Search Results

Search found 7097 results on 284 pages for 'calls'.

Page 209/284 | < Previous Page | 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216  | Next Page >

  • SHGetFolderPath returns path with question marks in it

    - by Colen
    Hi, Our application calls ShGetFolderPath when it runs, to get the My Documents folder. This normally works great. However, for three users - ???????, Jörg and Jörgen (see if you can spot the pattern!) - the call returns some very strange results. For example, for ???????, the call returns: c:\Users\???????\Documents I assume there's some sort of character encoding shenanigan going on here, possibly related to Unicode, but I don't have any experience with that sort of thing. How can I get a useful path to the folder (and other related folders) out of windows, without grovelling through registry keys for the information? In an email to me, ??????? ("Dmitry"), told me his "my documents" folder was actually located here: C:\Users\43D6~1\Documents So I know there's a way to get a "normal" version of the path out of Windows, I just don't know what it is. Background: Our application is not unicode-aware, and uses standard "char *" strings. How can we get the "normal" path? I'm not opposed to calling the "unicode" version of the function, then converting it to "normal" text, if that's possible. Converting the application entirely to use unicode is not an option here (we don't have the time). Thanks.

    Read the article

  • JS Object this.method() breaks via jQuery

    - by Peter Boughton
    I'm sure there's a simple answer to this, but it's Friday afternoon and I'm tired. :( Not sure how to explain it, so I'll just go ahead and post example code... Here is a simple object: var Bob = { Stuff : '' , init : function() { this.Stuff = arguments[0] } , doSomething : function() { console.log( this.Stuff ); } } And here it is being used: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready( init ); function init() { Bob.init('hello'); Bob.doSomething(); $j('#MyButton').click( Bob.doSomething ); } Everything works, except for the last line. When jQuery calls the doSomething method it is overriding 'this' and stopping it from working. Trying to use just Stuff doesn't work either. So how do I refer to an object's own properties in a way that allows jQuery to call it, and also allows the object to work with the calling jQuery object? i.e. I would like to be able to do things like this: doSomething : function() { console.log( <CurrentObject>.Stuff + $j(<CallerElement>).attr('id') ); } (Where <CurrentObject> and <CallerElement> are replaced with appropriate names.)

    Read the article

  • ArrayAdapter and android:textFilterEnabled

    - by TiGer
    Hi there, I have created a layout which includes a ListView... The data shown within this ListView isn't too complicated, it's mostly an Array which is passed when the extended Activity is started... The rows themselves exist out of an icon and a text, thus an ImageView and a TextView... To fill up the ListView I use an ArrayAdapter simply because an Array is passed containing all the text-items that should be shown.. Now I'd like to actually be able to filter those, thus I found the android:textFilterEnabled paramater to add on the ListView xml declaration... Now a search field is shown nicely but when I enter some letters it won't filter but it will simply delete the whole list... I found out that that's because the textfilter has no idea what it should filter... So now my question is : I know I need to tell the textfilter what it should filter, I also still have my array filled with the text that should get filtered so how do i couple those two ??? I have seen examples extending a CursorAdapter, but again, I don't have a Cursor, I don't want to do calls to a DB I want to re-utilize my Array with data and obviously the ArrayAdapter itself so that the data will be represented decently on screen (i.e with my ImageView and TextView layout)... Thanks in advance for any help/pointers/tips/code...

    Read the article

  • Read HTML file into email

    - by cast01
    Ive written a script to send html emails and all works well. I have the email stored in a separate HTML file which is then read in usin a while loop and fgets(). However, i want to be able to pass variables into the html. For example, in a html file i may have something like.. <body> Dear Name <br/> Thank you for your recent purhcase </body> and i read this into a string like so $file = fopen($filename, "r"); while(!feof($file)) { $html.= fgets($file, 4096); } fclose ($file); I want to be able to replace "Name" in the html file by a variable and im not entirely sure on the best way to do this. I could always make my own tag and then use regex to replace that with the name once ive read the file into the string, but im wondering if there is a better/easier method to do this. (On a side note, if anyone knows whether its better to use file_get_contents instead of multiple calls to fgets, id be interested to know)

    Read the article

  • How to make a big switch control structure with variable check values?

    - by mystify
    For example, I have a huge switch control structure with a few hundred checks. They're an animation sequence, which is numbered from 0 to n. Someone said I can't use variables with switch. What I need is something like: NSInteger step = 0; NSInteger i = 0; switch (step) { case i++: // do stuff break; case i++: // do stuff break; case i++: // do stuff break; case i++: // do stuff break; } The point of this is, that the animation system calls a method with this big switch structure, giving it a step number. I want to be able to simply cut-copy-paste large blocks and put them in a different position inside the switch. for example, the first 50 blocks to the end. I could do that easily with a huge if-else structure, but it would look ugly and something tells me switch is much faster. How to?

    Read the article

  • Avoiding anemic domain model - a real example

    - by cbp
    I am trying to understand Anemic Domain Models and why they are supposedly an anti-pattern. Here is a real world example. I have an Employee class, which has a ton of properties - name, gender, username, etc public class Employee { public string Name { get; set; } public string Gender { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } // Etc.. mostly getters and setters } Next we have a system that involves rotating incoming phone calls and website enquiries (known as 'leads') evenly amongst sales staff. This system is quite complex as it involves round-robining enquiries, checking for holidays, employee preferences etc. So this system is currently seperated out into a service: EmployeeLeadRotationService. public class EmployeeLeadRotationService : IEmployeeLeadRotationService { private IEmployeeRepository _employeeRepository; // ...plus lots of other injected repositories and services public void SelectEmployee(ILead lead) { // Etc. lots of complex logic } } Then on the backside of our website enquiry form we have code like this: public void SubmitForm() { var lead = CreateLeadFromFormInput(); var selectedEmployee = Kernel.Get<IEmployeeLeadRotationService>() .SelectEmployee(lead); Response.Write(employee.Name + " will handle your enquiry. Thanks."); } I don't really encounter many problems with this approach, but supposedly this is something that I should run screaming from because it is an Anemic Domain Model. But for me its not clear where the logic in the lead rotation service should go. Should it go in the lead? Should it go in the employee? What about all the injected repositories etc that the rotation service requires - how would they be injected into the employee, given that most of the time when dealing with an employee we don't need any of these repositories?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to iterate over a large result set in JDBC/iBatis 3?

    - by paul_sns
    We're trying to iterate over a large number of rows from the database and convert those into objects. Behavior will be as follows: Result will be sorted by sequence id, a new object will be created when sequence id changes. The object created will be sent to an external service and will sometimes have to wait before sending another one (which means the next set of data will not be immediately used) We already have invested code in iBatis 3 so an iBatis solution will be the best approach for us (we've tried using RowBounds but haven't seen how it does the iteration under the hood). We'd like to balance minimizing memory usage and reducing number of DB trips. We're also open to pure JDBC approach but we'd like the solution to work on different databases. UPDATE: We need to make as few calls to DB as possible (1 call would be the ideal scenario) while also preventing the application to use too much memory. Are there any other solutions out there for this type of problem may it be pure JDBC or any other technology? Thanks and hope to hear your insights on this.

    Read the article

  • [Java] Nested methods vs "piped" methods, which is better?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi: Since uni, I've programming in Java for 3 years, although I am not fully dedicated to this language, I have spent quite some time in it, nevertheless. I understand both ways, just curious which style do you prefer. public class Test{ public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println(getAgent().getAgentName()); } private static Agent getAgent() { return new Agent(); }} class Agent{ private String getAgentName() { return "John Smith"; }} I am pretty happy with nested method calls such like the following public class Test{ public static void main(String[] args) { getAgentName(getAgent()); } private static void getAgentName(Agent agent) { System.out.println(agent.getName()); } private static Agent getAgent() { return new Agent(); }} class Agent { public String getName(){ return "John Smith"; }} They have identical output I saw "John Smith" twice. I wonder, if one way of doing this has better performance or other advantages over the other. Personally I prefer the latter, since for nested methods I can certainly tell which starts first, and which is after. The above code is but a sample, The code that I am working with now is much more complicated, a bit like a maze... So switching between the two styles often blows my head in no time.

    Read the article

  • Delay before playing embedded mp3 in Actionscript / Flex 3

    - by lacker
    I am embedding an mp3 into my Flex project for use as a sound effect, but I am finding that every time I play it, there is a delay of about half a second from when I call .play() to when you can hear the sound. This makes it weird because I want the sound effects to sync to game events. My mp3 itself is only about a fifth of a second long so it isn't because of the contents of the mp3. I'm embedding with [Embed(source="assets/Tock.mp3")] [Bindable] public static var TockSound:Class; public var tock_sound:SoundAsset; and then playing with if (tock_sound == null) { tock_sound = new TockSound() as SoundAsset; } Alert.show("tock"); tock_sound.play(); I know there's a delay because the sound plays about a half second after the Alert displays. I did consider that maybe it was the initial loading time of constructing the TockSound, but the delay is there on all the subsequent calls as well. How can I avoid this delay on playing a sound? Update: It turns out this delay is only present when playing the swf on Linux. I believe it is a Linux-specific flaw in Adobe's flash player.

    Read the article

  • Playing wave file ends immediatly (C++, Windows)

    - by TyBoer
    I've got a following situation. On a machine there is a Fritz ISDN card. There is a process that is responsible for playing a certain wave file on this device's wave out (ISDN connection is made at startup and made persistent). The scenario is easy, whenever needed the process calls waveOutWrite() on the previously opened wave device (everything initialized without any problems of course) and a callback function waits for MMWOMDONE msg to know that the playback has been finished. Since a few days however (nothing changed neither in the process nor the machine) the MMWOMDONE message comes immediately after calling waveOutWrite() even though the wave lasts a couple of seconds. Again no error is reported, it looks like the file was played but had zero length (which is not the case). I am also sure that waveOutReset() was not called by my process (it would also trigger sending the mentioned message). I already used to have some strange problems in the past that where solved simply by reinstalling TAPI drivers. This time for some reason it is problematic form me to perform that once again and am trying more analytical approach :). Any suggestions what might cause such a behavior? Maybe sth on the other end of the ISDN line?

    Read the article

  • How to tell axis2 to use an existing object as a service?

    - by Christian Hausknecht
    I am trying to expose some methods of a running application as a webservice. The core idea is to use an embedded web-server and send the soap messages to the apache axis2 framework in order to invoke the services. The problem is, that axis2's createService methods only accept Classes as parameter, not existing objects. So I believe that axis2 itself creates an object of the service class and then uses it to call methods when an external service call arrives. But I need to pass an existing object for being used as a service, because I need to call methods of other objects of the running application within the service methods. So the "standard" way that axis2 creates a new instance of the service class and calls then its methods is obviously no sulution for me. So is there a way to realize this? Or is there another solution? Perhaps you can pass objects later on to the allready created service object by axis2? If there is another solution without axis2 I might consider that one. Basically I am only interested in exposing some functionality of a runnning application as a webservice.

    Read the article

  • Running ASP / ASP.NET markup outside of a web application (perhaps with MVC)

    - by Frank Schwieterman
    Is there a way to include some aspx/ascx markup in a DLL and use that to generate text dynamically? I really just want to pass a model instance to a view and get the produced html as a string. Similar to what you might do with an XSLT transform, except the transform input is a CLR object rather than an XML document. A second benefit is using the ASP.NET code-behind markup which is known by most team members. One way to achieve this would be to load the MVC view engine in-process and perhaps have it use an ASPX file from a resource. It seems like I could call into just the ViewEngine somehow and have it generate a ViewEngineResult. I don't know ASP.NET MVC well enough though to know what calls to make. I don't think this would be possible with classic ASP or ASP.NET as the control model is so tied to the page model, which doesn't exist in this case. Using something like SparkViewEngine in isolation would be cool too, though not as useful since other team members wouldn't know the syntax. At that point I might as well use XSLT (yes I am looking for a clever way to avoid XSLT).

    Read the article

  • Debugging unexpected error message - possible memory management problem?

    - by Ben Packard
    I am trying to debug an application that is throwing up strange (to my untutored eyed) errors. When I try to simply log the count of an array... NSLog(@"Array has %i items", [[self startingPlayers] count]); ...I sometimes get an error: -[NSCFString count]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1002af600 or other times -[NSConcreteNotification count]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1002af600 I am not sending 'count' to any NSString or NSNotification, and this line of code works fine normally. A Theory... Although the error varies, the crash happens at predictable times, immediately after I have run through some other code where I'm thinking I might have a memory management issue. Is it possible that the object reference is still pointing to something that is meant to be destroyed? Sorry if my terms are off, but perhaps it's expecting the array at the address it calls 'count' on, but finds another previous object that shouldn't still be there (eg an NSString)? Would this cause the problem? If so, what is the most efficient way to debug and find out what is that address? Most of my debugging up until now involves inserting NSLogs, so this would be a good opportunity to learn how to use the debugger.

    Read the article

  • Why is this SocketException not caught by a generic catch routine?

    - by Tarnschaf
    Our company provides a network component (DLL) for a GUI application. It uses a Timer that checks for disconnections. If it wants to reconnect, it calls: internal void timClock_TimerCallback(object state) { lock (someLock) { // ... try { DoConnect(); } catch (Exception e) { // Log e.Message omitted // Raise event with e as parameter ErrorEvent(this, new ErrorEventArgs(e)); DoDisconnect(); } // ... } } So the problem is, inside of the DoConnect() routine a SocketException is thrown (and not caught). I would assume, that the catch (Exception e) should catch ALL exceptions but somehow the SocketException was not caught and shows up to the GUI application. protected void DoConnect() { // client = new TcpClient(); client.NoDelay = true; // In the following call the SocketException is thrown client.Connect(endPoint.Address.ToString(), endPoint.Port); // ... (login stuff) } The doc confirmed that SocketException extends Exception. The stacktrace that showed up is: TcpClient.Connect() -> DoConnect() -> timClock_TimerCallback So the exception is not thrown outside the try/catch block. Any ideas why it doesn't work?

    Read the article

  • Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

    - by Graham
    All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

    Read the article

  • html - selection range - getting the range + starting node + ending node + distance

    - by sugar
    From my previous question for selecting specific html text, I have gone through this link to understand range in html string. Actually I am confused here very much. My question is as follows. For selecting a specific text on html page. We need to follow this steps. assumed html <h4 id="entry1196"><a href="http://radar.oreilly.com/archives/2007/03/call_for_a_blog_1.html" class="external">Call for a Blogger's Code of Conduct</a></h4> <p>Tim O'Reilly calls for a Blogger Code of Conduct. His proposals are:</p> <ol> <li>Take responsibility not just for your own words, but for the comments you allow on your blog.</li> <li>Label your tolerance level for abusive comments.</li> <li>Consider eliminating anonymous comments.</li> </ol> java script to make selection by range var range = document.createRange(); // create range var startPar = [the p node]; // starting parameter var endLi = [the second li node]; // ending parameter range.setStart(startPar,13); // distance from starting parameter. range.setEnd(endLi,17); // distance from ending parameter range.select(); // this statement will make selection I want to do this in invert way. I mean, assume that selection is done by user on browser (safari). My question is that How can we get starting node ( as we have 'the p node' here ) & ending node ( as we have 'the second li node' here ) and the range as well (as we have 13,17 here) ? Please help me. Thanks in advance for sharing your great knowledge. Sagar

    Read the article

  • Is it safe to reuse javax.xml.ws.Service objects

    - by Noel Ang
    I have JAX-WS style web service client that was auto-generated with the NetBeans IDE. The generated proxy factory (extends javax.xml.ws.Service) delegates proxy creation to the various Service.getPort methods. The application that I am maintaining instantiates the factory and obtains a proxy each time it calls the targetted service. Creating the new proxy factory instances repeatedly has been shown to be expensive, given that the WSDL documentation supplied to the factory constructor, an HTTP URI, is re-retrieved for each instantiation. We had success in improving the performance by caching the WSDL. But this has ugly maintenance and packaging implications for us. I would like to explore the suitability of caching the proxy factory itself. Is it safe, e.g., can two different client classes, executing on the same JVM and targetting the same web service, safely use the same factory to obtain distinct proxy objects (or a shared, reentrant one)? I've been unable to find guidance from either the JAX-WS specification nor the javax.xml.ws API documentation. The factory-proxy multiplicity is unclear to me. Having Service.getPort rather than Service.createPort does not inspire confidence.

    Read the article

  • How to properly use references with variadic templates

    - by Hippicoder
    I have something like the following code: template<typename T1, typename T2, typename T3> void inc(T1& t1, T2& t2, T3& t3) { ++t1; ++t2; ++t3; } template<typename T1, typename T2> void inc(T1& t1, T2& t2) { ++t1; ++t2; } template<typename T1> void inc(T1& t1) { ++t1; } I'd like to reimplement it using the proposed variadic templates from the upcoming standard. However all the examples I've seen so far online seem to be printf like examples, the difference here seems to be the use of references. I've come up with the following: template<typename T> void inc(T&& t) { ++t; } template<typename T,typename ... Args> void inc(T&& t, Args&& ... args) { ++t inc(args...); } What I'd like to know is: Should I be using r-values instead of references? Possible hints or clues as to how to accomplish what I want correctly. What guarantees does the new proposed standard provide wrt the issue of the recursive function calls, is there some indication that the above variadic version will be as optimal as the original? (should I add inline or some-such?)

    Read the article

  • Why do I get CA1806 when I catch exception in C++/CLI?

    - by brickner
    I've recently upgraded my project from Visual Studio 2008 to Visual Studio 2010. By enabling Code Analysis and compiling in Release, I'm getting warning CA1806: Do not ignore method results. I've managed to reduce the code that produces the warning to this code: .h file: public ref class Foo { public: void Bar(); }; .cpp file: void Foo::Bar() { try { } catch (const std::exception&) // here I get the warning { } } the warning: CA1806 : Microsoft.Usage : 'Foo::Bar(void)' calls 'Global::__CxxRegisterExceptionObject(void*, void*)' but does not use the HRESULT or error code that the method returns. This could lead to unexpected behavior in error conditions or low-resource situations. Use the result in a conditional statement, assign the result to a variable, or pass it as an argument to another method. If I try to use the exception value or do catch(...) the warning still appears. If I catch managed exceptions instead or compile in Debug I don't get the warning. Why do I get this warning? UPDATE I've decided to open a bug report on Microsoft Connect.

    Read the article

  • Creating Multiple TextFields in runtime AS2

    - by ortho
    Hi lads, I have an issue generating multiple text fields in AS2. My AS2 Flash application calls database (via PHP) and then receives XML file that contains a few objects. All I want to do is to loop throught this XML objects and then create a TextField (actually a Component that contains graphics and TextField, but this will come later) based on the information from XML object. I know that I can create something like: _root.createTextField("myText1",1,0,0,100,20); myText1.text = "this is text ONE"; _root.createTextField("myText2",2,0,30,100,20); myText2.text = "this is text TWO"; which will result in 2 text fields, but the problem is when I try to create it dynamicly (e.g. I have item: myNode[0].attributes.name (but when I use it in: _root.createTextField(myNode[0].attributes.name, 1, 0, 0, 100, 20), then I got compile error). var myXML:XML = new XML(); myXML.ignoreWhite=true; myXML.load("tekst.xml"); var tekst:String = new String(); myXML.onLoad = function(success){ if (success){ var myNode = myXML.firstChild.childNodes; for (i=0; i trace("height: "+myNode[i].attributes.height); trace("color: "+myNode[i].attributes.color); trace(myNode[i].firstChild.nodeValue); } } } This actualy traces the values and I can actualy use them when creating the component, but it doesn't create the component that has the same name (obviously both instances point to the same object so the last is only visible). Please help, I tried many things, but no joy. Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • MySQL efficiency as it relates to the database/table size

    - by mlissner
    I'm building a system using django, Sphinx and MySQL that's very quickly becoming quite large. The database currently has about 2000 rows, and I've written a program that's going to populate it with another 40,000 rows in a couple days. Since the database is live right now, and since I've never had a database with this much information in it, I'm worried about some things: Is adding all these rows going to seriously degrade the efficiency of my django app? Will I need to go back through it and optimize all my database calls so they're doing things more cleverly? Or will this make the database slow all around to the extent that I can't do anything about it at all? If you scoff at my 40k rows, then, my next question is, at what point SHOULD I be concerned? I will likely be adding another couple hundred thousand soon, so I worry, and I fret. How is sphinx going to feel about all this? Is it going to freak out when it realizes it has to index all this data? Or will it be fine? Is this normal for it? If it is, at what point should I be concerned that it's too much data for Sphinx? Thanks for any thoughts.

    Read the article

  • Integrating legacy Ajax script in CakePHP

    - by octavian
    Hi, I have a legacy script that I would like to integrate in a cakephp app. The script makes use of $_POST and such and since I'm quite a noob I would need some help for the integration. Here is how the script looks like: THE JAVASCRIPT: prototype.js builder.js (these two are from the prototype fw) lib.js (makes a ajax requests to remote.php) THE PHP remote.php (contains FastJSON class and $_POST vars) if ($_POST['cmd'] == 'SAVETEAM' && $_POST['info']) { $INFO = json_decode(str_replace('\"', '"', $_POST['info'])); $nr = 1; $SORT = array($INFO->GK, $INFO->DEF, $INFO->MID, $INFO->FOR, $INFO->RZ); foreach ($SORT as $STD) foreach ($STD as $v) mysql_query("UPDATE players_teams SET fieldposition = ".$nr++." WHERE player_id = {$v->player_id} AND team_id = {$v->team_id}") or die(mysql_error()); // CAPTAION mysql_query("UPDATE `teams` SET captain = '{$_POST['captain']}' WHERE `user_id` = {$_POST['userid']}") or die(mysql_error()); } transfers.php (containts the form that uses the javascript and link to the JS) I have really no idea how to structure the files and calls in cakephp. Currently I have "Undefined index: cmd [APP/vendors/remote.php, line 230]" errors since I use $_POST['cmd'] (I placed remote.php in Vendors and included it, the JS was just included old fashion way, as a link and appears in the source code). How can I make this work? I'm sorry but I'm not familiar with AJAX and Cake... If you want a full look at the code, here it is: http://octavian.be/thecode.zip Thank you for reading and helping me out.

    Read the article

  • How is a relative JMP (x86) implemented in an Assembler?

    - by Pindatjuh
    While building my assembler for the x86 platform I encountered some problems with encoding the JMP instruction: enc inst size in bytes EB cb JMP rel8 2 E9 cw JMP rel16 4 (because of 0x66 16-bit prefix) E9 cd JMP rel32 5 ... (from my favourite x86 instruction website, http://siyobik.info/index.php?module=x86&id=147) All are relative jumps, where the size of each encoding (operation + operand) is in the third column. Now my original (and thus fault because of this) design reserved the maximum (5 bytes) space for each instruction. The operand is not yet known, because it's a jump to a yet unknown location. So I've implemented a "rewrite" mechanism, that rewrites the operands in the correct location in memory, if the location of the jump is known, and fills the rest with NOPs. This is a somewhat serious concern in tight-loops. Now my problem is with the following situation: b: XXX c: JMP a e: XXX ... XXX d: JMP b a: XXX (where XXX is any instruction, depending on the to-be assembled program) The problem is that I want the smallest possible encoding for a JMP instruction (and no NOP filling). I have to know the size of the instruction at c before I can calculate the relative distance between a and b for the operand at d. The same applies for the JMP at c: it needs to know the size of d before it can calculate the relative distance between e and a. How do existing assemblers implement this, or how would you implement this? This is what I am thinking which solves the problem: First encode all the instructions to opcodes between the JMP and it's target, and if this region contains a variable-sized opcode, use the maximum size, i.e. 5 for JMP. Then in some conditions, the JMP is oversized (because it may fit in a smaller encoding): so another pass will search for oversized JMPs, shrink them, and move all instructions ahead), and set absolute branching instructions (i.e. external CALLs) after this pass is completed. I wonder, perhaps this is an over-engineered solution, that's why I ask this question.

    Read the article

  • How to find the first declaring method for a reference method

    - by Oliver Gierke
    Suppose you have a generic interface and an implementation: public interface MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param); } public class MyImplementation<T> implements MyInterface<T> { void foo(T param) { } } These two types are frework types. In the next step I want allow users to extend that interface as well as redeclare foo(T param) to maybe equip it with further annotations. public interface MyExtendedInterface extends MyInterface<Bar> { @Override void foo(Bar param); // Further declared methods } I create an AOP proxy for the extended interface and intercept especially the calls to furtherly declared methods. As foo(…) is no redeclared in MyExtendedInterface I cannot execute it by simply invoking MethodInvocation.proceed() as the instance of MyImplementation only implements MyInterface.foo(…) and not MyExtendedInterface.foo(…). So is there a way to get access to the method that declared a method initially? Regarding this example is there a way to find out that foo(Bar param) was declared in MyInterface originally and get access to the accoriding Method instance? I already tried to scan base class methods to match by name and parameter types but that doesn't work out as generics pop in and MyImplementation.getMethod("foo", Bar.class) obviously throws a NoSuchMethodException. I already know that MyExtendedInterface types MyInterface to Bar. So If I could create some kind of "typed view" on MyImplementation my math algorithm could work out actually.

    Read the article

  • getting expat to use .dtd for entity replacement in python

    - by nicolas78
    I'm trying to read in an xml file which looks like this <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <!DOCTYPE dblp SYSTEM "dblp.dtd"> <dblp> <incollection> <author>Jos&eacute; A. Blakeley</author> </incollection> </dblp> The point that creates the problem looks is the Jos&eacute; A. Blakeley part: The parser calls its character handler twice, once with "Jos", once with " A. Blakeley". Now I understand this may be the correct behaviour if it doesn't know the eacute entity. However, this is defined in the dblp.dtd, which I have. I don't seem to be able to convince expat to use this file, though. All I can say is p = xml.parsers.expat.ParserCreate() # tried with and without following line p.SetParamEntityParsing(xml.parsers.expat.XML_PARAM_ENTITY_PARSING_ALWAYS) p.UseForeignDTD(True) f = open(dblp_file, "r") p.ParseFile(f) but expat still doesn't recognize my entity. Why is there no way to tell expat which DTD to use? I've tried putting the file into the same directory as the XML putting the file into the program's working directory replacing the reference in the xml file by an absolute path What am I missing? Thx.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216  | Next Page >