Search Results

Search found 985 results on 40 pages for 'instantiate'.

Page 18/40 | < Previous Page | 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25  | Next Page >

  • java looping - declaration of a Class outside / inside the loop

    - by lisak
    when looping, for instance: for ( int j = 0; j < 1000; j++) {}; and I need to instantiate 1000 objects, how does it differ when I declare the object inside the loop from declaring it outside the loop ?? for ( int j = 0; j < 1000; j++) {Object obj; obj =} vs Object obj; for ( int j = 0; j < 1000; j++) {obj =} It's obvious that the object is accessible either only from the loop scope or from the scope that is surrounding it. But I don't understand the performance question, garbage collection etc. What is the best practice ? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Google app engine - what is the lifecycle of PersistenceManager?

    - by Domchi
    What is the preferred way of using GAE datastore PersistenceManager for web app? GAE instructions are a bit ambiguous on the matter. Do I instantiate PersistenceManagerFactory for each RPC call, or do I use only one factory for all requests? Do I call PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(), or do I call PMF.get().getPersistenceManagerProxy()? Do I close PM after each RPC call, or do I leave it open? What are you guys doing? Furthermore, I'm not certain how GAE handles 30-second-per-request limit. Is it even possible to reference the same PM between requests?

    Read the article

  • Setting the initial value of a property when using DataContractSerializer

    - by Eric
    If I am serializing and later deserializing a class using DataContractSerializer how can I control the initial values of properties that were not serialized? Consider the Person class below. Its data contract is set to serialize the FirstName and LastName properties but not the IsNew property. I want IsNew to initialize to TRUE whether a new Person is being instantiate as a new instance or being deserialized from a file. This is easy to do through the constructor, but as I understand it DataContractSerializer does not call the constructor as they could require parameters. [DataContract(Name="Person")] public class Person { [DataMember(Name="FirstName")] public string FirstName { get; set; } [DataMember(Name = "LastName")] public string LastName { get; set; } public bool IsNew { get; set; } public Person(string first, string last) { this.FirstName = first; this.LastName = last; this.IsNew = true; } }

    Read the article

  • Embedded web server and gui framework for .NET applications

    - by Toad
    Hi, I'm looking for a framework which allows me to manage my application through a webbased GUI (using an embedded webserver) instead of winforms. Something like this: http://www.webtoolkit.eu/wt but then for .NET In my code I should be able to instantiate classes (like buttons, forms etc), and when a user browses to a given port, the app should render it as javascript/ajax etc etc. preferably, when buttons are pushed, a notification in my code should be called. this is a less specific question than another one I posted about extjs. I hope this will attract more viewers since it is more generic Thanks. Update: cassini like solutions don't fit the bill. Since the webbrowser is embedded in my application, there is no need for ASP.NET server side scripts. I would rather have the framework, call functions inside my application when things happen on the page. onButtonClicked() for instance.

    Read the article

  • Metro + Jetty + OSGi = pain

    - by mjgp2
    I am trying to swap out Sun's HTTPServer for the much better Jetty server, within an OSGi bundle, running on Equinox. I have tried this: System.setProperty("com.sun.net.httpserver.HttpServerProvider","org.mortbay.jetty.j2se6.JettyHttpServerProvider"); but when endpoint.publish(url) is called, and the server is spawned, it complains of a ClassNotFoundException for org.mortbay.jetty.j2se6.JettyHttpServerProvider. However, the correct jars are in the bundle, and indeed in the Activator I can instantiate a org.mortbay.jetty.j2se6.JettyHttpServerProvider. I think that this is a some kind of classpath issue - the spawned server is in a different classpath maybe? I have tried adding the JARs in at the JDK level, but this doesn't make any difference. Can oanyone shed any light how on earth to get this working? P.S. Maybe hideous System.setProperty calls will vanish from the world one day. Hopefully :)

    Read the article

  • Why is this default template parameter not allowed?

    - by Matt Joiner
    I have the following class: template <typename Type = void> class AlignedMemory { public: AlignedMemory(size_t alignment, size_t size) : memptr_(0) { int iret(posix_memalign((void **)&memptr_, alignment, size)); if (iret) throw system_error("posix_memalign"); } virtual ~AlignedMemory() { free(memptr_); } operator Type *() const { return memptr_; } Type *operator->() const { return memptr_; } //operator Type &() { return *memptr_; } //Type &operator[](size_t index) const; private: Type *memptr_; }; And attempt to instantiate an automatic variable like this: AlignedMemory blah(512, 512); This gives the following error: src/cpfs/entry.cpp:438: error: missing template arguments before ‘buf’ What am I doing wrong? Is void not an allowed default parameter?

    Read the article

  • makefile compilation problem

    - by mistique
    He I have a problem with a makefile. I have three classes. They do pretty simple stuff. One does an addition on a subtraction, and the last one will instantiate the two and simply print the resulted addition and subtraction. Now when I create my makefile, I compile my Plus.java and my Minus.java but don't know how to compile the main class because it depends on the previous two. I want to compile and run it from the makefile if it's possible. I get the above results when I try to run make: javac -g Plus.class Minus.class javac: invalid flag: Plus.class Usage: javac use -help for a list of possible options make: * [Operation.class] Error 2 I don't know how to procede, please forgive me if my question is to simple but I am new working with these stuff. I've searched many sites but with no answer.

    Read the article

  • Using TTSearchBar with TTThumbsViewController

    - by scompt.com
    I would like to layout a TTSearchBar above above a TTThumbsViewController. My current (failing) attempt involves my own SearchViewController that inherits from TTViewController and contains a reference to a TTThumbsViewController and TTSearchBar. In the loadView method, I instantiate both TTThumbsViewController and TTSearchBar and add them (actually, ..the view property of the TTTVC) as subviews. When the SearchViewController is pushed, neither the TTThumbsViewController nor the TTSearchBar are displayed. Am I going about this wrong? Is there a better way to add search to the TTThumbsViewController?

    Read the article

  • C# programatically using a string as object name when instantiating an object

    - by emk
    This is a contrived example, but lets say I have declared objects: CustomObj fooObj; CustomObj barObj; CustomObj bazObj; And I have an string array: string[] stringarray = new string[] {"foo","bar","baz"}; How can I programatically access and instantiate those objects using the string array, iterating using something like a foreach: foreach (string i in stringarray) { `i`Obj = new CustomObj(i); } Hope the idea I'm trying to get across is clear. Is this possible in C#? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC controllers with identical names

    - by Anton Gogolev
    Hi! Here's what I'm trying to do. I have an ASP.NET MVC web application, where I'd like to have a separate "admin" area (accessible via http://example.com/admin) and a regular area, available for all users. In both these parts of the site I have a /blogs section, but when accessing http://example.com/admin/blogs I want to be presented with admin interface for blogs, whereas usual http://example.com/blogs should just list all blogs. And the problem itself is: how do I get ASP.NET MVC to instantiate appropriate controllers, provided that there are two BlogsControllers: one in Site.Admin namespace, and the other is in Site.Sitefront namespace? Granted, I could rename admin controller to BlogsAdminController, but I'd like to keep the names as they already are.

    Read the article

  • How can the javascript plugin architecture in raphael/jquery be done?

    - by TimDog
    I'm looking for a barebones javascript example that demonstrates how the javascript plugin architecture works with large javascript libraries (such as raphael or jquery). In either scenario, you build plugins by ensuring your custom plugin follows this pattern: jQuery.fn.pluginName -- so assume I have a library: myLibrary = (function() { //my fancy javascript code return function() { //my return object }; }); How would fn be incorporated into the above myLibrary object to ensure that he resulting plugin is callable? I instantiate myLibrary like so: var lib = new myLibrary(); And now I have included a reference to my plugin in my page: myLibrary.fn.simplePlugin = function() { //more fancy code } So finally, I can just call: lib.simplePlugin(); Basically, what magic is actually occuring when the .fn is used during the creation of the plugin?

    Read the article

  • Unresolved symbol when inheriting interface

    - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat
    It's late at night here and I'm going crazy trying to solve a linker error. If I have the following abstract interface: class IArpPacketBuilder { public: IArpPacketBuilder(const DslPortId& aPortId); virtual ~IArpPacketBuilder(); // Other abstract (pure virtual methods) here... }; and I instantiate it like this: class DummyArpPacketBuilder : public IArpPacketBuilder { public: DummyArpPacketBuilder(const DslPortId& aPortId) : IArpPacketBuilder(aPortId) {} ~DummyArpPacketBuilder() {} }; why am I getting the following error when linking? Unresolved symbol references: IArpPacketBuilder::IArpPacketBuilder(DslPortId const&): ppc603_vxworks/_arpPacketQueue.o IArpPacketBuilder::~IArpPacketBuilder(): ppc603_vxworks/_arpPacketQueue.o typeinfo for IArpPacketBuilder: ppc603_vxworks/_arpPacketQueue.o *** Error code 1 IArpPacketBuilder is an abstract interface, so as long as I define the constructors and destructions in the concrete (derived) interface, I should be fine, no? Well it appears not.

    Read the article

  • undefined reference

    - by rantravee
    Hi, I'm unfamiliar to working in c++ under linux so I have some issues, one of them is that after I write a class and try to instantiate an object of that class I get to following error : "undefined reference to Constructor_of_that_class" . This happens for every class that I write , and it happens no matter where I try to do the instantiating, even if the code compiles without any problems . What is going wrong here and what I have to do to get over this error ? Because the project that I'm working wasn't created by me I suspect that it has to do something with some settings but I don't know which.

    Read the article

  • My object becomes NSCFArray when running on iPhone

    - by cagreen
    I'm really scratching my head on this one: I have an object (MyObject) which I instantiate, and this object has an NSArray member variable. The following simple code working in the sim: MyObject *myObj = [[MyObject alloc] init]; NSArray *arr = [myObj myMemberArray]; When I hover over myObj in XCode the tooltip reads "MyObject". Good! But when I debug it on the device (OS 3.1.3) I get: "[NSCFArray myMemberArray]: unrecognized selector sent to instance ... " When I hover over myObj, sure enough it reads "NSCFArray". Can anyone give me some pointers on where to go next with this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Null Inner Bean with Spring IoC

    - by bruno conde
    Hi all. I have a singleton bean definition like this: <bean id="exampleBean" class="com.examples.ExampleBean"> <property name="exampleBean2"> <bean class="com.examples.ExampleBean2" /> </property> </bean> where ExampleBean could be: public class ExampleBean { private ExampleBean2 exampleBean2; public ExampleBean() { } public ExampleBean2 getExampleBean2() { return exampleBean2; } public void setExampleBean2(ExampleBean2 exampleBean2) { this.exampleBean2 = exampleBean2; } } The problem is that, in certain conditions, the com.examples.ExampleBean2 class might not exist at runtime witch will cause an error when the IoC tries to instantiate exampleBean. What I need is to ignore this error from IoC and allow the exampleBean to be created but leaving the exampleBean2 property null. So the question is: is this possible in any way? Thanks for all your help.

    Read the article

  • When to use POJO and When to use SLSB

    - by user83795
    we are using EJB3 in our application. Our design aim is to separate persistence layer from Business Layer. So we have developed XXXbean classes to be used as SLSB and XXXRepository classes to be used as persistence classes. We also have POJO that implement reusable NON business logic(get list of countries etc) and we call then service/helper Classes. We use EJB3 JPA (using Hibernate provider) and Repository classes has all the methods for CRUD operation and the get methods for data access. Currently XXXRepository classes are all POJO and we instantiate these classes directly from the bean XXXClasses or from the service Objects. Should the XXXRepository classes be SLSB ? what would be the benefits and pitfalls of converting them to SLSB?

    Read the article

  • How to test silverlight behaviors using Rhino Mocks?

    - by Derek
    I have slightly adapted the custom behavior code that can be found here: http://www.reflectionit.nl/blog/default.aspx?guid=d81a8cf8-0345-48ee-bbde-84c2e3f21a25 that controls a MediaElement. I need to know how to go about testing this with Rhino Mocks e.g. how to instantiate a new ControlMediaElementAction in test code and then call the Invoke method etc. Doing something simple like this in test code: mMediaElementControlBehaviour = new ControlMediaElementAction (); gives me an exception "The type initializer for 'System.Windows.DependencyObject' throw an exception. Thinking it was the instantiation of the MediaElement, I tried this two lines of code: MediaElement mediaElementStub = MockRepository.GenerateStub(); this.Container.RegisterInstance(mediaElementStub); This gave the exception 'Can't create mocks of sealed classes' If someone can point me in the right direction, it would be apreciated. Silverlight 4, Rhino Mocks 3.5 Silverlight v2.0.50727 Thanks,

    Read the article

  • C# How can I trigger an event at a specific time of day?

    - by Andrei
    Hello everybody. I'm working on a program that will need to delete a folder (and then re-instantiate it) at a certain hour of the day, and this hour will be given by the user. The hour will most likely be during the night, because that's when nobody is accessing the folder (it's outside working hours). Is there a way to trigger that event at that certain hour? I know about timers, but is there an easier way to do this without a timer that ticks and checks to see what time it is? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight Pixel Shader resource "not found"; what should the URI be?

    - by Grank
    So I've written and compiled an HLSL pixel shader with Shazzam, placed the resulting .ps file in my project, and am trying to instantiate it. No matter what URI I put, Blend tells me that the resource can't be found whenever I try to view any xaml designer, and Visual Studio just shows me a blank page, both in design view and if I try to run the application. This is a Silverlight 4 SketchFlow project, in Blend 4 RC and Visual Studio 2010. I've tried both Resource and EmbeddedResource as the Build Action for the .ps file, neither make any difference (I'm pretty sure it's supposed to be set to Resource). I've tried the following URI formats: "ShaderFileName.ps" "/ShaderFileName.ps" "AssemblyName;component/ShaderFileName.ps" "/AssemblyName;component/ShaderFileName.ps" I also tried moving the shader file from the Screens assembly to the root assembly (that's how SketchFlow projects are created) and that didn't help either. Anyone have any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • how to config grails1.2 with oscache?

    - by wavelet
    I do this : DataSource.groovy: hibernate { cache.use_second_level_cache=true cache.use_query_cache=true cache.provider_class='com.opensymphony.oscache.hibernate.OSCacheProvider' } and in BuildConfig.groovy: inherits( "global" ) { // uncomment to disable ehcache excludes 'ehcache' } runtime ("opensymphony:oscache:2.4.1") { excludes 'jms', 'commons-logging', 'servlet-api' } but i only get this error : commons.DefaultGrailsApplication The class [com.ai.scenter.service.reschange.ResourceChangeAdapter] was not found when attempting to load Grails application. Skipping. commons.DefaultGrailsApplication The class [com.ai.scenter.service.reschange.ResourceChangeService] was not found when attempting to load Grails application. Skipping. hibernate.ConfigurableLocalSessionFactoryBean There was an error configuring the Hibernate second level cache: could not instantiate CacheProvider [com.opensymphony.oscache.hibernate.OSCacheProvide] hibernate.ConfigurableLocalSessionFactoryBean This is normally due to one of two reasons. Either you have incorrectly specified the cache provider class name in [DataSource.groovy] or you do not have the cache provider on your classpath (eg. runtime ("net.sf.ehcache:ehcache:1.6.1")) how can i do it?

    Read the article

  • Overriding properties of child view controller vs setting them via parent view controller

    - by robinjam
    If you want to modify the default behaviour of a View Controller by changing the value of one of its properties, is it considered better form to instantiate the class and set its property directly, or subclass it and override the property? With the former it would become the parent View Controller's responsibility to configure its children, whereas with the latter the children would effectively configure themselves. EDIT: Some more information: The class I am referring to is FetchedTableViewController, a subclass of UITableViewController that I made to display the results of a Core Data fetch operation. There are two places I want to display the results of a fetch, and they each have different fetch requests. I'm trying to decide whether it's better to create a subclass for each one, and override the fetchRequest property, or make it the responsibility of the parent controller to set the fetchRequest property for its children.

    Read the article

  • What's an easy way to set up object communication in Obj-C?

    - by seaworthy
    I am trying to send a slider value from a controller object to a method of a model object. The later is implemented in the separate file and I have appropriate headers. I think the problem is that I am not sure how to instantiate the receiver in order to produce a working method for the controller. Here is the controller's method. -(IBAction)setValue:(id)slider {[Model setValue:[slider floatValue]];} @implementation Model -(void)setValue:(float)n{ printf("%f",n); } @end What I get is 'Model' may not respond to '+setValue' warning and no output in my console. Any insight is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • xajax and codeigniter - blank page and xajax request URI error.

    - by Adam Leonard
    I am unfortunately getting a blank page when trying to run a site locally. There are other people running it locally just fine, so I am wondering if it could be something to do with my LAMP environment. When I attempt to load the site, it's nothing but a blank page. I've ran php index.php in console and the error I get is the following "xajax Error: xajax failed to automatically identify your Request URI.Please set the Request URI explicitly when you instantiate the xajax object.". I'm not quite sure how to handle this in CodeIgniter and or at all to be honest.

    Read the article

  • Working with iPhone OS 3.2 only classes

    - by user324881
    How would you write a universal app that uses classes introduced in iPhone OS 3.2, such as UIPopoverController and UISplitViewController? On Jeff LaMarche's blog about this, Ole provides a method for instantiating these objects; you would instantiate a UIPopoverController like so: [NSClassFromString(@"UIPopoverController") alloc]. This is fine for instantiating these classes in code but what about protocols and their methods? My iPad app uses a UISplitViewController and has a class that needs to conform to the UISplitViewControllerDelegate and UIPopoverControllerDelegate. How would you declare this? And how would you work with a method such as the following? - (void)splitViewController:(UISplitViewController *)svc willHideViewController:(UIViewController *)aViewController withBarButtonItem:(UIBarButtonItem *)barButtonItem forPopoverController:(UIPopoverController *)pc where the method call requires UISplitViewController to be passed in?

    Read the article

  • How to organize code using an optional assembly reference?

    - by apoorv020
    I am working on a project and want to optionally use an assembly if available. This assembly is only available on WS 2008 R2, and my ideal product whould be a common binary for both computers with and without the assembly. However, I'm primarily developing on a Windows 7 machine, where I cannot install the assembly. How can I organize my code so that I can (with minimum changes) build my code on a machine without the assembly and secondly, how do I ensure that I call the assembly functions only when it is present. (NOTE : The only use of the optional assembly is to instantiate a class in the library and repeatedly call a (single) function of the class, which returns a boolean. The assembly is fsrmlib, which exposes advanced file system management operations on WS08R2.) I'm currently thinking of writing a wrapper class, which will always return true if the assembly is not present. Is this the right way to go about doing this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25  | Next Page >