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  • Xcode + Perforce: it frequently shows me the spinning wheel for no reason! What can i do?

    - by GamingHorror
    While working on an Xcode project i keep getting the spinning wheel while switching files, scrolling, searching, typing, debugging, removing breakpoints, switching back from another app or saving. It also happens before compiling but usually it just happens from time to time for no apparent reason. This is the second time this started happening in a Xcode project and it's driving me nuts. It completely breaks my flow of work to have to wait for the spinning wheel to go away (2-5 seconds). What on earth could i possibly do to ... figure out what's causing the problem? resolve the problem? More details: When any project is small, everything is super-smooth with Xcode and Perforce. Two of my projects eventually had this spinning wheel problem after about 4 weeks of work. It only happened with those two projects so far. They consist of around 1000-1200 files in source control, most of them assets. The problem occurs even if i manually check out the whole project in Perforce. The problem is gone when i copy the project directory and work in the copy which is no longer under source control, or if i create a branch in Perforce and work in the branch (under source control). One of these projects i shared with a colleague, and he had exactly the same issues on his Mac. We eventually switched to Subversion and the spinning-wheel issue immediately went away. Now that i've received an updated copy of the project and simply put it under Perforce as a new project, the problem also went away (so far it did not resurface). It leads me to think that it may be caused by a larger number of file revisions. The server itself (version 2009.1) is on a different (Windows) machine on my LAN, so there's definetely no Internet lag involved. The complete repository is just 1 GB in size spread over a dozen projects or so. I'm sorry if the question seems more like a support inquiry for Perforce. However i'm using the free version of Perforce so i'm not entitled to get support from them. I hope no one minds me asking here. I'm really bummed out by this. I don't want to have to create a new branch for the project each time the spinning wheel problem surfaces.

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  • jquery show hidden div

    - by Fahad
    Firstly, I'm sort of embarrassed asking about this, so many people have already asked this question but even after having gone through so many posts, I'm unable to achieve what I want. Basically, a div, initially hidden, has to be displayed on a button click. I tried hiding the div using display:none and hide() and then displaying it using show(), toggle(), and css("display","block"). Using all sorts of combinations of the above, I was still unable to get the result. Code: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <link href="css/smoothness/jquery-ui-1.9.2.custom.min.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="jQuery/jquery-1.8.3.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jQuery/jquery-ui-1.9.2.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#one').hide(); $('#Button1').click(function () { $('#one').toggle(500); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div id="one" style="height: 20px;width:200px; background-color: Red; "> </div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Show" /> </form> </body> </html> On button click, the div is shown for a brief second before it disappears again. The same thing happens if I use show() instead of toggle() in the above code. Again the same thing if I set style="display:none" to the div instead of using hide() and then use show() or toggle(). I also tried using $('#one').css("display","block"); but again, the same result. Can anyone please tell me where I'm going wrong. Just started learning jQuery and it is really frustrating when something apparently so simple will not work. Thanks in advance. :)

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  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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  • Efficient algorithm to distribute work?

    - by Zwei Steinen
    It's a bit complicated to explain but here we go. We have problems like this (code is pseudo-code, and is only for illustrating the problem. Sorry it's in java. If you don't understand, I'd be glad to explain.). class Problem { final Set<Integer> allSectionIds = { 1,2,4,6,7,8,10 }; final Data data = //Some data } And a subproblem is: class SubProblem { final Set<Integer> targetedSectionIds; final Data data; SubProblem(Set<Integer> targetedSectionsIds, Data data){ this.targetedSectionIds = targetedSectionIds; this.data = data; } } Work will look like this, then. class Work implements Runnable { final Set<Section> subSections; final Data data; final Result result; Work(Set<Section> subSections, Data data) { this.sections = SubSections; this.data = data; } @Override public void run(){ for(Section section : subSections){ result.addUp(compute(data, section)); } } } Now we have instances of 'Worker', that have their own state sections I have. class Worker implements ExecutorService { final Map<Integer,Section> sectionsIHave; { sectionsIHave = {1:section1, 5:section5, 8:section8 }; } final ExecutorService executor = //some executor. @Override public void execute(SubProblem problem){ Set<Section> sectionsNeeded = fetchSections(problem.targetedSectionIds); super.execute(new Work(sectionsNeeded, problem.data); } } phew. So, we have a lot of Problems and Workers are constantly asking for more SubProblems. My task is to break up Problems into SubProblem and give it to them. The difficulty is however, that I have to later collect all the results for the SubProblems and merge (reduce) them into a Result for the whole Problem. This is however, costly, so I want to give the workers "chunks" that are as big as possible (has as many targetedSections as possible). It doesn't have to be perfect (mathematically as efficient as possible or something). I mean, I guess that it is impossible to have a perfect solution, because you can't predict how long each computation will take, etc.. But is there a good heuristic solution for this? Or maybe some resources I can read up before I go into designing? Any advice is highly appreciated!

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  • What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

    - by Zac Thompson
    I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • Is a many-to-many relationship with extra fields the right tool for my job?

    - by whichhand
    Previously had a go at asking a more specific version of this question, but had trouble articulating what my question was. On reflection that made me doubt if my chosen solution was correct for the problem, so this time I will explain the problem and ask if a) I am on the right track and b) if there is a way around my current brick wall. I am currently building a web interface to enable an existing database to be interrogated by (a small number of) users. Sticking with the analogy from the docs, I have models that look something like this: class Musician(models.Model): first_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) last_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) dob = models.DateField() class Album(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) class Instrument(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) Where I have one central table (Musician) and several tables of associated data that are related by either ForeignKey or OneToOneFields. Users interact with the database by creating filtering criteria to select a subset of Musicians based on data the data on the main or related tables. Likewise, the users can then select what piece of data is used to rank results that are presented to them. The results are then viewed initially as a 2 dimensional table with a single row per Musician with selected data fields (or aggregates) in each column. To give you some idea of scale, the database has ~5,000 Musicians with around 20 fields of related data. Up to here is fine and I have a working implementation. However, it is important that I have the ability for a given user to upload there own annotation data sets (more than one) and then filter and order on these in the same way they can with the existing data. The way I had tried to do this was to add the models: class UserDataSets(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) description = models.CharField(max_length=64) results = models.ManyToManyField(Musician, through='UserData') class UserData(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) dataset = models.ForeignKey(UserDataSets) score = models.IntegerField() class Meta: unique_together = (("artist", "dataset"),) I have a simple upload mechanism enabling users to upload a data set file that consists of 1 to 1 relationship between a Musician and their "score". Within a given user dataset each artist will be unique, but different datasets are independent from each other and will often contain entries for the same musician. This worked fine for displaying the data, starting from a given artist I can do something like this: artist = Musician.objects.get(pk=1) dataset = UserDataSets.objects.get(pk=5) print artist.userdata_set.get(dataset=dataset.pk) However, this approach fell over when I came to implement the filtering and ordering of query set of musicians based on the data contained in a single user data set. For example, I could easily order the query set based on all of the data in the UserData table like this: artists = Musician.objects.all().order_by(userdata__score) But that does not help me order by the results of a given single user dataset. Likewise I need to be able to filter the query set based on the "scores" from different user data sets (eg find all musicians with a score 5 in dataset1 and < 2 in dataset2). Is there a way of doing this, or am I going about the whole thing wrong?

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  • How can I progrommatically change the target framework from 4.0 to 3.5 of a project/solution?

    - by scott
    Edit 3: After more googling it looks like you can't have the TargetFrameworkMoniker property in a .NET 3.5 application. So I guess I should be asking a different question. How do I change the Target framework from 4.0 to 3.5? Unfortunately, I can only find stuff on how to go the other way. or better yet how do i progrommatically set the target framework version of a project to something other than 4.0? Original question: I just switched to vs2010. I have an application that uses .net 3.5. It loads plugins which are generated by a different app. The plugins are using .net 4 and there for cannot be loaded. I'm using EnvDTE.Project to create a project and set the settings. I can't find what setting needs to be set for this. Edit 1: I'm generating code for about 50 solutions. When I made the switch from vs2005 to vs2010 the projects in those solutions are defaulting to .NET Framework 4.0. So I need to set the .NET Framework to 3.5 when I am generating the code for these solutions. Edit 2: After a lot of googling I found this. so then I tried this: loProp = vsGetProperty("TargetFrameworkMoniker"); vsSetValue(loProp, ".NETFramework,Version=v3.5"); the definitions for those two methods are below. as far as I can tell they do the same this as project.Properties.Item("TargetFrameworkMoniker").Value = ".NETFramework,Version=v4.0,Profile=Client"; I start getting an Property Unavailable Exception later in the code. When I remove the new lines everything works except the projects target framework is still 4.0. The code generators target framework is 3.5 so I can't use the FrameworkName class like shown in the second example in that link. here is vsGetProperty protected Property vsGetProperty(string aProperty) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; Property loProp; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { loProp = pProject.Properties.Item(aProperty); lbDone = true; return loProp; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } return null; } and vsSetValue protected void vsSetValue(Property aProperty, string aValue) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { aProperty.Value = aValue; lbDone = true; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } }

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  • Moving from Windows to Ubuntu.

    - by djzmo
    Hello there, I used to program in Windows with Microsoft Visual C++ and I need to make some of my portable programs (written in portable C++) to be cross-platform, or at least I can release a working version of my program for both Linux and Windows. I am total newcomer in Linux application development (and rarely use the OS itself). So, today, I installed Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (through Wubi) and equipped Code::Blocks with the g++ compiler as my main weapon. Then I compiled my very first Hello World linux program, and I confused about the output program. I can run my program through the "Build and Run" menu option in Code::Blocks, but when I tried to launch the compiled application externally through a File Browser (in /media/MyNTFSPartition/MyProject/bin/Release; yes, I saved it in my NTFS partition), the program didn't show up. Why? I ran out of idea. I need to change my Windows and Microsoft Visual Studio mindset to Linux and Code::Blocks mindset. So I came up with these questions: How can I execute my compiled linux programs externally (outside IDE)? In Windows, I simply run the generated executable (.exe) file How can I distribute my linux application? In Windows, I simply distribute the executable files with the corresponding DLL files (if any) What is the equivalent of LIBs (static library) and DLLs (dynamic library) in linux and how to use them? In Windows/Visual Studio, I simply add the required libraries to the Additional Dependencies in the Project Settings, and my program will automatically link with the required static library(-ies)/DLLs. Is it possible to use the "binary form" of a C++ library (if provided) so that I wouldn't need to recompile the entire library source code? In Windows, yes. Sometimes precompiled *.lib files are provided. If I want to create a wxWidgets application in Linux, which package should I pick for Ubuntu? wxGTK or wxX11? Can I run wxGTK program under X11? In Windows, I use wxMSW, Of course. If question no. 4 is answered possible, are precompiled wxX11/wxGTK library exists out there? Haven't tried deep google search. In Windows, there is a project called "wxPack" (http://wxpack.sourceforge.net/) that saves a lot of my time. Sorry for asking many questions, but I am really confused on these linux development fundamentals. Any kind of help would be appreciated =) Thanks.

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  • Programmatically Binding to a Property

    - by M312V
    I know it's a generic title, but my question is specific. I think it will boil down to a question of practice. So, I have the following code: public class Component : UIElement { public Component() { this.InputBindings.Add(new MouseBinding(SomeCommandProperty, new MouseGesture(MouseAction.LeftClick))); } } I could easily aggregate the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty into the Component class, but I'm currently waiving that option assuming there is another way. Component is a child of ComponentCollection which is child of a Grid which DataContext is the ViewModel. ComponentCollection as the name suggests contains a collection of Components. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <someNamespace:ComponentCollection x:Name="componentCollection"/> </Grid> It's the same scenario as the XAML below, but with TextBlock. I guess I'm trying to replicate what's being done in the XAML below programatically. Again, Component's top most ancestor's DataContext is set to ViewModel. <Grid Name="myGrid"> <TextBlock Text="SomeText"> <TextBlock.InputBindings> <MouseBinding Command="{Binding SomeCommandProperty}" MouseAction="LeftClick" /> </TextBlock.InputBindings> </TextBlock> </Grid> Update 1 Sorry, I'm unable to comment because I lack the reputation points. Basically, I have a custom control which inherit from a Panel which children are a collection of Component. It's not a hack, like I've mentioned, I could directly have access to SomeCommandProperty If I aggregate the ViewModel into Component. Doing so, however, feels icky. That is, having direct access to ViewModel from a Model. I guess the question I'm asking is. Given the situation that Component's parent UIElement's DataContext is set to ViewModel, is it possible to access SomeCommandProperty without Component owning a reference to the ViewModel that owns SomeCommandProperty? Programatically, that is. Using ItemsControl doesn't change the fact that I still need to bind SomeCommandProperty to each Items.

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  • Linker Issues with boost::thread under linux using Eclipse and CMake

    - by OcularProgrammer
    I'm in the process of attempting to port some code across from PC to Ubuntu, and am having some issues due to limited experience developing under linux. We use CMake to generate all our build stuff. Under windows I'm making VS2010 projects, and under Linux I'm making Eclipse projects. I've managed to get my OpenCV stuff ported across successfully, but am having major headaches trying to port my threaded boost apps. Just so we're clear, the steps I have followed so-far on a clean Ubuntu 12 installation. (I've done 2 clean re-installs to try and fix potential library cock-ups, now I'm just giving up and asking): Install Eclipse and Eclipse CDT using my package manager Install CMake and CMake Gui using my package manager Install libboost-all-dev using my package manager So-far that's all I've done. I can create the eclipse project using CMake with no errors, so CMake is successfully finding my boost install. When I try and build through eclipse is when I get issues; The app I'm attempting to build uses boost::asio for some UDP I/O and boost::thread to create worker threads for the asio I/O services. I can successfully compile each module, but when I come to link I get spammed with errors such as: /usr/bin/c++ CMakeFiles/RE05DevelopmentDemo.dir/main.cpp.o CMakeFiles/RE05DevelopmentDemo.dir/RE05FusionListener/RE05FusionListener.cpp.o CMakeFiles/RE05DevelopmentDemo.dir/NewEye/NewEye.cpp.o -o RE05DevelopmentDemo -rdynamic -Wl,-Bstatic -lboost_system-mt -lboost_date_time-mt -lboost_regex-mt -lboost_thread-mt -Wl,-Bdynamic /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.6/../../../../lib/libboost_thread-mt.a(thread.o): In function `void boost::call_once<void (*)()>(boost::once_flag&, void (*)()) [clone .constprop.98]': make[2]: Leaving directory `/home/david/Code/Build/Support/RE05DevDemo' (.text+0xc8): undefined reference to `pthread_key_create' /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.6/../../../../lib/libboost_thread-mt.a(thread.o): In function `boost::this_thread::interruption_enabled()': (.text+0x540): undefined reference to `pthread_getspecific' make[1]: Leaving directory `/home/david/Code/Build/Support/RE05DevDemo' /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.6/../../../../lib/libboost_thread-mt.a(thread.o): In function `boost::this_thread::disable_interruption::disable_interruption()': (.text+0x570): undefined reference to `pthread_getspecific' /usr/lib/gcc/x86_64-linux-gnu/4.6/../../../../lib/libboost_thread-mt.a(thread.o): In function `boost::this_thread::disable_interruption::disable_interruption()': (.text+0x59f): undefined reference to `pthread_getspecific' Some Gotchas that I have collected from other StackOverflow posts and have already checked: The boost libs are all present at /usr/lib I am not getting any compile errors for inability to find the boost headers, so they must be getting found. I am trying to link statically, but I believe eclipse should be passing the correct arguments to make that happen since my CMakeLists.txt includes SET(Boost_USE_STATIC_LIBS ON) I'm officially out of ideas here, I have tried doing local builds of boost and a bunch of other stuff with no more success. I even re-installed Ubuntu to ensure I haven't completely fracked the libs directories and links with multiple weird versions or anything else. Any help would be muchly appreciated.

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  • Spinning a circle in J2ME using a Canvas.

    - by JohnQPublic
    Hello all! I have a problem where I need to make a multi-colored wheel spin using a Canvas in J2ME. What I need to do is have the user increase the speed of the spin or slow the spin of the wheel. I have it mostly worked out (I think) but can't think of a way for the wheel to spin without causing my cellphone to crash. Here is what I have so far, it's close but not exactly what I need. class MyCanvas extends Canvas{ //wedgeOne/Two/Three define where this particular section of circle begins to be drawn from int wedgeOne; int wedgeTwo; int wedgeThree; int spinSpeed; MyCanvas(){ wedgeOne = 0; wedgeTwo = 120; wedgeThree = 240; spinSpeed = 0; } //Using the paint method to public void paint(Graphics g){ //Redraw the circle with the current wedge series. g.setColor(255,0,0); g.fillArc(getWidth()/2, getHeight()/2, 100, 100, wedgeOne, 120); g.setColor(0,255,0); g.fillArc(getWidth()/2, getHeight()/2, 100, 100, wedgeTwo, 120); g.setColor(0,0,255); g.fillArc(getWidth()/2, getHeight()/2, 100, 100, wedgeThree, 120); } protected void keyPressed(int keyCode){ switch (keyCode){ //When the 6 button is pressed, the wheel spins forward 5 degrees. case KEY_NUM6: wedgeOne += 5; wedgeTwo += 5; wedgeThree += 5; repaint(); break; //When the 4 button is pressed, the wheel spins backwards 5 degrees. case KEY_NUM4: wedgeOne -= 5; wedgeTwo -= 5; wedgeThree -= 5; repaint(); } } I have tried using a redraw() method that adds the spinSpeed to each of the wedge values while(spinSpeed0) and calls the repaint() method after the addition, but it causes a crash and lockup (I assume due to an infinite loop). Does anyone have any tips or ideas how I could automate the spin so you do not have the press the button every time you want it to spin? (P.S - I have been lurking for a while, but this is my first post. If it's too general or asking for too much info (sorry if it is) and I either remove it or fix it. Thank you!)

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • Drag N Drop utilizing simple cursor

    - by Cameron
    I'm using CommonsGuy's drag n drop example and I am basically trying to integrate it with the Android notepad example. Drag N Drop Out of the 2 different drag n drop examples i've seen they have all used a static string array where as i'm getting a list from a database and using simple cursor adapter. So my question is how to get the results from simple cursor adapter into a string array, but still have it return the row id when the list item is clicked so I can pass it to the new activity that edits the note. Here is my code: Cursor notesCursor = mDbHelper.fetchAllNotes(); startManagingCursor(notesCursor); // Create an array to specify the fields we want to display in the list (only NAME) String[] from = new String[]{WeightsDatabase.KEY_NAME}; // and an array of the fields we want to bind those fields to (in this case just text1) int[] to = new int[]{R.id.weightrows}; // Now create a simple cursor adapter and set it to display SimpleCursorAdapter notes = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.weights_row, notesCursor, from, to); setListAdapter(notes); And here is the code i'm trying to work that into. public class TouchListViewDemo extends ListActivity { private static String[] items={"lorem", "ipsum", "dolor", "sit", "amet", "consectetuer", "adipiscing", "elit", "morbi", "vel", "ligula", "vitae", "arcu", "aliquet", "mollis", "etiam", "vel", "erat", "placerat", "ante", "porttitor", "sodales", "pellentesque", "augue", "purus"}; private IconicAdapter adapter=null; private ArrayList<String> array=new ArrayList<String>(Arrays.asList(items)); @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.main); adapter=new IconicAdapter(); setListAdapter(adapter); TouchListView tlv=(TouchListView)getListView(); tlv.setDropListener(onDrop); tlv.setRemoveListener(onRemove); } private TouchListView.DropListener onDrop=new TouchListView.DropListener() { @Override public void drop(int from, int to) { String item=adapter.getItem(from); adapter.remove(item); adapter.insert(item, to); } }; private TouchListView.RemoveListener onRemove=new TouchListView.RemoveListener() { @Override public void remove(int which) { adapter.remove(adapter.getItem(which)); } }; class IconicAdapter extends ArrayAdapter<String> { IconicAdapter() { super(TouchListViewDemo.this, R.layout.row2, array); } public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View row=convertView; if (row==null) { LayoutInflater inflater=getLayoutInflater(); row=inflater.inflate(R.layout.row2, parent, false); } TextView label=(TextView)row.findViewById(R.id.label); label.setText(array.get(position)); return(row); } } } I know i'm asking for a lot, but a point in the right direction would help quite a bit! Thanks

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  • current_user.user_type_id = @employer ID

    - by sscirrus
    I am building a system with a User model (authenticated using AuthLogic) and three user types in three models: one of these models is Employer. Each of these three models has_many :users, :as = :authenticable. I start by having a new visitor to the site create their own 'User' record with username, password, which user type they are, etc. Upon creation, the user is sent to the 'new' action for one of the three models. So, if they tell us they are an employer, we redirect_to :controller = "employers, :action = "new". Question: When the employer has submitted, I want to set the current_user.user_type_id equal to the employer ID. This should be simple... but it's not working. # Employers Controller / new def new @employer = Employer.new 1.times {@employer.addresses.build} render :layout => 'forms' end # Employers Controller / create def create @employer = Employer.new(params[:employer]) if @employer.save if current_user.blank? redirect_to :controller => "users", :action => "new" else current_user.user_type_id = @employer.id current_user.user_type = "Employer" redirect_to :action => "home", :id => current_user.user_type_id end else render :action => "new" end end ------UPDATE------ Hi guys. In response: I am using this table structure because each of my three user type models have lots of different fields and each has different relationships to the other models, which is why I've avoided STI. By 1.times (@employer.addresses.build) I'm connecting the employer model to the address polymorphic table in one form, so I'm asking the controller to build a new address to go along with the new employer. Averell: you mentioned encapsulating... something in the model using a 'setter' method. I have no idea what you mean by this - could you please explain how this works (or direct me to an example elsewhere)? With tsdbrown's answer I have managed to create the behavior I want... if there's a more elegant way to accomplish the same thing I'd love to learn how. Thanks very much. Thanks to tsdbrown for answering the current_user.save problem!

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  • Are there any platforms where using structure copy on an fd_set (for select() or pselect()) causes p

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    The select() and pselect() system calls modify their arguments (the 'struct fd_set *' arguments), so the input value tells the system which file descriptors to check and the return values tell the programmer which file descriptors are currently usable. If you are going to call them repeatedly for the same set of file descriptors, you need to ensure that you have a fresh copy of the descriptors for each call. The obvious way to do that is to use a structure copy: struct fd_set ref_set_rd; struct fd_set ref_set_wr; struct fd_set ref_set_er; ... ...code to set the reference fd_set_xx values... ... while (!done) { struct fd_set act_set_rd = ref_set_rd; struct fd_set act_set_wr = ref_set_wr; struct fd_set act_set_er = ref_set_er; int bits_set = select(max_fd, &act_set_rd, &act_set_wr, &act_set_er, &timeout); if (bits_set > 0) { ...process the output values of act_set_xx... } } My question: Are there any platforms where it is not safe to do a structure copy of the struct fd_set values as shown? I'm concerned lest there be hidden memory allocation or anything unexpected like that. (There are macros/functions FD_SET(), FD_CLR(), FD_ZERO() and FD_ISSET() to mask the internals from the application.) I can see that MacOS X (Darwin) is safe; other BSD-based systems are likely to be safe, therefore. You can help by documenting other systems that you know are safe in your answers. (I do have minor concerns about how well the struct fd_set would work with more than 8192 open file descriptors - the default maximum number of open files is only 256, but the maximum number is 'unlimited'. Also, since the structures are 1 KB, the copying code is not dreadfully efficient, but then running through a list of file descriptors to recreate the input mask on each cycle is not necessarily efficient either. Maybe you can't do select() when you have that many file descriptors open, though that is when you are most likely to need the functionality.) There's a related SO question - asking about 'poll() vs select()' which addresses a different set of issues from this question.

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  • Get Confirm value in vb.net

    - by user1805641
    I have a hidden asp Button in a Repeater. In the VB.NET code behind I use the Rerpeater_ItemCommand to get the click event within the Repeater. There's a check if user is already recording a project. If yes and he wants to start a new one, a confirm box should appear asking "Are you sure?" How can I access the click value from confirm? <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" OnItemCommand="Repeater1_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <div class="tile user_view user_<%# Eval("employeeName") %>"> <div class="tilesheight"></div> <div class="element"> <asp:Button ID="Button1" CssClass="hiddenbutton" runat="server" /> Index: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("index") %>' /><br /> <hr class="hr" /> customer: <asp:Label ID="CustomerLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("customer") %>' /><br /> <hr class ="hr" /> order: <asp:Label ID="OrderNoLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("orderNo") %>' /><br /> <asp:Label ID="DescriptionLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("description") %>' /><br /> <hr class="hr" /> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> code behind: If empRecs.Contains(projects.Item(index.Text).employeeID) Then 'Catch index of recording order i = empRecs.IndexOf(projects.Item(index.Text).employeeID) Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(Me.GetType, "confirm", "confirm('Order " & empRecs(i + 2) & " already recording. Would you like to start a new one?')",True) 'If users clicks ok insertData() End If Other solutions are using the Click Event and a hidden field. But the problem is, I don't want the confirmbox to appear every time the button is clicked. Only when empRecs conatins an employee. Thanks for helping

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  • R: Plotting a graph with different colors of points based on advanced criteria

    - by balconydoor
    What I would like to do is a plot (using ggplot), where the x axis represent years which have a different colour for the last three years in the plot than the rest. The last three years should also meet a certain criteria and based on this the last three years can either be red or green. The criteria is that the mean of the last three years should be less (making it green) or more (making it red) than the 66%-percentile of the remaining years. So far I have made two different functions calculating the last three year mean: LYM3 <- function (x) { LYM3 <- tail(x,3) mean(LYM3$Data,na.rm=T) } And the 66%-percentile for the remaining: perc66 <- function(x) { percentile <- head(x,-3) quantile(percentile$Data, .66, names=F,na.rm=T) } Here are two sets of data that can be used in the calculations (plots), the first which is an example from my real data where LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1) and the second is just made up data where LYM3 perc66. df1<- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(347261.87, 145071.29, 110181.93, 183016.71, 210995.67, 205207.33, 103291.78, 247182.10, 152894.45, 170771.50, 206534.55, 287770.86, 223832.43, 297542.86, 267343.54, 475485.47, 224575.08, 147607.81, 171732.38, 126818.10, 165801.08, 136921.58, 136947.63, 83428.05, 144295.87, 68566.23, 59943.05, 49909.08, 52149.11, 117627.75, 132127.79, 130463.80)) df2 <- data.frame(Year=c(1979:2010), Data=c(sample(50,29,replace=T),75,75,75)) Here’s my code for my plot so far: plot <- ggplot(df1, aes(x=Year, y=Data)) + theme_bw() + geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<2008, "black",ifelse(LYM3(df1) < perc66(df1),"green","red")))) + geom_line() + scale_x_continuous(breaks=c(1980,1985,1990,1995,2000,2005,2010), limits=c(1978,2011)) plot As you notice it doesn’t really do what I want it to do. The only thing it does seem to do is that it turns the years before 2008 into one level and those after into another one and base the point colour off these two levels. Since I don’t want this year to be stationary either, I made another tiny function: fun3 <- function(x) { df <- subset(x, Year==(max(Year)-2)) df$Year } So the previous code would have the same effect as: geom_point(size=3, aes(colour=ifelse(df1$Year<fun3(df1), "black","red"))) But it still does not care about my colours. Why does it make the years into levels? And how come an ifelse function doesn’t work within another one in this case? How would it be possible to the arguments to do what I like? I realise this might be a bit messy, asking for a lot at the same time, but I hope my description is pretty clear. It would be helpful if someone could at least point me in the right direction. I tried to put the code for the plot into a function as well so I wouldn’t have to change the data frame at all functions within the plot, but I can’t get it to work. Thank you!

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  • Insert Registration Data in MySQL using PHP

    - by J M 4
    I may not be asking this in the best way possible but i will try my hardest. Thank you ahead of time for your help: I am creating an enrollment website which allows an individual OR manager to enroll for medical testing services for professional athletes. I will NOT be using the site as a query DB which anybody can view information stored within the database. The information is instead simply stored, and passed along in a CSV format to our network provider so they can use as needed after the fact. There are two possible scenarios: Scenario 1 - Individual Enrollment If an individual athlete chooses to enroll him/herself, they enter their personal information, submit their payment information (credit/bank account) for processing, and their information is stored in an online database as Athlete1. Scenario 2 - Manager Enrollment If a manager chooses to enroll several athletes he manages/ promotes for, he enters his personal information, then enters the personal information for each athlete he wishes to pay for (name, address, ssn, dob, etc), then submits payment information for ALL athletes he is enrolling. This number can range from 1 single athlete, up to 20 athletes per single enrollment (he can return and complete a follow up enrollment for additional athletes). Initially, I was building the database to house ALL information regardless of enrollment type in a single table which housed over 400 columns (think 20 athletes with over 10 fields per athlete such as name, dob, ssn, etc). Now that I think about it more, I believe create multiple tables (manager(s), athlete(s)) may be a better idea here but still not quite sure how to go about it for the following very important reasons: Issue 1 If I list the manager as the parent table, I am afraid the individual enrolling athlete will not show up in the primary table and will not be included in the overall registration file which needs to be sent on to the network providers. Issue 2 All athletes being enrolled by a manager are being stored in SESSION as F1FirstName, F2FirstName where F1 and F2 relate to the id of the fighter. I am not sure technically speaking how to store multiple pieces of information within the same table under separate rows using PHP. For example, all athleteswill have a first name. The very basic theory of what i am trying to do is: If number_of_athletes 1, store F1FirstName in row 1, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F1LastName in row 1, column 2 of Table "Athletes"; store F2FirstName in row 2, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F2LastName in row 2, column 2 of table "Athletes"; Does this make sense? I know this question is very long and probably difficult so i appreciate the guidance.

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  • REST and links: middle ground?

    - by pbean
    I've been wondering about how far to go with links in REST. Consider books which have authors, but there is obviously a many-to-many relationship between books an authors (a book can be written by multiple authors, and authors can write multiple books). So let's say we have a rest call http://server/book/21, which will return a book XML, containing information about an author. Now since the book is a resource, and the author is a resource, the XML should not straight up include all the author information. It should contain a link to the author information. But which of the below two examples is more widely accepted? (Excuse my crappy formatted XML, I am not that experienced with hand writing XML) <book> <title>Some Book</title> <authors> <author link="http://server/author/82">Some Guy</author> <author link="http://server/author/51">Some Other Guy</author> </authors> </book> Then, an author link would return more information: <author> <name>Some Guy</name> <dateOfBirth>some time</dateOfBirth> </author> Or: <book> <title>Some Book</title> <authors>http://server/book/21/authors</authors> </book> Where http://server/book/21/authors returns: <authors> <author link="http://server/author/82">Some Guy</author> <author link="http://server/author/51">Some Other Guy</author> </authors> And then each of those returns the former <author> example again. The reason I'm asking is basically because at my job they went with the second approach, and it seems to me that clients have to take many more steps to reach where they want to go. Also, for basic information which "you're always going to need" (author's name), you do have to take one additional step. On the other hand, that way the book resource only returns information about the book (nothing else), and to get anything else, you have to access other resources.

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  • Serialize JavaScript's navigator object

    - by kappa
    Hi, I'm creating a page to help diagnose the problem our users are experiencing with our web pages (you know, asking a user "What browser are you using?" usually leads to "Internet"). This page already submits to me all the HTTP headers and now I'm trying to have JavaScript give some more informations, so I thought it would be great to have the user's navigator JavaScript object and I started looking how to serialize it so I can submit it through a form. The problem is I'm not able to serialize the navigator object using any JSON library I know of, everyone returns an empty object (?!), so I decided to write an ad-hoc serializer. You can find the code here: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.5.0/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function serialize (object) { var type = typeof object; if (object === null) { return '"nullValue"'; } if (type == 'string' || type === 'number' || type === 'boolean') { return '"' + object + '"'; } else if (type === 'function') { return '"functionValue"'; } else if (type === 'object') { var output = '{'; for (var item in object) { if (item !== 'enabledPlugin') { output += '"' + item + '":' + serialize(object[item]) + ','; } } return output.replace(/\,$/, '') + '}'; } else if (type === 'undefined') { return '"undefinedError"'; } else { return '"unknownTypeError"'; } }; $(document).ready(function () { $('#navigator').text(serialize(navigator)); }); </script> <style type="text/css"> #navigator { font-family: monospaced; } </style> <title>Serialize</title> </head> <body> <h1>Serialize</h1> <p id="navigator"></p> </body> </html> This code seems to work perfectly in Firefox, Opera, Chrome and Safari but (obviously) doesn't work in Internet Explorer (at least version 8.0), it complains that "Property or method not supported by the object" at line for (var item in object) {. Do you have any hint on how to fix the code or how to reach the goal (serialize the navigator object) by other means?

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  • C++ Recursion Issue

    - by stupidmonkey
    Hi guys, I feel a little dumb asking this, but here we go... When trying to follow the Recursion example at the following website http://www.cplusplus.com/doc/tutorial/functions2/, I ran into a road bump that has me perplexed. I altered the code slightly just to get my head around the code in the recursion example and I pretty much have my head around it, but I can't figure out why the variable 'n' increments in 'Pass B' when I have not told the program to increment 'n'. Could you please help explain this? #include <stdlib.h> #include <iostream> using namespace std; long factorial (long n) { if (n > 1) { long r(0); cout << "Pass A" << endl; cout << "n = " << n << endl; cout << "r = " << r << endl; r = n * factorial (n-1); cout << "Pass B" << endl; cout << "n = " << n << endl; cout << "r = " << r << endl; return (r); } else return (1); } int main () { long number; cout << "Please type a number: "; cin >> number; cout << number << "! = " << factorial (number) << endl; system ("pause"); return 0; }

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  • What is the proper way to change the UINavigationController transition effect

    - by Felipe Sabino
    I have seen lots of people asking on how to push/pop UINavigationControllers using other animations besides the default one, like flip or curl. The problem is that either the question/answer was relative old, which means the have some things like [UIView beginAnimations:] (example here) or they use two very different approaches. The first is to use UIView's transitionFromView:toView:duration:options:completion: selector before pushing the controller (with the animation flag set to NO), like the following: UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [UIView transitionFromView:self.view toView:ctrl.view duration:1 options:UIViewAnimationOptionTransitionFlipFromTop completion:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; Another one is to use CoreAnimation explicitly with a CATransaction like the following: // remember you will have to have the QuartzCore framework added to your project for this approach and also add <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> to the class this code is used CATransition* transition = [CATransition animation]; transition.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseIn]; transition.duration = 1.0f; transition.type = @"flip"; transition.subtype = @"fromTop"; [self.navigationController.view.layer removeAllAnimations]; [self.navigationController.view.layer addAnimation:transition forKey:kCATransition]; UIViewController *ctrl = [[UIViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:ctrl animated:NO]; There are pros and cons for both approaches. The first approach gives me a much cleaner code but restricts me from using animations like "suckEffect", "cube" and others. The second approach feels wrong just by looking at it. It starts by using undocumented transitions types (i.e. not present in the Common transition types documentation from CATransition Class Reference) which might get your app rejected from App Store (I mean might as I could not found any reference of apps being rejected because it was using this transactions, which I would also appreciate any clarification on this matter), but it gives you much more flexibility on your animations, as I can use other animation types such as "cameraIris", "rippleEffect" and so on. Regarding all that, do I really need to appeal for QuartzCore and CoreAnimation whenever I need a fancier UINavigationController transition? Is there any other way to accomplish the same effect using only UIKit? If not, will the use of string values like "flip" and "cube" instead of the pre-defined constants (kCATransitionFade, kCATransitionMoveIn, etc...) be an issue regarding my app approval in the App Store? Also, are there other pros and cons regarding both approaches that could help me deciding whether to choose each one of them?

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  • How to fix OpenGL/SDL runtime error which is probobly caused by adding textures [closed]

    - by Arturs Lapins
    Hello I've recently worked with OpenGL and SDL and I was adding textures to my GL_QUADS and when I ran my program I came across with a runtime error. I've searched all over the internet for a fix but I couldn't find anything so I guess I had one more option. Asking here. So here is some of my code. int loadTexture(std::string fileName){ SDL_Surface *image=IMG_Load(fileName.c_str()); SDL_DisplayFormatAlpha(image); unsigned int id; glGenTextures(1,&id); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D,&id); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER,GL_NEAREST); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER,GL_NEAREST); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S,GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexParameterf(GL_TEXTURE_2D,GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T,GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D,0,GL_RGBA,image->w,image >h,0,GL_RGBA,GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE,image->pixels); SDL_FreeSurface(image); return id; } That's my loadTexture function. void init() { glClearColor(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); glMatrixMode(GL_PROJECTION); glLoadIdentity(); gluPerspective(45.0, 800.0 / 600.0, 1.0, 500.0); glMatrixMode(GL_MODELVIEW); glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); tex=loadTexture("test.png"); } That's my init function for OpenGL. Btw I have declared my tex variable. void render() { glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glLoadIdentity(); glTranslatef(0.0, 0.0, -10.0); glRotatef(rotation, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex); glBegin(GL_QUADS); glTexCoord2f(1.0, 0.0); glVertex3f(-2.0, 2.0, 0.0); glTexCoord2f(1.0, 1.0); glVertex3f(2.0, 2.0, 0.0); glTexCoord2f(1.0, 0.0); glVertex3f(2.0, -2.0, 0.0); glTexCoord2f(0.0, 0.0); glVertex3f(-2.0, -2.0, 0.0); glEnd(); } That's my render function for all my OpenGL render stuff... The render function is called in the main function which contains a game loop. Here is the runtime error when I run it with Visual C++ Unhandled exception at 0x004ffee9 in OpenGL Crap.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x05c90000. So I have only had this error when I added textures... ... So I found where the error occured it was at this line glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D,0,GL_RGBA,image->w,image->h,0,GL_RGBA,GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE,image->pixels); but I have totally no Idea what could it be. Update Only thanks to zero298

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  • how can we change the value by using radio buttons

    - by magna
    I am making a website in Adobe Dreamweaver with php. In the site there’s a 3 buttons for selecting payment method that will act as the continue button. What I want is when the user checks a radio buttons (I agree button), it will be add with that amount and display with previous amount.. there is three buttons which has the corresponding values(amount in pounds).. plz check my website http://www.spsmobile.co.uk in this linkgo to mobile phone unlocking and after add the cart click make payment it will go to next page there is a delivery mail details.. for that delivery mail details only am asking.. here i mentioned code: <input id="radio-1" type="radio" name="rmr" value="1"> <label for="radio-1">£3</label> <input id="radio-2" type="radio" name="rmr" value="2"> <label for="radio-2">£5.5</label> <input id="radio-3" type="radio" name="rmr" value="4"> <label for="radio-3">£10</label> <div class="total-text" style="font-size:36px">£10</div> var total = parseInt($("div.total-text").text().substring(1), 10); $("input[name='rmr']").bind('change', function() { var amount = 0; switch (this.value) { case "1": amount = 3; break; case "2": amount = 5.5; break; case "4": amount = 10; break; } $("div.total-text").text("£" + (total + amount)); }); but there is no change , my previous amount did not add with that. while am clicking previous amount only displayed on browser.. i need when i cliks radio button the value should change correspondingly.. where i did that mistake...plz give me some idea and what should i do..is there any need for storing db.. thanks in adv

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