Search Results

Search found 4520 results on 181 pages for 'notice'.

Page 158/181 | < Previous Page | 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165  | Next Page >

  • Remove a tag type from the view (involves alphabetical pagination)

    - by user284194
    I have an index view that lists all of the tags for my Entry and Message models. I would like to only show the tags for Entries in this view. I'm using acts-as-taggable-on. Tags Controller: def index @letter = params[:letter].blank? ? 'a' : params[:letter] @tagged_entries = Tagging.find_all_by_taggable_type('Entry').map(&:taggable) @title = "Tags" if params[:letter] == '#' @data = Tag.find(@tagged_entries, :conditions => ["name REGEXP ?", "^[^a-z]"], :order => 'name', :select => "id, name") else @data = Tag.find(@tagged_entries, :conditions => ["name LIKE ?", "#{params[:letter]}%"], :order => 'name', :select => "id, name") end respond_to do |format| flash[:notice] = 'We are currently in Beta. You may experience errors.' format.html end end tags#index: <% @data.each do |t| %> <div class="tag"><%= link_to t.name.titleize, tag_path(t) %></div> <% end %> I want to show only the taggable type 'Entry' in the view. Any ideas? Thank you for reading my question. SECOND EDIT: Tags Controller: def index @title = "Tags" @letter = params[:letter].blank? ? 'a' : params[:letter] @taggings = Tagging.find_all_by_taggable_type('Entry', :include => [:tag, :taggable]) @tags = @taggings.map(&:tag).sort_by(&:name).uniq @tagged_entries = @taggings.map(&:taggable)#.sort_by(&:id)#or whatever if params[:letter] == '#' @data = Tag.find(@tags, :conditions => ["name REGEXP ?", "^[^a-z]"], :order => 'name', :select => "id, name") else @data = Tag.find(@tags, :conditions => ["name LIKE ?", "#{params[:letter]}%"], :order => 'name', :select => "id, name") end respond_to do |format| format.html end end tags#index: <% @data.each do |t| %> <div class="tag"><%= link_to t.name.titleize, tag_path(t) %></div> <% end %> Max Williams' code works except when I click on my alphabetical pagination links. The error I'm getting [after I clicked on the G link of the alphabetical pagination] reads: Couldn't find all Tags with IDs (77,130,115,...) AND (name LIKE 'G%') (found 9 results, but was looking for 129) Can anyone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • How can I position some divs inside an unordered list so they line up with the root element of the l

    - by Ronedog
    I want to position all the divs to line up to the left on the same x coordinate so it looks nice. Notice the picture below, how based on the number of nested categories the div (and its contents) show up at slightly different x coordinates. I need to have the div's line up at exactly the same x coordinate no matter how deeply nested. Note, the bottom most category always has a div for the content, but that div has to be situated inside the last < li . I am using an unordered list to display the menu and thought the best solution would be to grab the root category (Cat 2, and mCat1) and obtain their left offset using jquery, then simply use that value to update the positioning of the div...but I couldn't seem to get it to work just right. I would appreciate any advice or help that you are willing to give. Heres the HTML <ul id="nav> <li>Cat 2 <ul> <li>sub cat2</li> </ul> </li> <li>mCat1 <ul> <li>Subcat A <ul> <li>Subcat A.1 <ul> <li>Annie</li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> Heres some jquery I tried (I have do insert the div inside this .each() loop in order to retrieve some values, but basically, this selector is grabbing the last < li in the menu tree and placing a div after it and that is the div that I want to position. the 245 value was something I was playing around with to see how I could get things to line up, and I know its out of wack, but the problem is still the same no matter what I do: $("#nav li:not(:has(li))").each(function () { var self = $(this); var position = self.offset(); var xLeft = Math.round(position.left)- 245; console.log("xLeft:", xLeft ); self.after( '<div id="' + self.attr('p_node') + '_p_cont_div" class="property_position" style="display:none; left:' + xLeft + 'px;" /> ' ); }); Heres the css: .property_position{ float:left; position: relative; top: 0px; padding-top:5px; padding-bottom:10px; }

    Read the article

  • Fread binary file dynamic size string [C]

    - by Blackbinary
    I've been working on this assignment, where I need to read in "records" and write them to a file, and then have the ability to read/find them later. On each run of the program, the user can decide to write a new record, or read an old record (either by Name or #) The file is binary, here is its definition: typedef struct{ char * name; char * address; short addressLength, nameLength; int phoneNumber; }employeeRecord; employeeRecord record; The way the program works, it will store the structure, then the name, then the address. Name and address are dynamically allocated, which is why it is necessary to read the structure first to find the size of the name and address, allocate memory for them, then read them into that memory. For debugging purposes I have two programs at the moment. I have my file writing program, and file reading. My actual problem is this, when I read a file I have written, i read in the structure, print out the phone # to make sure it works (which works fine), and then fread the name (now being able to use record.nameLength which reports the proper value too). Fread however, does not return a usable name, it returns blank. I see two problems, either I haven't written the name to the file correctly, or I haven't read it in correctly. Here is how i write to the file: where fp is the file pointer. record.name is a proper value, so is record.nameLength. Also i am writing the name including the null terminator. (e.g. 'Jack\0') fwrite(&record,sizeof record,1,fp); fwrite(record.name,sizeof(char),record.nameLength,fp); fwrite(record.address,sizeof(char),record.addressLength,fp); And i then close the file. here is how i read the file: fp = fopen("employeeRecord","r"); fread(&record,sizeof record,1,fp); printf("Number: %d\n",record.phoneNumber); char *nameString = malloc(sizeof(char)*record.nameLength); printf("\nName Length: %d",record.nameLength); fread(nameString,sizeof(char),record.nameLength,fp); printf("\nName: %s",nameString); Notice there is some debug stuff in there (name length and number, both of which are correct). So i know the file opened properly, and I can use the name length fine. Why then is my output blank, or a newline, or something like that? (The output is just Name: with nothing after it, and program finishes just fine) Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • Possible to do rounded corners in custom Progressbar progressDrawable?

    - by b-ryce
    I have a progress bar that is supposed to look like the attached image: And I've made it a long way. I'm very close the only part that isn't working is the rounded corners for the progressDrawable. Here is what mine looks like. (Notice, circled in red, that the fill inside the white outline does not have rounded corners): So, I've found a couple of ways to make this work when the progress bar is colored in with a shape, gradient, or color. BUT, I can't get it with an image as the progressDrawable. Here is my class that extends ProgressBar public class RoundedProgressBar extends ProgressBar{ private Paint paint; public RoundedProgressBar(Context context) { super(context); setup(); } public RoundedProgressBar(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); setup(); } public RoundedProgressBar(Context context, AttributeSet attrs, int defStyle) { super(context, attrs, defStyle); setup(); ; } protected void setup() { paint = new Paint(); } @Override protected synchronized void onDraw(Canvas canvas) { // First draw the regular progress bar, then custom draw our text super.onDraw(canvas); paint.setColor(Color.WHITE); paint.setStyle(Paint.Style.STROKE); RectF r = new RectF(0,0,getWidth()-1,getHeight()-1); canvas.drawRoundRect(r,getHeight()/2,getHeight()/2, paint); } } Here is my selector: <layer-list xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" > <item android:id="@android:id/background" android:drawable="@drawable/slider_track" /> <item android:id="@android:id/secondaryProgress" android:drawable="@drawable/slider_track" /> <item android:id="@android:id/progress" android:drawable="@drawable/slider_track_progress" /> </layer-list> Here are the images used in the selector: slider_track- slider_track_progress- Here is where I embed my progressbar in the layout for my activity <com.android.component.RoundedProgressBar android:id="@+id/player_hp_bar" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="36dip" android:layout_marginLeft="30dip" android:layout_marginRight="30dip" android:max="100" style="?android:attr/progressBarStyleHorizontal" android:progressDrawable="@drawable/slider_layer_list" android:progress="20" android:maxHeight="12dip" android:minHeight="12dip" /> Anyone know how to make this work?

    Read the article

  • What would I use to remove escaped html from large sets of data.

    - by Elizabeth Buckwalter
    Our database is filled with articles retrieved from RSS feeds. I was unsure of what data I would be getting, and how much filtering was already setup (WP-O-Matic Wordpress plugin using the SimplePie library). This plugin does some basic encoding before insertion using Wordpress's built in post insert function which also does some filtering. I've figured out most of the filters before insertion, but now I have whacko data that I need to remove. This is an example of whacko data that I have data in one field which the content I want in the front, but this part removed which is at the end: <img src="http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?i=xFxEpT2Add0:xFbIkwGc-fk:V_sGLiPBpWU" border="0"></img> <img src="http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?d=qj6IDK7rITs" border="0"></img> &lt;img src=&quot;http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?i=xFxEpT2Add0:xFbIkwGc-fk:D7DqB2pKExk&quot; Notice how some of the images are escape and some aren't. I believe this has to do with the last part being cut off so as to be unrecognizable as an html tag, which then caused it to be html endcoded. Another field has only this which is now filtered before insertion, but I have to get rid of the others: &lt;img src=&quot;http://farm3.static.flickr.com/2183/2289902369_1d95bcdb85.jpg&quot; alt=&quot;post_img&quot; width=&quot;80&quot; (all examples are on one line, but broken up for readability) Question: What is the best way to work with the above escaped html (or portion of an html tag)? I can do it in Perl, PHP, SQL, Ruby, and even Python. I believe Perl to be the best at text parsing, so that's why I used the Perl tag. And PHP times out on large database operations, so that's pretty much out unless I wanted to do batch processing and what not. PS One of the nice things about using Wordpress's insert post function, is that if you use php's strip_tags function to strip out all html, insert post function will insert <p> at the paragraph points. Let me know if there's anything more that I can answer. Some article that didn't quite answer my questions. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2016751/remove-text-from-within-a-database-text-field) (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/462831/regular-expression-to-escape-html-ampersands-while-respecting-cdata)

    Read the article

  • Armchair Linguists: 'code' vs. 'codes'--or why I write 'code' and my manager asks for 'codes'

    - by Ukko
    I wanted to tap into the collective wisdom here to see if I can get some insight into one of my pet peeves, people who thread "code" as a countable noun. Let me also preface this by saying that I am not talking about anyone who speaks english as a second language, this is a native phenomenon. For those of us who slept through grammar class there are two classes of nouns which basically refer to things that are countable and non-countable (sometimes referred to as count and noncount). For instance 'sand' is a non-count noun and 'apple' is count. You can talk about "two apples" but "two sands" does not parse. The bright students then would point out a word like "beer" where is looks like this is violated. Beer as a substance is certainly a non-count noun, but I can ask for "two beers" without offending the grammar police. The reason is that there are actually two words tied up in that one utterance, Definition #1 is a yummy golden substance and Definition #2 is a colloquial term for a container of said substance. #1 is non-count and #2 is countable. This gets to my problem with "codes" as a countable noun. In my mind the code that we programmers write is non-count, "I wrote some code today." When used in the plural like "Have you got the codes" I can only assume that you are asking if I have the cryptographically significant numbers for launching a missile or the like. Every time my peer in marketing asks about when we will have the new codes ready I have a vision of rooms of code breakers going over the latest Enigma coded message. I corrected the usage in all the documents I am asked to review, but then I noticed that our customer was also using the work "codes" when they meant "code". At this point I have realized that there is a significant sub-population that uses "codes" and they seem to be impervious to what I see as the dominant "correct" usage. This is the part I want some help on, has anyone else noticed this phenomenon? Do you know what group it is associated with, old Fortran programmer perhaps? Is it a regionalism? I have become quick to change my terms when I notice a customer's usage, but it would be nice to know if I am sending a proposal somewhere what style they expect. I would hate to get canned with a review of "Ha, these guy's must be morons they don't even know 'code' is plural!"

    Read the article

  • One click to trigger several search forms?

    - by Christian
    Hello, I have 1 main search form with a submit button and several secondary search forms with submit buttons. What I would like to do is when I enter text and click on the submit button of the main search form, the same text gets copied in all of the secondary search forms and all the submit buttons of the secondary search forms get automatically hit. The HTML code for the mains earch form is shown below: <form action="query.php" method="get"> Search: <input type="text" name="item" size="30"> <input type="submit" value="send"> </form> One of the several secondary search forms is shown below: <FORM action="http://www.dpbolvw.net/interactive" method="GET" target="_blank"> <div style="float: left; padding: 0 3px 0 0;"> <INPUT type="text" name="src" size="9" value="<?php $input = $_GET['item']; echo $input;?>" style="width: 110px; height: 22px;margin:0; padding: 0; font-size:140%;"> </div> <div style="float: left; padding: 0 3px 0 0;"> <input type="image" name="submit" value="GO" src="http://images.guitarcenter.com/Content/GC/banner/go.gif" alt="Search" style="font-size:140%"> /div> <input type="hidden" name="aid" value="1234"/> <input type="hidden" name="pid" value="1234"/> <input type="hidden" name="url" value="http://www.guitarcenter.com/Search/Default.aspx"/> </form> Notice the php code that I put in the "value" field of the secondary search form: <?php $input = $_GET['item']; echo $input;?> This automatically copies the text that I entered in the main search form into the secondary search form. I thus figured out how to do that. The problem is to "simulate" an "Enter" keystroke or a click on the "GO" button with the mouse on the secondary search form when the user hits the Enter key or hits the "SEND" button with the mouse on the main search form. Thank you for your insight!

    Read the article

  • .NET JIT Code Cache leaking?

    - by pitchfork
    We have a server component written in .Net 3.5. It runs as service on a Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition. It works great but after some time (days) we notice massive slowdowns and an increased working set. We expected some kind of memory leak and used WinDBG/SOS to analyze dumps of the process. Unfortunately the GC Heap doesn’t show any leak but we noticed that the JIT code heap has grown from 8MB after the start to more than 1GB after a few days. We don’t use any dynamic code generation techniques by our own. We use Linq2SQL which is known for dynamic code generation but we don’t know if it can cause such a problem. The main question is if there is any technique to analyze the dump and check where all this Host Code Heap blocks that are shown in the WinDBG dumps come from? [Update] In the mean time we did some more analysis and had Linq2SQL as probable suspect, especially since we do not use precompiled queries. The following example program creates exactly the same behaviour where more and more Host Code Heap blocks are created over time. using System; using System.Linq; using System.Threading; namespace LinqStressTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { for (int i = 0; i < 100; ++ i) ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(Worker); while(runs < 1000000) { Thread.Sleep(5000); } } static void Worker(object state) { for (int i = 0; i < 50; ++i) { using (var ctx = new DataClasses1DataContext()) { long id = rnd.Next(); var x = ctx.AccountNucleusInfos.Where(an => an.Account.SimPlayers.First().Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } } var localruns = Interlocked.Add(ref runs, 1); System.Console.WriteLine("Action: " + localruns); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(Worker); } static Random rnd = new Random(); static long runs = 0; } } When we replace the Linq query with a precompiled one, the problem seems to disappear.

    Read the article

  • Is this scatter-brained workflow realizable in Git?

    - by Luke Maurer
    This is what I'd like my workflow to look like at a conceptual level: I hack on my new feature for a while I notice a typo in a comment I change it Since the typo is completely unrelated to anything else, I put that change in a pile of comment fixes I keep working on the code I realize I need to flesh out a few utility functions I do so I put that change in its own pile Steps 2, 3, and 4 each repeat throughout the day I finish the new feature and put the changes for that feature in a pile I push nice patches upstream: One with the new feature, a few for the other tweaks, and one with a bunch of comment fixes if enough have accumulated Since I'm both lazy and a perfectionist, I want to be able to do some things out of order: I might correct a typo but forget to put it in the comment fix pile; when I prepare the upstream patches (I'm using git-svn, so I need to be pretty deliberate about these), I'll then pull out the comment fixes at that point. I might forget to separate things altogether until the very end. But I might /also/ have committed some of the piles along the way (sorry, the metaphor is breaking down …). This is all rather like just using Eclipse changesets with SVN, only I can have different changes to the same file in different piles (having to disentangle changes into different commits is what motivated me to move to git-svn, in fact …), and with Git I can have my full discombobulated change history, experimental branches and all, but still make a nice, neat patch. I've just recently started with Git after having wanted to for a good while, and I'm quite happy so far. The biggest way in which the above workflow doesn't really map into Git, though, is that a “bin” can't really be just a local branch, since the working tree only ever reflects the state of a single branch. Or maybe the Git index is a “pile,” and what I want is to have more than one somehow (effectively). I can think of a few ways to approximate what I want (maybe creative use of stash? Intricate stash-checkout-merge dances?), but my grasp on Git isn't solid enough to be sure of how best to put all the pieces together. It's said that Git is more a toolkit than a VCS, so I guess the question comes down to: How do I build this thing with these tools?

    Read the article

  • iPhone reachability checking

    - by Sneakyness
    I've found several examples of code to do what I want (check for reachability), but none of it seems to be exact enough to be of use to me. I can't figure out why this doesn't want to play nice. I have the reachability.h/m in my project, I'm doing #import <SystemConfiguration/SystemConfiguration.h> And I have the framework added. I also have: #import "Reachability.h" at the top of the .m in which I'm trying to use the reachability. Reachability* reachability = [Reachability sharedReachability]; [reachability setHostName:@"http://www.google.com"]; // set your host name here NetworkStatus remoteHostStatus = [reachability remoteHostStatus]; if(remoteHostStatus == NotReachable) {NSLog(@"no");} else if (remoteHostStatus == ReachableViaWiFiNetwork) {NSLog(@"wifi"); } else if (remoteHostStatus == ReachableViaCarrierDataNetwork) {NSLog(@"cell"); } This is giving me all sorts of problems. What am I doing wrong? I'm an alright coder, I just have a hard time when it comes time to figure out what needs to be put where to enable what I want to do, regardless if I want to know what I want to do or not. (So frustrating) Update: This is what's going on. This is in my viewcontroller, which I have the #import <SystemConfiguration/SystemConfiguration.h> and #import "Reachability.h" set up with. This is my least favorite part of programming by far. FWIW, we never ended up implementing this in our code. The two features that required internet access (entering the sweepstakes, and buying the dvd), were not main features. Nothing else required internet access. Instead of adding more code, we just set the background of both internet views to a notice telling the users they must be connected to the internet to use this feature. It was in theme with the rest of the application's interface, and was done well/tastefully. They said nothing about it during the approval process, however we did get a personal phone call to verify that we were giving away items that actually pertained to the movie. According to their usually vague agreement, you aren't allowed to have sweepstakes otherwise. I would also think this adheres more strictly to their "only use things if you absolutely need them" ideaology as well. Here's the iTunes link to the application, EvoScanner.

    Read the article

  • IF Statement has strange behavior

    - by BSchlinker
    I've developed a 'custom' cout, so that I can display text to console and also print it to a log file. This cout class is passed a different integer on initialization, with the integer representing the verbosity level of the message. If the current verbosity level is greater then or equal to the verbosity level of the message, the message should print. The problem is, I have messages printing even when the current verbosity level is too low. I went ahead and debugged it, expecting to find the problem. Instead, I found multiple scenarios where my if statements are not working as expected. The statement if(ilralevel_passed <= ilralevel_set) will sometimes proceed even if ilralevel_set is LESS then ilralevel_passed. You can see this behavior in the following picture (my apologizes for using Twitpic) http://twitpic.com/1xtx4g/full. Notice how ilralevel_set is equal to zero, and ilralevel_passed is equal to one. Yet, the if statement has returned true and is now moving forward to pass the line to cout. I've never seen this type of behavior before and I'm not exactly sure how to proceed debugging it. I'm not able to isolate the behavior either -- it only occurs in certain parts of my program. Any suggestions are appreciated as always. // Here is an example use of the function: // ilra_status << setfill('0') << setw(2) << dispatchtime.tm_sec << endl; // ilra_warning << "Dispatch time (seconds): " << mktime(&dispatchtime) << endl; // Here is the 'custom' cout function: #ifndef ILRA_H_ #define ILRA_H_ // System libraries #include <iostream> #include <ostream> #include <sstream> #include <iomanip> // Definitions #define ilra_talk ilra(__FUNCTION__,0) #define ilra_update ilra(__FUNCTION__,0) #define ilra_error ilra(__FUNCTION__,1) #define ilra_warning ilra(__FUNCTION__,2) #define ilra_status ilra(__FUNCTION__,3) // Statics static int ilralevel_set = 0; static int ilralevel_passed; // Classes class ilra { public: // constructor / destructor ilra(const std::string &funcName, int toset) { ilralevel_passed = toset; } ~ilra(){}; // enable / disable irla functions static void ilra_verbose_level(int toset){ ilralevel_set = toset; } // output template <class T> ilra &operator<<(const T &v) { if(ilralevel_passed <= ilralevel_set) std::cout << v; return *this; } ilra &operator<<(std::ostream&(*f)(std::ostream&)) { if(ilralevel_passed <= ilralevel_set) std::cout << *f; return *this; } }; // end of the class #endif /* ILRA_H_ */

    Read the article

  • Job queue manager with RPC interface

    - by admr
    I need a job queue manager that I can control over the Internet. It should be able to execute and stop processes, check on their status (ideally notice and execute some code when a process exits), respond to commands and also be able to report back to a server. Background: I have a GWT application that allows to create jobs to execute on a cloud instance (currently EC2). I want to push a "job packet" (data for a process to operate on etc) to S3, start a Linux EC2 instance (or use one that's already running), and tell a job manager on the instance to execute that job (possibly parallel to other jobs). It should then pull the "job packet" from S3, run a process that operates on that data and report back to the server that is running the server part of my GWT application with some information (e.g. exit code, stdout, stderr). If I have to write e.g. stdour/err to a file from the process and read that file, that's OK too. I would really like the manager to be "close" to the processes it runs, meaning I want to avoid using something like Runtime.exec from the JDK. It seems like I would have to do that if I used Quartz for example. I'm fine with the calls in both directions being asynchronous. I'm fine with any reasonable technology for the calls as long as I can easily build an interface for that in my GWT server side (e.g. HTTP requests to a servlet over SSL would be nice and trivial). The job manager does not need to have a very sophisticated queueing system. Running several processes either sequentially or in parallel should be fine. Determining how much compute time a process received during its lifetime would be nice (AFAIK, this might be challenging). I did not yet find any existing software that does this, including http://java-source.net/open-source/job-schedulers. I suspect I might have to build an RPC interface (with authentication etc, of course) around a job manager; maybe use something like Apache Commons Exec. In that case, I would prefer Java or Python for the job manager part. I would be happy to hear suggestions for either the former or latter scenario!

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Counter, Tricky problem with effects for brainy people.

    - by Marius
    Hello there! I made this counter that I think is cool because it only makes visible changes to the numbers being changed between each time it is triggered. This is the code // counter $('a').click(function(){ var u = ''; var newStr = ''; $('.counter').each(function(){ var len = $(this).children('span').length; $(this).children('span').each(function(){ u = u + $(this).text(); }); v = parseInt(u) + 1; v = v + ''; for (i=v.length - 1; i >= 0; i--) { if (v.charAt(i) == u.charAt(i)) { break; } } slce = len - (v.length - (i + 1)) updates = $(this).children('span').slice(slce); $(updates).fadeTo(100,0).delay(100).each(function(index){ f = i + 1 + index; $(this).text(v.charAt(f)); }).fadeTo(100,1); }); }); Markup: <span class="counter"> <span></span><span></span><span></span><span></span><span></span><span></span><span style="margin-right:4px;">9</span><span>9</span><span>9</span><span>9</span> </span> <a href="">Add + 1</a> The problem is that I previously used queue() function to delay() $(this).text(v.charAt(f)); by 100ms, (without queue the text()-function would not be delayed because it isnt in the fx catergory) so that the text would be updated before the object had faded to opacity = 0. That would look stupid. When adding multiple counters, only one of the counters would count. When removing the queue function, both counters would work, but as you can imagine, the delay of the text() would be gone (as it isnt fx-category). It is probably a bit tricky to make out how I can have multiple counters, and still delay the text()-function by 100ms, but I was hoping there is somebody here with spare brain capacity for these things ;) You can see a (NSFW) problem demo here: Just look underneath the sharing icons and you will notice that the text changes WHILE the objects fade out. Looking for some help to sove this problem. I would like to call the text() function once the text has faded to opacity 0, then fade in once the text() has executed. Thank you for your time.

    Read the article

  • CoGetClassObject gives many First-chance exceptions in ATL project. Should I worry?

    - by Andrew
    Hello, I have written a COM object that in turn uses a thrid party ActiveX control. In my FinalConstruct() for my COM object, I instantiate the ActiveX control with the follow code: HRESULT hRes; LPCLASSFACTORY2 pClassFactory; hRes = CoInitializeEx(NULL,COINIT_APARTMENTTHREADED); bool bTest = SUCCEEDED(hRes); if (!bTest) return E_FAIL; if (SUCCEEDED(CoGetClassObject(__uuidof(SerialPortSniffer), CLSCTX_INPROC_SERVER, NULL, IID_IClassFactory2, (LPVOID *)(&pClassFactory)))) { ... more set up code When I step over the line if (SUCCEEDED(CoGetClassObject(__uuidof(SerialPortSniffer), ..., I get 20+ lines in the Output window stating: First-chance exception at 0x0523f82e in SillyComDriver.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation writing location 0x00000000. I also get the lines: First-chance exception at 0x051e3f3d in SillyComDriver.exe: 0xC0000096: Privileged instruction. First-chance exception at 0x100ab9e6 in SillyComDriver.exe: 0xC000001D: Illegal Instruction. Notice these are first-chance exceptions. The program runs as expected I can access the third party methods/properties. Still, I'm left wondering why they are occurring. Perhaps my way of instantiating the ActiveX control (for which I want use of it's methods/properties and not it's GUI stuff) is incorrect? Besides the code I'm showing, I also put the line import "spsax.dll" no_namespace in the stdafx.h That's all the code necessary for my simple demo project. I noticed this problem because I had (inadvertently) set the "break on exceptions" options in my "real" project and it was breaking on this line. Once I removed it, it also works. If you're read this far thank you, and perhaps I can ask one other minor question. In my demo project, if I right click on SerialPortSniffer and "go to definition", it takes me to the file C:....\AppData\Local\Temp\spsax.tlh. Can someone explain that? Finally, in my "real" project, right clicking on SerialPortSniffer and going to difinition leads to "The symbol 'SerialPortSniffer' is not defined". It doesn't seem to affect the program though. Is there some setting I've messed up? By the way, all my code is written w/ VS2008. Thanks, Dave

    Read the article

  • Why does my ko computed observable not update bound UI elements when its value changes?

    - by Allen
    I'm trying to wrap a cookie in a computed observable (which I'll later turn into a protectedObservable) and I'm having some problems with the computed observable. I was under the opinion that changes to the computed observable would be broadcast to any UI elements that have been bound to it. I've created the following fiddle JavaScript: var viewModel = {}; // simulating a cookie store, this part isnt as important var cookie = function () { // simulating a value stored in cookies var privateZipcode = "12345"; return { 'write' : function (val) { privateZipcode = val; }, 'read': function () { return privateZipcode; } } }(); viewModel.zipcode = ko.computed({ read: function () { return cookie.read(); }, write: function (value) { cookie.write(value); }, owner: viewModel }); ko.applyBindings(viewModel);? HTML: zipcode: <input type='text' data-bind="value: zipcode"> <br /> zipcode: <span data-bind="text: zipcode"></span>? I'm not using an observable to store privateZipcode since that's really just going to be in a cookie. I'm hoping that the ko.computed will provide the notifications and binding functionality that I need, though most of the examples I've seen with ko.computed end up using a ko.observable underneath the covers. Shouldn't the act of writing the value to my computed observable signal the UI elements that are bound to its value? Shouldn't these just update? Workaround I've got a simple workaround where I just use a ko.observable along side of my cookie store and using that will trigger the required updates to my DOM elements but this seems completely unnecessary, unless ko.computed lacks the signaling / dependency type functionality that ko.observable has. My workaround fiddle, you'll notice that the only thing that changes is that I added a seperateObservable that isn't used as a store, its only purpose is to signal to the UI that the underlying data has changed. // simulating a cookie store, this part isnt as important var cookie = function () { // simulating a value stored in cookies var privateZipcode = "12345"; // extra observable that isnt really used as a store, just to trigger updates to the UI var seperateObservable = ko.observable(privateZipcode); return { 'write' : function (val) { privateZipcode = val; seperateObservable(val); }, 'read': function () { seperateObservable(); return privateZipcode; } } }(); This makes sense and works as I'd expect because viewModel.zipcode depends on seperateObservable and updates to that should (and does) signal the UI to update. What I don't understand, is why doesn't a call to the write function on my ko.computed signal the UI to update, since that element is bound to that ko.computed? I suspected that I might have to use something in knockout to manually signal that my ko.computed has been updated, and I'm fine with that, that makes sense. I just haven't been able to find a way to accomplish that.

    Read the article

  • How do I use accepts_nested_attributes_for? I cannot use the .build method (!)

    - by Angela
    Editing my question for conciseness and to update what I've done: How do I model having multiple Addresses for a Company and assign a single Address to a Contact, and be able to assign them when creating or editing a Contact? Here is my model for Contacts: class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :first_name, :last_name, :title, :phone, :fax, :email, :company, :date_entered, :campaign_id, :company_name, :address_id, :address_attributes belongs_to :company belongs_to :address accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end Here is my model for Address: class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :street1, :street2, :city, :state, :zip has_many :contacts end I would like, when creating an new contact, access all the Addresses that belong to the other Contacts that belong to the Company. So here is how I represent Company: class Company < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :phone, :addresses has_many :contacts has_many :addresses, :through => :contacts end Here is how I am trying to create a field in the View for _form for Contact so that, when someone creates a new Contact, they pass the address to the Address model and associate that address to the Contact: <% f.fields_for :address, @contact.address do |builder| %> <p> <%= builder.label :street1, "Street 1" %> </br> <%= builder.text_field :street1 %> <p> <% end %> When I try to Edit, the field for Street 1 is blank. And I don't know how to display the value from show.html.erb. At the bottom is my error console -- can't seem to create values in the address table: My Contacts controller is as follows: def new @contact = Contact.new @contact.address.build # I GET AN ERROR HERE: says NIL CLASS @contact.date_entered = Date.today @campaigns = Campaign.find(:all, :order => "name") if params[:campaign_id].blank? else @campaign = Campaign.find(params[:campaign_id]) @contact.campaign_id = @campaign.id end if params[:company_id].blank? else @company = Company.find(params[:company_id]) @contact.company_name = @company.name end end def create @contact = Contact.new(params[:contact]) if @contact.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully created contact." redirect_to @contact else render :action => 'new' end end def edit @contact = Contact.find(params[:id]) @campaigns = Campaign.find(:all, :order => "name") end Here is a snippet of my error console: I am POSTING the attribute, but it is not CREATING in the Address table.... Processing ContactsController#create (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-12 21:16:17) [POST] Parameters: {"commit"="Submit", "authenticity_token"="d8/gx0zy0Vgg6ghfcbAYL0YtGjYIUC2b1aG+dDKjuSs=", "contact"={"company_name"="Allyforce", "title"="", "campaign_id"="2", "address_attributes"={"street1"="abc"}, "fax"="", "phone"="", "last_name"="", "date_entered"="2010-05-12", "email"="", "first_name"="abc"}} Company Load (0.0ms)[0m [0mSELECT * FROM "companies" WHERE ("companies"."name" = 'Allyforce') LIMIT 1[0m Address Create (16.0ms)[0m [0;1mINSERT INTO "addresses" ("city", "zip", "created_at", "street1", "updated_at", "street2", "state") VALUES(NULL, NULL, '2010-05-13 04:16:18', NULL, '2010-05-13 04:16:18', NULL, NULL)[0m Contact Create (0.0ms)[0m [0mINSERT INTO "contacts" ("company", "created_at", "title", "updated_at", "campaign_id", "address_id", "last_name", "phone", "fax", "company_id", "date_entered", "first_name", "email") VALUES(NULL, '2010-05-13 04:16:18', '', '2010-05-13 04:16:18', 2, 2, '', '', '', 5, '2010-05-12', 'abc', '')[0m

    Read the article

  • Text Obfuscation using base64_encode()

    - by user271619
    I'm playing around with encrypt/decrypt coding in php. Interesting stuff! However, I'm coming across some issues involving what text gets encrypted into. Here's 2 functions that encrypt and decrypt a string. It uses an Encryption Key, which I set as something obscure. I actually got this from a php book. I modified it slightly, but not to change it's main goal. I created a small example below that anyone can test. But, I notice that some characters show up as the "encrypted" string. Characters like "=" and "+". Sometimes I pass this encrypted string via the url. Which may not quite make it to my receiving scripts. I'm guessing the browser does something to the string if certain characters are seen. I'm really only guessing. is there another function I can use to ensure the browser doesn't touch the string? or does anyone know enough php bas64_encode() to disallow certain characters from being used? I'm really not going to expect the latter as a possibility. But, I'm sure there's a work-around. enjoy the code, whomever needs it! define('ENCRYPTION_KEY', "sjjx6a"); function encrypt($string) { $result = ''; for($i=0; $i<strlen($string); $i++) { $char = substr($string, $i, 1); $keychar = substr(ENCRYPTION_KEY, ($i % strlen(ENCRYPTION_KEY))-1, 1); $char = chr(ord($char)+ord($keychar)); $result.=$char; } return base64_encode($result)."/".rand(); } function decrypt($string){ $exploded = explode("/",$string); $string = $exploded[0]; $result = ''; $string = base64_decode($string); for($i=0; $i<strlen($string); $i++) { $char = substr($string, $i, 1); $keychar = substr(ENCRYPTION_KEY, ($i % strlen(ENCRYPTION_KEY))-1, 1); $char = chr(ord($char)-ord($keychar)); $result.=$char; } return $result; } echo $encrypted = encrypt("reaplussign.jpg"); echo "<br>"; echo decrypt($encrypted);

    Read the article

  • Passing array into constructor to use on JList

    - by OVERTONE
    I know the title sound confusing and thats because it is. its a bit long so try too stay with me. this is the layout i have my code designed variables constructor methods. im trying too fill a Jlist full on names. i want too get those names using a method. so here goes. in my variables i have my JList. its called contactNames; i also have an array which stores 5 strings which are the contacts names; heres the code for that anyway String contact1; String contact2; String contact3; String contact4; String contact5; String[] contactListNames; JList contactList; simple enough. then in my constructor i have the Jlist defined to fill itself with the contents of the array fillContactList(); JList contactList = new JList(contactListNames); that method fillContactList() is coming up shortly. notice i dont have the array defined in the constructor. so heres my first question. can i do that? define the array to contain something in te constructor rather than filling it fromt the array. now heres where stuff gets balls up. ive created three different methods all of which havent worked. basically im trying to fill the array with all of them. this is the simplest one. it doesnt set the Jlist, it doesnt do anything compilicated. all it trys too do is fill the array one bit at a time public void fillContactList() { for(int i = 0;i<3;i++) { try { String contact; System.out.println(" please fill the list at index "+ i); Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); contact = in.next(); contactListNames[i] = contact; in.nextLine(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } unfortunately this doesnt qwork. i get the print out to fill it at index 0; i input something and i get a nice big stack trace starting at contactListNames[i] = contact; so my two questions in short are how i define an array in a constructor. and why cant i fill the array from that method. ************************888 **************************888 stack trace by request please fill the list at index 0 overtone java.lang.NullPointerException please fill the list at index 1 at project.AdminMessages.fillContactList(AdminMessages.java:408) at project.AdminMessages.<init>(AdminMessages.java:88) at project.AdminUser.createAdminMessages(AdminUser.java:32) at project.AdminUser.<init>(AdminUser.java:18) at project.AdminUser.main(AdminUser.java:47) it was a null poiinter exception

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't my form post when I disable the submit button to prevent double clicking?

    - by John MacIntyre
    Like every other web developer on the planet, I have an issue with users double clicking the submit button on my forms. My understanding is that the conventional way to handle this issue, is to disable the button immediately after the first click, however when I do this, it doesn't post. I did do some research on this, god knows there's enough information, but other questions like Disable button on form submission, disabling the button appears to work. The original poster of Disable button after submit appears to have had the same problem as me, but there is no mention on how/if he resolved it. Here's some code on how to repeat it (tested in IE8 Beta2, but had same problem in IE7) My aspx code <%@ Page Language="C#" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function btn_onClick() { var chk = document.getElementById("chk"); if(chk.checked) { var btn = document.getElementById("btn"); btn.disabled = true; } } </script> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Literal ID="lit" Text="--:--:--" runat="server" /> <br /> <asp:Button ID="btn" Text="Submit" runat="server" /> <br /> <input type="checkbox" id="chk" />Disable button on first click </form> </body> </html> My cs code using System; public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { base.OnInit(e); btn.Click += new EventHandler(btn_Click); btn.OnClientClick = "btn_onClick();"; } void btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { lit.Text = DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:mm:ss"); } } Notice that when you click the button, a postback occurs, and the time is updated. But when you check the check box, the next time you click the button, the button is disabled (as expected), but never does the postback. WHAT THE HECK AM I MISSING HERE??? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Are there any drawbacks to class-based Javascript injection?

    - by jonathanconway
    A phenomena I'm seeing more and more of is Javascript code that is tied to a particular element on a particular page, rather than being tied to kinds of elements or UI patterns. For example, say we had a couple of animated menus on a page: <ul id="top-navigation"> ... </ul> <!-- ... --> <ul id="product-list"> ... </ul> These two menus might exist on the same page or on different pages, and some pages mightn't have any menus. I'll often see Javascript code like this (for these examples, I'm using jQuery): $(document).ready(function() { $('ul#top-navigation').dropdownMenu(); $('ul#product-selector').dropdownMenu(); }); Notice the problem? The Javascript is tightly coupled to particular instances of a UI pattern rather than the UI pattern itself. Now wouldn't it be so much simpler (and cleaner) to do this instead? - $(document).ready(function() { $('ul.dropdown-menu').dropdownMenu(); }); Then we can put the 'dropdown-menu' class on our lists like so: <ul id="top-navigation" class="dropdown-menu"> ... </ul> <!-- ... --> <ul id="product-list" class="dropdown-menu"> ... </ul> This way of doing things would have the following benefits: Simpler Javascript - we only need to attach once to the class. We avoid looking for specific instances that mightn't exist on a given page. If we remove an element, we don't need to hunt through the Javascript to find the attach code for that element. I believe techniques similar to this were pioneered by certain articles on alistapart.com. I'm amazed these simple techniques still haven't gained widespread adoption, and I still see 'best-practice' code-samples and Javascript frameworks referring directly to UI instances rather than UI patterns. Is there any reason for this? Is there some big disadvantage to the technique I just described that I'm unaware of?

    Read the article

  • Best method for converting several sets of numbers with several different ratios

    - by C Patton
    I'm working on an open-source harm reduction application for opioid addicts. One of the features in this application is the conversion (in mg/mcg) between common opioids, so people don't overdose by accident. If you're morally against opioid addiction and wouldn't respond because of your morals, please consider that this application is for HARM REDUCTION.. So people don't end up dead. I have this data.. 3mg morphine IV = 10mcg fentanyl IV 2mg morphine oral = 1mg oxycodone oral 3mg oral morphine = 1mg oxymorphone oral 7.0mg morphine oral = 1mg hydromorphone oral 1mg morphine iv = .10mg oxymorphone iv 1mg morphine oral = 1mg hydrocodone oral 1mg morphine oral = 6.67mg codeine oral 1mg morphine oral = .10mg methadone oral And I have a textbox that is the source dosage in mg (a double) that the user can enter in. Underneath this, I have radio boxes for the source substance (ie: morphine) and the destination substance (ie oxycodone) for conversion.. I've been trying to think of the most efficient way to do this, but nearly every seems sloppy. If I were to do something like public static double MorphinetoOxycodone(string morphineValue) { double morphine = Double.Parse(morphineValue); return (morphine / 2 ); } I would also have to make a function for OxycodonetoMorphine, OxycodonetoCodeine, etc.. and then would end up with dozens functions.. There must be an easier way than this that I'm missing. If you'll notice, all of my conversions use morphine as the base value.. what might be the easiest way to use the morphine value to convert one opioid to another? For example, if 1mg morphine oral is equal to 1mg hydrocodone and 1mg morphine oral is equal to .10mg methadone, wouldn't I just multiply 1*.10 to get the hydrocodone-methadone value? Implementing this idea is what I'm having the most trouble with. Any help would be GREATLY appreciated.. and if you'd like, I would add your name/nickname to the credits in this program. It's possible that many, many people around the world will use this (I'm translating it into several languages as well) and to know that your work could've helped an addict from dying.. I think that's a great thing :) -cory

    Read the article

  • Is there a scheduling algorithm that optimizes for "maker's schedules"?

    - by John Feminella
    You may be familiar with Paul Graham's essay, "Maker's Schedule, Manager's Schedule". The crux of the essay is that for creative and technical professionals, meetings are anathema to productivity, because they tend to lead to "schedule fragmentation", breaking up free time into chunks that are too small to acquire the focus needed to solve difficult problems. In my firm we've seen significant benefits by minimizing the amount of disruption caused, but the brute-force algorithm we use to decide schedules is not sophisticated enough to handle scheduling large groups of people well. (*) What I'm looking for is if there's are any well-known algorithms which minimize this productivity disruption, among a group of N makers and managers. In our model, There are N people. Each person pi is either a maker (Mk) or a manager (Mg). Each person has a schedule si. Everyone's schedule is H hours long. A schedule consists of a series of non-overlapping intervals si = [h1, ..., hj]. An interval is either free or busy. Two adjacent free intervals are equivalent to a single free interval that spans both. A maker's productivity is maximized when the number of free intervals is minimized. A manager's productivity is maximized when the total length of free intervals is maximized. Notice that if there are no meetings, both the makers and the managers experience optimum productivity. If meetings must be scheduled, then makers prefer that meetings happen back-to-back, while managers don't care where the meeting goes. Note that because all disruptions are treated as equally harmful to makers, there's no difference between a meeting that lasts 1 second and a meeting that lasts 3 hours if it segments the available free time. The problem is to decide how to schedule M different meetings involving arbitrary numbers of the N people, where each person in a given meeting must place a busy interval into their schedule such that it doesn't overlap with any other busy interval. For each meeting Mt the start time for the busy interval must be the same for all parties. Does an algorithm exist to solve this problem or one similar to it? My first thought was that this looks really similar to defragmentation (minimize number of distinct chunks), and there are a lot of algorithms about that. But defragmentation doesn't have much to do with scheduling. Thoughts? (*) Practically speaking this is not really a problem, because it's rare that we have meetings with more than ~5 people at once, so the space of possibilities is small.

    Read the article

  • HTML5 Video Tag in Chrome - Why is currentTime ignored when video downloaded from my webserver?

    - by larson4
    I want to be able to play back video from a specific time using the HTML5 video tag (and currently only need to worry about Chrome). This is possible by setting the currentTime property of a video element. That works fine in Chrome with a video sourced from html5rocks.com, but is ignored when the same file is loaded from my own local webserver. Using the sample code from http://playground.html5rocks.com/#video_tag, I have arrived at the following HTML: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <body> <video id="video1" width="320" height="240" volume=".7" controls preload=true autobuffer> <source src="http://playground.html5rocks.com/samples/html5_misc/chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> </video> <input type=button onclick="play()" value="play"> <input type=button onclick="setTime()" value="setTime"> <input type=button onclick="pause()" value="pause"> <script> var play=function() { document.getElementById("video1").play(); } var setTime=function() { document.getElementById("video1").currentTime=2; } var pause=function() { document.getElementById("video1").pause(); } </script> </body> </html> Using Chrome, if you Wait for the video to download for a bit (until the progress bar is about 10% in) Press setTime - you should notice the time jump to 2 seconds press play ...the video will start at 2 seconds in. But if I download the webm file in the source src to my local webserver, and change src to point locally: <source src="chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> ...then setting currentTime is complete ignored. No errors are showing in the developer tools console. Now, my webserver is serving this with mime type "video/webm", but it will be served like any old file -- not streamed. Do I need a webserver that streams in some specific way? What else could be at fault here? Note: The webserver is a proprietary platform and won't have any of the same exact settings or controls one might expect of Tomcat or some other commonly used webserver, though there may be other ways to achieve the same effect.

    Read the article

  • Cannot execute "LOAD DATA LOCAL INFILE" Mysql query in Rails after a connection reconnection

    - by Ngan
    On Rails 2.3.8 (but I think Rails 3 might have this issue as well, not sure): I get an error when trying to execute a LOAD DATA LOCAL INFILE query after reconnecting to a database. I have a process that parses a file that can potentially take a bit of time. During the parsing, Mysql closes the connection due to timeout. This is fine, I do a ActiveRecord::Base.verify_active_connections! and I get the connection back (I do this in several places through my app). However, running a LOAD DATA LOCAL INFILE statement, I get this error: Mysql::Error: The used command is not allowed with this MySQL version It's not a permission issue, I know that for sure. Check out my test in console: ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute("LOAD DATA LOCAL INFILE '/tmp/test.infile' INTO TABLE users") [Sat Jan 08 00:09:29 2011] (9990) SQL (1.7ms) LOAD DATA LOCAL INFILE '/tmp/test.infile' INTO TABLE users => nil > ActiveRecord::Base.connection.disconnect! => #<Mysql:0x104c6f890> > ActiveRecord::Base.verify_active_connections! [Sat Jan 08 00:09:58 2011] (9990) SQL (0.2ms) SET SQL_AUTO_IS_NULL=0 => {...connection stuff...} > ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute("LOAD DATA LOCAL INFILE '/tmp/test.infile' INTO TABLE users") [Sat Jan 08 00:10:00 2011] (9990) SQL (0.0ms) Mysql::Error: The used command is not allowed with this MySQL version: LOAD DATA LOCAL INFILE '/tmp/test.infile' INTO TABLE users ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: Mysql::Error: The used command is not allowed with this MySQL version: LOAD DATA LOCAL INFILE '/tmp/test.infile' INTO TABLE users from ~/gems/activerecord-2.3.8/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/abstract_adapter.rb:221:in `log' from ~/gems/activerecord-2.3.8/lib/active_record/connection_adapters/mysql_adapter.rb:323:in `execute' from (irb):6 I am able to do other queries like SELECT and whatnot, and I will get the correct result. It's just this one that giving me the error. I even tested this with a fresh rails app. You'll notice that I am able to do the exact same query before the disconnect. Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Microsoft Word Document Controls not accepting carriage returns

    - by Scott
    So, I have a Microsoft Word 2007 Document with several Plain Text Format (I have tried Rich Text Format as well) controls which accept input via XML. For carriage returns, I had the string being passed through XML containing "\r\n" when I wanted a carriage return, but the word document ignored that and just kept wrapping things on the same line. I also tried replacing the \r\n with System.Environment.NewLine in my C# mapper, but that just put in \r\n anyway, which still didn't work. Note also that on the control itself I have set it to "Allow Carriage Returns (Multiple Paragrpahs)" in the control properties. This is the XML for the listMapper <Field id="32" name="32" fieldType="SimpleText"> <DataSelector path="/Data/DB/DebtProduct"> <InputField fieldType="" path="/Data/DB/Client/strClientFirm" link="" type=""/> <InputField fieldType="" path="strClientRefDebt" link="" type=""/> </DataSelector> <DataMapper formatString="{0} Account Number: {1}" name="SimpleListMapper" type=""> <MapperData> </MapperData> </DataMapper> </Field> Note that this is the listMapper C# where I actually map the list (notice where I try and append the system.environment.newline) namespace DocEngine.Core.DataMappers { public class CSimpleListMapper:CBaseDataMapper { public override void Fill(DocEngine.Core.Interfaces.Document.IControl control, CDataSelector dataSelector) { if (control != null && dataSelector != null) { ISimpleTextControl textControl = (ISimpleTextControl)control; IContent content = textControl.CreateContent(); CInputFieldCollection fileds = dataSelector.Read(Context); StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(); if (fileds != null) { foreach (List<string> lst in fileds) { if (CanMap(lst) == false) continue; if (builder.Length > 0 && lst[0].Length > 0) builder.Append(Environment.NewLine); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(FormatString)) builder.Append(lst[0]); else builder.Append(string.Format(FormatString, lst.ToArray())); } content.Value = builder.ToString(); textControl.Content = content; applyRules(control, null); } } } } } Does anybody have any clue at all how I can get MS Word 2007 (docx) to quit ignoring my newline characters??

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165  | Next Page >