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  • Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

    - by user577229
    I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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  • Error when calling SQL SP via LINQ

    - by PaulC
    Newbie problem: I have a SQL SP with ten parameters (eight input, two output) but when I attempt to call it via LINQ from code I get the following error message: "The best overloaded method match for 'DataClassesDataContext.ST_CR_CREATE_CASE_BASIS(string, string, string, string, System.DateTime?, string, string, string, ref int?, ref int?)' has some invalid arguments". The params with ? appear to be unrecognized, but I'm baffled: the data types match the SQL types, the number of parameters match, the other parmeters don't exhibit the same behaviour. Can anyone tell me what's going on? Thanks in advance. -- SQL SP: create procedure ST_CR_CREATE_CASE_BASIS @p_Pers_No nvarchar (50), @p_Subject nvarchar (255), @p_RQ_XML nvarchar(max), @p_RQ_XSL nvarchar(max), @p_Date_Submit smalldatetime, @p_User_ID_Submit nvarchar (255), @p_RQ_Status nvarchar (50), @p_User_ID_OnBehalf nvarchar (255), @p_Case_Number int output, @p_RQ_ID int output as begin -- ... etc.; the SP works fine when called from SSMS The code-behind proc from the aspx page looks like this: protected void cmdSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (DataClassesDataContext vDataCont = new DataClassesDataContext()) { Int32 vNewCaseNr; Int32 vNewReqNr; DateTime vNow = System.DateTime.Now; vDataCont.ST_CR_CREATE_CASE_BASIS("101", "Test Subject Late Wed", null, null, vNow , "101", "1", "101", ref vNewCaseNr, vNewReqNr); } }

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  • Why does the add() method in PHP-GTK cause 2 parent-set signals to be emmitted?

    - by JW
    I am going through the book PHP-GTK and trying out listing 4-1 One thing I notice is that with the following code some odd output occurs: <?php //listing4-1b.php function setParentFunction($widget) { //get the widgets parent $parent = $widget->get_parent(); //echo a mssg about the widget echo 'The ' . get_class($widget) .' has '; if (isset($parent)) { //ech the class of the parent widget echo 'a '. get_class($parent); } else { //the widget does not have a parent echo 'no'; } echo " parent. \n"; } //start with widgets $frame = new GtkFrame('i am a frame'); $button = new GtkButton('i am a button'); //connect the event to our test function $button->connect('parent-set', 'setParentFunction'); $frame->add($button); ?> The output is: # php listing4-1b.php The GtkButton has a GtkFrame parent. The GtkButton has no parent. Now, I can understand why the first signal is getting emitted and causing the first line of output: The GtkButton has a GtkFrame parent. But, I don't understand why the 2nd 'parent change' is reported to have happened: The GtkButton has no parent. I expected only to see the signal getting emitted / and handled only once in this short script. Does this 2nd signal get emmitted when the script closes down?

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  • Link click does nothing after ajax switching?

    - by Neil
    An odd case I'm trying to figure out here. I'm trying to design a mailbox system, and making some of the options ajax-y. Here's the scenario: We have a page with 2 tabs, inbox and compose. Inbox is a essentially a list of links of the form mailbox.php?msg=xxx. Clicking on the inbox or compose tabs does an ajax switch. So, let's say we're on an message page: mailbox.php?msg=123 I click on "compose" - it ajax switches to a compose form. I change my mind, click on "inbox" - it goes back to a list of messages. Note, the url has not changed at this point (all has been done through ajax). I click on the same message as before. It should go back into that message. However, nothing happens! The url it should go to (mailbox.php?msg=123) IS the url showing in the address bar, but, due to the earlier ajax activity, it's showing the inbox. Thoughts on how to resolve this? And, out of curiosity, an explanation? Normally, clicking on a link that takes you to a page you're already on will reload the page. Thanks!

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  • jquery - problem with executing annimation of two separate objects, one after another

    - by MoreThanChaos
    Hello I have problem to put together animations of two separate objects to second one start when first one ends. I tried to use callback but it seems that i make some syntax misteakes which crash jQuery or cause some unexpected behaviour. It seems that i'm stuck so I'd like to ask You for best way to put these animations together to act the way I want. in mouseenter 1st .pp grows, 2nd .tt fade in in mouseleave 1st .tt fade out, 2nd .pp shrink It's alsp relevant that animations doesn't pile up, i mean here animation called by one event doesnt wait until other animation in progress will end. In generall exactly what is below but yo be animated one after another, not simultanously. $('.pp').bind({ mouseenter: function() { $(this).animate({ width: $(this).children(".tt").outerWidth(), height: $(this).children(".tt").outerHeight() },{duration:1000,queue:false} ); $(this).children(".tt").animate({ opacity: 1.0 }, {duration:1000,queue:false}); }, mouseleave: function() { $(this).children(".tt").animate({ opacity: 0 }, {duration:1000,queue:false}); $(this).animate({ width: 17, height: 17 }, {duration:1000,queue:false}); } });

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  • Better way to call superclass method in ExtJS

    - by Rene Saarsoo
    All the ExtJS documentation and examples I have read suggest calling superclass methods like this: MyApp.MyPanel = Ext.extend(Ext.Panel, { initComponent: function() { // do something MyPanel specific here... MyApp.MyPanel.superclass.initComponent.call(this); } }); I have been using this pattern for quite some time and the main problem is, that when you rename your class then you also have to change all the calls to superclass methods. That's quite inconvenient, often I will forget and then I have to track down strange errors. But reading the source of Ext.extend() I discovered, that instead I could use the superclass() or super() methods that Ext.extend() adds to the prototype: MyApp.MyPanel = Ext.extend(Ext.Panel, { initComponent: function() { // do something MyPanel specific here... this.superclass().initComponent.call(this); } }); In this code renaming MyPanel to something else is simple - I just have to change the one line. But I have doubts... I haven't seen this documented anywhere and the old wisdom says, I shouldn't rely on undocumented behaviour. I didn't found a single use of these superclass() and supr() methods in ExtJS source code. Why create them when you aren't going to use them? Maybe these methods were used in some older version of ExtJS but are deprecated now? But it seems such a useful feature, why would you deprecate it? So, should I use these methods or not?

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  • Java method keyword "final" and its use

    - by Lukas Eder
    When I create complex type hierarchies (several levels, several types per level), I like to use the final keyword on methods implementing some interface declaration. An example: interface Garble { int zork(); } interface Gnarf extends Garble { /** * This is the same as calling {@link #zblah(0)} */ int zblah(); int zblah(int defaultZblah); } And then abstract class AbstractGarble implements Garble { @Override public final int zork() { ... } } abstract class AbstractGnarf extends AbstractGarble implements Gnarf { // Here I absolutely want to fix the default behaviour of zblah // No Gnarf shouldn't be allowed to set 1 as the default, for instance @Override public final int zblah() { return zblah(0); } // This method is not implemented here, but in a subclass @Override public abstract int zblah(int defaultZblah); } I do this for several reasons: It helps me develop the type hierarchy. When I add a class to the hierarchy, it is very clear, what methods I have to implement, and what methods I may not override (in case I forgot the details about the hierarchy) I think overriding concrete stuff is bad according to design principles and patterns, such as the template method pattern. I don't want other developers or my users do it. So the final keyword works perfectly for me. My question is: Why is it used so rarely in the wild? Can you show me some examples / reasons where final (in a similar case to mine) would be very bad?

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  • iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

    - by StuartW
    My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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  • How can I add a portrait layout on top of a landscape Camera SurfaceView?

    - by user319919
    I need a Camera SurfaceView for my application. The camera should be set to fixed landscape view which is done by setting android:screenOrientation="landscape" for the activity in the AndroidManifest.xml. After doing some experiments and Google researches trying to use setRotation(int) inside the camera preview implementation, I came to the conclusion, that it is obviously the common practice to get a preview with correct behaviour. Now the camera preview itself looks fine for landscape orientation. But I need to have an overlay that holds a bunch of buttons. Due to usability the user interface should be in portrait view (or even better orientation aware). There seemed no other option to me, but to fix the activity screenOrientation, so that the camera preview looks normal (in portrait mode the whole view is streched and rotated to the left) Is there a workaround to get my buttons back to portrait orientation? Or another overall approach to deal with the camera view? Parameters.setRotation(int) obvisouly didnt work. I am quite new to the Android plattform programming. Of course I dont know much about the programming tricks and workarounds yet. I did a lot of research over the last two weeks, but couldnt find the right solution so far.

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  • Rendering Swing Components to an Offscreen buffer

    - by Nick C
    I have a Java (Swing) application, running on a 32-bit Windows 2008 Server, which needs to render it's output to an off-screen image (which is then picked up by another C++ application for rendering elsewhere). Most of the components render correctly, except in the odd case where a component which has just lost focus is occluded by another component, for example where there are two JComboBoxes close to each other, if the user interacts with the lower one, then clicks on the upper one so it's pull-down overlaps the other box. In this situation, the component which has lost focus is rendered after the one occluding it, and so appears on top in the output. It renders correctly in the normal Java display (running full-screen on the primary display), and attempting to change the layers of the components in question does not help. I am using a custom RepaintManager to paint the components to the offscreen image, and I assume the problem lies with the order in which addDirtyRegion() is called for each of the components in question, but I can't think of a good way of identifying when this particular state occurs in order to prevent it. Hacking it so that the object which has just lost focus is not repainted stops the problem, but obviously causes the bigger problem that it is not repainted in all other, normal, circumstances. Is there any way of programmatically identifying this state, or of reordering things so that it does not occur? Many thanks, Nick

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  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

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  • Having an issue with Nullable MySQL columns in SubSonic 3.0 templates

    - by omegawkd
    Looking at this line in the Settings.ttinclude string CheckNullable(Column col){ string result=""; if(col.IsNullable && col.SysType !="byte[]" && col.SysType !="string") result="?"; return result; } It describes how it determines if the column is nullable based on requirements and returns either "" or "?" to the generated code. Now I'm not too familiar with the ? nullable type operator but from what I can see a cast is required. For instance, if I have a nullable integer MySQL column and I generate the code using the default template files it returns a line similar to this: int? _User_ID; When trying to compile the project I get the error: Cannot implicitly convert type 'int?' to 'int'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) I checked teh Settings files for the other database types and they all seems to have the same routine. So my question is, is this behaviour expected or is this a bug? I need to solve it one way or the other before I can procede. Thanks for your help.

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  • NullPointerException with static variables

    - by tomekK
    I just hit very strange (to me) behaviour of java. I have following classes: public abstract class Unit { public static final Unit KM = KMUnit.INSTANCE; public static final Unit METERS = MeterUnit.INSTANCE; protected Unit() { } public abstract double getValueInUnit(double value, Unit unit); protected abstract double getValueInMeters(double value); } And: public class KMUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new KMUnit(); private KMUnit() { } //here are abstract methods overriden } public class MeterUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new MeterUnit(); private MeterUnit() { } ///abstract methods overriden } And my test case: public class TestMetricUnits extends TestCase { @Test public void testConversion() { System.out.println("Unit.METERS: " + Unit.METERS); System.out.println("Unit.KM: " + Unit.KM); double meters = Unit.KM.getValueInUnit(102.11, Unit.METERS); assertEquals(0.10211, meters, 0.00001); } } 1) MKUnit and MeterUnit are both singletons initialized statically, so during class loading. Constructors are private, so they can't be initialized anywhere else. 2) Unit class contains static final references to MKUnit.INSTANCE and MeterUnit.INSTANCE I would expect that: KMUnit class is loaded and instance is created. MeterUnit class is loaded and instance is created. Unit class is loaded and both KM and METERS variable are initialized, they are final so they cant be changed. But when I run my test case in console with maven my result is: T E S T S Running de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: null Tests run: 3, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0, Time elapsed: 0.089 sec <<< FAILURE! - in de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits testConversion(de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits) Time elapsed: 0.011 sec <<< ERROR! java.lang.NullPointerException: null at de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits.testConversion(TestMetricUnits.java:29) Results : Tests in error: TestMetricUnits.testConversion:29 NullPointer And the funny part is that, when I run this test from eclipse via JUnit runner everything is fine, I have no NullPointerException and in console I have: Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: km So the question is: what can be the reason that KM variable in Unit is null (and in the same time METERS is not null)

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  • NOT A DUPLICATE! VS2010 - How to automatically stop compile on first compile error

    - by Ben Robbins
    {rant}First I'd like to say that this IS NOT A DUPLICATE. I've asked this question previously but it got closed as a duplicate when it isn't. This question is SPECIFIC to VS 2010 and the answers to the so-called duplicate work in VS 2008 but not in VS 2010 (at least not for me or anyone I know). So before you go closing something as a duplicate how about you read the question carefully and try the answer for yourself and see if it actually works. Apologies for the rant but there is no obvious way to contact the SO police that closed the issue or get it reopened. {/rant} At work we have a C# solution with over 80 projects. In VS 2008 we use a macro to stop the compile as soon as a project in the solution fails to build (see this question for several options for VS 2005 & VS 2008: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134796/how-to-automatically-stop-visual-c-build-at-first-compile-error). Is it possible to do the same in VS 2010? What we have found is that in VS 2010 the macros don't work (at least I couldn't get them to work) as it appears that the environment events don't fire in VS 2010. The default behaviour is to continue as far as possible and display a list of errors in the error window. I'm happy for it to stop either as soon as an error is encountered (file-level) or as soon as a project fails to build (project-level). Answers for VS 2010 only please. If the macros do work then a detailed explanation of how to configure them for VS 2010 would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Email function using templates. Includes via ob_start and global vars

    - by Geo
    I have a simple Email() class. It's used to send out emails from my website. <? Email::send($to, $subj, $msg, $options); ?> I also have a bunch of email templates written in plain HTML pierced with a few PHP variables. E.g. /inc/email/templates/account_created.php: <p>Dear <?=$name?>,</p> <p>Thank you for creating an account at <?=$SITE_NAME?>. To login use the link below:</p> <p><a href="https://<?=$SITE_URL?>/account" target="_blank"><?=$SITE_NAME?>/account</a></p> In order to have the PHP vars rendered I had to include the template into my function. But since include does not return the contents but rather just sends it directly to the output, I had to wrap it with the buffer functions: <? abstract class Email { public static function send($to, $subj, $msg, $options = array()) { /* ... */ ob_start(); include '/inc/email/templates/account_created.php'; $msg = ob_get_clean(); /* ... */ } } After that I realized that the PHP vars are not rendered as they are being inside of the function scope, so I had to globalize the variables inside of the template: <? global $SITE_NAME, $SITE_URL, $name; ?> <p>Dear <?=$name?>,</p> ... So the question is whether there is a more elegant solution to this? Mainly I am concerned about my workarounds using ob_start() and global. For some reason that seems to me odd. Or this is pretty much the common practice?

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  • Use a non-coalescing parser in Axis2

    - by Nathan
    Does anyone know how I can get Axis2 to use a non-coalescing XMLStreamReader when it parses a SOAP message? I am writing code that reads a large base64 binary text element. Coalescing is the default behaviour, and this causes the default XMLStreamReader to load the entire text into memory rather than returning multiple CHARACTERS events. The upshot of this is that I run out of heap space when running the following code: reader = element.getTextAsStream( true ); The OutOfMemory error occurs in com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLStreamReaderImpl.next: java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.util.XMLStringBuffer.append(XMLStringBuffer.java:208) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.util.XMLStringBuffer.append(XMLStringBuffer.java:226) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl.scanContent(XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl.java:1552) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl$FragmentContentDriver.next(XMLDocumentFragmentScannerImpl.java:2864) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLDocumentScannerImpl.next(XMLDocumentScannerImpl.java:607) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLNSDocumentScannerImpl.next(XMLNSDocumentScannerImpl.java:116) at com.sun.org.apache.xerces.internal.impl.XMLStreamReaderImpl.next(XMLStreamReaderImpl.java:558) at org.apache.axiom.util.stax.wrapper.XMLStreamReaderWrapper.next(XMLStreamReaderWrapper.java:225) at org.apache.axiom.util.stax.dialect.DisallowDoctypeDeclStreamReaderWrapper.next(DisallowDoctypeDeclStreamReaderWrapper.java:34) at org.apache.axiom.util.stax.wrapper.XMLStreamReaderWrapper.next(XMLStreamReaderWrapper.java:225) at org.apache.axiom.util.stax.dialect.SJSXPStreamReaderWrapper.next(SJSXPStreamReaderWrapper.java:138) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.builder.StAXOMBuilder.parserNext(StAXOMBuilder.java:668) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.builder.StAXOMBuilder.next(StAXOMBuilder.java:214) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.llom.SwitchingWrapper.updateNextNode(SwitchingWrapper.java:1098) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.llom.SwitchingWrapper.<init>(SwitchingWrapper.java:198) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.llom.OMStAXWrapper.<init>(OMStAXWrapper.java:73) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.llom.OMContainerHelper.getXMLStreamReader(OMContainerHelper.java:67) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.llom.OMContainerHelper.getXMLStreamReader(OMContainerHelper.java:40) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.llom.OMElementImpl.getXMLStreamReader(OMElementImpl.java:790) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.llom.OMElementImplUtil.getTextAsStream(OMElementImplUtil.java:114) at org.apache.axiom.om.impl.llom.OMElementImpl.getTextAsStream(OMElementImpl.java:826) at org.example.UploadFileParser.invokeBusinessLogic(UploadFileParser.java:160)

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  • bind event handler on keydown listen function JavaScript jQuery

    - by user1644123
    I am trying to bind a handler to an event. The event is a keydown function. The handler will listen for hit variables to produce one of two conditions. The 1st condition (odd number of hits) will perform 1 function, the 2nd (even number of hits) will perform another function. To elaborate, the 1st function will scroll to one element, the 2nd will scroll to another element. My syntax may be the wrong approach, but it works for the 1st condition, but not the 2nd. I think I have the conditional statement in the wrong place. How can I rewrite this to work as intended? Thank you kindly, in advance! $(document).keydown(function(e) { switch (e.which) { case 37: break; case 38: break; case 39: break; case 40: //bottom arrow key var hits = 0; if (hits % 2 !== 0) { $('#wrap').animate({ scrollTop: $("#scrollToHere").offset().top }, 2800); } else { $('#wrap').animate({ scrollTop: $("#scroll2ToHere").offset().top }, 2800); } hits++; return false; break; } })? *I moved "var hits = 0;" to the top, but it only works! But is there a way I can reset the whole thing after every two hits? I want to reset because when there is a bug and if I press a 3rd time it scrolls to the very top of the page, where there is no element to make it scroll to the top. Why would it scroll to the top of the page if I never scripted it to do so?? *

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  • Another C question

    - by maddy
    Hi all, I have a piece of code shown below #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> void Advance_String(char [2],int ); int Atoi_val; int Count22; int Is_Milestone(char [2],int P2); char String[2] = "00"; main() { while(1) { if(Is_Milestone(S,21==1) { if(atoi(S)==22) { Count_22 = Count_22 + 1; } } Atoi_val = atoi(S); Advance_String(S,Atoi_val); } } int Is_Milestone(char P1[2],int P2) { int BoolInit; char *Ptr = P1; int value = atoi(Ptr); BoolInit = (value > P2); return BoolInit; } void Advance_String(char P1[2],int Value) { if(Value!=7) { P1[1] = P1[1]+1; } else { P1[1] = '0'; P1[0] = P1[0]+1 ; } } Now my problem is Count22 never increments as the char increments never achieves the value 21 or above.Could anyone please tell me the reason for this unexpected behaviour?My question here is to find the value of Count22.Is there any problem with the code? Thanks and regards Maddy

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  • Why do System.IO.Log SequenceNumbers have variable length?

    - by Doug McClean
    I'm trying to use the System.IO.Log features to build a recoverable transaction system. I understand it to be implemented on top of the Common Log File System. The usual ARIES approach to write-ahead logging involves persisting log record sequence numbers in places other than the log (for example, in the header of the database page modified by the logged action). Interestingly, the documentation for CLFS says that such sequence numbers are always 64-bit integers. Confusingly, however, the .Net wrapper around those SequenceNumbers can be constructed from a byte[] but not from a UInt64. It's value can also be read as a byte[], but not as a UInt64. Inspecting the implementation of SequenceNumber.GetBytes() reveals that it can in fact return arrays of either 8 or 16 bytes. This raises a few questions: Why do the .Net sequence numbers differ in size from the CLFS sequence numbers? Why are the .Net sequence numbers variable in length? Why would you need 128 bits to represent such a sequence number? It seems like you would truncate the log well before using up a 64-bit address space (16 exbibytes, or around 10^19 bytes, more if you address longer words)? If log sequence numbers are going to be represented as 128 bit integers, why not provide a way to serialize/deserialize them as pairs of UInt64s instead of rather-pointlessly incurring heap allocations for short-lived new byte[]s every time you need to write/read one? Alternatively, why bother making SequenceNumber a value type at all? It seems an odd tradeoff to double the storage overhead of log sequence numbers just so you can have an untruncated log longer than a million terabytes, so I feel like I'm missing something here, or maybe several things. I'd much appreciate it if someone in the know could set me straight.

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  • Having an issue with org.hibernate.SessionException: Session is closed! in Hibernate

    - by hal10001
    I've done quite a bit a research on this with no luck, but all the answers have a tendency to point toward the session context settings in the config file. What is odd is that I get a session connection the very first time I hit the page (and therefore, a successful result set), but then when I reload I get the following exception: org.hibernate.SessionException: Session is closed! Here are my config settings that are not DB connection string related: <property name="hibernate.show_sql">false</property> <property name="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_minimal_puts">false</property> Here is an example of a call I make that produces the situation I described above. public T get(int id) { session.beginTransaction(); T type; try { type = getTypeClass().cast(session.get(getTypeClass(), id)); } catch (ClassCastException classCastException) { throw new ClassCastException(classCastException.getMessage()); } session.getTransaction().commit(); return type; } The session variable reference is to a static field that contains the current session. All of the session connection details are textbook reference manual. For example, here is my Hibernate session utility: import org.hibernate.SessionFactory; import org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration; public class HibernateSessionFactoryUtil { private static final SessionFactory sessionFactory = buildSessionFactory(); private static SessionFactory buildSessionFactory() { try { return new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Throwable ex) { System.err.println("Initial SessionFactory creation failed." + ex); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(ex); } } public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory() { return sessionFactory; } }

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  • How can I create a finger scrollable Textbox in WM 6.5?

    - by Papajohn
    Hi everybody. I just noticed something weird in WM 6.5 emulators. Unlike 6.1 where finger panning kind of worked, the only way to scroll a Textbox appears to be through scrollbars. This behaviour is in contrast to what they have done for comboboxes: they are now gesture-friendly without the programmer's intervention. I.e. the user can select a choice from a standard drop down menu by panning and scrolling. Previously, you had to use the embedded scrollbar. The combobox's case implies that MS took some measures to provide standard gesture support for classic finger gestures, yet I cannot see something similar for textboxes. This makes me ask the following: Is there anything that can be done to make textboxes finger scrollabe easily? Note that I refer to managed .NET CF development. It is my understanding that in native development I could use the new Gestures API to achieve the scrolling effect. Yet, I am not sure if there is an easier and more straightforward method that I have missed.

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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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  • EF Forced Concurrency Checks

    - by Imran
    Hi, I have an issue with EF 4.0 that I hope someone can help with. I currently have an entity that I want to update in a last in wins fashion (i.e. ignore concurrency checks and just overwrite whats in the db with what is submitted). It seems Entity Framework not only includes the primary key of the entity in the where clause of the generated sql, but also any foreign key fields. This is annoying as it means that I don't get true last in wins semantics and need to know what value the fk field had before the update or I get a concurrency exception. I am aware that this can be short circuited by including a foreign key field as well as the navigation property on the entity. I would like to avoid this if possible as it's not a very clean solution. I was just wondering if there was any other way to override this behaviour? It seems like more of a bug than a feature. I have no problem with ef doing concurrency checks if I instruct it to do so but not being able to bypass concurrency completely is a bit of a hindrance as there are many valid scenarios where this is not needed

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  • Strange behavior with complex Q object filter queries in Django

    - by HWM-Rocker
    Hi I am trying to write a tagging system for Django, but today I encountered a strange behavior in filter or the Q object (django.db.models.Q). I wrote a function, that converts a search string into a Q object. The next step would be to filter the TaggedObject with these query. But unfortunately I get a strange behavior. when I search (id=20) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 20)) and it returns 2 Taged Objects with the ID 1127 and 132 when I search (id=4) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 4)) and it returns also 2 Objects, but this time 1180 and 1127 until here is everything fine, but when i make a little bit more complex query like (id=4) or (id=20) = Q: (OR: ('tags__tag__id', 4), ('tags__tag__id', 20)) then it returns 4(!) Objects 1180, 1127, 1127, 132 But the object with the ID 1127 is returned twice, but thats not the behaviour I want. Do I have to live with it, and uniqify that list or can I do something different. The representation of the Q object looks fine for me. But the worst is now, when I search for (id=20) and (id=4) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 20), ('tags__tag__id', 4)) then it returns no object at all. But why? The representation should be ok and the object with the id 1127 is tagged by both. What am I missing? Here are also the relevant parts of the classes, that are involved: class TaggedObject(models.Model): """ class that represent a tagged object """ tags = generic.GenericRelation('ObjectTagBridge', blank=True, null=True) class ObjectTagBridge(models.Model): """ Help to connect a generic object to a Tag. """ # pylint: disable-msg=W0232,R0903 content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') tag = models.ForeignKey('Tag') class Tag(models.Model): ... Thanks for your help

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  • Our Flash Streaming Player Occasionally Stutters like a Skipping CD after a Period of Time

    - by Jonathan Fritz
    We offer a streaming player for a number of our clients, who are responsible for their providing us with their own audio streams. We have written a very simple flash player that can play all of the streams that we support (icecast/shoutcast/live365/mp3 over http/etc). Unfortunately, we have found that when listening, our player sometimes begins to stutter (like a skipping cd), sometimes after only 10 minutes, and sometimes after an hour of listening. We have noticed this behaviour in firefox on both linux and windows. Does anybody know anything about this problem? We know that flash isn't ideal for infinite streams of audio, but it's about all that we can find that's on every platform out there. If anybody can suggest a solution to our problem, I'll be your friend forever. Here is a link to the live player: http://cr-jf.jfritz.02.dev.wecreate.com/streaming/player_v5/ Note that you'll need to test in a browser that isn't IE, because we use WMP in IE, and that the JavaScript on the page will cause the player to unload and re-load once an hour because of memory issues. Because I can only put one hyperlink in a post, I'll add a link to the player source code as a comment. Thanks all!

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