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  • Having trouble understanding some code (Ruby on Rails)

    - by user284194
    I posted a question awhile ago asking how I could limit the rate at which a form could be submitted from a rails application. I was helped by a very patient user and their solution works great. The code was for my comments controller, and now I find myself wanting to add this functionality to another controller, my Messages controller. I immediately tried reusing the working code from the comments controller but I couldn't get it to work. Instead of asking for the working code, could someone please help me understand my working comment controller code? class CommentsController < ApplicationController #... before_filter :post_check def record_post_time cookies[:last_post_at] = Time.now.to_i end def last_post_time Time.at((cookies[:last_post_at].to_i rescue 0)) end MIN_POST_TIME = 2.minutes def post_check return true if (Time.now - last_post_time) > MIN_POST_TIME flash[:warning] = "You are trying to reply too fast." @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) redirect_to(@message) return false end #... def create @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = @message.comments.build(params[:comment]) if @comment.save record_post_time flash[:notice] = "Replied to \"#{@message.title}\"" redirect_to(@message) else render :action => "new" end end def update @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) if @comment.update_attributes(params[:comment]) record_post_time redirect_to post_comment_url(@message, @comment) else render :action => "edit" end end #... end My Messages controller is pretty much a standard rails generated controller with a few before filters and associated private methods for DRYing up the code and a redirect for non existent pages. I'll explain how much of the code I understand. When a comment is created, a cookie is created with a last_post_time value. If they try to post another comment, the cookie is checked if the last one was made in the last two minutes. If it was a flash warning is displayed and no comment is recorded. What I don't really understand is how the post_check method works and how I can adapt it for my simpler posts controller. I thought I could reuse all the code in the message controller with the exception of the line: @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) # (don't need the redirect code) in the post_check method. But it trips up on the "record_post_time" in the create action/method. I really want to understand this. Can someone explain why this doesn't work? I greatly appreciate you reading my lengthy question.

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  • Openlayers and Bing Maps (POLYGONS)

    - by Jordan
    When trying to draw polygons onto a bing map, the initial marker is set differently on the map. How can I fix this? OpenLayers Bing Example <script src="OpenLayers.js"></script> <script> var map; function init(){ map = new OpenLayers.Map("map"); map.addControl(new OpenLayers.Control.LayerSwitcher()); var shaded = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Shaded", { type: VEMapStyle.Shaded }); var hybrid = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Hybrid", { type: VEMapStyle.Hybrid }); var aerial = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Aerial", { type: VEMapStyle.Aerial }); var POLY_LAYER = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector(); map.addLayers([shaded, hybrid, aerial, POLY_LAYER]); map.setCenter(new OpenLayers.LonLat(-110, 45), 3); var polygon = new OpenLayers.Control.DrawFeature(POLY_LAYER, OpenLayers.Handler.Polygon); map.addControl(polygon); polygon.activate(); } </script> Bing Example <div id="tags"> Bing, Microsoft, Virtual Earth </div> <p id="shortdesc"> Demonstrates the use of Bing layers. </p> <div id="map" class="smallmap"></div> <div id="docs">This example demonstrates the ability to create layers using tiles from Bing maps.</div> Of course the above is being initialized and page works. You can draw the polygon shapes. Notice if you zoom in or out one time, the markers are set at the correct coordinates. My app I was testing this on is really using the bing maps API keys and not VirtualEarth. But it's doing a similar thing. Is this an Openlayers bug? The below source came directly from the open layers example site, I just added and activated polygons to the map. Please let me know how I can fix this for using the Bing Map API.. I've been stuck on this for HOURS! :(

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • Parsing CSV File to MySQL DB in PHP

    - by Austin
    I have a some 350-lined CSV File with all sorts of vendors that fall into Clothes, Tools, Entertainment, etc.. categories. Using the following code I have been able to print out my CSV File. <?php $fp = fopen('promo_catalog_expanded.csv', 'r'); echo '<tr><td>'; echo implode('</td><td>', fgetcsv($fp, 4096, ',')); echo '</td></tr>'; while(!feof($fp)) { list($cat, $var, $name, $var2, $web, $var3, $phone,$var4, $kw,$var5, $desc) = fgetcsv($fp, 4096); echo '<tr><td>'; echo $cat. '</td><td>' . $name . '</td><td><a href="http://www.' . $web .'" target="_blank">' .$web.'</a></td><td>'.$phone.'</td><td>'.$kw.'</td><td>'.$desc.'</td>' ; echo '</td></tr>'; } fclose($file_handle); show_source(__FILE__); ?> First thing you will probably notice is the extraneous vars within the list(). this is because of how the excel spreadsheet/csv file: Category,,Company Name,,Website,,Phone,,Keywords,,Description ,,,,,,,,,, Clothes,,4imprint,,4imprint.com,,877-466-7746,,"polos, jackets, coats, workwear, sweatshirts, hoodies, long sleeve, pullovers, t-shirts, tees, tshirts,",,An embroidery and apparel company based in Wisconsin. ,,Apollo Embroidery,,apolloemb.com,,1-800-982-2146,,"hats, caps, headwear, bags, totes, backpacks, blankets, embroidery",,An embroidery sales company based in California. One thing to note is that the last line starts with two commas as it is also listed within "Clothes" category. My concern is that I am going about the CSV output wrong. Should I be using a foreach loop instead of this list way? Should I first get rid of any unnecessary blank columns? Please advise any flaws you may find, improvements I can use so I can be ready to import this data to a MySQL DB.

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • Php plugin to replace '->' with '.' as the member access operator ? Or even better: alternative synt

    - by Gigi
    Present day usable solution: Note that if you use an ide or an advanced editor, you could make a code template, or record a macro that inserts '->' when you press Ctrl and '.' or something. Netbeans has macros, and I have recorded a macro for this, and I like it a lot :) (just click the red circle toolbar button (start record macro),then type -> into the editor (thats all the macro will do, insert the arrow into the editor), then click the gray square (stop record macro) and assign the 'Ctrl dot' shortcut to it, or whatever shortcut you like) The php plugin: The php plugin, would also have to have a different string concatenation operator than the dot. Maybe a double dot ? Yea... why not. All it has to do is set an activation tag so that it doesnt replace / interpreter '.' as '->' for old scripts and scripts that dont intent do use this. Something like this: <php+ $obj.i = 5 ?> (notice the modified '<?php' tag to '<?php+' ) This way it wouldnt break old code. (and you can just add the '<?php+' code template to your editor and then type 'php tab' (for netbeans) and it would insert '<?php+' ) With the alternative syntax method you could even have old and new syntax cohabitating on the same page like this (I am illustrating this to show the great compatibility of this method, not because you would want to do this): <?php+ $obj.i = 5; ?> <?php $obj->str = 'a' . 'b'; ?> You could change the tag to something more explanatory, in case somebody who doesnt know about the plugin reads the script and thinks its a syntax error <?php-dot.com $obj.i = 5; ?> This is easy because most editors have code templates, so its easy to assign a shortcut to it. And whoever doesnt want the dot replacement, doesnt have to use it. These are NOT ultimate solutions, they are ONLY examples to show that solutions exist, and that arguments against replacing '->' with '.' are only excuses. (Just admit you like the arrow, its ok : ) With this potential method, nobody who doesnt want to use it would have to use it, and it wouldnt break old code. And if other problems (ahem... excuses) arise, they could be fixed too. So who can, and who will do such a thing ?

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  • plane bombing problems- help

    - by peiska
    I'm training code problems, and on this one I am having problems to solve it, can you give me some tips how to solve it please. The problem is something like this: Your task is to find the sequence of points on the map that the bomber is expected to travel such that it hits all vital links. A link from A to B is vital when its absence isolates completely A from B. In other words, the only way to go from A to B (or vice versa) is via that link. Notice that if we destroy for example link (d,e), it becomes impossible to go from d to e,m,l or n in any way. A vital link can be hit at any point that lies in its segment (e.g. a hit close to d is as valid as a hit close to e). Of course, only one hit is enough to neutralize a vital link. Moreover, each bomb affects an exact circle of radius R, i.e., every segment that intersects that circle is considered hit. Due to enemy counter-attack, the plane may have to retreat at any moment, so the plane should follow, at each moment, to the closest vital link possible, even if in the end the total distance grows larger. Given all coordinates (the initial position of the plane and the nodes in the map) and the range R, you have to determine the sequence of positions in which the plane has to drop bombs. This sequence should start (takeoff) and finish (landing) at the initial position. Except for the start and finish, all the other positions have to fall exactly in a segment of the map (i.e. it should correspond to a point in a non-hit vital link segment). The coordinate system used will be UTM (Universal Transverse Mercator) northing and easting, which basically corresponds to a Euclidian perspective of the world (X=Easting; Y=Northing). Input Each input file will start with three floating point numbers indicating the X0 and Y0 coordinates of the airport and the range R. The second line contains an integer, N, indicating the number of nodes in the road network graph. Then, the next N (<10000) lines will each contain a pair of floating point numbers indicating the Xi and Yi coordinates (1 No two links will ever cross with each other. Output The program will print the sequence of coordinates (pairs of floating point numbers with exactly one decimal place), each one at a line, in the order that the plane should visit (starting and ending in the airport). Sample input 1 102.3 553.9 0.2 14 342.2 832.5 596.2 638.5 479.7 991.3 720.4 874.8 744.3 1284.1 1294.6 924.2 1467.5 659.6 1802.6 659.6 1686.2 860.7 1548.6 1111.2 1834.4 1054.8 564.4 1442.8 850.1 1460.5 1294.6 1485.1 17 1 2 1 3 2 4 3 4 4 5 4 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 8 10 9 10 10 11 6 11 5 12 5 13 12 13 13 14 Sample output 1 102.3 553.9 720.4 874.8 850.1 1460.5 102.3 553.9

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  • Invoke wso2 admin services SOAPUI

    - by NGoyal
    I m working on wso2 admin services. I get url as http://localhost:9763/services/AuthenticationAdmin?wsdl for AuthencticationAdmin. Now, when I hit the login operation, with admin,admin,127.0.0.1, I get true as return. ESB console shows logged in. Now, when I hit logout operation, I dont get any response. Also I notice that header of the response does not contain any session ID. 0down voteaccept My ESB is 4.6.0. login request : <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:aut="http://authentication.services.core.carbon.wso2.org"> <soapenv:Header/> <soapenv:Body> <aut:login> <!--Optional:--> <aut:username>admin</aut:username> <!--Optional:--> <aut:password>admin</aut:password> <!--Optional:--> <aut:remoteAddress>127.0.0.1</aut:remoteAddress> </aut:login> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> login response <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soapenv:Body> <ns:loginResponse xmlns:ns="http://authentication.services.core.carbon.wso2.org"> <ns:return>true</ns:return> </ns:loginResponse> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> In the response, when I hit login I see, at bottom I only get 6 elements in header as follows : > Date Tue, 25 Jun 2013 14:31:42 GMT > > Transfer-Encoding chunked > > #status# HTTP/1.1 200 OK > > Content-Type text/xml; charset=UTF-8 > > Connection Keep-Alive > > Server WSO2-PassThrough-HTTP Now, I dont get session ID. Can you please point out where m I going wrong? My scenario is that I want to login to WSO2 and then hit some other admin service operation.

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • How do I use Ruby metaprogramming to refactor this common code?

    - by James Wenton
    I inherited a project with a lot of badly-written Rake tasks that I need to clean up a bit. Because the Rakefiles are enormous and often prone to bizarre nonsensical dependencies, I'm simplifying and isolating things a bit by refactoring everything to classes. Specifically, that pattern is the following: namespace :foobar do desc "Frozz the foobar." task :frozzify do unless Rake.application.lookup('_frozzify') require 'tasks/foobar' Foobar.new.frozzify end Rake.application['_frozzify'].invoke end # Above pattern repeats many times. end # Several namespaces, each with tasks that follow this pattern. In tasks/foobar.rb, I have something that looks like this: class Foobar def frozzify() # The real work happens here. end # ... Other tasks also in the :foobar namespace. end For me, this is great, because it allows me to separate the task dependencies from each other and to move them to another location entirely, and I've been able to drastically simplify things and isolate the dependencies. The Rakefile doesn't hit a require until you actually try to run a task. Previously this was causing serious issues because you couldn't even list the tasks without it blowing up. My problem is that I'm repeating this idiom very frequently. Notice the following patterns: For every namespace :xyz_abc, there is a corresponding class in tasks/... in the file tasks/[namespace].rb, with a class name that looks like XyzAbc. For every task in a particular namespace, there is an identically named method in the associated namespace class. For example, if namespace :foo_bar has a task :apples, you would expect to see def apples() ... inside the FooBar class, which itself is in tasks/foo_bar.rb. Every task :t defines a "meta-task" _t (that is, the task name prefixed with an underscore) which is used to do the actual work. I still want to be able to specify a desc-description for the tasks I define, and that will be different for each task. And, of course, I have a small number of tasks that don't follow the above pattern at all, so I'll be specifying those manually in my Rakefile. I'm sure that this can be refactored in some way so that I don't have to keep repeating the same idiom over and over, but I lack the experience to see how it could be done. Can someone give me an assist?

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  • How do I make my custom Swing component visible?

    - by Alex
    I have no idea why it won't show. First I create an instance of the component and then add it to a certain element in a two-dimensional JPanel array. Then I loop through that array and add each JPanel to another JPanel container which is to hold all the JPanels. I then add that final container to my JFrame window and set visibility to true, it should be visible? public class View extends JFrame { Board gameBoard; JFrame gameWindow = new JFrame("Chess"); JPanel gamePanel = new JPanel(); JPanel[][] squarePanel = new JPanel[8][8]; JMenuBar gameMenu = new JMenuBar(); JButton restartGame = new JButton("Restart"); JButton pauseGame = new JButton("Pause"); JButton log = new JButton("Log"); View(Board board){ gameWindow.setDefaultCloseOperation(EXIT_ON_CLOSE); gameWindow.setSize(400, 420); gameWindow.getContentPane().add(gamePanel, BorderLayout.CENTER); gameWindow.getContentPane().add(gameMenu, BorderLayout.NORTH); gameMenu.add(restartGame); gameMenu.add(pauseGame); gameMenu.add(log); gameBoard = board; drawBoard(gameBoard); gameWindow.setResizable(false); gameWindow.setVisible(true); } public void drawBoard(Board board){ for(int row = 0; row < 8; row++){ for(int col = 0; col < 8; col++){ Box box = new Box(board.getSquare(col, row).getColour(), col, row); squarePanel[col][row] = new JPanel(); squarePanel[col][row].add(box); } } for(JPanel[] col : squarePanel){ for(JPanel square : col){ gamePanel.add(square); } } } } @SuppressWarnings("serial") class Box extends JComponent{ Color boxColour; int col, row; public Box(Color boxColour, int col, int row){ this.boxColour = boxColour; this.col = col; this.row = row; repaint(); } protected void paintComponent(Graphics drawBox){ drawBox.setColor(boxColour); drawBox.drawRect(50*col, 50*row, 50, 50); drawBox.fillRect(50*col, 50*row, 50, 50); } } A final question as well. Notice how each Box component has a position, what happens to the position when I add the component to a JPanel and add the JPanel to my JFrame? Does it still have the same position in relation to the other Box components?

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  • First record does not show in pagination script

    - by whitstone86
    This is my pagination script which extracts info for my TV guide project that I am working on. Currently I've been experimenting with different PHP/MySQL before it becomes a production site. This is my current script: <?php /*********************************** * PhpMyCoder Paginator * * Created By PhpMyCoder * * 2010 PhpMyCoder * * ------------------------------- * * You may use this code as long * * as this notice stays intact and * * the proper credit is given to * * the author. * ***********************************/ // set the default timezone to use. Available since PHP 5.1 putenv("TZ=US/Eastern") ?> <head> <title> Pagination Test - Created By PhpMyCoder</title> <style type="text/css"> #nav { font: normal 13px/14px Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; margin: 2px 0; } #nav a { background: #EEE; border: 1px solid #DDD; color: #000080; padding: 1px 7px; text-decoration: none; } #nav strong { background: #000080; border: 1px solid #DDD; color: #FFF; font-weight: normal; padding: 1px 7px; } #nav span { background: #FFF; border: 1px solid #DDD; color: #999; padding: 1px 7px; } </style> </head> <?php //Require the file that contains the required classes include("pmcPagination.php"); //PhpMyCoder Paginator $paginator = new pmcPagination(20, "page"); //Connect to the database mysql_connect("localhost","root","PASSWORD"); //Select DB mysql_select_db("mytvguide"); //Select only results for today and future $result = mysql_query("SELECT programme, channel, airdate, expiration, episode, setreminder FROM lagunabeach where expiration >= now() order by airdate, 3 ASC LIMIT 0, 100;"); //You can also add reuslts to paginate here mysql_data_seek($queryresult,0) ; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $paginator->add(new paginationData($row['programme'], $row['channel'], $row['airdate'], $row['expiration'], $row['episode'], $row['setreminder'])); } ?> <?php //Show the paginated results $paginator->paginate (); ?><? include("pca-footer1.php"); ?> <?php //Show the navigation $paginator->navigation(); ?> Despite me having two records for the programmes airing today, it only shows records from the second one onwards - the programme that airs at 8:35pm UK time GMT does not show, but the later 11:25pm UK time GMT one does show. How should I fix this? Above is my code if that is of any use! Thanks

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  • jQuery multiple class selection

    - by morpheous
    I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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  • ASP.Net MVC + Live validation - how come the flagged text are all over the place?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, this is an asp.net mvc project and <% using (Html.BeginForm("ProductAdded", "Home")) { % Register Your Product <%= ViewData["MainHeader"]% <p><%=ViewData["IntroText"]%></p> <div style="display: none;"> <div id="regionThreePane"> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" frame="void" style="width: 100%"> <tr> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox1" id="ProdLBox1" class="ProdLBox1" size="8"></select></td> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox2" id="ProdLBox2" class="ProdLBox2" size="8"></select></td> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox3" id="ProdLBox3" class="ProdLBox3" size="8"></select></td> </tr> </table> </div> i'm using live validation for my client side validation. var v_fname = new LiveValidation('Customer_FirstName', { validMessage: " " }, { onlyOnSubmit: true }); v_fname.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enterfirstname}); var v_lname = new LiveValidation('Customer_LastName', { validMessage: " " }); v_lname.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enterlastname }); var v_email = new LiveValidation('Customer_Email', { validMessage: " " }); v_email.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enteremail, validMessage: " " }); v_email.add(Validate.Email, { failureMessage: entervalidemail}); and what i notice is that after doing some button call: $(".btnAddProduct").click(function() { //Check first to see if there's anything to be added if (parseFloat($(".tboAddProduct").val()) < 1) { //TO DO: to replace with localized text var selectProductError = "Please select a product first"; $("#validationSummary").text(selectProductError); //alert("Please select a product first"); return false; } $(".PanelProductReg").show(); addProductRow($(".tboAddProductId").val(), $("#tboAddProduct").val()); }); what will happen is that the validation tags will start to appear for the whole page for all the input which are tag for the live validation. instead of just appearing when the controls are being higlighted and onblur. i'm using some ajax calls to get data and a lot of jquery to dynamically do the gui stuff. could any of this be causing some sort of an internal conflict? thanks

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  • R: Plotting a graph with different colors of points based on advanced criteria

    - by balconydoor
    What I would like to do is a plot (using ggplot), where the x axis represent years which have a different colour for the last three years in the plot than the rest. The last three years should also meet a certain criteria and based on this the last three years can either be red or green. The criteria is that the mean of the last three years should be less (making it green) or more (making it red) than the 66%-percentile of the remaining years. So far I have made two different functions calculating the last three year mean: LYM3 <- function (x) { LYM3 <- tail(x,3) mean(LYM3$Data,na.rm=T) } And the 66%-percentile for the remaining: perc66 <- function(x) { percentile <- head(x,-3) quantile(percentile$Data, .66, names=F,na.rm=T) } Here are two sets of data that can be used in the calculations (plots), the first which is an example from my real data where LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1) and the second is just made up data where LYM3 perc66. df1<- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(347261.87, 145071.29, 110181.93, 183016.71, 210995.67, 205207.33, 103291.78, 247182.10, 152894.45, 170771.50, 206534.55, 287770.86, 223832.43, 297542.86, 267343.54, 475485.47, 224575.08, 147607.81, 171732.38, 126818.10, 165801.08, 136921.58, 136947.63, 83428.05, 144295.87, 68566.23, 59943.05, 49909.08, 52149.11, 117627.75, 132127.79, 130463.80)) df2 <- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(sample(50,29,replace=T),75,75,75)) Here’s my code for my plot so far: plot <- ggplot(df1, aes(x=Year, y=Data)) + theme_bw() + geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<2008, "black",ifelse(LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1),"green","red")))) + geom_line() + scale_x_continuous(breaks=c(1980,1985,1990,1995,2000,2005,2010), limits=c(1978,2011)) plot As you notice it doesn’t really do what I want it to do. The only thing it does seem to do is that it turns the years before 2008 into one level and those after into another one and base the point colour off these two levels. Since I don’t want this year to be stationary either, I made another tiny function: fun3 <- function(x) { df <- subset(x, Year==(max(Year)-2)) df$Year } So the previous code would have the same effect as: geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<fun3(df1), "black","red"))) But it still does not care about my colours. Why does it make the years into levels? And how come an ifelse function doesn’t work within another one in this case? How would it be possible to the arguments to do what I like? I realise this might be a bit messy, asking for a lot at the same time, but I hope my description is pretty clear. It would be helpful if someone could at least point me in the right direction. I tried to put the code for the plot into a function as well so I wouldn’t have to change the data frame at all functions within the plot, but I can’t get it to work. Thank you!

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  • How do I determine if a property was overriden?

    - by Benjamin
    Hello I am doing a project that where I need to register all the properties, because of the system being so huge it would require a lot of work to register all the properties that i want to be dependent for the purpose of Xaml. The goal is to find all properties that are on the top of the tree. so basically public class A{ public int Property1 { get; set; } } public class B : A{ public int Property2 { get; set; } public virtual int Property3 { get; set; } } public class C : B{ public override int Property3 { get; set; } public int Property4 { get; set; } public int Property5 { get; set; } } The end result would be something like this A.Prorperty1 B.Property2 B.Property3 C.Property4 C.Property5 If you notice I don't want to accept overridden properties because of the way I search for the properties if I do something like this C.Property3 for example and it cannot find it it will check C's basetype and there it will find it. This is what I have so far. public static void RegisterType( Type type ) { PropertyInfo[] properties = type.GetProperties( BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.GetProperty | BindingFlags.SetProperty ); if ( properties != null && properties.Length > 0 ) { foreach ( PropertyInfo property in properties ) { // if the property is an indexers then we ignore them if ( property.Name == "Item" && property.GetIndexParameters().Length > 0 ) continue; // We don't want Arrays or Generic Property Types if ( (property.PropertyType.IsArray || property.PropertyType.IsGenericType) ) continue; // Register Property } } } What I want are the following: Public properties, that are not overridden, not static, not private Either get and set properties are allowed They are not an array or a generic type They are the top of the tree ie C class in the example is the highest (The property list example is exactly what I am looking for) They are not an indexer property ( this[index] ) Any help will be much appreciated =).

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  • Generate navigation from a multi-dimensional array

    - by rg88
    The question: How do I generate navigation, allowing for applying different classes to different sub-items, from a multi-dimensional array? Here is how I was doing it before I had any need for multi-level navigation: Home Pics About and was generated by calling nav(): function nav(){ $links = array( "Home" => "home.php", "Pics" => "pics.php", "About" => "about.php" ); $base = basename($_SERVER['PHP_SELF']); foreach($nav as $k => $v){ echo buildLinks($k, $v, $base); } } Here is buildLinks(): function buildLinks($name, $page, $selected){ if($selected == $page){ $theLink = "<li class=\"selected\"><a href=\"$page\">$name</a></li>\n"; } else { $thelink = "<li><a href=\"$page\">$name</a></li>\n"; } return $thelink; } My question, again: how would I achieve the following nav (and notice that the visible sub navigation elements are only present when on that specific page): Home something1 something2 Pics About and... Home Pics people places About What I've tried From looking at it it would seem that some iterator in the SPL would be a good fit for this but I'm not sure how to approach this. I have played around with RecursiveIteratorIterator but I'm not sure how to apply a different style to only the sub menu items and also how to only show these items if you are on the correct page. I built this array to test with but don't know how to work with the submenu1 items individually: $nav = array( array( "Home" => "home.php", "submenu1" => array( "something1"=>"something1.php", "something2" => "something2.php") ), array("Pics" => "pics.php"), array("About" => "about.php") ); The following will print out the lot in order but how do I apply, say a class name to the submenu1 items or only show them when the person is on, say, the "Home" page? $iterator = new RecursiveIteratorIterator(new RecursiveArrayIterator($nav)); foreach($iterator as $key=>$value) { echo $key.' -- '.$value.'<br />'; }

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  • Cakephp beforeFind() - How do I add a JOIN condition AFTER the belongsTo association is added?

    - by michael
    I'm in Model-beforeFind($queryData), trying to add a JOIN condition to the queryData on a model which has belongsTo associations. Unfortunately, the new JOIN references a table in the belongsTo association, so it must appear AFTER the belongsTo in the query. Here is my Tagged-belongsTo association: app\plugins\tags\models\tagged.php (line 192) Array ( [Tag] => Array ( [className] => Tag [foreignKey] => tag_id [conditions] => [fields] => [order] => [counterCache] => ) [Group] => Array ( [className] => Group [foreignKey] => foreign_key [conditions] => Array ( [Tagged.model] => Group ) [fields] => [order] => [counterCache] => ) ) Here is the JOIN added in Tagged-beforeFind(), notice that the belongsTo joins have not yet been added: app\plugins\tags\models\tagged.php (line 194) Array ( [conditions] => Array ( [Tag.keyname] => europe ) [fields] => Array ( [0] => DISTINCT Group.* [1] => GroupPermission.* ) [joins] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [table] => permissions [alias] => GroupPermission [foreignKey] => [type] => INNER [conditions] => Array ( [GroupPermission.model] => Group [0] => GroupPermission.foreignId = Group.id [or] => Array ( ... ) ) ) ) [limit] => [offset] => [order] => Array ( [0] => ) [page] => 1 [group] => [callbacks] => 1 [by] => europe [model] => Group ) When I check the output, it fails with "1054: Unknown column 'Group.id' in 'on clause'" because the Permissions join appeared BEFORE the Groups join. SELECT DISTINCT `Group`.*, `GroupPermission`.* FROM `tagged` AS `Tagged` INNER JOIN permissions AS `GroupPermission` ON (`GroupPermission`.`model` = 'Group' AND `GroupPermission`.`foreignId` = `Group`.`id` AND (...)) LEFT JOIN `tags` AS `Tag` ON (`Tagged`.`tag_id` = `Tag`.`id`) LEFT JOIN `groups` AS `Group` ON (`Tagged`.`foreign_key` = `Group`.`id` AND `Tagged`.`model` = 'Group') WHERE `Tag`.`keyname` = 'europe' But this SQL (with Permissions joined moved to the end) works fine: SELECT DISTINCT `Group`.*, `GroupPermission`.* FROM `tagged` AS `Tagged` LEFT JOIN `tags` AS `Tag` ON (`Tagged`.`tag_id` = `Tag`.`id`) LEFT JOIN `groups` AS `Group` ON (`Tagged`.`foreign_key` = `Group`.`id` AND `Tagged`.`model` = 'Group') INNER JOIN permissions AS `GroupPermission` ON (`GroupPermission`.`model` = 'Group' AND `GroupPermission`.`foreignId` = `Group`.`id` AND (...)) WHERE `Tag`.`keyname` = 'europe' How do I add my join in beforeFind() after the belongsTo join?

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  • Javascript problem with a global external link confirmation alert

    - by OverDrive
    Below is the code from a plugin for Joomla. It works on it's own and it's purpose is to detect external links on the page and force them into new browser windows using _blank. I've tried for about an hour (I don't know javascript well) but I can't seem to figure out how to get an onclick function working. End result, I want to add to this script the ability of a confirmation dialog, shown in the 2nd code section. An external link, when clicked, will pop up the confirmation dialog, and if it says yes, they will be able to get to the external URL, opening in a new window. Otherwise, it cancels, and does nothing. When I create a link with onclick="return ExitNotice(this.href);" within it it works perfectly, but since my website has multiple people submitting input, I'd like the confirmation box global. this.blankwin = function(){ var hostname = window.location.hostname; hostname = hostname.replace("www.","").toLowerCase(); var a = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); this.check = function(obj){ var href = obj.href.toLowerCase(); return (href.indexOf("http://")!=-1 && href.indexOf(hostname)==-1) ? true : false; }; this.set = function(obj){ obj.target = "_blank"; obj.className = "blank"; }; for (var i=0;i<a.length;i++){ if(check(a[i])) set(a[i]); }; }; this.addEvent = function(obj,type,fn){ if(obj.attachEvent){ obj['e'+type+fn] = fn; obj[type+fn] = function(){obj['e'+type+fn](window.event );} obj.attachEvent('on'+type, obj[type+fn]); } else { obj.addEventListener(type,fn,false); }; }; addEvent(window,"load",blankwin); Second Part /* ---------- OnClick External Link Notice ---------- */ function ExitNotice(link,site,ltext) { if(confirm("-----------------------------------------------------------------------\n\n" + "You're leaving the HelpingTeens.org website. HelpingTeens.org\ndoes not " + "control this site and its privacy policies may differ\nfrom our own. " + "Thank you for using our site.\n\nYou will now access the following link:\n" + "\n" + link + "\n\nPress \'OK\' to proceed, or press \'Cancel\' to remain here." + "\n\n-----------------------------------------------------------------------")) { return true; } history.go(0); return false; } A) Can anyone help me fix this problem? or B) Is there a better solution?

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  • Using jQuery to store basic text string in mySQL base?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Could someone point me in the right direction here? Basically, I've got this jQuery code snippet: $('.bggallery_images').click(function () { var newBG = "url('" + $(this).attr('src'); var fullpath = $(this).attr('src'); var filename = fullpath.replace('img/Bakgrunner/', ''); $('#wrapper').css('background-image', newBG); // Lagre til SQL $.ajax({ url: "save_to_db.php", // The url to your function to handle saving to the db data: filename, dataType: 'Text', type: 'POST', // Could also use GET if you prefer success: function (data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); }); This is being run when I click a certain button. So it's actually within a click handler. If I understand this correctly, this snippet takes the source if the image I just clicked and strips it so I end up with only the filename. If I do an alert(filename), I get the filename only. So this is working ok. But then, it does an ajax call to a php file called "save_to_db.php" and sends data: filename. This is correct right? Then, it does a callback which does an alert + data. Does this seem correct so far? Cause my php file looks like this: <?php require("dbconnect2.php"); $uploadstring = $_POST['filename']; $sessionid = $_SESSION['id']; echo ($sessionid); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = '$uploadstring' WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id']); mysql_close(); ?> When I click the image, the jQuery snippet fires and I get the results of this php file as output for the alert box. I think that the variables somehow are empty. Because notice the echo($sessionid); which is a variable I've created just to test what the session ID is. And it returns nothing. What could be the issue here? Edit: I just tried to echo out the $uploadstring variable as well and it also returns nothing. It's like the jQuery snippet doesn't even pass the variable on to the php file?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 Preview 2 Route Request Not Working

    - by Kezzer
    Here's the error: The incoming request does not match any route. Basically I upgraded from Preview 1 to Preview 2 and got rid of a load of redundant stuff in relation to areas (as described by Phil Haack). It didn't work so I created a brand new project to check out how its dealt with in Preview 2. The file Default.aspx no longer exists which contains the following: public void Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { // Change the current path so that the Routing handler can correctly interpret // the request, then restore the original path so that the OutputCache module // can correctly process the response (if caching is enabled). string originalPath = Request.Path; HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(Request.ApplicationPath, false); IHttpHandler httpHandler = new MvcHttpHandler(); httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } The error I received points to the line httpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); yet in newer projects none of this even exists. To test it, I quickly deleted Default.aspx but then absolutely nothing worked, I didn't even receive any errors. Here's some code extracts: Global.asax.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Routing; namespace Intranet { public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void App_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } } Notice the area registration as that's what I'm using. Routes.cs using System.Web.Mvc; namespace Intranet.Areas.Accounts { public class Routes : AreaRegistration { public override string AreaName { get { return "Accounts"; } } public override void RegisterArea(AreaRegistrationContext context) { context.MapRoute("Accounts_Default", "Accounts/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); } } } Check the latest docs for more info on this part. It's to register the area. The Routes.cs files are located in the root folder of each area. Cheers

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  • How do I properly register the Type Library of A VB.NET COM+ Component?

    - by k_Dank
    I am looking to upgrade legacy VB6 COM+ components to VB.NET components. I have seemingly upgraded one already, called EventPackage, which has one class, IEventListener. Another, TradeOrders, Implements EventPackage.IEventListener. When attempting to build TradeOrders, I get the following Errors/Warnings; Cannot load type library for reference "EventPackage". Library not registered. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8002801D (TYPE_E_LIBNOTREGISTERED)) The referenced component 'EventPackage' could not be found. Type 'EventPackage.IEventListener' is not defined. In the .vbproj, I notice this reference <COMReference Include="EventPackage"> <Guid>{0D76C094-21A6-4E04-802B-6E539F7102D7}</Guid> <Lcid>0</Lcid> <VersionMajor>2</VersionMajor> <VersionMinor>0</VersionMinor> <WrapperTool>tlbimp</WrapperTool> </COMReference> When I search the registry for this Guid, I find nothing. When using GUIDs for similar COM+ objects, I find them in HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID\{...}\TypeLib ("..." being the GUID of the other component). When I go to the registry key name corresponding to EventPackage.IEventListener, I find that there is no \TypeLib subkey. As you might suspect, searching the reg for "0D76C094-21A6-4E04-802B-6E539F7102D7" yields no results. So I know this must be a registry problem, But I have tried seemingly every google result I have found. I have tried Regasm and regsvcs .exe's to no avail. Many pages just tell me that dragging the dll to the COM+ manager should automatically register the component. So how do I register the Type library? Details on how I made EventPackage COM+ component Ran the VB6-VB.NET wizard Then I added some lines to the assemblyinfo.vb file added Imports System.EnterpriseServices added Imports System.EnterpriseServices Imports System.Data.SqlClient <Assembly: CLSCompliant(True)> <Assembly: AssemblyKeyFileAttribute("...")> for a strong name <Assembly: Guid("...")> (Where "..." is the COM+ CLSID of the old component) I added the following to the class file IEventListener.VB Imports System.EnterpriseServices <ComClass("...")> _ (Where ... is the proper COM+ CLSID, that is the only argument) Inherits ServicedComponent changed the ID made by the Conversion wizard to the proper value (from <System.Runtime.InteropServices.ProgId("IEventListener_NET.IEventListener)> to <System.Runtime.InteropServices.ProgId("EventPackage.IEventListener")> _ Then I dragged the DLL into the COM+ manager in the proper COM+ application (although, the "Path" is not specified and only says mscoree.dll)

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  • Validate dependent model validation and show error message.

    - by piemesons
    Just taking a simple example. We have a question on stackoverflow and while posting a question we want to validate title_of_question, description_of_question that they should be present. Now we have a another model tag having habtm relationshio with question model. How to validate that while saving the question. Means question must have some tags. here the code:-- Models:-- class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_and_belongs_to_many :tags has_many :comments, :as => :commentable has_many :answers, :dependent => :destroy validates_presence_of :title, :content, :user_id end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :questions validates_presence_of :tag end Form for entering question and tag <div class="form"> <% form_for :question ,@question, :url => {:action => "create" } do |f| %> <fieldset> <%= f.error_messages %> <legend>Post a question</legend> <div> <%= f.label :title %>: <%= f.text_field :title, :size => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= f.label :content ,'Question' %>: <%= f.text_area :content, :rows => 10, :cols => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= label_tag 'tags' %>: <%= text_field_tag 'tag' ,'',:size=> 60 %> add multiple tag using comma </div> <div> <%= submit_tag "Post question" %> </div> </fieldset> <% end %> </div> From Controller.. (Right now question will be saved without validating tag) def create @question = Question.new(params[:question]) @question.user_id=session[:user_id] if @question.save flash[:notice] = "Question has been posted." redirect_to question_index_path else render :action => "new" end end questions_tags table has been created. One approach is creating a virtual column using attribute accessors. another approach is validate associated. right now assuming new tags can be created.(but not duplicate).

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  • Undefined index: email in C:\wamp\www\emailvalidate.php on line 4

    - by klari
    I am new to Ajax. In my Ajax I get the following error message : Notice: Undefined index: address in C:\wamp\www\test\sample.php on line 11 I googled but I didn't get a solution for my specified issue. Here is what I did. HTML Form with Ajax (test1.php) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> <script> function loadXMLDoc() { var xmlhttp; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { document.getElementById("mydiv").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } xmlhttp.open("POST","test2.php",true); xmlhttp.send(); } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" name="form1" method="post" action="sample.php"> <p> <label for="mail"></label> <input type="text" name="mail" id="mail" onblur="loadXMLDoc()" /> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> <p><div id = 'mydiv'></div></p> </form> </body> </html> test2.php <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <?php echo "Your Address is ".$_POST['address']; ?> </body> </html> I am sure it is very simple issue but I don't know how to solve it. Any help ?

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  • NVIDIA graphics driver in Ubuntu 12.04

    - by user924501
    So my overall goal is that I want to be able to code with CUDA enabled applications. However, upon many days of searching, using installation walkthroughs, and reinstalling countless times after driver failure... I'm now here as a last resort. I cannot get Ubuntu 12.04 LTS to install the NVIDIA 295.59 driver for my GeForce GT 540M NVIDIA graphics card. My main system specs is as follows... (I believe having the Intel processor may be the problem) DELL Laptop XPS L502X Intel® Core™ i7-2620M CPU @ 2.70GHz × 4 Intel Integrated Graphics 64 bit NVIDIA GeForce GT 540M Ubuntu 12.04 LTS All other specs are irrelevant unless I forgot something? Methods Tried: aptitude install nvidia-current (all packages) Results: Nothing really happened. Nothing in the additional drivers menu appeared, nor was the NVIDIA X Server settings application allowing access because it thought there was no NVIDIA X Server installed. Downloaded driver from nvidia.com. Set nomodeset in the grub boot menu through /boot/grub/grub.cfg Went to console and turned off lightdm. Installed the driver, but it said the pre-install failed? (mean anything?) Started up lightdm again. Results: NVIDIA X Server settings still didn't notice it. Even tried to do nvidia-xconfig multiple times. I also went into the config file to make sure the driver setting said "nvidia". aptitude install nvidia-173 (all packages) Results: Couldn't find the xorg-video-abi-10 virtual package. It was nowhere to be found and the ubuntu forums everywhere had no answers. Lots of people were having this problem. This is easily done in windows, simply download the driver and debug in visual studio with no problems at all. I'd like clear step-by-step instructions on how I should go about this. I'm relatively new to linux but I can find my way around pretty well so you aren't talking to a straight-up beginner. Also, if you think another thread may have the answer please post because I was having a hard time looking for my specific type of problem. TL;DR I want to have access to my GPU so I can code with CUDA while in Ubuntu 12.04 on my 64 bit laptop that also has Intel integrated graphics on the processor. Solution: sudo apt-add-repository ppa:ubuntu-x-swat/x-updates && sudo apt-get update && sudo apt-get upgrade && sudo apt-get install nvidia-current

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