Search Results

Search found 5224 results on 209 pages for 'modify'.

Page 170/209 | < Previous Page | 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177  | Next Page >

  • Android: Adding header to dynamic listView

    - by cg5572
    I'm still pretty new to android coding, and trying to figure things out. I'm creating a listview dynamically as shown below (and then disabling items dynamically also) - you'll notice that there's no xml file for the activity itself, just for the listitem. What I'd like to do is add a static header to the page. Could someone explain to me how I can modify the code below to EITHER add this programatically within the java file, before the listView, OR edit the code below so that it targets a listView within an xml file! Help would be much appreciated!!! public class Start extends ListActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); DataBaseHelper myDbHelper = new DataBaseHelper(null); myDbHelper = new DataBaseHelper(this); try { myDbHelper.openDataBase(); }catch(SQLException sqle){ throw sqle; } ArrayList<String> categoryList = new ArrayList<String>(); Cursor cur = myDbHelper.getAllCategories(); cur.moveToFirst(); while (cur.isAfterLast() == false) { if (!categoryList.contains(cur.getString(1))) { categoryList.add(cur.getString(1)); } cur.moveToNext(); } cur.close(); Collections.sort(categoryList); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.listitem, categoryList) { @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View view = super.getView(position, convertView, parent); if(Arrays.asList(checkArray3).contains(String.valueOf(position))){ view.setEnabled(false); } else { view.setEnabled(true); } return view; } }); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { if(v.isEnabled()) { String clickedCat = l.getItemAtPosition(position).toString(); Toast.makeText(this, clickedCat, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); finish(); Intent myIntent = new Intent(getApplicationContext(), Questions.class); myIntent.putExtra("passedCategory", clickedCat); myIntent.putExtra("startTrigger", "go"); startActivity(myIntent); } } }

    Read the article

  • Tree deletion with NHibernate

    - by Tigraine
    Hi, I'm struggling with a little problem and starting to arrive at the conclusion it's simply not possible. I have a Table called Group. As with most of these systems Group has a ParentGroup and a Children collection. So the Table Group looks like this: Group -ID (PK) -Name -ParentId (FK) I did my mappings using FNH AutoMappings, but I had to override the defaults for this: p.References(x => x.Parent) .Column("ParentId") .Cascade.All(); p.HasMany(x => x.Children) .KeyColumn("ParentId") .ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Inverse(); Now, the general idea was to be able to delete a node and all of it's children to be deleted too by NH. So deleting the only root node should basically clear the whole table. I tried first with Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan but that works only for deletion of items from the Children collection, not deletion of the parent. Next I tried ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete so the operation gets delegated to the Database through on delete cascade. But once I do that MSSql2008 does not allow me to create this constraint, failing with : Introducing FOREIGN KEY constraint 'FKBA21C18E87B9D9F7' on table 'Group' may cause cycles or multiple cascade paths. Specify ON DELETE NO ACTION or ON UPDATE NO ACTION, or modify other FOREIGN KEY constraints. Well, and that's it for me. I guess I'll just loop through the children and delete them one by one, thus doing a N+1. If anyone has a suggestion on how do that more elegantly I'd be eager to hear it.

    Read the article

  • How can I modified the value of a string defined in a struc?

    - by Eric
    Hi, I have the following code in c++: define TAM 4000 define NUMPAGS 512 struct pagina { bitset<12 direccion; char operacion; char permiso; string *dato; int numero; }; void crearPagina(pagina* pag[], int pos, int dir) { pagina * paginas = (pagina*)malloc(sizeof(char) * TAM); paginas - direccion = bitset<12 (dir); paginas - operacion = 'n'; paginas - permiso = 'n'; string **tempDato = &paginas - dato; char *temp = " "; **tempDato = temp; paginas - numero = 0; pag[pos] = paginas; } I want to modify the value of the variable called "string *dato" in the struct pagina but, everytime I want to assing a new value, the compiler throws a segmentation fault. In this case I'm using a pointer to string, but I have also tried with a string. In a few words I want to do the following: pagina - dato = "test"; Any idea? Thanks in advance!!!

    Read the article

  • Which open source repository or version control systems store files' original mtime, ctime and atime

    - by sampablokuper
    I want to create a personal digital archive. I want to be able to check digital files (some several years old, some recent, some not yet created) into that archive and have them preserved, along with their metadata such as ctime, atime and mtime. I want to be able to check these files out of that archive, modify their contents and commit the changes back to the archive, while keeping the earlier commits and their metadata intact. I want the archive to be very reliable and secure, and able to be backed up remotely. I want to be able to check files in and out of the archive from PCs running Linux, Mac OS X 10.5+ or Win XP+. I want to be able to check files in and out of the archive from PCs with RAM capacities lower than the size of the files. E.g. I want to be able to check in/out a 13GB file using a PC with 2GB RAM. I thought Subversion could do all this, but apparently it can't. (At least, it couldn't a couple of years ago and as far as I know it still can't; correct me if I'm wrong.) Is there a libre VCS or similar capable of all these things? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Force windows video driver reload. Is it possible at all?

    - by somemorebytes
    Hi there, Some drivers use parameters written in the registry to configure themselves when they get loaded at boot time. I can modify those values and then reboot, but I would like to know if it is possible to force the driver reload, making the changes effective without rebooting. Specifically, I am talking about the video driver (nvidia). I read somewhere, that calling through pINvoke() [User32.ll]::ChangeDisplaySettings() with a 640x480x8bits resolution,(which is so low that it should not be supported by a modern driver) will force windows to load the "Standard VGA driver", and making another call with the current resolution will load the nvidia driver again. This does not work though. At least in Windows 7, even if the low res is not displayed as "supported" the system reduces the screen to a little square in the center of the screen, showing the low res wihtout unloading the nvidia driver. So, is there any .NET/Win32 API, service to restart, or any way at all to force a video driver reload? Perhaps programatically disabling the device (as you could do from the Device Manager) and reenabling it again? Any idea? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Running unittest with typical test directory structure.

    - by Major Major
    The very common directory structure for even a simple Python module seems to be to separate the unit tests into their own test directory: new_project/ antigravity/ antigravity.py test/ test_antigravity.py setup.py etc. for example see this Python project howto. My question is simply What's the usual way of actually running the tests? I suspect this is obvious to everyone except me, but you can't just run python test_antigravity.py from the test directory as its import antigravity will fail as the module is not on the path. I know I could modify PYTHONPATH and other search path related tricks, but I can't believe that's the simplest way - it's fine if you're the developer but not realistic to expect your users to use if they just want to check the tests are passing. The other alternative is just to copy the test file into the other directory, but it seems a bit dumb and misses the point of having them in a separate directory to start with. So, if you had just downloaded the source to my new project how would you run the unit tests? I'd prefer an answer that would let me say to my users: "To run the unit tests do X."

    Read the article

  • What would you write in a Constitution (law book) for a programmers' country? [closed]

    - by Developer Art
    After we have got our great place to talk about professional matters and sozialize online - on SO, I believe the next logical step would be to found our own country! I invite you all to participate and bring together your available resources. We will buy an island, better even a group of islands so that we could establish states like .NET territories, Java land, Linux republic etc. We will build a society of programmers (girls - we need you too). To the organizational side, we're going to need some sort of a Constitution or a law book. I suggest we write it together. I make it a wiki as it should be a cooperative effort. I'll open the work. Section 1. Programmers' rights. Every citizen has a right to an Internet connection 24/7. Every citizen can freely choose the field of interest Section 2. Programmers' obligations. Every citizen must embrace the changing nature of the profession and constanly educate himself Section 3. Law enforcement. Code duplication when can be avoided is punished by limiting the bandwith speed to 64Kbit for a period of one week. Using ugly hacks instead of refactoring code is punished by cutting the Internet connection for a period of one month. Usage of technologies older than 5/10 years is punished by restricting the web access to the sites last updated 5/10 years ago for a period of one month. Please feel free to modify and extend the list. We'll need to have it ready before we proceed formally with the country foundation. A purchase fund will be established shortly. Everyone is invited to participate.

    Read the article

  • how to make accessor for Dictionary in a way that returned Dictionary cannot be changed C# / 2.0

    - by matti
    I thought of solution below because the collection is very very small. But what if it was big? private Dictionary<string, OfTable> _folderData = new Dictionary<string, OfTable>(); public Dictionary<string, OfTable> FolderData { get { return new Dictionary<string,OfTable>(_folderData); } } With List you can make: public class MyClass { private List<int> _items = new List<int>(); public IList<int> Items { get { return _items.AsReadOnly(); } } } That would be nice! Thanks in advance, Cheers & BR - Matti NOW WHEN I THINK THE OBJECTS IN COLLECTION ARE IN HEAP. SO MY SOLUTION DOES NOT PREVENT THE CALLER TO MODIFY THEM!!! CAUSE BOTH Dictionary s CONTAIN REFERENCES TO SAME OBJECT. DOES THIS APPLY TO List EXAMPLE ABOVE? class OfTable { private string _wTableName; private int _table; private List<int> _classes; private string _label; public OfTable() { _classes = new List<int>(); } public int Table { get { return _table; } set { _table = value; } } public List<int> Classes { get { return _classes; } set { _classes = value; } } public string Label { get { return _label; } set { _label = value; } } } so how to make this immutable??

    Read the article

  • How to hide the title bar while application is loading and show it when it finishes loading?

    - by Arci
    I have an application which uses a custom title bar. However, when my application launches, I noticed that the default title bar is shown for a brief period of time. My problem is I don't want to show the default title bar while my application is loading. How do I hide the title bar while my application is loading so that there will be no hint of it and then show it afterwards? So far, I tried the following solutions but none have worked: Hide the title bar in XML and then set the custom title bar in code. (Problem encountered: I received an error message saying: "You cannot combine custom titles with other title features".) In XML: <item name="android:windowNoTitle">true</item> In onCreate method: requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE); //... some code goes here getWindow().setFeatureInt(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE, R.layout.title_header); Set the size of the title bar in XML to 0. Then change it's size via code later. (Problem encountered: I don't know how to set the size of title bar in code. Is it possible? I tried getWindow().setAttributes() and getWindow().setLayout() but both of them didn't worked.)" In XML: <item name="android:windowTitleSize">30dp</item> Modify windowTitleBackgroundStyle and set a transparent drawable as background. (Problem encountered: The content of the title bar became invisible but a line below the title bar is still visible.) In XML: <!-- style used by windowTitleBackgroundStyle --> <item name="android:background">@drawable/transparent</item>

    Read the article

  • Host WCF in MVC2 Site

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We've got a very large, complex MVC2 website. We want to add an API for some internal tools and decided to use WCF. Ideally, we want MVC itself to host the WCF service. Reasons include: Although there's multiple tiers to the application, some functionality we'd like in the API requires the website itself (e.g. formatting emails). We use TFS to auto-build (continuous integration) and deploy - The less we need to modify the build and release mechanism the better We use the Unity container and Inversion of Control throughout the application. Being part of the Website would allow us to re-use configuration classes and other helper methods. I've written a custom ServiceBehavior which in turn has a custom InstanceProvider - This allows me to instantiate and configure a container which is then used to service all requests for class instances from WCF. So my question is; Is it possible to host a WCF service from within MVC itself? I've only had experience in Services / Standard Asp.Net websites before and didn't realise MVC2 might be different until I actually tried to wire it into the config and nothing happened. After some googling, there don't seem to be many references to doing this - so thought I'd ask here.

    Read the article

  • Using a join with three tables when a field might be null

    - by John
    Hello, The code below works great. It combines data from two MySQL tables. I would like to modify it by pulling in some data from a third MySQL table called "comment." In the HTML table below, "title" is a field in the MySQL table "submission." Every "title" has a corresponding "submissionid" field. The field "submissionid" is also found in the "comment" MySQL table. In the HTML table below, I would like "countComments" to equal the number of times a field called "commentid" appears in the MySQL table "comment" for any given "submissionid," where the "submissionid" is the same in both the "submission" and "comment" tables, and where the "submissionid" corresponds to the "title" being used. Here's the catch: if there is no row in the MySQL table "comment" that corresponds with the "submissionid" being used for "table", I would like "countComments" to equal to zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username FROM submission AS s, login AS l WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

    Read the article

  • Make a <div> disappear inside a javascript script

    - by KeenClock
    First of all, I have this line of code on a random page : <script type="text/javascript" src="script.php"></script> On the page named "script.php", I have a <div class="something">random text</div> and the random text is displayed and everything is working fine. Now, I would like to know if it's possible to make that specific <div> to disappear without having to modify the code inside the "script.php" page. Thank you ! Edit: Thank you to all of you, you helped me found a solution, here is an example : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="fr" lang="fr"><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Random page</title> <style type="text/css"> div.something { font-family: Tahoma; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: underline; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function hideSomething() { document.getElementsByClassName("something")[2].style.display = "none"; } </script> </head> <body> <div class="something">random text 1</div> <div class="something">random text 2</div> <div class="something">random text 3</div> <br /><input type="submit" value="Disappear" onclick="hideSomething()" /> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Deployment of SQL Server: installing a second instance?

    - by Workshop Alex
    Simple problem. I'm working on a Delphi 2007/WIN32 application which now uses MS Access as simple data store. I have to modify it to support SQL Server Express, which is easy. These modifications are working so the application can be deployed using either SQL Server or MS Access. (Whatever the user prefers.) I did consider deploying the whole application together with the SQL Compact but this is not practicak. Using SQL Server Express 2008 instead of 2005 is an option, but also has a few nasty side-effects which we don't want to resolve for now. The problem is deploying the whole project. The installation with SQL Server would need a quiet installation so the user won't notice it. SQL Server is mentioned in the documentation so they know it's there. We just don't want to bother them with technical issues. In most cases, such an installation will go just fine. But what if the user already has an SQL Server (2005) installation which is used for something else? Personally, I would prefer to just install a second instance of SQL Server on their system so it won't conflict with the other installation. (Thus, if they uninstall the other app, the SQL instance will just stay installed.) While SQL Server 2005 and 2008 can be installed on the same system simply by using two different names for the instance, I wonder if it's also possible to install SQL Server 2005 twice on a single system to get two instances. And if possible, how?

    Read the article

  • How to Implement Backbone Java Logic Code into Android

    - by lord_sneed
    I wrote a program to work from the console in Eclipse and the terminal window in Linux. I am now transforming it into an Android app and I have the basic functionality of the Android UI done up until the point where it needs to use the logic from the Java file of the program I wrote. All of my inputs from the Java file are currently from the keyboard (from Scanners). My question is: how do I transform this to get it work with the user interaction of the app? The only input would be from the built in NumberPicker. Should I copy and paste the code from the Java program to the activity file in the onCreate method and change all of the input methods (Scanners) to work with the Android input? Or do I create variables in the activity file and pass them to the Java program (in the separate class)? (If so, how would I do that? the Java file starts from the main method: public static void main(String[] args) {) Also, will the print statements I have, System.out.println(...);, translate directly into the Android UI and print on the screen or do I have to modify those?

    Read the article

  • Core jQuery event modification problem

    - by DSKVR
    I am attempting to overwrite a core jQuery event, in this case the keydown event. My intention is to preventDefault() functionality of Left(37), Up(38), Right(39) and Down(40) to maintain the consistency of hot keys in my web application. I am using the solution provided here for the conditional charCode preventDefault problem. For some reason, my function overwrite is simply not firing, and I cannot put my finger on the problem. I am afraid that over the past 30 minutes this issue has resulted in some hair loss. Anybody have the remedy? /* Modify Keydown Event to prevent default PageDown and PageUp functionality */ (function(){ var charCodes = new Array(37,38,39,40); var original = jQuery.fn.keydown; jQuery.fn.keydown = function(e){ var key=e.charCode ? e.charCode : e.keyCode ? e.keyCode : 0; alert('now why is my keydown mod not firing?'); if($.inArray(key,charCodes)) { alert('is one of them, do not scroll page'); e.preventDefault(); return false; } original.apply( this, arguments ); } })();

    Read the article

  • Why it's important to specify the complete class name in your association when using namespaces

    - by Carmine Paolino
    In my Rails application there is a model that has some has_one associations (this is a fabricated example): class Person::Admin < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :person_monthly_revenue has_one :dude_monthly_niceness accepts_nested_attributes_for :person_monthly_revenue, :dude_monthly_niceness end class Person::MonthlyRevenue < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person_admin end class Dude::MonthlyNiceness < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person_admin end The application talks to a backend that computes some data and returns a piece of JSON like this: { "dude_monthly_niceness": { "february": 1.1153232569518972, "october": 1.1250217200558268, "march": 1.3965786869658541, "august": 1.6293418014601631, "september": 1.4062771500697835, "may": 1.7166279693955291, "january": 1.0086401628086725, "june": 1.5711510228365859, "april": 1.5614525597326563, "december": 0.99894169970474289, "july": 1.7263264324994585, "november": 0.95044938418509506 }, "person_monthly_revenue": { "february": 10.585596551505297, "october": 10.574823016656749, "march": 9.9125274764852787, "august": 9.2111604702328922, "september": 9.7905249446675153, "may": 9.1329712474607962, "january": 10.479614016604238, "june": 9.3710235926961936, "april": 9.5897372624830304, "december": 10.052587677671438, "july": 8.9508877843925561, "november": 10.925339756096172 }, } To deserialize it, I use ActiveRecord's from_json, but instead of a Person::Admin object with all the associations in place, I get this error: >> Person::Admin.new.from_json(json) NameError: uninitialized constant Person::Admin::DudeMonthlyNiceness Am I doing something wrong? Is there a better way to deserialize data? (I can modify the backend easily) UPDATE: the original title was "How to deserialize from json to ActiveRecord objects with associations?" but it ended up being my mistake in specifying associations so I changed the title.

    Read the article

  • What can I do to get Mozilla Firefox to preload the eventual image result?

    - by Dalal
    I am attempting to preload images using JavaScript. I have declared an array as follows with image links from different places: var imageArray = new Array(); imageArray[0] = new Image(); imageArray[1] = new Image(); imageArray[2] = new Image(); imageArray[3] = new Image(); imageArray[0].src = "http://www.bollywoodhott.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/12/arjun-rampal.jpg"; imageArray[1].src = "http://labelleetleblog.files.wordpress.com/2009/06/josie-maran.jpg"; imageArray[2].src = "http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_22EXDJCJp3s/SxbIcZHTHTI/AAAAAAAAIXc/fkaDiOKjd-I/s400/black-male-model.jpg"; imageArray[3].src = "http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg"; The image fade and transformation effects that I am doing using this array work properly for the first 3 images, but for the last one, imageArray[3], the actual image data of the image does not get preloaded and it completely ruins the effect, since the actual image data loads AFTERWARDS, only at the time it needs to be displayed, it seems. This happens because the last link http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg is not a direct link to the image. If you go to that link, your browser will redirect you to the ACTUAL location. Now, my image preloading code in Chrome works perfectly well, and the effects look great. Because it seems that Chrome preloads the actual data - the EVENTUAL image that is to be shown. This means that in Chrome if I preloaded an image that will redirect to 'stop stealing my bandwidth', then the image that gets preloaded is 'stop stealing my bandwidth'. How can I modify my code to get Firefox to behave the same way?

    Read the article

  • Best way to determine variable type and treat each one differently in F#

    - by James Black
    I have a function that will create a select where clause, but right now everything has to be a string. I would like to look at the variable passed in and determine what type it is and then treat it properly. For example, numeric values don't have single quotes around them, option type will either be null or have some value and boolean will actually be zero or one. member self.BuildSelectWhereQuery (oldUser:'a) = let properties = List.zip oldUser.ToSqlValuesList sqlColumnList let init = false, new StringBuilder() let anyChange, (formatted:StringBuilder) = properties |> Seq.fold (fun (anyChange, sb) (oldVal, name) -> match(anyChange) with | true -> true, sb.AppendFormat(" AND {0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) | _ -> true, sb.AppendFormat("{0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) ) init formatted.ToString() Here is one entity: type CityType() = inherit BaseType() let mutable name = "" let mutable stateId = 0 member this.Name with get() = name and set restnameval=name <- restnameval member this.StateId with get() = stateId and set stateidval=stateId <- stateidval override this.ToSqlValuesList = [this.Name; this.StateId.ToString()] So, if name was some other value besides a string, or stateId can be optional, then I have two changes to make: How do I modify ToSqlValuesList to have the variable so I can tell the variable type? How do I change my select function to handle this? I am thinking that I need a new function does the processing, but what is the best FP way to do this, rather than using something like typeof?

    Read the article

  • Rewarding iOS app beta testers with in app purchase?

    - by Partridge
    My iOS app is going to be free, but with additional functionality enabled via in app purchase. Currently beta testers are doing a great job finding bugs and I want to reward them for their hard work. I think the least I can do is give them a full version of the app so that they don't have to buy the functionality themselves. However, I'm not sure what the best way to do this is. There do not appear to be promo codes for in app purchase so I can't just email out promo codes. I have all the tester device UDIDs so when the app launches I could grab the device UDID and compare it to an internal list of 'approved' UDIDs. Is this what other developers do? My concerns: The in app purchase content would not be tied to their iTunes account, so if beta testers move to a new device they would not be able to enable the content unless I released a new build in the app store with their new UDID. So they may have to buy it eventually anyway. Having an internal list leaves a hole for hackers to modify the list and add themselves to it. What would you do?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - hiding id in URL?

    - by mcfroob
    I'm building a basic blog application just now, for viewing data I'm just using the default route, i.e. - routes.MapRoute ( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); So that when you go to mysite.com/View/12 it displays the blog with id 12. I want to modify the URLs so that they look as follows: mysite.com/View/2010/06/01/this-is-the-title. I could have a URL mapping like - routes.MapRoute( "View", "View/{year}/{month}/{day}/{title}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "View" } ); But then I'm not passing the ID into the Controller action so I would have to search on the date and title which doesn't feel right. On the other hand, if I pass the ID in it will show up in the URL which isn't what I'm aiming for either. Is there any way to redirect to the URL I want in the controller action after passing only the ID in as a paramter, or to pass the ID into the a Map Route but hide it in the URL? Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • Tablesorter Pager not working in Safari or Chrome

    - by Zendog74
    Hi all. I am building an app using the tablesorter plug-in and it's pager plug-in. Things work perfectly fine in Firefox and IE, but in Safari (4.0.4 on a PC) and Chrome () I get errors when it hits the following code that binds the tablesorter pager. I took the pager binding out and it worked, so something is going wrong somewhere in those three lines of code. var tableSel = calendarportlet.ut.createIdSelector(calendarportlet.addNamespace("eventListTable")); var pagerSel = calendarportlet.ut.createIdSelector(calendarportlet.addNamespace("pager")); jQuery(tableSel).tablesorter({ widthFixed: true, headers: { 0: {sorter: false} }, sortList:[[2,1],[1,0]], widgets: ['zebra'] }).tablesorterPager({ <-- error happens in here container: jQuery(pagerSel), positionFixed: false }); Also, the errors only happen in Safari and Chrome when prototype.js is loaded AFTER jQuery. If they are loaded before jQuery, it works fine. However, this is a portlet and it has to play nice with other portlets, so we don't want to modify the header and loading order of the js libs. Anyone have any ideas on how to fix this?

    Read the article

  • Catching specific vs. generic exceptions in c#

    - by Scott Vercuski
    This question comes from a code analysis run against an object I've created. The analysis says that I should catch a more specific exception type than just the basic Exception. Do you find yourself using just catching the generic Exception or attempting to catch a specific Exception and defaulting to a generic Exception using multiple catch blocks? One of the code chunks in question is below: internal static bool ClearFlags(string connectionString, Guid ID) { bool returnValue = false; SqlConnection dbEngine = new SqlConnection(connectionString); SqlCommand dbCmd = new SqlCommand("ClearFlags", dbEngine); SqlDataAdapter dataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(dbCmd); dbCmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; try { dbCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID.ToString()); dbEngine.Open(); dbCmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); dbEngine.Close(); returnValue = true; } catch (Exception ex) { ErrorHandler(ex); } return returnValue; } Thank you for your advice EDIT: Here is the warning from the code analysis Warning 351 CA1031 : Microsoft.Design : Modify 'ClearFlags(string, Guid)' to catch a more specific exception than 'Exception' or rethrow the exception

    Read the article

  • changing the serialization procedure for a graph of objects (.net framework)

    - by pierusch
    Hello I'm developing a scientific application using .net framework. The application depends heavily upon a large data structure (a tree like structure) that has been serialized using a standard binaryformatter object. The graph structure looks like this: <serializable()>Public class BigObjet inherits list(of smallObject) end class <serializable()>public class smallObject inherits list(of otherSmallerObjects) end class ... The binaryFormatter object does a nice job but it's not optimized at all and the entire data structure reaches around 100Mb on my filesystem. Deserialization works too but it's pretty slow (around 30seconds on my quad core). I've found a nice .dll on codeproject (see "optimizing serialization...") so I wrote a modified version of the classes above overriding the default serialization/deserialization procedure reaching very good results. The problem is this: I can't lose the data previosly serialized with the old version and I'd like to be able to use the new serialization/deserialization method. I have some ideas but I'm pretty sure someone will be able to give me a proper and better advice ! use an "helper" graph of objects who takes care of the entire serialization/deserialization procedure reading data from the old format and converting them into the classes I nedd. This could work but the binaryformatter "needs" to know the types being serialized so........ :( modify the "old" graph to include a modified version of serialization procedure...so I'll be able to deserialize old file and save them with the new format......this doesn't sound too good imho. well any help will be higly highly appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net Session Storage provider in 3-layer architecture

    - by Tedd Hansen
    I'm implementing a custom session storage provider in ASP.Net. We have a strict 3-layer architecture and therefore the session storage needs to go through the business layer. Presentation-Business-Database. The business layer is accessed through WPF. The database is MSSQL. What I need is (in order of preference): A commercial/free/open source product that solves this. The source code of a SqlSessionStateStore (custom session store) (not the ODBC-sample on MSDN) that I can modify to use a middle layer. I've tried looking at .Net source through Reflector, but the code is not usable. Note: I understand how to do this. I am looking for working samples, preferably that has been proven to work fine under heavy load. The ODBC sample on MSDN doesn't use the (new?) stored procs that the build in SqlSessionStateStore uses - I'd like to use these if possible (decreases traffic). Edit1: To answer Simons question on more info: ASP.Net Session()-object can be stored in either InProc, ASP.Net State Service or SQL-server. In a secure 3-layer model the presentation layer (web server) does not have direct/physical access to the database layer (SQL-server). And even without the physical limitations, from an architectural standpoint you may not want this. InProc and ASP.Net State Service does not support load balancing and doesn't have fault tolerance. Therefore the only option is to access SQL through webservice middle layer (business layer).

    Read the article

  • Why pseudo-elements :before and :after appear in front of my DIV element and not behind?

    - by Dim13i
    I have a DIV element with this given class: .slideshow { background: white; width: 700px; height: 300px; padding:10px; margin: 0 auto; position: relative; box-shadow: 0px 0px 5px grey, 0px 10px 20px rgba(0,0,0,.1) inset; } I define those two pseudo-elements (:before and :after): .slideshow:before, .slideshow:after { content: " "; background: green; width: 50%; height: 50%; position: absolute; z-index: -10; } My problem is that those two pseudo-elements appear in front of my DIV and not behind. Is there any specific reason for this behaviour? Here is an example: EXAMPLE The Javascript part is a bit messy but i'm still working on it. Also I've noticed that if I delete all the JS part I don't have anymore this problem, but I don't think there is anything in the code that should modify the slideshow DIV SOLVED: The problem is in the javascript part where I have: $('.slideshow').css('-webkit-transform', 'rotate(0deg)'); Removing this line solved the problem. I guess that pseudo-elements :before and :after are not compatible with the property transform.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177  | Next Page >