Search Results

Search found 5224 results on 209 pages for 'modify'.

Page 170/209 | < Previous Page | 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177  | Next Page >

  • Using a CMS with an external database

    - by George Reith
    I am looking at building an external site with a CMS, probably Drupal or ExpressionEngine. The problem is that our company already has a membership database that is designed to work with our existing enterprise software. Migrating data from the database manually is not an option as modifications and new data must be accessible in real-time. Because the design of the external database will differ from the CMS's own I have decided the best way forward is to use two databases and force the CMS to use the external to read user information (cannot write to) and a local for everything else the CMS needs to do (read + write). Is this feasible with these Drupal or ExpressionEngine? Ideally I need to be able to use hooks as I do not wan't to modify core CMS files. Sifting through the docs I am not able to find what I would hook into for ether CMS. (Note: I know it is possible, but I want to know if it's feasible). Finally if there is a better way of handling this situation please also chime in. Perhaps there is something at the database level to reference a field or table in an external database? I'm clutching at straws someone can point me in the right direction I'm sure.

    Read the article

  • Connect Rails model to non-rails database

    - by the_snitch
    I'm creating a new web application (Rails 3 beta), of which pieces of it will access data from a legacy mysql database that a current php application is using. I do not wish to modify the legacy db schema, I just want to be able to read/write to it, as well as the rails application having it's own database using activerecord for the newer stuff. I'm using mysql for the rails app, so I have the adapter installed. How is the best way to do this? For example, I want contacts to come from the old database. Should I create a contacts controller, and manually call sql to get the variables for the views? Or should I create a Contact model, and define attributes that match the fields in the database, and am I able to use it like Contact.mail_address to have it call "SELECT mailaddr FROM contacts WHERE id=Contact.id". Sorry, I've never done much in Rails outside of the standard stuff that is documented well. I'm not sure of what the best approach would be. Ideally, I want the contacts to be presented to my rails application as native as possible, so that I can expose them RESTfully for API access. Any suggestions and code examples would be much appreciated

    Read the article

  • Conditionaly strip the last line from a text file

    - by fraXis
    Hello, I posted this yesterday on SO, and I received an answer that works great, but I need to change it around and I don't know how. Here is my original message: I need to strip the last line from a text file. I know how to open and save text files in C#, but how would I strip the last line of the text file? The text file will always be different sizes (some have 80 lines, some have 20). Can someone please show me how to do this? Here is the code that someone gave me to do this (which works fine) //Delete the last line from the file. This line could be 8174, 10000, or anything. This is from SO string tempfile = @"C:\junk_temp.txt"; using (StreamReader reader2 = new StreamReader(newfilename)) { using (StreamWriter writer2 = new StreamWriter(tempfile)) { string line = reader2.ReadLine(); while (!reader2.EndOfStream) { writer2.WriteLine(line); line = reader2.ReadLine(); } // by reading ahead, will not write last line to file } } File.Delete(newfilename); File.Move(tempfile, newfilename); File.Delete(tempfile); How would I change this to only delete the last line of the text file if it is a 4 or 5 digit string (such as 8001 or 99999). If it is anything other than that, such as a %, then I don't want to delete the last line. Can someone please modify the above code to do this for me? Thanks so much.

    Read the article

  • Keeping cached browser data inside ASP update panel textboxes/dropdowns for browser back click

    - by pmlevere
    I'm new in VB.net/asp and am running a VB web application in a visual database program called IronSpeed designer. I'm primarily using IronSpeed in this case for its login/role security features. I have a basic two page setup for this app. The user logs in then is taken to AccountEntry.aspx, they enter data into textboxes and select some dropdown values that are linked to a sql database, then they click "submit" to move to Results.aspx. On Results.aspx, the user can change data and then generate several types of reports (PDF, Excel, etc). I'm used to setting up ASP controls inside ASPContent areas, and in these areas if a user performs a browser back click the previously entered data will still be on the page for potential user modification. However in this web app, IronSpeed is setting up the page and asp controls inside an asp update panel. It appears inside an asp update panel, cached values can't be seen on a browser back click. In this case, it's important that the orginally entered values still be there for the user experience if the user advances to Results.aspx then clicks browser back to modify a value on AccountEntry.aspx. If I have to I'll setup Session Variables and disable browser clicking, but that is last resort. Is there any way to save cached data inside an asp update panel and have it there for a browser back click?

    Read the article

  • Using a join with three tables when a field might be null

    - by John
    Hello, The code below works great. It combines data from two MySQL tables. I would like to modify it by pulling in some data from a third MySQL table called "comment." In the HTML table below, "title" is a field in the MySQL table "submission." Every "title" has a corresponding "submissionid" field. The field "submissionid" is also found in the "comment" MySQL table. In the HTML table below, I would like "countComments" to equal the number of times a field called "commentid" appears in the MySQL table "comment" for any given "submissionid," where the "submissionid" is the same in both the "submission" and "comment" tables, and where the "submissionid" corresponds to the "title" being used. Here's the catch: if there is no row in the MySQL table "comment" that corresponds with the "submissionid" being used for "table", I would like "countComments" to equal to zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username FROM submission AS s, login AS l WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

    Read the article

  • how to make accessor for Dictionary in a way that returned Dictionary cannot be changed C# / 2.0

    - by matti
    I thought of solution below because the collection is very very small. But what if it was big? private Dictionary<string, OfTable> _folderData = new Dictionary<string, OfTable>(); public Dictionary<string, OfTable> FolderData { get { return new Dictionary<string,OfTable>(_folderData); } } With List you can make: public class MyClass { private List<int> _items = new List<int>(); public IList<int> Items { get { return _items.AsReadOnly(); } } } That would be nice! Thanks in advance, Cheers & BR - Matti NOW WHEN I THINK THE OBJECTS IN COLLECTION ARE IN HEAP. SO MY SOLUTION DOES NOT PREVENT THE CALLER TO MODIFY THEM!!! CAUSE BOTH Dictionary s CONTAIN REFERENCES TO SAME OBJECT. DOES THIS APPLY TO List EXAMPLE ABOVE? class OfTable { private string _wTableName; private int _table; private List<int> _classes; private string _label; public OfTable() { _classes = new List<int>(); } public int Table { get { return _table; } set { _table = value; } } public List<int> Classes { get { return _classes; } set { _classes = value; } } public string Label { get { return _label; } set { _label = value; } } } so how to make this immutable??

    Read the article

  • Tree deletion with NHibernate

    - by Tigraine
    Hi, I'm struggling with a little problem and starting to arrive at the conclusion it's simply not possible. I have a Table called Group. As with most of these systems Group has a ParentGroup and a Children collection. So the Table Group looks like this: Group -ID (PK) -Name -ParentId (FK) I did my mappings using FNH AutoMappings, but I had to override the defaults for this: p.References(x => x.Parent) .Column("ParentId") .Cascade.All(); p.HasMany(x => x.Children) .KeyColumn("ParentId") .ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Inverse(); Now, the general idea was to be able to delete a node and all of it's children to be deleted too by NH. So deleting the only root node should basically clear the whole table. I tried first with Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan but that works only for deletion of items from the Children collection, not deletion of the parent. Next I tried ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete so the operation gets delegated to the Database through on delete cascade. But once I do that MSSql2008 does not allow me to create this constraint, failing with : Introducing FOREIGN KEY constraint 'FKBA21C18E87B9D9F7' on table 'Group' may cause cycles or multiple cascade paths. Specify ON DELETE NO ACTION or ON UPDATE NO ACTION, or modify other FOREIGN KEY constraints. Well, and that's it for me. I guess I'll just loop through the children and delete them one by one, thus doing a N+1. If anyone has a suggestion on how do that more elegantly I'd be eager to hear it.

    Read the article

  • Incremental deploy from a shell script

    - by WishCow
    I have a project, where I'm forced to use ftp as a means of deploying the files to the live server. I'm developing on linux, so I hacked together a bash script that makes a backup of the ftp server's contents, deletes all the files on the ftp, and uploads all the fresh files from the mercurial repository. (and taking care of user uploaded files and folders, and making post-deploy changes, etc) It's working well, but the project is starting to get big enough to make the deployment process too long. I'd like to modify the script to look up which files have changed, and only deploy the modified files. (the backup is fine atm as it is) I'm using mercurial as a VCS, so my idea is to somehow request the changed files between two revisions from it, iterate over the changed files, and upload each modified file, and delete each removed file. I can use hg log -vr rev1:rev2, and from the output, I can carve out the changed files with grep/sed/etc. Two problems: I have heard the horror stories that parsing the output of ls leads to insanity, so my guess is that the same applies to here, if I try to parse the output of hg log, the variables will undergo word-splitting, and all kinds of transformations. hg log doesn't tell me a file is modified/added/deleted. Differentiating between modified and deleted files would be the least. So, what would be the correct way to do this? I'm using yafc as an ftp client, in case it's needed, but willing to switch.

    Read the article

  • How to develop Online Shopping Portal Application using PHP ?

    - by Sarang
    I do not know PHP & I have to develop a Shopping Portal with following Definition : Scenario: Online Shopping Portal XYZ.com wants to create an online shopping portal for managing its registered customers and their shopping. The customers need to register themselves first before they do shopping using the shopping portal. However, everyone, whether registered or not, can view the various products along with the prices listed in the portal. The registered customers, after logging in, are allowed to place order for one or more products from the products listed in the portal. Once the order is placed, the customer gets a reference order number and the order status should be “order in process”. The customers can track their order using the given reference number. The management of XYZ.com should be able to modify the order status of a particular reference order number to “shipped” once the products are shipped to the shipping address entered by the customer at the time of placing the order. The Functionalities required are : Create the interface for the XYZ.com shopping portal using HTML/XHTML and CSS. Implement the client side validations using JavaScript. Create the tables using MySQL. Implement the functionality using the server side scripting language, PHP. Integrate all the above tasks and make the XYZ.com shopping portal functional. How do I develop this application with following proper steps of development ?

    Read the article

  • Validating a value for a DataColumn

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hello! I'm using a DataGrid with edit functionalities in my project. It's handy, compared to having to edit its source data manually, but sadly, that means that I'll have to deal with validating user input a bit more. And my problem is basically just that. When I set my DataGrid to EDIT mode, modify the values and then set it to UPDATE, what is the best way to check if a value that I've entered is, in fact, compatible with the corresponding column's data type? i.e. (simple example) // assuming DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("aa",typeof(System.Int32)); DataGrid dg = new DataGrid(); dg.DataSource = dt; dg.DataBind(); dg.UpdateCommand += dg_Update; // this is the update handler protected void dg_Update(object src, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { string newValue = (someValueIEnteredInTextBox); // HOW DO I CHECK IF [newValue] IS COMPATIBLE WITH COLUMN "aa" ABOVE? dt.LoadDataRow(newValue, true); } Thanks guys. Any leads would be so much help.

    Read the article

  • Host WCF in MVC2 Site

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We've got a very large, complex MVC2 website. We want to add an API for some internal tools and decided to use WCF. Ideally, we want MVC itself to host the WCF service. Reasons include: Although there's multiple tiers to the application, some functionality we'd like in the API requires the website itself (e.g. formatting emails). We use TFS to auto-build (continuous integration) and deploy - The less we need to modify the build and release mechanism the better We use the Unity container and Inversion of Control throughout the application. Being part of the Website would allow us to re-use configuration classes and other helper methods. I've written a custom ServiceBehavior which in turn has a custom InstanceProvider - This allows me to instantiate and configure a container which is then used to service all requests for class instances from WCF. So my question is; Is it possible to host a WCF service from within MVC itself? I've only had experience in Services / Standard Asp.Net websites before and didn't realise MVC2 might be different until I actually tried to wire it into the config and nothing happened. After some googling, there don't seem to be many references to doing this - so thought I'd ask here.

    Read the article

  • Rewarding iOS app beta testers with in app purchase?

    - by Partridge
    My iOS app is going to be free, but with additional functionality enabled via in app purchase. Currently beta testers are doing a great job finding bugs and I want to reward them for their hard work. I think the least I can do is give them a full version of the app so that they don't have to buy the functionality themselves. However, I'm not sure what the best way to do this is. There do not appear to be promo codes for in app purchase so I can't just email out promo codes. I have all the tester device UDIDs so when the app launches I could grab the device UDID and compare it to an internal list of 'approved' UDIDs. Is this what other developers do? My concerns: The in app purchase content would not be tied to their iTunes account, so if beta testers move to a new device they would not be able to enable the content unless I released a new build in the app store with their new UDID. So they may have to buy it eventually anyway. Having an internal list leaves a hole for hackers to modify the list and add themselves to it. What would you do?

    Read the article

  • Preventing ActiveRecord save() on an instance

    - by Craig Walker
    I have an ActiveRecord model object Foo; it represents a standard database row. I want to be able to display modified versions of instances of this object. I'd like to reuse the class itself, as it already has all the hooks & aspects I'll need. (For example: I already have a view that displays the appropriate attributes). Basically I want to clone the model instance, modify some of its properties, and feed it back to the caller (view, test, etc). I do not want these attribute modifications getting back into the database. However, I do want to include the id attribute in the cloned version, as it makes dealing with the route-helpers much easier. Thus, I plan on calling ActiveRecord::Base.clone(), manually setting the ID of the cloned instance, and then making the appropriate attribute changes to the new instance. This has me worried though; one save() on the modified instance and my original data will get clobbered. So, I'm looking to lock down the new instance so that it won't hurt anything else. I'm already planning on calling freeze() (on the understanding that this prevents further modification to the object, though the documentation isn't terribly clear). However, I don't see any obvious way to prevent a save(). What would be the best approach to achieving this?

    Read the article

  • Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

    - by getit
    Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

    Read the article

  • Makefile - Dependency generation

    - by Profetylen
    I am trying to create a makefile that automatically compiles and links my .cpp files into an executable via .o files. What I can't get working is automated (or even manual) dependency generation. When i uncomment the below commented code, nothing is recompiled when i run make build. All i get is make: Nothing to be done for 'build'., even if x.h (or any .h file) has changed. I've been trying to learn from this question: Makefile, header dependencies, dmckee's answer, especially. Why isn't this makefile working? Clarification: I can compile everything, but when I modify any header file, the .cpp files that depend on it aren't updated. So, if I for instance compile my entire source, then I change a #define in the header file, and then run make build, and I get Nothing to be done for 'build'. (when I have uncommented either commented chunks of the below code). CC=gcc CFLAGS=-O2 -Wall LDFLAGS=-lSDL -lstdc++ SOURCES=$(wildcard *.cpp) OBJECTS=$(patsubst %.cpp, obj/%.o,$(SOURCES)) TARGET=bin/test.bin # Nothing happens when i uncomment the following. (automated attempt) #depend: .depend # #.depend: $(SOURCES) # rm -f ./.depend # $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -MM $^ >> ./.depend; # #include .depend # And nothing happens when i uncomment the following. x.cpp and x.h are files in my project. (manual attempt) #x.o: x.cpp x.h clean: rm -f $(TARGET) rm -f $(OBJECTS) run: build ./$(TARGET) debug: build nm $(TARGET) gdb $(TARGET) build: $(TARGET) $(TARGET): $(OBJECTS) @mkdir -p $(@D) $(CC) $(LDFLAGS) $(OBJECTS) -o $@ obj/%.o: %.cpp @mkdir -p $(@D) $(CC) -c $(CFLAGS) $< -o $@ include $(DEPENDENCIES)

    Read the article

  • How to avoid hard coding credentials into Sharepoint webpart?

    - by SeeBees
    I am building a Sharepoint web part that will be used by all users. The web part connects to a web service which needs credentials with higher privileges than common users. I hard coded credentials in the web part's code. query.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain"); query is an instance of the web service class This may not be a good approach. In regard with security, source code of the web apart is available to people who are not allowed to see the credential. This is bad enough, But is there any other drawback of this approach? A web part doesn't have a .config file associated. The .config file is in application-level of the sharepoint site, and I don't want to modify it for a single webpart. I wonder if there is a webpart-specific way to solve this problem? Say provide a WebBrowsable property to an admin so that he/she can set credentials. Is this possible? Thanks

    Read the article

  • font-size/font-family has no effect

    - by kman
    This is a related issue to my previous question. I have modified the code suggested for preface headings to modify the p tags underneath the headings. <xsl:template match="topic[title='Preface']/body/section/p"> <fo:block xsl:use-attribute-sets="preface.p"> <xsl:apply-imports/> </fo:block> </xsl:template> <xsl:attribute-set name="preface.p"> <xsl:attribute name="font-family">Helvetica</xsl:attribute> <xsl:attribute name="color">red</xsl:attribute> <xsl:attribute name="font-size">8pt</xsl:attribute> </xsl:attribute-set> The color changes the desired text - and only the desired text, so I know it is grabbing the correct nodes. However, the font family and size have no effect. Does anyone know of anything I can check that might be over-riding the code?

    Read the article

  • Simple POSIX threads question

    - by Andy
    Hi, I have this POSIX thread: void subthread(void) { while(!quit_thread) { // do something ... // don't waste cpu cycles if(!quit_thread) usleep(500); } // free resources ... // tell main thread we're done quit_thread = FALSE; } Now I want to terminate subthread() from my main thread. I've tried the following: quit_thread = TRUE; // wait until subthread() has cleaned its resources while(quit_thread); But it does not work! The while() clause does never exit although my subthread clearly sets quit_thread to FALSE after having freed its resources! If I modify my shutdown code like this: quit_thread = TRUE; // wait until subthread() has cleaned its resources while(quit_thread) usleep(10); Then everything is working fine! Could someone explain to me why the first solution does not work and why the version with usleep(10) suddenly works? I know that this is not a pretty solution. I could use semaphores/signals for this but I'd like to learn something about multithreading, so I'd like to know why my first solution doesn't work. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Set service dependencies after install

    - by Dennis
    I have an application that runs as a Windows service. It stores various things settings in a database that are looked up when the service starts. I built the service to support various types of databases (SQL Server, Oracle, MySQL, etc). Often times end users choose to configure the software to use SQL Server (they can simply modify a config file with the connection string and restart the service). The problem is that when their machine boots up, often times SQL Server is started after my service so my service errors out on start up because it can't connect to the database. I know that I can specify dependencies for my service to help guide the Windows service manager to start the appropriate services before mine. However, I don't know what services to depend upon at install time (when my service is registered) since the user can change databases later on. So my question is: is there a way for the user to manually indicate the service dependencies based on the database that they are using? If not, what is the proper design approach that I should be taking? I've thought about trying to do something like wait 30 seconds after my service starts up before connecting to the database but this seems really flaky for various reasons. I've also considered trying to "lazily" connect to the database; the problem is that I need a connection immediately upon start up since the database contains various pieces of vital info that my service needs when it first starts. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Deployment of SQL Server: installing a second instance?

    - by Workshop Alex
    Simple problem. I'm working on a Delphi 2007/WIN32 application which now uses MS Access as simple data store. I have to modify it to support SQL Server Express, which is easy. These modifications are working so the application can be deployed using either SQL Server or MS Access. (Whatever the user prefers.) I did consider deploying the whole application together with the SQL Compact but this is not practicak. Using SQL Server Express 2008 instead of 2005 is an option, but also has a few nasty side-effects which we don't want to resolve for now. The problem is deploying the whole project. The installation with SQL Server would need a quiet installation so the user won't notice it. SQL Server is mentioned in the documentation so they know it's there. We just don't want to bother them with technical issues. In most cases, such an installation will go just fine. But what if the user already has an SQL Server (2005) installation which is used for something else? Personally, I would prefer to just install a second instance of SQL Server on their system so it won't conflict with the other installation. (Thus, if they uninstall the other app, the SQL instance will just stay installed.) While SQL Server 2005 and 2008 can be installed on the same system simply by using two different names for the instance, I wonder if it's also possible to install SQL Server 2005 twice on a single system to get two instances. And if possible, how?

    Read the article

  • How to change the meaning of pointer access operator

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, This may be very obvious question, pardon me if so. I have below code snippet out of my project, #include <stdio.h> class X { public: int i; X() : i(0) {}; }; int main(int argc,char *arv[]) { X *ptr = new X[10]; unsigned index = 5; cout<<ptr[index].i<<endl; return 0; } Question Can I change the meaning of the ptr[index] ? Because I need to return the value of ptr[a[index]] where a is an array for subindexing. I do not want to modify existing source code. Any new function added which can change the behavior is needed. Since the access to index operator is in too many places (536 to be precise) in my code, and has complex formulas inside the index subscript operator, I am not inclined to change the code in many locations. PS : 1. I tried operator overload and came to conclusion that it is not possible. 2. Also p[i] will be transformed into *(p+i). I cannot redefine the basic operator '+'. So just want to reconfirm my understanding and if there are any possible short-cuts to achieve. Else I need fix it by royal method of changing every line of code :) .

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - hiding id in URL?

    - by mcfroob
    I'm building a basic blog application just now, for viewing data I'm just using the default route, i.e. - routes.MapRoute ( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); So that when you go to mysite.com/View/12 it displays the blog with id 12. I want to modify the URLs so that they look as follows: mysite.com/View/2010/06/01/this-is-the-title. I could have a URL mapping like - routes.MapRoute( "View", "View/{year}/{month}/{day}/{title}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "View" } ); But then I'm not passing the ID into the Controller action so I would have to search on the date and title which doesn't feel right. On the other hand, if I pass the ID in it will show up in the URL which isn't what I'm aiming for either. Is there any way to redirect to the URL I want in the controller action after passing only the ID in as a paramter, or to pass the ID into the a Map Route but hide it in the URL? Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • wordpress 500 - Internal server error

    - by asad
    Hello Folks , I installed the wordpress 2.9.2 a few days ago and it works correctly. today , i want to use permlink feature of wordpress. I know , must modify my .htaccess file on my site root. but on my sub-domain root there is no any .htaccess file . so i create my .htacess file with follow content on sub-domain root (near index.php file): <files .htaccess> order allow,deny deny from all </files> ServerSignature Off <files wp-config.php> order allow,deny deny from all </files> # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress Options All -Indexes AddType x-mapp-php5 .php AddHandler x-mapp-php5 .php But after save it , i missed my blog . And i get follow error : 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. after this i remove the .htaccess file , but this was not correct. What i can do for it? Cheers

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net Session Storage provider in 3-layer architecture

    - by Tedd Hansen
    I'm implementing a custom session storage provider in ASP.Net. We have a strict 3-layer architecture and therefore the session storage needs to go through the business layer. Presentation-Business-Database. The business layer is accessed through WPF. The database is MSSQL. What I need is (in order of preference): A commercial/free/open source product that solves this. The source code of a SqlSessionStateStore (custom session store) (not the ODBC-sample on MSDN) that I can modify to use a middle layer. I've tried looking at .Net source through Reflector, but the code is not usable. Note: I understand how to do this. I am looking for working samples, preferably that has been proven to work fine under heavy load. The ODBC sample on MSDN doesn't use the (new?) stored procs that the build in SqlSessionStateStore uses - I'd like to use these if possible (decreases traffic). Edit1: To answer Simons question on more info: ASP.Net Session()-object can be stored in either InProc, ASP.Net State Service or SQL-server. In a secure 3-layer model the presentation layer (web server) does not have direct/physical access to the database layer (SQL-server). And even without the physical limitations, from an architectural standpoint you may not want this. InProc and ASP.Net State Service does not support load balancing and doesn't have fault tolerance. Therefore the only option is to access SQL through webservice middle layer (business layer).

    Read the article

  • Strange behaviour of CheckBox and TwoWay bound property

    - by walkor
    Hello, everyone. I fell in the following situation: I have a main UserControl with a DataGrid (which contains List). I need to show different panels depending on properties of the selected row(object). So i've created 2 controls and included them into this main control. Main control has 2 public properties - public List<ComplexObject> SourceList { get; set; } and public ComplexObject CurrentObject { get; set; } Pseudo-code: <UserControl x:Name="Main"> <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding SourceList}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentObject, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <Controls:RightPanelFirst Visibility="condition2"/> <Controls:RightPanelSecond Visibility="condition2"/> </UserControl> RightPanelFirst and RightPanelSecond have the following xaml: <UserControl> <... content here...> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty1, Mode=TwoWay}"> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding CurrentObject.ComplexProperty.SimpleProperty2, Mode=TwoWay}" x:Name="cbSecond"> <TextBox IsEnabled="{Binding IsChecked, ElementName=cbSecond}"/> </UserControl> So, my actual steps: Check both checkboxes (object values are set to true) Make other actions in code behind which modify CurrentObject. Then i want UI to reflect the changes, so I call NotifyPropertyChanged("CurrentObject"); SimpleProperty1 remains the same, but SimpleProperty2 resets to false I have no idea why this happens, can anyone help me please? Silverlight drives me mad.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177  | Next Page >