but no encoding declared; see http://www.python.org/peps/pep-0263.html for details Not able to understand what the error is and how to get rid of it?

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  • Same code, not the same place, different results

    - by Tom
    Hi! I'm trying to something pretty simple but I don't understand why the second bit of code is giving me a bad access error... First: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Tom: Converting the row int to a string and adding 1 to it so that the rows fit with the array indexes.) NSString *key = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", indexPath.row+1]; NSArray *array = [self.tableDataSource objectForKey:key]; NSLog(@"%@", key); NSLog(@"%@", [array description]); cell.textLabel.text = [array objectAtIndex:1]; return cell; } That code gives me exactly what I want: 2010-03-18 15:18:12.884 PremierSoins[28005:40b] 1 2010-03-18 15:18:12.885 PremierSoins[28005:40b] ( 7, Blessures ) 2010-03-18 15:18:12.892 PremierSoins[28005:40b] 2 2010-03-18 15:18:12.893 PremierSoins[28005:40b] ( 18, "Test 2" ) But then, the second: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *key = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", indexPath.row+1]; NSArray *array = [self.tableDataSource objectForKey:key]; NSLog(@"%@", key); NSLog(@"%@", [array description]); } Is only able to get me the key, but the description of the array makes it crash... tableDataSource is a NSMutableDictionary containing multiple arrays... Like this: { 1 = ( 7, Blessures ); 2 = ( 18, "Test 2" ); } Do you have any clue? I've been looking at this since yesterday... Thanks! Tom

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  • x509 certificate verification in C

    - by sid
    Hi All, I do have certificates in DER and PEM format, My goal is to retrieve the fields of Issuer and Subject And verify the Certificate with the CA public key and simultaneously verify CA certificate with the Root public key. I am able to retrieve all the details of issuer and subject But unable to verify the certificate. Please help. The API's used, x509 = d2i_X509_fp (fp, &x509); //READING DER Format x509 = PEM_read_X509 (fp, &x509, NULL, NULL); //READING PEM Format X509_NAME_oneline(X509_get_subject_name(x509), subject, sizeof (subject)); //to retrive the Subject X509_NAME_oneline(X509_get_issuer_name(x509), issuer, sizeof (issuer)); //to retrive the Issuer // to store the CA public key (in unsigned char *key)that will be used to verify the certificate (My case Always sha1WithRSAEncryption) RSA *x = X509_get_pubkey(x509)->pkey.rsa; bn = x->n; //extracts the bytes from public key & convert into unsigned char buffer buf_len = (size_t) BN_num_bytes (bn); stored_CA_pubKey = (unsigned char *)malloc (buf_len); i_n = BN_bn2bin (bn, (unsigned char *)stored_CA_pubKey); if (i_n != buf_len) LOG(ERROR," : key error\n"); if (key[0] & 0x80) LOG(DEBUG, "00\n"); stored_CA_pubKeyLen = EVP_PKEY_size(X509_get_pubkey(x509)); For Verification I went through different approaches but unable to verify a) i_x509_verify = X509_verify(cert_x509, ca_pubkey); b) /* verify the signature */ int iRet1, iRet2, iReason; iRet1 = EVP_VerifyInit(&md_ctx, EVP_sha1()); iRet2 = EVP_VerifyUpdate(&md_ctx, cert_code, cert_code_len); rv = EVP_VerifyFinal(&md_ctx, (const unsigned char *)stored_CA_pubKey, stored_CA_pubKeyLen, cert_pubkey); NOTE : cert_code & stored_CA_pubKey is unsigned char buffer. Thanks in Advance

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  • FluentNHibernate mapping of composite foreign keys

    - by Faron
    I have an existing database schema and wish to replace the custom data access code with Fluent.NHibernate. The database schema cannot be changed since it already exists in a shipping product. And it is preferable if the domain objects did not change or only changed minimally. I am having trouble mapping one unusual schema construct illustrated with the following table structure: CREATE TABLE [Container] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item] ( [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Container_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) The existing domain model has the following class structure: The Property class contains other members representing the property's name and value. The ContainerProperty and ItemProperty classes have no additional members. They exist only to identify the owner of the Property. The Container and Item classes have methods that return collections of ContainerProperty and ItemProperty respectively. Additionally, the Container class has a method that returns a collection of all of the Property objects in the object graph. My best guess is that this was either a convenience method or a legacy method that was never removed. The business logic mainly works with Item (as the aggregate root) and only works with a Container when adding or removing Items. I have tried several techniques for mapping this but none work so I won't include them here unless someone asks for them. How would you map this?

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  • Doctrine generate models - problem with relation type

    - by mrok
    I am trying generate doctrine models from yaml schema I have schema like that: Product: columns: id: type: integer(5) primary: true unsigned: true autoincrement: true activation_time: type: datetime notnull: true enduser_id: type: integer(5) unsigned: true notnull: true relations: Enduser: foreignType: one type: one foreignAlias: Product Hostid: columns: id: type: integer(5) primary: true unsigned: true autoincrement: true value: type: string(32) fixed: true notnull: true Order: columns: id: type: integer(5) primary: true autoincrement: true unsigned: true expire_date: type: datetime description: type: clob Enduser: columns: id: type: integer(5) primary: true unsigned: true autoincrement: true hostid_id: type: integer(5) unsigned: true notnull: true order_id: type: integer(5) unsigned: true notnull: true relations: Order: foreignAlias: Endusers Hostid: foreignAlias: Endusers and the problem is that models generated by doctrine generate-models-yaml are wrong in BaseEnduser $Product is defined as Doctrine_Collection $this-hasMany('Product', array( 'local' = 'id', 'foreign' = 'enduser_id')); instead just Product object what did I wrong? relation is defined as foreignType: one type: one

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  • How to map a Dictionary<string, string> spanning several tables

    - by Kim Johansson
    I have four tables: CREATE TABLE [Languages] ( [Id] INTEGER IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Code] NVARCHAR(10) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ([Id]), UNIQUE INDEX ([Code]) ); CREATE TABLE [Words] ( [Id] INTEGER IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ([Id]) ); CREATE TABLE [WordTranslations] ( [Id] INTEGER IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Value] NVARCHAR(100) NOT NULL, [Word] INTEGER NOT NULL, [Language] INTEGER NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ([Id]), FOREIGN KEY ([Word]) REFERENCES [Words] ([Id]), FOREIGN KEY ([Language]) REFERENCES [Languages] ([Id]) ); CREATE TABLE [Categories] ( [Id] INTEGER IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Word] INTEGER NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ([Id]), FOREIGN KEY ([Word]) REFERENCES [Words] ([Id]) ); So you get the name of a Category via the Word - WordTranslation - Language relations. Like this: SELECT TOP 1 wt.Value FROM [Categories] AS c LEFT JOIN [WordTranslations] AS wt ON c.Word = wt.Word WHERE wt.Language = ( SELECT TOP 1 l.Id FROM [Languages] WHERE l.[Code] = N'en-US' ) AND c.Id = 1; That would return the en-US translation of the Category with Id = 1. My question is how to map this using the following class: public class Category { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IDictionary<string, string> Translations { get; set; } } Getting the same as the SQL query above would be: Category category = session.Get<Category>(1); string name = category.Translations["en-US"]; And "name" would now contain the Category's name in en-US. Category is mapped against the Categories table. How would you do this and is it even possible?

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  • Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

    - by Shane N
    I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

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  • How to append \line into RTF using RichTextBox control

    - by Steve Sheldon
    When using the Microsoft RichTextBox control it is possible to add new lines like this... richtextbox.AppendText(System.Environment.NewLine); // appends \r\n However, if you now view the generated rtf the \r\n characters are converted to \par not \line How do I insert a \line control code into the generated RTF? What does't work: Token Replacement Hacks like inserting a token at the end of the string and then replacing it after the fact, so something like this: string text = "my text"; text = text.Replace("||" "|"); // replace any '|' chars with a double '||' so they aren't confused in the output. text = text.Replace("\r\n", "_|0|_"); // replace \r\n with a placeholder of |0| richtextbox.AppendText(text); string rtf = richtextbox.Rtf; rtf.Replace("_|0|_", "\\line"); // replace placeholder with \line rtf.Replace("||", "|"); // set back any || chars to | This almost worked, it breaks down if you have to support right to left text as the right to left control sequence always ends up in the middle of the placeholder. Sending Key Messages public void AppendNewLine() { Keys[] keys = new Keys[] {Keys.Shift, Keys.Return}; SendKeys(keys); } private void SendKeys(Keys[] keys) { foreach(Keys key in keys) { SendKeyDown(key); } } private void SendKeyDown(Keys key) { user32.SendMessage(this.Handle, Messages.WM_KEYDOWN, (int)key, 0); } private void SendKeyUp(Keys key) { user32.SendMessage(this.Handle, Messages.WM_KEYUP, (int)key, 0); } This also ends up being converted to a \par Is there a way to post a messaged directly to the msftedit control to insert a control character? I am totally stumped, any ideas guys? Thanks for your help!

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